UGC NET 2015 June Commerce Paper 2
Q. 1 The first worlds electronic stock market is
A. KOSPI
B. Nikkie
C. Nas DAQ
D. Dow jones
Q. 2 The human development index (HDI) is introduced by
A. UNDP
B. UNICEF
C. IMF
D. World bank
Q. 3 Examine the following statements and choose the correct code ;
Assertion (A) : American style option , compared to European style provides more freedom to option holders in excersising the options.
Reason(R): American style option can be exercised only at a specific date which is generally the expiration date
A. Both A and R are correct
B. Both A and R are wrong
C. A is correct , but R is wrong
D. A is wrong , but R is correct
Q. 4 From the statements given below identify the correct code ;
I.The key strategy behind acquiring a company is to create share holder’s value
II. Conglmeration is the merger between 2 companies that have common business areas
III. MRTP act gor replaced by competition act ,2002 in India
A. All three statements are correct
B. statements I and II are correct
C. statements I and III are correct
D. statements II is only correct
Q. 5 From the following identify the tools of fiscal policy ;
I. Public expenditures
II. Open market operations
III.Deficit finances
IV.Taxation
V. Reserve requirements
A. I , III , IV and V
B. I , II , IV and V
C. II and V
D. I , III , V
Q. 6 The basic diference between a static budget and a flexible budget is that :
A. A flexible budget considers only variable costs but a static budget considers all costs
B. A flexible budget allows management latitude in meeting goals , where as static
budget is based on fixed standards.
C. A flexible budget is applicable for single department only but static budget is
applicable for the entire facility
D. A flexible budget can be prepared for any production level within a revelant range but static budget is based on specific level of production
Q. 7 A retiring partner continous to be liable for obligations for incurred after his retirement :
A. if unpaid amount is transferred to his loan account
B. If he does not give public notice
C. if he starts similar business elsewhere
D. in all the situations till he survives
Q. 8 In what order the following assets are shown in the balance sheet of a company
I.Trade receivables
II.Cash
III.Furniture fittings
Iv. Investment in shares and debentures
A. II , I , IV ,III
B. I , II , III IV
C. III IV I , II
D. IV ,III,II , I
Q. 9 When opening stock is R. 50,000 and closing stock is rs.60,000 and the cost of goods sold is Rs.2,20,000 the stock turnover ratio is :
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times
Q. 10 If stock ratio is 6 times
Average stock is Rs.8,000
Seling price = above 25% cost
What is the amount of gross profit ?
A. Rs. 2,000
B. Rs, 4000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 12,000
Q. 11 A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has
A. equal slopes of price demand curve
B. price elasticity equal to unity
C. varying price elasticity
D. both slope and price elasticity equal
Q. 12 In case of short run equilibrium , a perfectly competitive firm while earning abnormal profits operates at an output level where :
A. Marginal cost is minimum
B. Average cost is minimum
C. Both Marginal cost and Average cost are equal
D. Marginal cost is higher than Average cost
Q. 13 Which one of the following statements is false ?
A. Normally a price demand curve slopes downwards from left to right
B. Economies of scale and economies of scope are same
C. For optimization , equaity between marginal cost and marginal curve revenue is
necessary condition but its not a sufficinet one.
D. LAw of variable proportion denotes input- output relationship during short -run
Q. 14 Match the items in List – I with the items in List – II and indicate the correct code
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 15 The following are the demand and supply equations in a perfectly competitive market:
P = 12 + 0.3 Qₛ
P = 40 – 0.4 Q6
The equilibrium market price would be
A. 24
B. 10
C. 40
D. 20
Q. 16 Which of the following is not an accounting software package ?
A. quick books
B. sage one
C. sage M
D. sage 50
Q. 17 Which one of the following formula is used to calculate probable error pf co-relation – coefficient between 2 variables on n pairs of observations ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 18 If the population is heterogenous ,which one of the following is probability sampling methods is more appropriate ?
A. sequential sampling
B. quota sampling
C. double sampling
D. stratified sampling
Q. 19 Which of the following relating to normal distribution are not correct ?
I . coefficient of skewness is three
II. it is mesokuritic
III.Mean deviation for it is 2/3σ
Iv. μ±2σ covers 95.46% area .
V.mean , median and mode are equal
Vi.The standard normal variate Z has mean one and SD zero
A. I , III , IV
B. III , IV ,V
C. I , III , V
D. I , III , VI
Q. 20 Which one of the following statements is false ?
A. Both co-relation and regression coeffiecients have same sign
B. arithematic mean of the regression coefficients is always more than the corelation coeffiecinet
C. regression coeffiecients are independent of both the origin and scale
D. corelation coeffiecinet is the sqaure root of 2 regression coeffiecients
Q. 21 Match the items of List-I with List-II
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 22 Assertion (A) : managemnet is only associated with economic affairs
Reason (R) :Big business houses are the result of effective financial management
A. A is correct and R is the right exlpaination of A
B. A is correct and R is not the right exlpaination of A
C. A is incorrect but R is in isolation
D. Both A and R are incorrect
Q. 23 Areas of establishing objectives under MBO are :
I. market standing
II. innovation
III Industrail relations
IV. Public Accountability
V. Productivity
VI.Industrial policy
A. III , IV , V , VI
B. I, II ,IV ,V
C. I, II ,V ,VI
D. II , III ,Iv, VI
Q. 24 Match the items of List-I with List-II
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 25 Narayan murthy committee revised its recommondatios on corporate governance on 29th oct 2004 which diluted the following areas
I . Independence of directives
II. Whistle bowler policy
III.Performance evaluation of non -executive directors
IV.mandatory tarining of non -executive directors
A. I , II , III only
B. I and, III only
C. I , II , IV only
D. all of them
Q. 26 The service marketing mix is an extended marketing mix and it includes :
I.People
II. Process
III.Service
IV. Physical evidence
A. II , III IV
B. I, II ,III
C. I , II IV
D. I , III IV
Q. 27 Black box model in marketing relates to :
A. marketing planning
B. marketing mix
C. marketing control
D. consumer behavioir
Q. 28 Items , considered part of augmented product , do not include :
A. guarentee
B. warrantee
C. complementory products
D. channels of distribution
Q. 29 Which one is not a type of direct marketing ?
A. direct mail marketing
B. retail marketing
C. telemarketing
D. email direct marketing
Q. 30 press release is a part of :
A. public relations
B. advertsising
C. sales promotion
D. none of the above
Q. 31 In capital budgeting , the term capital rationing implies :
A. that no retained earnings are avaialble
B. that limited funds are available for investment
C. that no external funds can be raised
D. that no fresh investment is required in current year
Q. 32 In certainly equivalent approach , adjusted cash flows are discounted at :
A. Accounting rate of return
B. internal rate of return
C. hurdle rate
D. risk free rate
Q. 33 Combined levareage is calculated as
A. operating leverage + financial leverage
B. operating leverage – financial leverage
C. operating leverage x financial leverage
D. operating leverage / financial leverage
Q. 34 Which one of the following is not true with respect to the capital budgeting ?
A. capital budgeting is related to asset replacement decisions
B. cost of capital is eqaul to minimum required return
C. existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost
D. timing of cash flows is relevant
Q. 35 What is economic quantity order ?
A. cost of order
B. cost of stock
C. recorder level
D. optimum order size
Q. 36 Which of the following is not a basic objective of HRM ?
A. to attract HR into organisation
B. To develop and motivate HR for better performance
C. To have a reward and punishment for HR
D. To integrate and maintain HR in the organisation
Q. 37 What is gare hiring ?
A. to select people who approach on their own for employment in the organisation
B. to select people who are recommended by the employees
C. to select people from public employement exchanges
D. to select people supplied by labour contarctors
Q. 38 Matching essential managers and essential positions is a step inthe process of :
A. career cycle
B. succession planning
C. career planning
D. career stages
Q. 39 The barriers of effective performance appraisal are :
I . psychological blocks of managers
II. faulty assumptions of parties concerned
III. technical pitfalls
IV. faulty written communications
A. All are correct
B. Only II and III are correct
C. Only I and II are correct
D. Only I, II and III are correct
Q. 40 Who has developed the systems approach of industrial relations ?
A. john dunlop
B. garry s. becker
C. michael J.Jucius
D. edwin B. Flippo
Q. 41 In 1992 , the banking sector reforms were introduced as per :
A. C. Rangarajan committee report
B. M . Narasimhan committee report
C. suresh tendulkar committee report
D. sukhamoy chakraborty committee report
Q. 42 For the purpose of extending rural banking and agro finance , the NABARD :
A. Directly lends and monitors and rural borrowers
B. refinances the banks extending rural finance
C. refinances the rural borrowers obtaining credit from banks
D. directly finances the rural borrowers and gets refinances from government
Q. 43 When RBI grants loan to commercial banks and charges interest on it , it is called :
A. rapo rate
B. reverse rapo rate
C. sweep stack rate , basic rate
D. bank rate
Q. 44 E- banking business is essentially regulated by the information technology act 2000 , under which personal signature is replaced by :
A. encrypted signature
B. image signature
C. digital signature
D. online signature
Q. 45 In order to control infaltion and ensure stability in money market :
A. The RBI works under direction of ministry of finance, governmnet of India
B. The RBI works independenly and can refuse the government directive
C. The RBI acts under the board of directors
D. The RBI’s board of govrners shall abide by the goevernment directive
Q. 46 In respect of international business , a project is called a turnkey project because :
A. The license agrees to construct an entire plant in his hoem country and hands over the key
B. The licensor starts the operation and hands over the key of operating plant to the
licensee
C. The licensor starts the operation and then invites the licensee and hands over the key to complete the remaining work
D. The licensor and the licensee jointly carry out the projcet and agree to share profit eqaully
Q. 47 Match the items in List-I with the items in List-II
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 48 Assertion (A) : The member nations consistently finding balance of payments crisis, may approach the world bank seeking financial accomdation to mitigate the crisis.
Reason (R) : The member nations facing balance of payment crisis can appraoch the IMF seeking redressal of the BOP crisis.
A. A is correct and R is the correct explainataion of A
B. A is correct but R is wrong
C. R is correct but A is wrong
D. Both are worng
Q. 49 In computation of balance payments overall payments of balance equals to :
A. Balance of current account + Balance of capital account+ statistical discrepency
B. Export of goods and invisbles – import of goods
C. foreign exchnage inflow -foreign exchnage outflow
D. Export of goods and invisbles +import of goods and invisbles
Q. 50 The instrument choosen for enhancement of international liquidity is :
A. Society for wild wide inter bank financial telecommuninactions
B. special driving balls
C. multilateral nettting
D. netting of payments
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | C | A | C | C | D | D | B | C | C | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | B | D | B | C | A | C | A | D | A | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | C | B | D | D | C | D | D | B | A |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | D | C | C | D | C | A | B | D | A |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | B | B | C | C | A | B |