निर्देश (1 – 4) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।
आठ व्यक्ति अर्थात् A, B, C, D, E, F, G और H अलग-अलग पदों अर्थात् टाइपिस्ट, क्लर्क, एसएससी, FA, प्रशासक, प्रबंधक, सीईओ और सीएमडी पद पर काम करते हैं लेकिन आवश्यक नहीं है कि इसी क्रम में हो। ये पदनाम बढ़ते क्रम में हैं चूंकि सीएमडी सबसे वरिष्ठ पद है और टाइपिस्ट सबसे कनिष्ठतम पद है। इनमें से प्रत्येक तीन अलग अलग शहरों अर्थात् दिल्ली, हैदराबाद और मुंबई में काम करते हैं। इन लोगों के बीच कुछ रक्त संबंध है
और केवल चार महिलाएं हैं। पति और पत्नी एक ही शहर में काम नहीं करते हैं। F, G से वरिष्ठ है। E टाइपिस्ट से वरिष्ठ है और प्रशासक की बहन है लेकिन अपनी बहन के साथ काम नहीं करती है। A, एसएससी से वरिष्ठ है और उस व्यक्ति की पत्नी है, जो मुंबई में काम करता है। प्रबंधक का विवाह प्रशासक से हुआ है और वह सीईओ के साथ काम नहीं करता है। D, एसएससी से कनिष्ठ है। सीएमडी का विवाह B से हुआ है, जो सीईओ के रूप में काम करता है और मुंबई में काम नहीं करता है। वह, जो टाइपिस्ट के रूप में काम करता है, वह हैदराबाद में काम नहीं करता है। C, FA से वरिष्ठ है। H, प्रबंधक से वरिष्ठ है। टाइपिस्ट FA की मां है। सीईओ, FA की बहन है, जो अपने पिता D के साथ दिल्ली में ही काम करती है।
प्रश्न 1. एसएससी की बहन कौन है?
(A) टाइपिस्ट
(B) G
(C) सीईओ
(D) A
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D.
प्रश्न 2. FA कौन है?
(A) G का पुत्र
(B) क्लर्क का भाई
(C) सीएमडी की बहन
(D) प्रबंधक का पुत्र
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. A
प्रश्न 3. में से कौन हैदराबाद में काम करता है?
(A) B, A
(B) E, G, F
(C) H, A
(D) E, B, A
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. A
प्रश्न 4. विषम पद का चयन करें।
(A) प्रशासक
(B) क्लर्क
(C) टाइपिस्ट
(D) एसएससी
(E) सीईओ
Ans. B.
निर्देश (5 – 7) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।
A % B – A, B के या तो 6 या 14 मीटर उत्तर में है
A $ B – A, B के 12 मीटर दक्षिण में है
A # B – A, B के 4 मीटर पूर्व में है
A & B – A, B से या तो 10 मीटर या 15 मीटर पश्चिम में है
A %# B – का अर्थ है A, B के उत्तर-पूर्व में है
A $& B – का अर्थ है A, B के दक्षिण-पश्चिम में
Y %# J, M # K, Y % M, J% K
प्रश्न 5. Y और J के बीच सबसे छोटी दूरी क्या है?
(A) 11 मी.
(B) 415 मी.
(C) 6 मी.
(D) 815 मी.
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. B.
प्रश्न 6. यदि N $ M है, तो N और Y के बीच की दूरी क्या है?
(A) 34 मी.
(B) 28 मी.
(C) 23 मी.
(D) 26 मी.
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D.
प्रश्न 7. यदि निम्नलिखित कथन के अनुसार P और R के बीच की सबसे छोटी दूरी 2161 मी. है तो T और P के बीच की दूरी क्या है? T # Q, P & Q, R $ Q
(A) 15 मी.
(B) 12 मी.
(C) 19 मी.
(D) 14 मी.
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D.
निर्देश (8 – 10) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें। एक सोसाइटी में, पश्चिम से पूर्व तक ग्यारह घर हैं और 1 से 11 तक संख्या दी गई है। पश्चिम छोर के घर की संख्या 1 है और पूर्वी छोर में स्थित घर की संख्या 11 है। अलग-अलग आय वाले आठ व्यक्ति इन घरों में रहते हैं (एक घर में एक व्यक्ति) और तीन घर खाली हैं। H, G से 25 वर्ष बड़ा है। E जो D से 3 वर्ष बड़ा है और वह जिसकी आयु 35 वर्ष है, के बीच केवल एक व्यक्ति रहता है। वह, जो A से 7 वर्ष छोटा है, एक खाली घर जो सम संख्या वाला घर है की ठीक दाईं ओर रहता है। वह, जो 64 वर्ष का है और वह, जो 69 वर्ष का है, के बीच कम से कम दो व्यक्ति रहते हैं । खाली घर एक-दूसरे के निकट नहीं हैं। A, जो 46 वर्ष का है, वह संख्या 3 वाले घर के पश्चिम में रहता है, लेकिन अंत में नहीं रहता। खाली घर 64 वर्ष के व्यक्ति के घर के पश्चिम में है। B का घर और वह व्यक्ति जो 64 वर्ष के घर के बीच दो घर हैं। F घर संख्या 11 में रहने वाले व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है। F उस व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है, जो घर संख्यार 11 में रहता है। C उस व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है, जो घर संख्या 5 में रहता है तथा घर संख्या 5 के पश्चिम में रहता है लेकिन अंत में नहीं रहता। A और D जो B से 14 साल बड़ा है, के बीच दो व्यक्ति रहते हैं तथा B के पश्चिम में रहता है। घर संख्या 5 खाली नहीं है। खाली घर तथा जिस घर में 64 वर्ष का व्यक्ति रहता है के बीच केवल एक घर है। B, जो 55 वर्ष का है घर संख्या 6 के पूर्व में एक सम संख्या वाले घर में रहता है।
प्रश्न 8. कौन 39 वर्ष का है?
(A) D
(B) F
(C) C
(D) G
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D.
प्रश्न 9. D के पूर्व में कितने व्यक्ति रहते हैं?
(A) एक
(B) चार
(C) दो
(D) तीन
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. (D)
प्रश्न 10. F के एक निकटतम पड़ोसी की आयु क्या है?
(A) 60 वर्ष
(B) 64 वर्ष
(C) 55 वर्ष
(D) 39 वर्ष
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. (B)
निर्देश (11 – 15) : दिए गए प्रश्नों का उत्तर देने के लिए निम्नलिखित ग्राफ और तालिका का अध्ययन करें। एक ई-कॉमर्स कंपनी ऑनलाइन उत्पाद बेचती है। सबसे पहले ग्राहक उत्पादों का ऑर्डर करते हैं, फिर उनमे से कछ ग्राहक ऑर्डर रदद कर देते हैं। बाकी ग्राहको का ऑर्डर कंपनी डिलीवर कर देती हैं उसके बाद डिलीवर किए गए ऑर्डरों में से कुछ ग्राहक अपना उत्पाद वापस कर देते हैं। नीचे ग्राफ़ में, दिए गए महीनों के लिए ऑर्डर किए गए उत्पादों में से डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों का प्रतिशत और डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों में से वापस किये गए उत्पादों का प्रतिशत दिया गया है।
नीचे दी गई तालिका में, डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों की संख्या दी गई है।
महीना
डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों की संख्या
जनवरी
27000
फरवरी
24000
मार्च
22500
अप्रैल
21600
मई
24000
जून
32000
प्रश्न 11. जनवरी और मार्च के महीनों में और मार्च और जून के महीनों में रदद किए गए ऑर्डरों की कल संख्या की संख्या का अनुपात क्या है?
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 3 : 5
(E) 5 : 8
Ans. (A)
प्रश्न 12. दिए गए 6 महीनों में किये गए कुल ऑर्डरों की औसत संख्या क्या है?
(A) 24000
(B) 27500
(C) 31500
(D) 30750
(E) 31750
Ans. (E)
प्रश्न 13. मई के महीने में रद्द किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या और वापस आए ऑर्डरों की संख्या में अंतर क्या है?
(A) 12500
(B) 16240
(C) 11280
(D) 10240
(E) 11760
Ans. (D)
प्रश्न 14. अप्रैल में रद किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या फरवरी में रद्द किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या से कितने प्रतिशत कम है?
(A) 75%
(B) 62.5%
(C) 85%
(D) 68%
(E) 76%
Ans. C
प्रश्न 15. फरवरी और अप्रैल में ग्राहकों द्वारा स्वीकार किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या का योग क्या है?
(A) 25000
(B) 24000
(C) 25600
(D) 24500
(E) 22500
Ans. B.
निर्देश (16 – 20) : दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए निम्नलिखित जानकारी का अध्ययन करें। तीन बैटरी संचालित रोबोट खिलौने A, B और C हाथ हिलाते हैं और पैर हिलाते हैं। खिलौने A, B और C की बैटरी क्षमता क्रमशः 1500 एमएएच, 1600 एमएएच और 1800 एमएएच है। खिलौनों A, B और C की वर्तमान बैटरी प्रतिशत क्रमशः 80%, 70% और 75% हैं। एक खिलौना के चार बार हाथ हिलाने और तीन बार पैर हिलाने पर 1 एमएएच बैटरी की खपत होती हैं। छः बार हाथ हिलाने और सात बार पैर हिलाने पर 2 एमएएच बैटरी की खपत होती है।
प्रश्न 16. यदि खिलौना A सुबह 9 बजे शुरु हुआ और 12 बजे दिन में खिलौने की बैटरी ख़त्म हो गयी और इस अवधि के दौरान खिलौना A द्वारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या, पैर हिलाने की कुल संख्या से 1200 अधिक है, तो औसतन 1 मिनट में खिलौना A द्वारा पैर हिलाने की कुल संख्या कितना हैं?
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) None of these
Ans. B
प्रश्न 17. यदि खिलौना B का जब तक बैटरी पूरी तरह से खत्म नहीं हो जाती है दवारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या के दोगुने और पैर हिलाने की संख्या का योग x है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा x का मान हो सकता है?
I. 9000
II. 12600
III. 9800
(A) केवल I
(B) केवल II
(C) केवल III
(D) केवल Iऔर III
(E) तीनों में से कोई नहीं
Ans. (C)
प्रश्न 18. खिलौना C, 1500 बार हाथ हिलाता हैं और y बार पैर हिलाता हैं और खिलौना B, y बार हाथ हिलाता हैं और 2000 बार पैर हिलाता है। इसके बाद शेष बैटरी (एमएएच में) दोनों खिलौनों में समान है, तो खिलौना B में कितना प्रतिशत बैटरी शेष है?
(A) 40%
(B) 21.5%
(C) 35%
(D) 15%
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D.
प्रश्न 19. खिलौना B घूम भी सकता है और 3 बार घूमने में, 1 बार हाथ हिलाने और 7 बार पैर हिलाने में के जितनी बैटरी की आवश्यकता होती है। खिलौना B जब तक बैटरी रहता है, हाथ हिलाने की संख्या, पैर हिलाने की संख्या और घूमने की संख्या का अनुपात 2 : 1 : 2 है, तो खिलौना B द्वारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या और घूमने की संख्या का योग है
(A) 1400
(B) 2800
(C) 5600
(D) 3500
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. E.
प्रश्न 20. खिलौना D की बैटरी की क्षमता, खिलौने A और B की वर्तमान शेष बैटरी क्षमताओं के औसत के बराबर है और खिलौना D की वर्तमान बैटरी प्रतिशत 75% है। यदि खिलौना D में बैटरी के समाप्त होने तक बराबर संख्या में हाथ और पैर हिलाता हैं, तो खिलौना D कुल कितनी बार हाथ हिलाता हैं?
(A) 2175
(B) 1160
(C) 870
(D) 2900
(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ans. D
Direction (21 – 25) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Despite agreeing that flexible working can improve work life balance, just 17 percent of British employees are actively encouraged to do so and many don’t have the tech to work effectively. Microsoft UK calls on organisations to help employees reclaim their work-life balance with the workplace culture, tools and know-how to make the most of flexible working.
British employees are adopting unhealthy ways of working that are having a profound impact on their personal lives, according to new research from Microsoft UK. Asking the views of more than 2,000 British workers, the study found that 30 per cent of Brits regularly sacrifice their personal lives for work, 56 per cent have answered work-related calls out of office and 8 in 10 (80 percent) have struggled to focus at home due to pressure from work.
These unhealthy ways of working are going unnoticed by many British employees – only 29 per cent of whom admit their workplace has an ‘always on’ culture – but are leaving people struggling to keep their heads above water. 86 per cent of Brits say they have felt anxious due to work pressure in the last year –whilst 87 percent have trouble switching off) and sleeping (86 per cent), as well as feelings of failure (79 per cent). Meanwhile a third (33 percent) don’t have enough time to spend with their family and 41 per cent struggle to make time for health appointments – all due to workload.
When it comes to addressing the issue, British employees are clear that flexible working can help improve work life balance, spend more time with family and take care of their personal life. However, few feel in a position to take advantage of flexible working policies today. Of the 50 per cent of UK workers whose organisations offer flexible working, just 35 per cent are actively encouraged to do so and more than a third (35 percent) say they need an ‘official reason’ such as an appointment to work outside the office.
Meanwhile, for those that do make it out of the office to work more flexibly, outdated tech is slowing people down and preventing employees from doing their best work. Just 18 percent per cent of Brits have not faced tech difficulties when working remotely and almost half (48 per cent) of British employees wish their organisation invested in better tech so that they could work more efficiently.
The findings also show a lack of support systems available for employees in Britain today. Only 23 per cent of organisations regularly implement initiatives to improve employee wellbeing and 53 per cent disagree that their organisation offers training to help employees embrace a healthy, balanced lifestyle.
Q 21. Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the third paragraph?
(A) Unhealthy work culture might cause tensions in personal lives.
(B) British people have high probability of falling sick.
(C) A sense of dread and dissatisfaction is common among the British employees.
(D) Continuous stress has resulted in the Brits losing motivation.
(E) None of the above.
Ans. (E)
Q 22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance with the information provided in the passage?
Most of the British employees have been sacrificing their professional life due to faulty equipment.
British employees are unaware of the flexible work culture.
III. The work culture in Britain is having an adverse effect on its people. (A) Only I
(B) Both I & II
(C) Both II & III
(D) Only II
(E) All are incorrect
Ans. B.
Q 23. Which of the following statements the author is most likely to agree with?
(A) The present flexible work culture in Britain is not well-defined in order to help the employees.
(B) Less than a fourth of the employers consider the wellbeing of their employees.
(C) Proper justifications are not required to work outside the office to prevent employees from slacking off.
(D) Both A & (B)
(E) All of the above.
Ans. (D)
Q 24. Which of the following is/are correctly inferred from the given passage?
I. Only proper enforcement of flexible working can solve the issue of stressful work life.
II. Employers in Britain are supporting a healthy professional life in name only.
III. Lack of proper means have inhibited the British employees to attain a healthy work culture.
(A) Only I
(B) Both I & II
(C) Both II & III
(D) Only II
(E) All are incorrect
Ans. (C)
Q 25. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
“Employers use all source of loopholes to keep their employees in office.”
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) The data is inadequate
(D) Probably false
(E) Definitely false
Ans. A
Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
Q 26. A) The 48-day strike (1)/ of 35,000 workers of engineering units (2)/ on Jamshedpur has drawn (3)/ strong condemnation from JRD Tata. (4)
B) That wages had become (1)/ an explosive issue in the engineering industry (2)/ has been amply clear (3)/ for a long time. (4)
C) This is understandable (1)/ since in JRD’s view the long-drawn-out (2)/ strike has tarnished the Tata image (3)/ as an employer. (4)
(A) B-2 & A-1
(B) A-3 & B-3
(C) B-1 & C-4
(D) A-4 & C-2
(E) All are correct
Ans. (B)
Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
Q 27. A) The Union Labour Ministry, (1)/ after several infructuous efforts (2)/ to sort out matters, had been compelled (3)/ to pass the deer to the States. (4)
B) Several months had elapsed (1)/ after the settlement in Calcutta and yet employers (2)/ at Jamshedpur had done little (3)/ to seek a negotiated settlement of wages with workers. (4)
C) The element of inter group rivalries (1)/ between workers also played a part (2)/ in the Jamshedpur strike (3)/ need not be disputed. (4)
(A) B-2 & A-1
(B) A-4 & C-2
(C) B-3 & C-4
(D) A-3 & C-3
(E) All are correct
Ans. (B)
Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
Q 28. A) Through its actions, (1)/ the Donald Trump administration (2)/ has unequivocally announced (3)/ that 2020 will be a year of violence. (4)
B) The American elite of all hues, liberal or conservative, (1)/ is blinded by its faith in American military supremacy, (2)/ but remains convinced (3)/ that the world is destined to play by its rules. (4)
C) The overt military action against a foreign leader (1)/ enjoying diplomatic immunity is a travesty (2)/ of professional military ethics, (3)/ a blatant attempt to extent the battlefield dimensions. (4)
(A) C-2 & A-1
(B) A-4 & C-3
(C) A-3 & C-2
(D) B-3 & C-4
(E) All are correct
Ans. D.
Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
Q 29. A) The Trump administration’s actions is (1)/ destroying the rule-based international order (2)/ and pushing it towards barbarism and the medieval ages (3)/ where assassination as a tool of statecraft was legal. (4)
B) The US-led “Middle-East order,” which Henry Kissinger (1)/ erected in the wake of the oil crisis and the growing demand (2)/ for a New International Economic Order by third world countries (3)/ in the mid-1970s, now lies in tatters. (4)
C) The US is perturbed (1)/ by the nationalistic surge in Iraq (2)/ and the growing demand for the dethroning (3)/ of US troops from Iraqi soil. (4)
(A) A-1 & C-3
(B) B-4 & C-1
(C) B-3 & C-4
(D) A-2 & C-2
(E) All are correct
Ans. (A)
Direction (30 – 35) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Many American employees strive to perform their best in the workplace. They work overtime, agree to take on extra projects and rarely take a step away from their desk. This “work hard” mentality isn’t effective – and it’s unhealthy. Employees who believe that they must work 24/7 to achieve a good standing in the workplace have the wrong idea. And unfortunately, employees often gain this idea through employers’ attitudes.
Chaining yourself to a desk or ________________ (I) in your cubicle isn’t a recipe for success – it’s a recipe for disaster. Without taking adequate breaks from work, employee productivity, mental well-being and overall work performance begin to suffer. Overworked employees often deal with chronic stress that can easily lead to job burnout. Therefore, it’s important that employers to start encouraging employees to take breaks throughout the workday. These breaks are essential in helping employees de-stress and re-charge for the rest of the workday. A recent survey by Tork shows exactly how important lunch breaks are, along with how rare they are in the North American workplace.
Though taking breaks might sound counterintuitive but when it comes to boosting productivity, it’s one of the best ways to do so. Besides outlining some awesome benefits of regular breaks such as improved mental well-being, creativity boost and more time for healthy habits, the Tork survey also revealed that North American employees who take a lunch break every day have higher scores on a range of engagement metrics, including job satisfaction, likelihood to continue working at the same company and likelihood to recommend their employer to others.
I recently spoke with Jennifer Deal, the Senior Research Scientist who said “Energy isn’t unlimited, and just as athletes have halftime to rest during a game, employees need to rest so they can do their best work. Taking a break in the middle of the day for lunch is a recovery period, allowing employees to come back refreshed and reinvigorated for the second half”.
Q 30. What is the central theme of the passage
I. How North American employees are striving to perform better in their jobs by not taking breaks during work.
II. How important it is for employers to break the myth of working 24*7 and start taking lunch breaks seriously.
III. How vital it is for the employees to take lunch break during work, reenergize themselves and resume work with enhanced productivity.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) Both I and III
(E) Both II and III
Ans. C.
प्रश्न 31. वर्ल्ड डे फॉर ऑडियोविजुअल हेरिटेज 2019 का विषय क्या है?
(A) प्रोटेक्ट एंड शेयर यूअर विजुअल स्टोरी
(B) एंगेज द पास्ट श्रू साउंड एंड इमेज
(C) इट्स यूअर स्टोरी – डोंट लूज़ इट
(D) डिस्कवर, रिमाइंडर एंड शेयर
(E) अवर लाइफ – डोंट वेस्ट इट
Ans. (B)
प्रश्न 32. मेलबर्न क्रिकेट ग्राउंड (MCG) में किस अभिनेता ने पुरुषों और महिलाओं के टूर्नामेंट के लिए आईसीसी विश्व कप 2020 ट्रॉफी का अनावरण किया?
(A) करीना कपूर
(B) अनुष्का शर्मा
(C) दीपिका पादुकोण
(D) ऐश्वर्या राय
(E) प्रियंका चोपड़ा
Ans. A
प्रश्न 33. विक्रम सोलर लिमिटेड एक भारतीय कंपनी है और भारत में दूसरी सबसे बड़ी सौर ऊर्जा कंपनी किस शहर में स्थित है?
(A) मुम्बई
(B) बड़ौदा
(C) जयपुर
(D) कोलकाता
(E) रांची
Ans. (D)
प्रश्न 34. कितने देशों ने अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर गठबंधन (आईएसए) फ्रेमवर्क पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं?
(A) 71
(B) 75
(C) 78
(D) 83
(E) 85
Ans. D.
प्रश्न 35. किस संगठन ने सामाजिक न्याय के लिए मदर टेरेसा मेमोरियल अवार्ड 2019 प्रस्तुत किया?
(A) हार्मोनी फाउंडेशन
(B) भारती फाउंडेशन
(C) भूमि
(D) इपास डेवलपमेंट फाउंडेशन
(E) मैक ए डिफ्रेंस
Ans. A
प्रश्न 36. विकार्बनन (डीकार्बोनाइजेशन) के उद्देश्य से, किस कंपनी ने पावर प्रोड्यूसर एनटीपीसी और द एनर्जी एंड रिसोर्सेज इंस्टीट्यूट (टीईआरआई) के साथ समझौता ज्ञापन (एमओयू) पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं?
(A) सीमेंस लिमिटेड
(B) जनरल इलेक्ट्रिक लिमिटेड
(C) रॉबर्ट बोश लिमिटेड
(D) हिताची
(E) लार्सन एंड टुब्रो
Ans. A.
प्रश्न 37. रोबोटिक सर्जरी सुविधा प्रदान करने वाला पहला केंद्र सरकार का स्वास्थ्य केंद्र कौन सा है?
(A) पीजीआईएमईआर चंडीगढ़
(B) क्रिश्चियन मेडिकल कॉलेज वेल्लोर
(C) सफदरजंग अस्पताल, नई दिल्ली
(D) राम मनोहर लोहिया अस्पताल, नई दिल्ली
(E) टाटा मेमोरियल अस्पताल, मुम्बई
Ans. (C)
प्रश्न 38. भारत और एशियाई विकास बैंक ने निम्न में से किस राज्य की सड़कों के विकास के लिए 200 मिलियन डॉलर के ऋण समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं?
(A) महाराष्ट्र
(B) झारखंड
(C) तमिलनाडु
(D) केरल
(E) राजस्थान
Ans. A
प्रश्न 39. ‘जितने लोग उतने प्रेम’ कविता के लिए किसे व्यास सम्मान से सम्मानित किया गया है?
(A) सचिन सिन्हा
(B) सुरेंद्र वर्मा
(C) लीलाधर जगूड़ी
(D) सुजीत साहू
(E) रमाकांत कैलाश
Ans. C.
प्रश्न 40. बैंक ऑफ बड़ौदा ने फास्टैग जारी किया है जो इलेक्ट्रॉनिक टोल संग्रह पर समग्र समाधान के रूप में कार्य करेगा। फास्टैग किस तकनीक पर काम करता है?
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 Three of the following four word-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. Carpenter : Saw
B. Warrior : Sword
C. Author : Pen
D. Mason : Knife
Answer: D
Q. 2 ‘Cardiology’ is related to ‘Heart’ in the same way as ‘Pathology’ is related to ‘……….’.
A. Diseases
B. Man
C. Body
D. Soil
Answer: A.
Q. 3 In a code language, 54831 is coded as 63922. What will be the code for 86274 in that language?
A. 75365
B. 77185
C. 95365
D. 95185
Answer: C.
Q. 4 Three of the following four options are similar in a certain way and one is different. Find the one that is different.
A. 6 – 36 – 216
B. 10 – 100 – 1000
C. 3 – 6 – 27
D. 5 – 25 – 125
Answer: C.
Q. 5 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. RY : QZ :: HK :
A. GJ
B. GL
C. IL
D. IM
Answer: B.
Q. 6 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following three classes.
Hospital, Doctor, Patient
Answer: D.
Q. 7 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 215
B. 169
C. 144
D. 196
Answer: A.
Q. 8 A. Nurse moved 90 m in the East in a hospital to look for her duty Doctor, then she turned right and went 20 m. After this she turned right and after going 30 m she reached I.C.U. but the Doctor was not there. From there she went 100 m to her north and met her doctor. What distance did she moved to meet her duty doctor from the starting point.
A. 100 m
B. 120 m
C. 80 m
D. 140 m
Answer: A.
Q. 9 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 5 : 29
B. 8 : 62
C. 3 : 7
D. 6 : 34
Answer: A.
Q. 10 In the following diagram, the rectangle represents doctors, the triangle represents players and the circle represents philosophers. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons.
According to the given diagram, How many players are philosophers but not Doctors?
A. 17
B. 7
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: A.
Q. 11 Which number will come next in the following series? 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, …….
A. 139
B. 127
C. 125
D. 126
Answer: B.
Q. 12 Given is a set of three figures, X, Y and Z, showing the folding sequence of a piece of paper. Fig Z shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Study these figures carefully and select the option that would most closely resemble this piece of paper when unfolded.
Answer: B.
Q. 13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the right side.
Answer: D.
Q. 14 Two statements are given, followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some boxes are dolls. All dolls are pens. Conclusions: I. Some boxes are pens. II. Some pens are boxes. III. Some pens are dolls. IV. All pens are dolls.
A. Only conclusions I, II and IV follow.
B. All the conclusions follow.
C. Only conclusions I, II and III follow.
D. Only conclusions II, III and IV follow.
Answer: C.
Q. 15 Select the option that gives the correct explanation for the following group of words. Bridge, Link, Chain
A. They join two parts.
B. They are suits of cards.
C. They are types of medals.
D. They are jewels.
Answer: A.
Q. 16 Identify the number that does NOT belong in the given series. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 344, 512, 729
A. 512
B. 729
C. 64
D. 344
Answer: D.
Q. 17 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1) Alarm Set 2) Office 3) Car 4) Wake up 5) Alarm Rang 6) Get Ready
A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 6, 2
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 4, 5, 6, 3, 2
D. 1, 5, 4, 6, 3, 2
Answer: D.
Q. 18 Choose the option which has the relation as the words given below : boy : girl
A. horse – roe
B. cat – Kitten
C. cock – hen
D. donkey – bray
Answer: C.
Q. 19 Find the number of squares in the following figure.
A. 6
B. 4
C. 9
D. 7
Answer: D.
Q. 20 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?, 65, 82, 101
A. 48
B. 42
C. 50
D. 49
Answer: C.
Q. 21 If ‘A’ denotes ‘ ÷ ’, ‘B’ denotes ‘ × ’, ‘C’ denotes ‘ + ’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘ − ’, then what will be the value of the following expression? 12 B. 12 A. 4 C. 5 D. 1
A. 39
B. 50
C. 40
D. 59
Answer: C.
Q. 22 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. UVwXXYY
B. BCdEFFF
C. IJkLLMM
D. PQrSSTT
Answer: B.
Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 25 : 15625 :: 30 : ……..
A. 2700
B. 27000
C. 900
D. 2500
Answer: B.
Q. 24 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All plants are flowers.
No flower is blue.
Conclusions:
I. Some plants are blue.
II. Those plants that are not flowers are blue.
A. Only conclusion II follows.
B. Only conclusion I follows.
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
D. Both conclusions I and II follow.
Answer: C.
Q. 25 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. Cairo
B. Paris
C. Ottawa
D. Kyat
Answer: D.
Q. 26 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? XCA, WDZ, UFX, RIU, NMQ,?
A. IKJ
B. JKO
C. JFU
D. IRL
Answer: D.
Q. 27 Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite the face showing 4?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: B.
Q. 28 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.
Answer: A.
Q. 29 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given set of words (in the same order). Hand : Finger : Ring
A. Face : Nose : Nose pin
B. Anklet : Foot : Ankle
C. Earring : Ear : Jewel
D. Cap : Head : Hair
Answer: A.
Q. 30 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Select the most appropriate option for these numbers in relation to their inclusion in the series. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, (12), 14, 16, (18), 20
A. The first bracketed number is correct and the second is incorrect.
B. The first bracketed number is incorrect and the second is correct.
C. Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.
D. Both the bracketed numbers are correct.
Answer: D.
Q. 31 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)
Answer: B.
Q. 32 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Select the most appropriate option for these numbers in relation to their inclusion in the series. 1, 9, 25, 49, (81), 121, 169, (215), 239
A. Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.
B. The first bracketed number is incorrect and the second is correct.
C. The first bracketed number is correct and the second is incorrect.
D. Both the bracketed numbers are correct.
Answer: C.
Q. 33 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. FEDC.
B. YXVW
C. LKIJ
D. NMKL
Answer: A.
Explanation: The arrangement of the alphabets are in the alphabetical order in the following manner- 3rd alphabet-4th alphabet-2nd alphabet-1st alphabet
Option A. violates this arrangement so is the odd one out.
Option A. is correct.
Q. 34 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 13 : 84.5 :: 20 : ……
A. 120
B. 150
C. 100
D. 200
Answer: D.
Explanation:
13 : 1322= 84.5
20 : 2022 = 200
Option D. is correct.
Q. 35 If TEMPLE is coded as ELPMET, then how will CHURCH be coded as?
A. HCURCH
B. HCRUHC.
C. HCRUCH
D. HCURHC.
Answer: B.
Explanation: The alphabets in TEMPLE are coded in opposite i.e ELPMET
Therefore CHURCH is coded as HCRUHC.
Option B. is correct
Q. 36 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 64 : 6
B. 7 : 49
C. 10 : 100
D. 4 : 16
Answer: A.
Explanation: The second number is the square of the first number, for ex 42 = 16
Option A. violates that.
Option A. is correct
Q. 37 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following three classes. Stationery, Pencil, Apple
Answer: B.
Explanation: Pencil is a stationery item and apple is not.Therefore the following diagram explains it.
Option B. is correct.
Q. 38 Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
18 − 3 ÷ 6 + 24 × 12 = 48
A. × and − , 3 and 6
B. ÷ and − , 12 and 6
C. × and + , 3 and 6
D. ÷ and × , 3 and 12
Answer: A.
Explanation: Using Option A, we put them in the equation , 18 − 3 ÷ 6 + 24 × 12 = 48
18 × 6 ÷ 3 + 24 − 12 = 48
So option A. satisfies the equation.
Option A. is correct.
Q. 39 If ‘ARUN’ is coded as 54, then how will ‘VARUN’ be coded as?
A. 76
B. 78
C. 67
D. 87
Answer: A.
Explanation: We add the corresponding numerical values of the alphabets as per the alphabetical series.
A. = 1, R = 18, U=21, N = 14, V=22
ARUN = 1+18+21+14 = 54
VARUN = 22+1+18+21+14 = 76
Option A. is correct.
Q. 40 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
Answer: B.
Explanation: Option B. is correct.
Q. 41 In a certain code language, ‘mee muk pic’ means ‘roses are yellow”, ‘nil dic’ means ‘white flowers’ and ‘pic muk dic’ means ‘flowers are fruits’. What is the code for ‘white’ in that language?
A. muk
B. nil
C. dic
D. pic
Answer: B.
Q. 42 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: A.
Explanation: The image is getting rotated by 90 degrees in the counterclockwise direction.
Option A. is correct.
Q. 43 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. Apple : Fruit :: Spinach : ……..
A. Food
B. Flower
C. Root
D. Vegetable
Answer: D.
Explanation: Apple is a fruit and Spinach is a vegetable.
Apple : Fruit :: Spinach : Vegetable
Option D. is correct.
Q. 44 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
Answer: A.
Explanation: The image is getting rotated by 90 degrees and also 1 parallel line is being added.
Option A. is correct.
Q. 45 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 4 : 20 :: 8 : …..
A. 64
B. 40
C. 56
D. 32
Answer: B.
Explanation: 4 : 20 :: 8 : 40
4 × 5 = 20 and 8 × 5 = 40
Option B. is correct.
Q. 46 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure .
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Option C. is correct.
Q. 47 Which of the following two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
6 ÷ 5 − 5 × 5 + 6 = 35
A. + and −
B. + and ÷
C. × and −
D. ÷ and ×
Answer: D.
Explanation: Using option D. we get,
6 × 5 − 5 ÷ 5 + 6 = 35
Option D. is correct.
Q. 48 Rama walks from his university campus 4 km towards north and then turns to the right to reach his department. Alter walking 2.5 km from the department he turns to the left and walks 4 km and reached Conference hall. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
A. South-West
B. North-East
C. South
D. West
Answer: B.
Explanation: Rama walks from his university campus 4 km towards north and then turns to the right to reach his department. Alter walking 2.5 km from the department he turns to the left and walks 4 km and reached Conference hall.
So he is in the north east direction from the starting place. (The dashed line shows the direction)
Option B. is correct.
Q. 49 Which letter will come next in the following series? Z, U, Q, N, L, ……
A. M
B. G
C. H
D. K
Answer: D.
Explanation: The alphabets are in reverse alphabetical order in the following pattern :
Z → (−5)U → (−4)Q → (−3)N → (−2)L → (−1)K
Option D. is correct.
Q. 50 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Gateway of India 2. World 3. Mumbai 4. India 5. Maharashtra
A. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
B. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
D. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C.
Explanation: The chronological order for the following is as follows : (as per geography)
2. World > 4. India > 5. Maharashtra > 3. Mumbai > 1. Gateway of India
Option C. is correct.
General knowledge
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 Citrullus lanatus is the botanical name for ……..
A. Apple
B. Watermelon
C. Banana
D. Orange
Answer: B.
Q. 52 …… founded the ‘Bal Charkha Sangh’, where children were taught to spin & weave.
A. Vinoba Bhave
B. Sarojini Naidu
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: C.
Q. 53 The 11th President of India, ……… was also known as the ‘Missile Man’.
A. K R Narayanan
B. Zakir Hussein
C. APJ Abdul Kalam
D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Answer: C.
Q. 54 The Hindi film ‘Kai Po Che’ is based on the book titled ……. by Chetan Bhagat.
A. Two States
B. One Night At The Call Centre
C. Three Mistakes Of My Life
D. Five Point Someone
Answer: C.
Q. 55 Who was the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog as of January 2019?
A. Narendra Modi
B. Sushma Swaraj
C. Amit Shah
D. Ram Nath Kovind
Answer: A.
Q. 56 Who is the founder of the biotech Indian company called ‘Biocon’?
A. Ratan Tata
B. Indu Jain
C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
D. Mukesh Ambani
Answer: C.
Q. 57 The fear of foreigners is called:
A. Toxiphobia
B. Xenophobia
C. Sitophobia
D. Theophobia
Answer: B.
Q. 58 Malus pumila is the botanical name of the ………. tree.
A. Orange
B. Water melon
C. Banana
D. Apple
Answer: D.
Q. 59 The Panchayat Raj System was first adopted by the state of ………
A. West Bengal
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
Answer: D.
Q. 60 The Puma Kumbh Mela takes place every ……… years at one of the four places by rotation, Prayag, Haridwar, Ujjain and Nashik.
A. six
B. two
C. twelve
D. three
Answer: C
Q. 61 The festival of ___________ is also known as Phagawa.
A. Diwali
B. Holi
C. Sankranti
D. Ganesh Chaturthi
Answer: B.
Q. 62 Which of the following flowers is botanically known as Narcissus?
A. Carnation
B. Rose
C. Daffodil
D. Lily
Answer: C.
Q. 63 Pung Cholam is the folk dance of which state ?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Manipur
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
Answer: B.
Q. 64 Which of the following is the unit of Magnetic field strength?
A. Ohm
B. Gauss
C. Tesla
D. Weber
Answer: C.
Q. 65 Padma Vibhushan is the …………. civilian award of India.
A. highest
B. second highest
C. third highest
D. fourth highest
Answer: B.
Q. 66 ONGC. discovered the country’s first shale gas reserve at:
A. Chandikhol
B. Durgapur
C. Jamnagar
D. Padur
Answer: B.
Q. 67 ……. was born to the Chauhan King Someshvara and his queen Karpuradevi in 1166 CE.
A. Prithviraj Chauhan
B. Maharana Pratap
C. Maharaja Suraj Mal
D. Maharaja Man Singh
Answer: A.
Q. 68 According to the Vedic principles, which amongst the following is incorrect ?
A. Vaishyas or the common people were born from man’s legs
B. Kshatriyas or the warrior-kings were born from the man’s arms
C. Shudra or the labourer and servant were born from man’s feet
D. Brahmins or the learned ones were born from man’s ears
Answer: D.
Q. 69 Which of the following flowers is botanically known as Dianthus?
A. Rose
B. Lily
C. Daffodil
D. Carnation
Answer: D.
Q. 70 Gir National Park is known for its ……….
A. Red silk cotton
B. Orangutan
C. Cherry blossom
D. Asiatic Lions
Answer: D.
Q. 71 ……… was a professor of political science and economics at the University of Taxila.
A. Kautilya
B. Bindusara
C. Samudragupta
D. Ajatshatm
Answer: A.
Q. 72 Nyctophobia is the fear of:
A. Birds
B. Darkness
C. Light
D. Animals
Answer: B.
Q. 73 ………. is a textile art fiom Gujarat / Rajasthan.
A. Bandhani
B. Paithani
C. Chanderi
D. Ikat
Answer: A.
Q. 74 The festival of …………. is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars.
A. Sankranti
B. Navratri
C. Diwali
D. Holi
Answer: B.
Q. 75 In the body, excess of _____ is the reason for arthritis.
A. Lactic Acid
B. Acetic Acid
C. Nitric Acid
D. Uric Acid
Answer: D
Q. 76 Which of the following was NOT a part of the ‘Navratna’ at Vikramaditya’s court?
A. Kshapanaka
B. Kalidasa
C. Vararuchi
D. Surdas
Answer: D.
Q. 77 ……….. is situated at the confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers.
A. Vishnuprayag
B. Karnaprayag
C. Nandaprayag
D. Rudraprayag
Answer: D.
Q. 78 Which of the following clubs, founded in 1889, is the oldest Indian club still in operation as on January 2019?
A. Indian Bank Recreational Club
B. Calcutta Cricket & Football Club
C. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club
D. North Imphal Sporting Association
Answer: C.
Q. 79 The Indian Olympic Association has expressed interest to host the …………. summer Olympics.
A. 2020
B. 2024
C. 2032
D. 2028
Answer: C.
Q. 80 ………. city tops the list of top 10 richest cities in India, with 8 GDP of $ 209 billion.
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Bengaluru
D. Mumbai
Answer: D.
Q. 81 The ancient name of the river Tungabhadra was:
A. Vitasta
B. Kubha
C. Pampa
D. Sindhu
Answer: C.
Q. 82 Prince Khurrarn grew up to be known as:
A. Jahangir
B. Akbar
C. Humayun
D. Shah Jahan
Answer: D.
Q. 83 Arundhati Roy won Man Booker Prize in 1997 for her book:
A. History of Wolves
B. 2 States
C. The Minisz of Utmost Happiness
D. The God of Small Things
Answer: D.
Q. 84 The BHIM app was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on:
A. 31st October, 2016
B. 26th January, 2016
C. 30th December, 2016
D. 15th August, 2016
Answer: C.
Q. 85 Who is the only foreigner to receive the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2019?
A. Anilkumar Manibhai Naik
B. Teejan Bai
C. Balwant Moreshwar Purandare
D. Ismail Omar Guelleh
Answer: D.
Q. 86 Natural pearls contain more than 80% ……….
A. sodium carbonate
B. calcium carbonate
C. silica
D. quartz
Answer: B.
Q. 87 Which of the following is the first port in India to become a public company?
A. Kandla
B. Mangalore
C. Ennore
D. Morrnugao
Answer: C.
Q. 88 India was divided into India and Pakistan by the ……….. Act.
A. India Independence
B. Division of India
C. Partition of India
D. Government of India
Answer: A.
Q. 89 ………… is the world’s richest cricket board as of year 2018.
A. England and Wales Cricket Board
B. Cricket South Africa
C. Board of Control for Cricket in India
D. Pakistan Cricket Board
Answer: C.
Q. 90 Tennis player Somdev Kishore Devvarman was awarded the ………. in 2018.
A. Padma Bhushan
B. Bharat Ratna
C. Padma Vibhushan
D. Padma Shree
Answer: D.
Q. 91 Which of the below mentioned human organs can regrow after damage in adults?
A. Lung
B. Gall bladder
C. Kidney
D. Liver
Answer: D.
Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a mint of the Sectnity Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL)?
A. India Government Mint, Gorakhpur
B. India Government Mint, Mumbai
C. India Government Mint, Hyderabad
D. India Government Mint, Kolkata
Answer: A.
Q. 93 …………. was affectionately called ‘Ba’.
A. Vijayalaxmi Pandit
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Kasturba Gandhi
D. Sarojini Naidu
Answer: C.
Q. 94 Eid ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, which falls in the ……… month of the Islamic calendar.
A. tenth
B. sixth
C. eighth
D. twelfth
Answer: A.
Q. 95 Name the recipient of the Padma Bhushan Award, 2019 for Trade and Industry (Food Processing).
A. Mahashay Dharam Pal Gulati
B. Narsingh Dev Jamwal
C. Harvinder Singh Phoolka
D. Vallabhbhai Vasrambhai Marvaniya
Answer: A.
Q. 96 Photophobia means:
A. Addiction to light
B. Addiction to taking photos
C. Sensitivity to light
D. Dislike towards taking photos
Answer: C.
Q. 97 Tata Iron And Steel company (TISCO) was incorporated in:
A. 1911
B. 1907
C. 1913
D. 1915
Answer: B.
Q. 98 Vedic civilisation flourished along the river ………..
A. Indus
B. Yamuna
C. Ganga
D. Saraswati
Answer: D.
Q. 99 The last Nizam of Hyderabad:
A. Nasir Jung
B. Qulich Khan
C. Mir Osman Ali Khan
D. Muzafar Jung
Answer: C.
Q. 100 Bos mutus is the scientific name for:
A. wild yak
B. Ox
C. Horse
D. Buffalo
Answer: A.
Quant
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 102 A steel vessel has a base of length 60 cm and breadth 30 cm. Water is poured in the vessel. A cubical steel box having an edge of 30 cm is immersed completely in the vessel, By how much will the water rise?
A. 12 cm
B. 9 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 15 cm
Answer: D.
Q. 103 The given pie-chart, shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.
In the given pie-chart by what percentage the Promotion cost on the book is less than the Paper cost?
A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 60
Answer: D.
Q. 104 If a + b − c = 7,ab − bc − ca = 21 , then a3 + b3 − c3 + 3abc =
A. -98
B. 98
C. 124
D. 117
Answer: A.
Q. 105 If two equal circles whose centres are O and O’ intersect each other at the point A. and B, OO’ = 12 cm and AB. = 16 cm, then radius of the circle is:
A. 12 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 14 cm
D. 10 cm
Answer: D.
Q. 106 A. boy increases his speed to 5/9 times of his original speed. By this he reaches his school 30 minutes before the usual time. How much time does he takes usually?
A. 67.50 minutes
B. 67.10 minutes
C. 67.75 minutes
D. 67.25 minutes
Answer: A.
Q. 107 The given bar chart, shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.
In the given bar-chart, the ratio of total sales of all branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000 to 2001 is:
A. 55 : 48
B. 7 : 11
C. 45 : 58
D. 48 : 55
Answer: D
Q. 108 ₹15,000 was invested by A and B together to start a small business. They got a profit of ₹2,000 at the end of the year. B took his profit share of ₹600. How much did A invest?
A. ₹10,000
B. ₹2,000
C. ₹10,500
D. ₹9,000
Answer: C.
Q. 109 Pipe A. can fill a tank in 16 minutes and pipe B. empties it in 24 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together. after how many minutes should B. be closed, so that the tank is filled in 30 minutes?
A. 20 minutes
B. 18 minutes
C. 21 minutes
D. 15 minutes
Answer: C.
Q. 110 If roots of x2 − 4x + a = 0 are equal, then a =
A. -8
B. 4
C. -4
D. 8
Answer: B
Q. 111 If a sum becomes ₹1,460 in two years and ₹1,606 in three years due to the compound interest, then annual rate of interest is:
A. 11%
B. 9%
C. 10%
D. 8%
Answer: C.
Q. 112 Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 40
D. 20
Answer: C
Q. 113 Side AB of a triangle ABC is 80 cm long, whose perimeter is 170 cm. If angle ABC = 60∘, the shortest side of triangle ABC measures ……… cm.
A. 25
B. 21
C. 17
D. 15
Answer: C.
Q. 114 (8 + 4 − 2) × (17 − 12) × 10 − 89 is equal to:
Q. 115 When the integer n is divided by 7, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder if 5n is divided by 7?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D.
Explanation: Dividend = n
Divisor = 7
Quotient = Q
Remainder = 3
n = 7Q+3
Multiplying with 5,
5n = 35Q+15
Dividing with 7,
5n7+35Q7+157
Here, When 15 is divided by 7, the remainder will be 1.
Therefore, 1 will be the remainder when 5n is divided by 7.
Q. 116 A. earns ₹40 per hour and works for 12 hours. B. earns ₹60 per hour and works for 10 hours. Find the ratio of their per day wages.
A. 4 : 5
B. 5 : 4
C. 15 : 4
D. 6 : 5
Answer: A.
Explanation: Salary of A. per hour = Rs.40
Number of hours A. work per day = 12 hours
Then, Total salary A. gets per day = 12 × 40 = Rs.480
Salary of B. per hour = Rs.60
Number of hours B. work per day = 10 hours
Then, Total salary B. gets per day = 60 × 10 = Rs.600
Therefore, Ratio of their salaries = 480 : 600 = 4 : 5.
Q. 117 The perimeter of a square is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 14 cm. Find the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square.
A. 25.57 cm
B. 31.57 cm
C. 23.57 cm
D. 21.57 cm
Answer: C.
Explanation: Let the side of the square be a cm. Perimeter of the square = 4a cm.
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(16+14) = 2*30 = 60 cm Given, 4a = 50 => a = 15 cm
Q. 118 The unequal side of an isosceles triangle is 2 cm. The medians drawn to the equal sides are perpendicular. The area of the triangle is:
A. 1 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 2 cm
Answer: B.
Q. 119 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.
In the given line graph. what is the total sale of Product A. in the year 2005 and 2009 taken together?
A. 17500
B. 18500
C. 14600
D. 16400
Answer: D.
Explanation: Production of A. in 2005 = 11000
Sale of A. in 2005 = 60% of 11000 = 6600
Production of A. in 2009 = 14000
Sale of A. in 2009 = 70% of 14000 = 9800
Therefore, Total production of A. in 2005 and 2009 together = 6600+9800 = 16400.
Q. 120 When the sun’s angle of depression changes from 30∘ to 60∘ . the length of the shadow of a tower decreases by 70 m. What is the height of the tower?
A. 45.65 m
B. 60.55 m
C. 65.55 m
D. 36.55 m
Answer: B.
Explanation: Let the initial distance of the shadow from the foot of the tower be x m Then, New distance will be (x-70) m
Tan300 = hx
=13=hx
=x=h3
tan600=hx-70
=3=hx-70
=3=hh3-70
=h=3(h3-70)
=h=3h-703
=2h=703
=h=353=351.73=60.55m
Therefore, The height of the tower = 60.55 m
Q. 121 If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is equal to:
= cosec2 A. + sin2 A. − 2cosecAsinA. + sec2 A. + cos2 A. − 2secAcosA. − (cot2 A. + tan2 A. − 2cotAtanA)
= cosec2 A. + sin2 A. − 2 + sec2 A. + cos2 A. − 2 − cot2 A. − tan2 A. + 2
= (cosec2 A. − cot2 A) + (sin2 A. + cos2 A) + (sec2 A. − tan2 A) − 2
= 3 − 2 = 1
Q. 123 0.72×0.72×0.72−0.39×0.39×0.390.72×0.72+0.72×0.39+0.39×0.39is equal to:
A. 0.33
B. 0.45
C. 0.39
D. 0.36
Answer: A.
Explanation: Given fraction is in the form of a3-b3a2+ab+b2 which is a − b
Here, a = 0.72 and b = 0.39
Therefore, a − b = 0.72 − 0.39 = 0.33
Q. 124 A. number is first decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. The number so obtained is 100 less than the original number. The original number is:
A. 100000
B. 100
C. 10000
D. 1000
Answer: C.
Explanation: Let the number be 100x.
New number after decrease and increase of 10% = 100x 90100110100=99x
Given, 100x-99x = 100
x = 100
Then, The original number = 100x = 100*100 = 10000.
Q. 125 A. man could not decide between discount of 30% or two successive discounts of 25% and 5%, both given on a shopping of ₹2,000. What is the difference between both the discounts?
A. ₹15
B. No difference
C. ₹20
D. ₹25
Answer: D.
Explanation: Given, Marked Price = Rs.2000
Discount-1 = 30% of Rs.2000 = Rs.600
Effective discount with discounts of 25% and 5% = 25-5 + 255/100 = -30 + 1.25 = -25.75%
28.75% of Rs.2000 = Rs.575
Therefore, Difference between the discounts = Rs.600 – Rs.575 = Rs.25.
Q. 126 At what rate percent per annum with simple interest will a sum of money double in 12.5 years?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12.5
D. 6
Answer: A.
Explanation: Let the Principal be Rs.P
Amount after 12.5 years = Rs.2P
Interest = Rs.2P – Rs.P = Rs.P Let the rate of interest be R%
=> PR12.5100=P
R=10012.5=8%
Therefore, Rate of interest = 8%.
Q. 127 The LCM of two numbers is 168 and their HCF is 12. If the difference between the numbers is 60. What is the sum of the numbers?
A. 122
B. 164
C. 112
D. 108
Answer: D.
Explanation: Let the two numbers be a and b.
Product of two numbers = Product of their LCM and HCF
ab = 168*12 = 2016
Given, a-b = 60
(a + b)2 = (a − b)2 + 4ab
(a + b)2 = 602 + 4 × 2016 = 3600 + 8064 = 11664
Then, a + b = 108
Therefore, Sum of two numbers = 108.
Q. 128 If x + x −1 = 2 , then the value of x3 + x−3 is:
A. 3
B. ½
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Given, 1x + x=2
Cubing on both sides
Q. 129 A. unique circle can always be drawn through x number of given non-collinear points, then x must be:
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D.
Explanation: A. unique circle can be drawn using 3 non-collinear points. Hence, x = 3.
Q. 130 The speed of a car increases by 2 km/hr after every one hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 km, what was the total distance travelled in 12 hours?
A. 558 km
B. 650 km
C. 560 km
D. 552 km
Answer: D.
Explanation: The distances travelled by the car in each hour will be 35,37,39,…. The distance travelled in the last hour will be 35/12 + (12 – 1)2 = 35 + 12 = 57 km
Then, Total distance travelled in 12 hours = 2(35 + 57) = 6 × 92 = 552 km
Q. 131 Seema bought a mobile at a discount of 20%. Had she received a discount of 25%, she could have saved an additional ₹1000. How much did she pay for the mobile ?
A. ₹24,000
B. ₹22,000
C. ₹25,000
D. ₹16,000
Answer: D.
Explanation: Let the MRP of the mobile be Rs.100x
Discount = 20% of Rs.100x = Rs.20x
Selling Price = Rs.100x – Rs.20x = Rs.80x
If the discount is 25%, then Selling Price = 75% of Rs.100x = Rs.75x
Q. 132 The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 60.25 kg and that of the remaining 10 boys is 45.75 kg. The average weight of all boys in the class is:
A. 54.67
B. 53.76
C. 55.37
D. 56.27
Answer: A.
Explanation: Given, Average weight of 16 students = 60.25 kg
Then, Total weight of 16 students = 60.25*16 = 964 kg
Average weight of 10 students = 45.75 kg
Then, Total weight of 10 students = 45.75*10 = 457.5 kg/1421.5 26
Then, Total weight of 26 students = 964+457.5 = 1421.5 kg
Therefore, Average weight of 26 students = 26 = 54.67kg
Q. 133 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.
In the given line graph, what is the total sale of Products A. and B. in the year 2007?
A. 13460
B. 10290
C. 11500
D. 12490
Answer: B.
Explanation: Production of A. in 2007 = Rs.7000
Sale of A. in 2007 = 75% of Rs.7000 = Rs.5250
Production of B. in 2007 = Rs.9000
Sale of B. in 2007 = 56% of Rs.9000 = Rs.5040
Total sale of A. and B. in 2007 = Rs.5250+Rs.5040 = Rs.10290
Q. 134 A. cube of side 1 m length is cut into small cubes of side 10 cm each. How many such small cubes can be obtained?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 10000
D. 1000
Answer: D.
Explanation: Number of small cubes = Volume of large cube/Volume of each small cube
10313=10001=1000
Q. 135 A. sells a car to B. at 10% loss. If B. sells it for ₹5,40,000 and gains 20%. the cost price of the car for A. was:
A. ₹5,10,000
B. ₹5,40,000
C. ₹5,20,000
D. ₹5,00,000
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Q. 136 If a + b = 8,ab = −12, then a3 + b3
A. -244
B. -833
C. 800
D. 833
Answer: C.
Explanation: Given a + b = 8 ab = −12
Then, a3 + b3 = (a + b)3 − 3ab(a + b)
= 83 − 3(−12)(8) = 512 + 288 = 800
Q. 137 The given pie-chart, shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.
In the given pie-chart, by what percentage Printing and Binding cost on the book is less than the other costs?
A. 50/3
B. 100/3
C. 47/3
D. 20/3
Answer: B.
Explanation: Total Printing and Binding cost = 20+20 = 40% of total cost
Other costs = 10+25+15+10 60% of total cost.
Therefore, Required percentage = 60
Q. 138 4/3 tan2 600 + 3cos2 300 – 2sec2 300 – ¾ cot2 600 is equal to:
Q. 139 The average of 26 numbers is zero. Of them, how many may be greater than zero, at the most?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 20
D. 15
Answer: B.
Explanation: Given that the average of 26 numbers is zero. Then, Sum of 26 numbers = 0 In that, If sum of 25 numbers is 25a, then the 26th number should be -25a. Hence, Maximum 25 numbers can be greater than zero.
Q. 140 What will be total cost of polishing curved surface of a wooden cylinder at rate of ₹20 per m 2 , if its diameter is 40 m and height is 7 m?
A. ₹18600
B. ₹18400
C. ₹17500
D. ₹17600
Answer: D.
Explanation: Given, Diameter of the cylinder = 40 m Radius of the cylinder = 20 m Height of the cylinder = 7 m Curved
surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh
= 2 × 22/7× 20 × 7 = 880m2
For 1 sq.m, Rs.20 will be charged.
Then, for 880 sq.m, Rs.20*880 = Rs.17600 will be charged.
Q. 141 A. can do a work in 20 days, while B. can do the same work in 25 days. They started the work jointly. Few days later C. also joined them and thus all of them completed the whole work in 10 days. All of them were paid total of ₹700. What is the share of C?
A. ₹75
B. ₹55
C. ₹70
D. ₹65
Answer: C.
Explanation: Given, A. can do the work in 20 days. B. can do the work in 25 days
Efficiency of A. = 100/20 = 5%
Efficiency of B. = 100/25 = 4%
After a few days, C. joined.
If they work for 10 days, then (5+4)*10 = 90% of work will be completed by A. and B.
Remaining 10% of work will be done by C.
Hence, Salary of C. will be 10% of Rs.700 = Rs.70.
Instructions: The given bar chart. shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.
Q. 142 In the given bar-chart, total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 taken together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is:
A. 560
B. 240
C. 310
D. 650
Answer: A.
Explanation: Total sales of B1(in thousands) = 105+80 = 185
Total sales of B3(in thousands) = 95+110 = 205
Total sales of B5(in thousands) = 75+95 = 170
Total sales of B1, B3 and B5 together(in thousands) = 185+205+170 = 560
Q. 143 In the given bar-chart, the ratio of total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 to total sales of branches B2, B4 and B6 taken together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is:
A. 45 : 23
B. 47 : 56
C. 56 : 47
D. 23 : 45
Answer: C.
Explanation: Total sales of B1(in thousands) = 105+80 = 185
Total sales of B3(in thousands) = 95+110 = 205
Total sales of B5(in thousands) = 75+95 = 170
Total sales of B1, B3 and B5 together(in thousands) = 185+205+170 = 560
Total sales of B2(in thousands) = 75+65 = 140
Total sales of B4(in thousands) = 85+95 = 180
Total sales of B6(in thousands) = 70+80 = 150
Total sales of B2, B4 and B6 together(in thousands) = 140+180+150 = 470
Therefore, Ratio = 560 : 470 = 56 : 47.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 144 From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is . If the tower is 270 m high. the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 476.65 m
B. 367.65 m
C. 467.65 m
D. 376.65 m
Answer: C.
Explanation: Given, Height of the tower = 270 m
Let the distance from the foot of the tower to P be x m
Tan30 = AB/BP
13=270x
x=2703=2701.732=467.65m
Q. 145 The product of two numbers is 6760 and their HCF is 13. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B.
Explanation: Let the two numbers be 13x and 13y since HCF is divisible by two numbers.
13x × 13y = 6760
169xy = 6760
xy = 40
For HCF to be 13, there should be no common factors except 1.
Then, (x,y) can be (5,8) and (1,40).
Therefore, The numbers can be 13*5,13*8 = 65,104 and 13*1,13*40 = 13,520
Therefore, There can be 2 pairs of such numbers.
Q. 146 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank. if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?
A. 18
B. 16
C. 15
D. 17
Answer: A.
Explanation: Number of buckets1 x Capacity of each bucket1 = Number of buckets2 x Capacity of each bucket2
12 × 13.5 = 9 × x
=> x = 18
Therefore, Number of buckets required = 18 litres.
Q. 147 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.
In the given line graph, what is the total sale of Product B. in the year 2004 and 2008 together?
A. 12500
B. 14600
C. 11950
D. 11825
Answer: D.
Explanation: Production of B. in 2004 = 8500
Sale of B. in 2004 = 55% of 8500 = 4675
Production of B. in 2008 = 11000
Sale of B. in 2008 = 65% of 11000 = 7150
Total sale of B. in 2004 and 2008 together = 4675+7150 = 11825.
Q. 148 Original breadth of a rectangular box is 20 cm. The box was then remade in such a way that its length increased by 30% but the breadth decreased by 20% and the area increased by 100 cm2. What is the new area of the box?
A. 2500 cm2
B. 2200 cm2
C. 2400 cm2
D. 2600 cm2
Answer: D.
Explanation: Let the length of the rectangle be l cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 20 cm
Area of the rectangle = 20l sq.cm
New length of the rectangle = 130% of l = 1.3l cm
New breadth of the rectangle = 80% of 20 = 16 cm
New area of the rectangle = 16*1.3l = 20.8l sq.cm
Given, 20.8l – 20l = 100
=> 0.8l = 100 => l = 125 cm
Therefore, New length of the rectangle = 1.3*125 = 162.5 cm
New area of the rectangle = 162.5*16 = 2600 sq.cm
Q. 149 The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pic-chart and answer the questions based on it.
In the given pie-chart, by what percentage the Royalty on the book is less than the Printing cost?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B.
Explanation: Expenditure of Royalty of book = 20%
Expenditure of printing = 15%
Required percentage = 20 – 1520100=520100=25%
Q. 150 3 men, 4 women and 6 children can complete a work in 7 days. A. woman does double the work a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this work in 7 days?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 9
D. 7
Answer: D.
Explanation: Efficiency of 2 children = Efficiency of 1 men = Efficiency of ½ women
Efficiency of 1 child = Efficiency of ¼ women
Efficiency of 6 children = Efficiency of 3/2 women
Therefore, Total efficiency of 3 men, 4 women and 6 children = 3/2 + 4 + 3/2 = 3 + 4 = 7 women
Therefore, 7 women are required to complete the work in 7 days.
English
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 151 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
It is known that …………, extreme weather, and diseases are the factors responsible for crop failure.
A. draught
B. draft
C. daft
D. drought
Answer: D.
Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Passage:
By the 19205 the improvements in street lighting, domestic lighting and a surge in coffee houses – which were sometimes open all night — was complete. As the night became a place for legitimate activity, the length of time people could dedicate to rest dwindled.” Evening’s Empire puts forward an account of how this happened. “Associations with night before the 17th Century were not good,” it says. “The night was a place populated by people of disrepute – criminals, prostitutes and drunks. Even the wealthy, who could afford candlelight, had better things to spend their money on. There was no prestige or social value associated with staying up all night.”
That changed in the wake of the Reformation and the counter- Reformation. Protestants and Catholics became accustomed to holding secret services at night. If earlier the night had belonged to reprobates, now respectable people became accustomed to exploiting the hours of darkness. This trend migrated to the social sphere too, but only for those who could afford to live by candlelight. With the advent of street lighting, however, socializing at night began to filter down through the classes.
In 1667, Paris became the first city in the world to light its streets, using wax candles in glass lamps. It was followed by Lille in the same year and Amsterdam two years later, where a much more efficient oil powered lamp was developed. A. small city like Leipzig in central Germany employed 100 men to tend to 700 lamps. London didn‘t join their ranks until 1684 but by the end of the century, more than 50 of Europe’s major tovms and cities were lit at night. Night became fashionable and spending hours lying in bed was considered a waste of time.
“People were becoming increasingly time-conscious and sensitive to efficiency, certainly before the 19th Century,” says Roger Ekirch. “But the industrial revolution intensified that attitude by leaps and bounds.” Strong evidence of this shifting attitude is contained in a medical journal from 1829 which urged parents to force their children out of a pattern of first and second sleep. “If no disease or accident there intervene, they will need no further repose than that obtained in their first sleep.”
Today, most people seem to have adapted quite well to the eight-hour sleep, but Ekirch believes many sleeping problems may have roots in the human body’s natural preference for segmented sleep as well as the ubiquity of artificial light. This could be the root of a condition called sleep maintenance insomnia, where people wake during the night and have trouble getting back to sleep, he suggests. The condition first appears in literature at the end of the 19th Century, at the same time as accounts of segmented sleep disappear.
Q. 152 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the nights in 19205 in Europe?
A. Mostly people of disrepute haunted the streets at night.
B. Nights became a time for legitimate activity
C. Protestants and Catholics started holding secret services at night.
D. Socializing at night became common among all classes.
Answer: A.
Q. 153 Which of the following phenomena helped classdivision vanish vis-a-vis nightlife?
A. Counter-reformation
B. Reformation
C. Streetlights
D. Cheaper candles
Answer: C.
Q. 154 The author observes, “by the end of the century, more than 50 of Europe’s major towns and cities were lit at night.” Which century was he referring to?
A. 17th century
B. 19th century
C. 16th century
D. 20th century
Answer: A.
Q. 155 In which city were 100 men employed to tend to 700 lamps?
A. London
B. Lille
C. Amsterdam
D. Leipzig
Answer: D.
Q. 156 Which is the most significant cause of sleep maintenance insomnia?
A. ubiquity of artificial light
B. waking up during the night
C. a gowing belief in eight-hour-sleep blocs
D. ignoring the human body’s natural preference for segmented sleep
Answer: D.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 157 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. miniature
B. municipality
C. monopoly
D. manpulates
Answer: D.
Q. 158 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
The problem of world hunger arises because of the economic inequality that distort food distribution.
A. that distort food distribution.
B. The problem of
C. because of the economic inequality
D. world hunger arises
Answer: A.
Q. 159 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Economic growth is sustainable only if all countries has food security.
A. sustainable only if
B. Economic growth is
C. has food security.
D. all countries
Answer: C.
Q. 160 Select the synonym of the given word PLEDGED.
A. promised
B. respected
C. fulfilled
D. honored
Answer: A.
Q. 161 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom. Go against the grain.
A. Something that is ugy and unpopular
B. Something in conflict with one’s value system
C. Something that we can accept with dilficulty
D. Something done deliberately
Answer: B.
Q. 162 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To beat a dead horse
A. A. significant effort
B. A. filtile effort
C. A. deliberate effort
D. A. joint effort
Answer: B.
Q. 163 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. constitutional right to cast vote
A. licensed
B. franking
C. fianchise
D. duty
Answer: C.
Q. 164 Select the antonym of the given word. PROVISIONAL
A. planned
B. permanent
C. insured
D. supplied
Answer: B.
Q. 165 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. power of reading thoughts of others
A. telepathy
B. medium
C. astrology
D. instinct
Answer: A.
Q. 166 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Bite the bullet
A. to restrain yourself from doing something unpleasant
B. to force yourself to do something unpleasant
C. to amuse yourself by doing something unpleasant
D. to dislike yourself for having done something unpleasant
Answer: B.
Q. 167 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.
With cloth in demand both at home, where the population was increasing, and abroad, where British colonies were a captive market, improving spinning methods were essential to meet the demand.
A. improve spinning methods were essential
B. improved spinning methods were essential
C. improved spirming methods was essential
D. No improvement
Answer: B.
Q. 168 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a place for the collection of dried plants
A. museum
B. aquarium
C. herbarium
D. flora
Answer: C.
Q. 169 Select the synonym of the given word. BENEFICIARIES
A. addressers
B. recipients
C. profiteers
D. donors
Answer: B.
Q. 170 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.
With Mumbai’s mad rush and heavy traffic, it becomes extremely difficult for people to reach their destination on time.
A. reached their destination on time.
B. to reaching their destination on time.
C. to reach their destination at time.
D. No improvement
Answer: D.
Q. 171 Select the synonym of the given word PREVENTIVE
A. prophetic
B. prepared
C. predicted
D. protective
Answer: D.
Q. 172 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. During the Great Depression, America’s dance marathon craze was more of a ……… strategy than a form of ………..
A. basic; entertainment
B. fundamental; celebration
C. survival; entertainment
D. survival; education
Answer: C.
Q. 173 Select the synonym of the given word. NEGLECTED.
A. superfluous
B. unknown
C. ignored
D. negated
Answer: C.
Q. 174 Select the antonym of the given word. PROVINCIAL
A. pastoral
B. public
C. rustic
D. metropolitan
Answer: D.
Q. 175 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. fasinated
B. fashion
C. facsimile
D. fastidious
Answer: A.
Q. 176 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.
Eighteenth-century machines typically used water power, hence the early factories was located on the fast-flowing rivers.
A. were located near the fast-flowing rivers.
B. was located near the fast-flowing rivers.
C. were located on the fast-flowing rivers.
D. No improvement
Answer: A.
Q. 177 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Trachoma is a debilitating and painful ……… which can cause the eyelashes to turn inwards and stab the eye.
A. taint
B. infection
C. contagion
D. factor
Answer: B.
Q. 178 Select the most appropriate meanmg of the given idiom. Caught red-handed
A. To discover a murderer using the clues
B. To catch a thief who steals red paints
C. To catch someone doing something illegal
D. To try to arrest someone without any evidence
Answer: C.
Q. 179 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Always a bridesmaid never a bride
A. Someone who always comes second
B. Someone who is born unlucky
C. Someone who fulfills his or her potential
D. Someone who does not deserve to win
Answer: A.
Q. 180 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. parakeets
B. pupeteer
C. puppies
D. parapet
Answer: B.
Q. 181 Select the antonym of the given word. SUBDUED.
A. subtle
B. excited
C. hushed
D. motivated
Answer: B
Q. 182 Identify the segnent in the sentence; which contains the grammatical error.
That his body did not decompose confirmed what the Greeks thought about him and what Alexander use to believe about himself-that he was not an ordinary man, but a god.
A. thought about him
B. he was not an ordinary man
C. use to believe about himself
D. his body did not decompose
Answer: C.
Q. 183 Identify the segment in the sentence; which contains the grammatical error.
When Alexander the Great died in Babylon in 323 B.C., his body didn’t begin to show signs of decomposition for a full six day, according to historical accounts.
A. his body didn’t begin to show
B. When Alexander the Great died
C. signs of decomposition for a full six day
D. according to historical accounts
Answer: C.
Q. 184 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. indicate
B. innovate
C. invite
D. innundate
Answer: D
Q. 185 Select the most approprlate Viord for the given group of words. excessive bureaucratic fuss
A. footnotes
B. red-tape
C. fastidious
D. officious
Answer: B.
Q. 186 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Moisture created ………. multitudes of visitors over the years has damaged King Tut’s tomb more than any vandalism and so conservators are working to …………… the historic monument …………. the impact of heavy-breathing, heavysweating tourists.
A. by; guard; against
B. by; dry; off
C. from; dry; against
D. from; guard; from
Answer: A.
Q. 187 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a book that contains information on various subjects
A. magazine
B. omnibus
C. guide
D. encyclopedia
Answer: D.
Q. 188 Select the antonym of the given word. INDICTED.
A. imprisoned
B. examined
C. hanged
D. released
Answer: D.
Q. 189 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Scientists and politicians are ……….. becoming aware of another factor that could seriously threaten the ………… balance between production and consumption of food and climate change.
A. duo; questionable
B. alike; shaky
C. both; tenuous
D. alike; feeble
Answer: C.
Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.
The growing demand for cotton spurred the Industrial Revolution in Britain and inducing Southern planters in America to grows more cotton.
A. No improvement
B. inducing Southern planters in America grew more cotton
C. induce Southern planters in America to grow more cotton
D. induced Southern planters in America to grow more cotton
Answer: D.
Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. Passage:
Eating white bread and ready meals could be killing us, according to the first major study linking ‘fiilh‘a-processed” food with ………… (1) death. The study of 45,000 middle-aged people found that every 10 per cent increase in ……………. (2) of “ultra-processed food” was linked to a 14 per cent ……………. (3) risk of death within the next eight years. Previous research has linked consumption …………… (4) foods like white bread, ready meals, sausages, sugary cereals, fizzy drinks to a higher risk of high blood ………… (5) and cancer.
Q. 191 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.1.
A. quiet
B. early
C. easy
D. late
Answer: B.
Q. 192 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.2.
A. input
B. digestion
C. making
D. intake
Answer: D.
Q. 193 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.3.
A. declined
B. decreased
C. improved
D. increased
Answer: D.
Q. 194 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.4.
A. on
B. in
C. from
D. of
Answer: D.
Q. 195 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.5.
A. coagulation
B. clotting
C. pressure
D. infection
Answer: C.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 196 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. elementary
B. alleviasion
C. olfactory
D. election
Answer: B.
Q. 197 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Hemophilia, a blood clotting disorder, can be passed about the maternal line vdthin families; men are more likely to develop it, while women are usually carriers.
A. likely to develop it
B. a blood clotting disorder
C. can be passed about
D. the maternal line
Answer: C.
Q. 198 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.
As a result of various inventions during Victoria’s reign, travel and communication became better and improved sanitation techniques turn filthy streets in clean roads.
A. turning filthy streets in clean roads.
B. turn filthy streets into clean roads.
C. No improvement
D. turned filthy streets into clean roads.
Answer: D.
Q. 199 Select the synonym of the given word. DISPROPORTIONATELY
A. unscientifically
B. unreasonably
C. unvaryingly
D. unknowingly
Answer: B.
Q. 200 Select the antonym of the given word. ASSAULT
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 If AT = 20 and BEG = 70, then BANK = ……….
A. 318
B. 308
C. 228
D. 282
Answer: B
Q. 2 Identify the number that does NOT belong in the given series.
5, 9, 17, 29, 55, 65
A. 55
B. 29
C. 9
D. 5
Answer: A.
Q. 3 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 2047
B. 4702
C. 6041
D. 4306
Answer: C.
Q. 4 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct mirror image of the given figure?
Answer: D.
Q. 5 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Vegetables, Brinjal, Apple
Answer: C.
Q. 6 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (18, 54, 36)
A. (16, 40, 32)
B. (10, 40, 20)
C. (2, 6, 10)
D. (8, 24, 16)
Answer: D.
Q. 7 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given word-pair. Steel: Iron
A. Chromium : Silver
B. Brass : Copper
C. Bronze : Iron
D. Nickel : Tin
Answer: B.
Q. 8 Choose the option which has the same relation as the words given below : Airplane : Airport/Hangar
A. Car : Garage
B. Farm : Grains
C. Objects : Store/Storehouse
D. Horse : Saddle
Answer: A.
Q. 9 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
7 − 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 3 = 8 × 3 + 6 ÷ 2 − 3
A. 4 and 5
B. 7 and 5
C. 4 and 2
D. 6 and 7
Answer: B.
Q. 10 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1) Editor
2) Publisher
3) Author
4) Reader
5) Bookseller
A. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
D. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Answer: A.
Q. 11 If ‘ × ’ stands for addition, ‘ ÷ ’ stands for subtraction, ‘ + ’ stands for multiplication, and ‘ − ’ stands for division, then what will be the value of the following expression?
26 ÷ 13 × 8 + 6 − 2
A. 17
B. 47
C. 27
D. 37
Answer: D.
Q. 12 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s) from the statements.
Statements: Some roads are metros. Some metros are cars.
Conclusions:
I. All cars are either roads or metros.
II. Some cars are metros.
A. Only conclusion I follows.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Only conclusion II follows.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
Answer: C.
Q. 13 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. Lion
B. Whale
C. Elephant
D. Shark
Answer: D.
Q. 14 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Jaisalmer, Jaipur, Rajasthan
Answer: D.
Q. 15 Three of the following four number pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 37 : 75
B. 29 : 59
C. 28 : 56
D. 26 : 53
Answer: C.
Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. ADGJ : ZWTQ :: MPSV : ………
A. NKHE
B. MKHE
C. NJGC.
D. GJLM
Answer: A.
Q. 17 ‘Optimist’ is related to ‘Pessimist’ in the same way as ‘Cheerful’ is related to ‘ ………
A. Selfish
B. Beautiful
C. Ugly
D. Gloomy
Answer: D.
Q. 18 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (12, 37, 112)
A. (15, 46, 139)
B. (7, 24, 73)
C. (13, 40, 118)
D. (9, 28, 83)
Answer: A.
Q. 19 Select the number-pair in which the two timbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 13 : 174
A. 15 : 224
B. 8 : 69
C. 14 : 200
D. 9 : 81
Answer: B.
Q. 20 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. KOTZ
B. DHMS
C. GIMP
D. FJOU
Answer: C.
Q. 21 In a certain code langiage, SON is written as 345 and ROAM is written as 6412. How will RANSOM be written as in the same language?
A. 615342
B. 651342
C. 615324
D. 612435
Answer: A.
Q. 22 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 15 : 115
B. 23 : 161
C. 29 : 203
D. 27 : 189
Answer: A.
Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. HVW : FTU :: DRS : …….
A. FTU
B. BOQ
C. BPQ
D. APQ
Answer: C.
Q. 24 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
1, 4, 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, ?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 31
D. 21
Answer: D.
Q. 25 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
7, 14, 33, 70, 131, ?
A. 190
B. 218
C. 131
D. 222
Answer: D.
Q. 26 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: C.
Q. 27 Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. UFXC.
B. SHBY
C. TGPK
D. YAJQ
Answer: D.
Q. 28 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1) Knee 2) Heel 3) Ankle 4) Thigh 5) Calf
A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
C. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Answer: D.
Q. 29 If sign ‘+’ is interchanged with ‘÷’ and number ‘2’ is interchanged with ‘6’, which of the following equations would be correct?
A. 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 8
B. 2 + 8 ÷ 6 = 6
C. 2 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8
D. 2 + 6 ÷ 8 = 11
Answer: D.
Q. 30 Choose the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed to the right of the word.
Answer: A.
Q. 31 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: B.
Q. 32 How many squares are there in the following figure?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: C.
Q. 33 If in a language, ‘foot’ is called ‘elbow’, ‘elbow’ is called ‘ankle’, ‘ankle’ is called ‘palm’, ‘palm’ is called ‘finger’ and ‘finger’ is called ‘knee’, then in that language, on what would one wear a ring?
A. Ankle
B. Knee
C. Palm
D. Finger
Answer: B.
Q. 34 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is difierent. Identify the different one.
A. 9 : 729
B. 13 : 2197
C. 7 : 343
D. 17 : 4814
Answer: D.
Q. 35 Select the option that is embedded in the following figure. (Rotation is not allowed)
Answer: C.
Q. 36 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements: No Tablet is a lion. All lions are bells.
Conclusions:
I. No bell is the tablet.
II. Some bells are lions.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Both conclusions I and II follow.
C. Only conclusion II follows.
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Answer: C.
Q. 37 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
IVM, HWL, GXK, FYJ, ?
A. EZH
B. EAH
C. EZI
D. DZI
Answer: C
Q. 38 Which letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? B, E, H, K, N, ?
A. O
B. P
C. Q
D. N
Answer: C.
Q. 39 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Fathers, Doctors, Singers
Answer: A.
Q. 40 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 68: 30
A. 350 : 49
B. 222 : 131
C. 125 : 27
D. 520 : 350
Answer: D
Q. 41 The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown. How would this paper look when unfolded?
Answer: D.
Q. 42 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. Potato
B. Garlic
C. Tomato
D. Ginger
Answer: C.
Q. 43 A. man is facing towards the east. He then turns 45∘ anti-clockwise, again 180∘ anti-clockwise and then 225∘ clock wise. In which direction is he facing now?
A. West
B. North
C. South
D. East
Answer: D.
Q. 44 If in a certain code, EDITION is written as VWRGRLM, then which word will be coded as SLMVHGB?
A. HAUGHTY
B. HONESTY
C. AMNESTY
D. EDITORS
Answer: B.
Q. 45 ‘Belgium’ is related to ‘Europe’ in the same way as ‘Japan’ is related to ‘…..’.
A. Africa
B. Australia
C. Asia
D. Europe
Answer: C.
Q. 46 From his house, Avinash went to Kapil’s house situated 500 m towards the north-east of his own house. From there, both of them went to Varun’s house situated 400 m towards the south of Kapil’s house. What is the shortest distance between Avinash’s current location and his location at the beginning?
A. 900 m
B. 400 m
C. 300 m
D. 500 m
Answer: C.
Q. 47 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 23 : 138 :: 17 : ………
A. 96
B. 102
C. 346
D. 56
Answer: B.
Q. 48 If the following figure is folded to form a cube, how many dots would appear on the face opposite the face bearing four dots?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 6
D. 2
Answer: A.
Q. 49 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.
Answer: B.
Q. 50 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: D.
General knowledge
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 Which of the following would you associate with the word ‘dioptre’?
A. Urology
B. Ophthalmology
C. Neurology
D. Oncology
Answer: B.
Q. 52 ………. fabric fiom Madhya Pradesh is registered with a GI tag.
A. Pembarthi
B. Chanderi
C. Bhagalpuri
D. Sholapuri
Answer: B.
Q. 53 Which of the following is NOT a nationalised bank?
A. South Indian Bank
B. Syndicate Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Vijaya Bank
Answer: A.
Q. 54 Which of the following is NOT a national political party?
A. Nationalist Congress Party
B. Bhartiya Janata Party
C. United Democratic Party
D. Indian National Congress
Answer: C.
Q. 55 ‘Expectation is the root of all heartache’ is a quote by ……….
A. William Shakespeare
B. Dalai Lama
C. Mahavir
D. Buddha
Answer: A.
Q. 56 Considered one of the best in India, Temi Tea garden is the only tea estate in the state of:
A. West Bengal
B. Sikkim
C. Assam
D. Odisha
Answer: B.
Q. 57 Which renowned tabla player’s son is also a famous tabla player who has collaborated with international bands?
A. Ustad Bismillah Khan
B. Ustad Amjad Ali
C. Ustad Allah Rakha
D. Ustad Rashid Khan
Answer: C.
Q. 58 Who was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal?
A. Karunam Malleswari
B. Saina Nehwal
C. Mary Kom
D. Sakshi Malik
Answer: A.
Q. 59 ……… was honoured with the “Outstanding Parliamentarian Award” in 2017.
A. Hukum Dev Narayan
B. Bhartruhari Mahtab
C. Ghulam Nabi Azad
D. Dinesh Trivedi
Answer: B.
Q. 60 …….. is the biography of Sachin Tendulkar.
A. The Test of My Life
B. Playing to Win
C. Playing It My Way
D. Ace Against Odds
Answer: C
Q. 61 In humans, each cell normally contains ……….. pairs of chromosomes.
A. 22
B. 24
C. 23
D. 21
Answer: C.
Q. 62 Mangal Pandey was hanged in 1857 for attacking the British officers in:
A. Allahabad
B. Benaras
C. Calcutta
D. Barrackpore
Answer: D.
Q. 63 Who discovered radium?
A. Abdus Salam
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Pierre and Marie Currie
D. Ronald Ross
Answer: C.
Q. 64 Who is the second woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A. Smriti Irani
B. Nirmala Sitharaman
C. Meira Kumar
D. Suman Mahajan
Answer: D.
Q. 65 India celebrates National Engineer’s Day on September 15, which is the birth anniversary of:
A. Veeru Shahastrabuddhi
B. Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya
C. E. Sreedharan
D. Shiva Ayyadurai
Answer: B.
Q. 66 ………… was the first President of the Bharatiya Janata Party.
A. Kushabhau Thakre
B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
C. Lal Krishna Advani
D. Murli Manohar Joshi
Answer: B.
Q. 67 Nepa Nagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for:
A. Steel Mills
B. Pottery
C. Sugar Mills
D. Newsprint Factory
Answer: D.
Q. 68 ‘All the world’s a stage, And all the men and women merely players’ — is a phrase from the play:
A. Macbeth
B. Julius Ceaser
C. The Merchant of Venice
D. As You Like It
Answer: D.
Q. 69 The Thimithi festival in Tamil Nadu is celebrated in the honor of:
A. Padmavati
B. Sita
C. Draupadi
D. Surpanakha
Answer: C.
Q. 70 Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) was established in:
A. 2001
B. 2005
C. 2003
D. 2006
Answer: D.
Q. 71 Penicillin, one of the world’s first antibiotics, was discovered by:
A. Marie Curie
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Alexander Graham Bell
D. Pierre Curie
Answer: B.
Q. 72 The Wright brothers completed the world’s first successfiil controlled powered flight in:
A. 1908
B. 1909
C. 1911
D. 1903
Answer: D.
Q. 73 The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in:
A. 1988
B. 1984
C. 1976
D. 1967
Answer: B.
Q. 74 Which of the following has an odometer?
A. Water heater
B. Car
C. Blood pressure monitoring device
D. Air pump
Answer: B.
Q. 75 The ………… period has been described as the ‘golden age’ of Indian history.
A. Mughal
B. Maratha
C. Gupta
D. Buddhist
Answer: C
Q. 76 Which of the following is NOT a printing press of the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL)?
A. Bank Note Press
B. Bank Security Press
C. Currency Note Press
D. Security Printing Press
Answer: B.
Q. 77 The Sanskrit phrase “Atithi Devo Bhava” means:
A. I salute you
B. The guest is God
C. Good day
D. See you soon
Answer: B.
Q. 78 Which Indian State/Union Territory has the shortest coastline?
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Puducherry
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C.
Q. 79 Who among the following is the highest-rated Visually impaired chess player in India?
A. Darpan Inani
B. Baskaran Adhiban
C. Krishnan Sasikiran
D. Pentala Harikrislma
Answer: A.
Q. 80 ………… was officially acknowledged as the most recorded artist in music history by the Guinness Book of World Records in 2011.
A. Mariah Carey
B. Asha Bhosle
C. Lata Mangeshkar
D. Beyonce
Answer: B.
Q. 81 Which Gharana of classical singing did late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?
A. Etawah
B. Malhar
C. Kirana
D. Dhrupad
Answer: C.
Q. 82 As of January 2019 ……….. was the longest serving Chief Minister of Gujarat.
A. Keshubhai Patel
B. Narendra Modi
C. Madhav Singh Solanki
D. Chimanbhai Patel
Answer: B.
Q. 83 Ohm’s Law states that:
A. Electric current = Voltage / Resistance
B. Power = Voltage +Current
C. Power = Voltage × Current
D. Electric current = Resistance / Voltage
Answer: A.
Q. 84 The Test of My Llfe is an autobiography of.
A. Yuvraj Singh
B. Sachin Tendulkar
C. MS Dhoni
D. Gautam Gambhir
Answer: A.
Q. 85 The names of the Wright brothers credited with inventing the airplane were:
A. William and Oliver
B. William and Orville
C. Wilbur and Orville
D. Wilbm and Oliver
Answer: C.
Q. 86 As on December 12, 2018 The Nationalist Congress Party was led by:
A. Sudhakar Reddy
B. Sharad Pawar
C. Rahul Gandhi
D. Sitararn Yechury
Answer: B.
Q. 87 Kanishka was a ……….. king.
A. Kushan
B. Gupta
C. Maurya
D. Chola
Answer: A.
Q. 88 ‘Sardeshmukhi’ in the Maratha regime was a:
A. Designation equivalent to Peshwa
B. A. coin during the Maratha regime
C. Tax levied on revenue
D. Name given to Shivaji
Answer: C.
Q. 89 ………. is the stigma of Crocus Sativus L.
A. Safiron
B. Turmeric
C. Artichoke
D. Ginger
Answer: A.
Q. 90 What is known as Hunter’s Moon in the West, is called as ……….. in India.
A. Pausha Purnima
B. Magha Purnima
C. Chaitra Purnima
D. Kartik Purnima
Answer: D.
Q. 91 Which of the following states is NOT famous for the Bhut Jolokia pepper?
A. Odisha
B. Nagaland
C. Manipur
D. Assam
Answer: A.
Q. 92 Inertia is proportional to:
A. Mass
B. Weight
C. Length
D. Height
Answer: A.
Q. 93 Fulminology is the study of:
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. Lightening
C. Natural gases
D. Atmosphere
Answer: B.
Q. 94 The …….. is a tax on production/manufacture of goods within the country.
A. Sales tax
B. Excise duty
C. Service tax
D. Customs duty
Answer: B.
Q. 95 Devanagari evolved from the ………. script.
A. Brahmi
B. Inuktikut
C. Hebrew
D. Kana
Answer: A.
Q. 96 ………… won a gold medal by setting a world record score in the men’s skeet final event of the 8th Asian Shotgun Championship held in Kuwait in December 2018.
A. Saeed Al Maktoum
B. Angad Vir Singh Bajwa
C. Vijay Kumar
D. Jitu Rai
Answer: B.
Q. 97 Which Indian state has the maximum number of sea ports?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Maharashtra
C. Gujarat
D. Kamataka
Answer: B.
Q. 98 The Mughal empire reached its greatest extent under:
A. Jahangir
B. Shah Jahan
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb
Answer: D.
Q. 99 ………… means the minimum lending rate which is determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and no bank is allowed to lend funds below this rate.
A. Cash reserve ratio
B. Base rate
C. Repo rate
D. Marginal cost
Answer: B.
Q. 100 This contemporary Indian dancer who merged Kathak and Kathakali with other dance forms has been awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1996 and Padma Shri in 2007. His/her name is:
A. Birju Maharaj
B. Jailal Misra
C. Astad Deboo
D. Uday Shankar
Answer: C.
Quant
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 101 If x − 1/ x= 2√ 2 , then x2 + 1/ x2is equal to:
A. 16
B. 12
C. 11
D. 10
Answer: D.
Q. 102 2.4 converted to percentage is.
A. 0.24
B. 24
C. 240
D. 2.4
Answer: C.
Q. 103 A can do a work in 30 days, B can do the same work in 48 days. After working alone for 20 days A left and B started working, how long will B take to complete the work?
A. 24 days
B. 28 days
C. 38 days
D. 16 days
Answer: D.
Q. 104 The given pie chart shows the favorite sport of students of a school.
In the given pie-chart, if there were 1280 students in all, how many liked football?
A. 102
B. 550
C. 230
D. 384
Answer: D.
Q. 105 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4 and the perimeter is 72 cm. The sides are:
A. 24, 16, 32
B. 48, 24, 12
C. 36, 24, 12
D. 36, 18, 9
Answer: A.
Q. 106 What percent of 2.4 m is 3.2 cm?
A. 75 %
B. 7.5 %
C. 1000⅓ %
D. 13⅓ %
Answer: D.
Q. 107 A shopkeeper buys a book for ₹2,500 and marks its price at 15% above cost. He allows a discount of ₹345. The discount percentage is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 11
D. 13
Answer: B
Q. 108 A sum at a Simple interest of 8% pa. becomes 7/5 of itself in how many years?
A. 5
B. 2½
C. 3½
D. 2
Answer: A.
Q. 109 PA and PB are two tangents to a circle with centre O, from a point P outside the circle. A and B are points on the circle. If ∠OAB = 38∘ , then ∠APB is equal to:
A. 25∘
B. 35∘
C. 20∘
D. 76∘
Answer: D.
Q. 110 The largest number of four digits that is exactly divisible by 15, 21 and 30 is:
A. 9840
B. 9910
C. 9830
D. 9870
Answer: D
Q. 111 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.
In the given bar chart, What is the difference between the average sales of televisions A and B for 3 years?
A. 78
B. 56
C. 104
D. 60
Answer: D.
Q. 112 Two pipes can fill a cistern in 72 and 90 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are left open how long will it take for the cistern to be half full?
A. 40 minutes
B. 24 minutes
C. 48 minutes
D. 20 minutes
Answer: D.
Q. 113 A. watch was sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold at ₹77 more the profit percent would have been 12%. The cost price of the watch is:
A. ₹3,760
B. ₹3,850
C. ₹3,945
D. ₹3,900
Answer: B.
Q. 114 Find the cost of carpeting a room which is 11 m long and 6 m broad by a carpet which is 60 cm broad at the rate of ₹112.50 per meter.
A. ₹12,375
B. ₹13,280
C. ₹11,695
D. ₹12,040
Answer: A.
Q. 115 A. trader allows a discount of 8% on the marked price. If the selling price is ₹667, the discount in rupees is:
A. ₹47
B. ₹54
C. ₹58
D. ₹43
Answer: C.
Q. 116 A field is 119 m×18 m in dimension. A tank of 17 m×6 m×3 m is dug out in the middle and the soil removed is evenly spread over the remaining part of the field. The increase in level on the remaining part of the field is:
A. 14 cm
B. 13 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 12 cm
Answer: C.
Q. 117 Divide ₹8,288 between A, B, and C. such that the proportion of their shares is 5 : 7 : 9. The share of C is:
A. ₹2,032
B. ₹3,552
C. ₹3,872
D. ₹2,612
Answer: B.
Q. 118 If 15 men can do a piece of work in 14 days, how many men will be needed to do the work in 30 days?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: C.
Q. 119 The interest on ₹24,000 in 2 years compounded annually when the rates are 8% p.a and 10% p.a for two successive years is:
A. ₹3,994
B. ₹4,512
C. ₹5,040
D. ₹5,866
Answer: B.
Q. 120 15 − { 5 + 24 ÷ (3 × 9 − 15) } is equal to.
A. -2
B. 11 1/3
C. 6 1/4
D. 8
Answer: D.
Q. 121 The angle of elevation of a flying drone from a point on the ground is 60∘ . After flying for 5 seconds the angle of elevation drops to 30∘ . If the drone is flying horizontally at a constant height of 1000√3 m, the distance traveled by the drone is:
A. 2000 m
B. 1000 m
C. 3000 m
D. 4000 m
Answer: A.
Q. 122 An oil merchant has 3 varieties of oil of volumes 432, 594 and 702 litres respectively. The number of cans of equal size that would be required to fill the oil separately is:
A. 13, 15, 17
B. 8, 11, 13
C. 8, 13, 15
D. 6, 9, 11
Answer: B.
Q. 123 The table below shows the admission and transfer in standards 1-3 of a school.
In the given table, in Standard 1, how many students were there at the end of year 2016?
A. 223
B. 228
C. 236
D. 232
Answer: A.
Q. 124 The average of squares of numbers 1 to 5 is:
A. 11
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: A.
Q. 125 210102 can be divided exactly by:
A. 7
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B.
Q. 126 A. pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours and a leak at the bottom can empty that full tank in 6 hours. If after the tank is ⅓ full, the leak is completely closed, how much time from the beginning will it take for the tank to get filled completely?
A. 12 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 9 hours
D. 20/3 hours
Answer: D.
Q. 127 In an examination, Shreya score 84 out of 90 in Mathematics, 45 out of 50 in Science, 23 out of 25 in Computer Science and 68 out of 80 in English. In which subject did Shreya score the highest percentage?
A. Mathematics
B. English
C. Science
D. Computer Science
Answer: A.
Q. 128 (−4) × (1020 ÷ 85 × 3 − 22) is equal to.-
A. -402
B. -56
C. 912
D. 72
Answer: B.
Q. 129 The value of cos2 45∘ + sin2 30∘ − sin2 60∘ is equal to.
A. 3/2
B. ½
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: C.
Q. 130 A, B, and C are partners in a firm sharing profit in the ratio of 3 :4: 5. Ifthey set aside 4% of the profits as emergency find and shared the rest of the profit and B gets his share of profit as ₹1,81,400, the amount of profit set aside for emergency fund is:
A. ₹27,845
B. ₹18,140
C. ₹22,675
D. ₹24,500
Answer: C.
Q. 131 If (x − 2)3 + (x − 3)3 + (x − 10)3 = (x − 2)(x − 3)(3x − 30), then what is the value of x?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 18
D. 3
Answer: B.
Q. 132 In the triangle given above ∠ADB = 90∘ , ∠ABC = 45∘, AD = 10 cm, AC = 20 cm. The length of BC is:
A. 10 cm
B. 27.32 cm
C. 18.42 cm
D. 14.14 cm
Answer: B.
Q. 133 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.
In the given bar-chart, if profit earned per television by C in 1992 was ₹825, the total profit earned was:
A. ₹51150 1akhs
B. ₹5115 1akhs
C. ₹511.5 1akhs
D. ₹51.15 lakhs
Answer: B.
Q. 134 A. gardener planted 1936 saplings in a garden such that there were as many rows of saplings as the columns. The number of rows planted is:
A. 46
B. 44
C. 48
D. 42
Answer: B
Q. 135 A boy walks 15 m in 7 seconds and then walks back in 5 seconds. His average speed (in m/s) is:
A. 6
B. 2.5
C. 3.25
D. 4
Answer: B.
Q. 136 If a3+ b3= 432 and a + b = 12,then (a + b)2 − 3ab is equal to:
A. 42
B. 52
C. 36
D. 38
Answer: C.
Q. 137 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.
In the given bar-chart, what is the ratio of television sales between A in year 1992 and C in year 1991?
A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 2 : 1
D. 1 : 3
Answer: A.
Q. 138 A swimming pool is 40 m in length, 30 m in breadth, and 2.2 m in depth. The cost of cementing its floor and the four sides at ₹25/m2 is:
A. ₹43,980
B. ₹37,540
C. ₹34,260
D. ₹37,700
Answer: D.
Q. 139 The value of cot2A − sin1/2A is equal to:
A. 0
B. -1
C. -2
D. 1
Answer: B.
Q. 140 A river is 3 m deep and 36 m wide which flows at the rate of 5 km/h in to the sea. The volume of water that runs into the sea per minute is:
A. 8300 m
B. 9000 m
C. 7600 m
D. 6400 m
3333
Answer: B.
Q. 141 A part of the journey is covered in 31.5 minutes at 80 km/h and the remaining part in 16 minutes at 75 km/h. The total distance of the journey is:
A. 45 km
B. 38 km
C. 62 km
D. 54 km
Answer: C.
Q. 142 The given pie-chart shows favourite sport of students of a school.
In the given pie-chart, what is the difference in percentage between liking for football and basketball?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 13
D. 12
Answer: D.
Q. 143 A girl 1.2 m tall can just see the sun over a 3.62 m tall wall which is 2.42 m away from her. The angle of elevation of the sun is:
A. 30∘
B. 60∘
C. 90∘
D. 45∘
Answer: D.
Q. 144 The table below shows the admissions and transfers in standards 1-3 of a school.
In the given table, what was the total strength in Standards 1-3 at the end of 2015?
A. 723
B. 721
C. 710
D. 704
Answer: A.
Q. 145 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that AB is the diameter of the circle circumscribing it and angle ADC = 144∘. Then angle BAC is equal to (π = 22/7 )
A. 60∘
B. 150∘
C. 54∘
D. 40∘
Answer: C.
Q. 146 Which least number should be added to 1000 so that the number obtained is exactly divisible by 37?
A. 1
B. 25
C. 36
D. 13
Answer: C.
Q. 147 The given pie chart shows the favorite sport of students of a school.
In the given pie-chart, if the school strength was 2500, how many liked cricket more than hockey?
A. 1075
B. 504
C. 900
D. 750
Answer: C.
Q. 148 A rectangular solid is 20 cm long and 12 cm wide. If its volume is 2160 cm3, the height is:
A. 11 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 9 cm
Answer: D.
Q. 149 The table below shows the admission and transfer in standards 1-3 of a school.
In the given table, what was the difference between admission and transfer in standard 3 in 2016?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 8
D. 5
Answer: A
Q. 150 A. train 100 m long running at uniform speed crosses a station which is 500 m long in 25 seconds. How long will it take for the train to pass a station that is 380 m long?
A. 21 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 19 seconds
D. 22 seconds
Answer: B.
English
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 151 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
A. third of us are feeling compelled to check our phones in the middle of the night.
A. A. third among us feeling compelled to check our phones
B. A. third of us feel compelled to check our phones
C. No substitution required
D. A. third of us feel compelled checking our phones
Answer: B.
Q. 152 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.
A. harsh chaotic mixture of sounds
A. consonance
B. dissonance
C. cacophony
D. euphony
Answer: C.
Q. 153 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Scientists have found that life was creeping and crawling about the Earth 1.5 billion years early than previously thought.
A. previously thought
B. 1.5 billion years early than
C. Scientists have found
D. about the Earth
Answer: B.
Q. 154 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. horrible
B. heiress
C. hospitallity
D. hostility
Answer: C.
Q. 155 Select the synonym of the given word. DETRACTORS
A. devotees
B. reviewers
C. critics
D. admirers
Answer: C.
Q. 156 Select the synonym of the given word. IMMINENT
A. important
B. forthcoming
C. immature
D. truthful
Answer: B.
Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Passage:
We often worry about lying awake in the middle of the night – but it could be good for you. A. growing body of evidence from both science and history suggests that the eight-hour sleep may be unnatural. In the early 19903, psychiatrist Thomas Wehr conducted an experiment in which a group of people were plunged into darkness for 14 hours every day for a month. It took some time for their sleep to regulate but by the fourth week the subjects had settled into a very distinct sleeping pattern. They slept first for four hours, then woke for one or two hours before falling into a second four-hour sleep. Though sleep scientists were impressed by the study, among the general public the idea that we must sleep for eight consecutive hours persists.
In 2001, historian Roger Ekirch of Virginia Tech published a seminal paper, drawn fiom 16 years of research, revealing a wealth of historical evidence that humans used to sleep in two distinct chunks. Roger Ekirch says a 1595 engraving by Jan Saenredam is evidence of activity at night. His book At Day’s Close: Night in Times Past, published four years later, unearths more than 500 references to a segmented sleeping pattern – in diaries, court records, medical books and literature, from Homer’s Odyssey to an anthropological account of modern tribes in Nigeria.
Much like the experience of Wehr‘s subjects, these references describe a first sleep which began about two hours after dusk, followed by waking period of one or two hours and then a second sleep. “It’s not just the number of references – it is the way they refer to it, as if it was common knowledge,”Ekirch| says. During this waking period people were quite active. They often got up, went to the toilet or smoked tobacco and some even visited neighbors. Most people stayed in bed, read, wrote and often prayed. Countless prayer manuals from the late 15th century offered special prayers for the hours in between sleeps. Ekirch found that references to the first and second sleep started to disappear during the late 17th Century. This started among the urban upper classes in northem Europe and over the course of the next 200 years filtered down to the rest of Western society. By the 19208 the idea of a first and second sleep had receded entirely fiom our social consciousness. He attributes the initial shift to improvements in street lighting, domestic lighting and a surge in coffee houses – which were sometimes open all night. As the night became a place for legitimate activity and as that activity increased, the length of time people could dedicate to rest dwindled.
Q. 157 The above passage ………. that an eight-hour sleep is natural.
A. confirms the myth
B. elaborates the myth
C. promotes the myth
D. examines the myth
Answer: D.
Q. 158 What did the experiment conducted by Thomas Wehr prove?
A. It brought into question that sleeping for four consecutive hours is necessary.
B. It proved sleeping for eight consecutive hours is not a norm.
C. It established that when the nights are longer, people slept in two distinct chunks.
D. It proved that all people slept in two distinct chunks of four hours.
Answer: B.
Q. 159 Roger Ekirch indicated that ……….
A. sleeping for eight consecutive hours is a modern standard for sleep.
B. a segmented sleeping pattern was an established common habit in nations with long winters.
C. a segmented sleeping pattern was a historically established common old habit.
D. the practice of sleeping for eight consecutive hours was popularized by epics
Answer: C.
Q. 160 Which of the following options is NOT true with reference to the segmented sleeping pattern?
A. People were physically active.
B. People were socially active.
C. People prayed actively.
D. People visited all-night coffee shops.
Answer: D.
Q. 161 What caused the idea of a first and second sleep to entirely recede from our social consciousness?
A. Industrialization and introduction of night shifts
B. All-night coffee shops
C. A. group of rich people defying sleep
D. An active night life facilitated by artificial lighting
Answer: D.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 162 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.
the hard remains of a prehistoric animal or plant that are found inside a rock.
A. fossil
B. ruins
C. relics
D. vestiges
Answer: A.
Q. 163 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
Creatures began moving properly around 570 million years ago shortly before the Cambrian explosion sparked the first vertebrates.
A. the Cambrian explosion when sparked the first vertebrates.
B. No substitution required
C. the Cambrian explosion whom sparked the first vertebrates.
D. the Cambrian explosion who sparked the first vertebrates.
Answer: B.
Q. 164 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
A. study has uncovered a previously overlooked law of natural selection based on “survival of the slacker”, that is, spend all day lazing about could be good for human evolution.
A. No substitution required
B. spending all day lazing about must be good for human evolution
C. spend all day lazing about will be good for human evolution
D. spending all day lazing about could be good for human evolution
Answer: D.
Q. 165 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
When the mixer would not work Naren’s mother said, “If it’s not one thing , it’s another.How will I manage?”
A. when one thing goes wrong, then another, and another
B. when we entertain one guest, then there are many more coming
C. when we know a cause, then there isn’t another to be looked for
D. when a machine is not functional, it makes others also malfunction
Answer: A.
Q. 166 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
Sandhya was excited about getting her new posting but I told her “Dont count your chikens before they hatch”.
A. do not count on something that is not going to happen
B. do not wish for something that has not yet happened
C. do not count on a good thing that has not yet happened
D. do not expect something good to happen
Answer: C.
Q. 167 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. More than 25% people admits they have not sent or received a hand-written letter in the past decade.
A. a hand-written letter
B. More than 25% people admits
C. they have not sent or received
D. in the past decade
Answer: B.
Q. 168 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. Anil and Suresh are just finding their feet in the new venture.
A. beginning to understand the work and feeling confident
B. getting comfortable and getting a good salary
C. buying and using comfortable foot wear
D. making people fall at their feet, accepting defeat
Answer: A.
Q. 169 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Security firms would get prosecuted for a breach of their duty if they do not introduced adequate procedures to protect children from harm.
A. would get prosecuted
B. for a breach of their duty
C. to protect children
D. do not introduced
Answer: D.
Q. 170 Select the antonym of the given word. MUDDLE
A. refuse
B. order
C. refute
D. spoil
Answer: B.
Q. 171 Select the synonym of the given word. CLINCHED.
A. bounded
B. finalized
C. devoted
D. argued
Answer: B.
Q. 172 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. The politician began his speech by saying, “Lend me your ears”.
A. to politely ask for someone’s hearing-aid
B. to politely ask for someone’s speakers
C. to politely ask for someone’s full attention
D. to politely ask for someone’s headphones
Answer: C.
Q. 173 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
Teaching is so much more than ………. in fiont of a whiteboard as one of the most important elements of teaching is ………… relationships with students.
A. standing; building
B. waiting; building
C. waiting; enabling
D. standing; enabling
Answer: A.
Q. 174 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
Although many western cultures are moving towards more ………. less hierarchical organizations, the new research suggests that ……… power structures and basic values of charity and fraternity are the cornerstones of successful societies.
A. organized; radical
B. substantial; informal
C. liberal; traditional
D. liberal; radical
Answer: C.
Q. 175 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. reinforcement
B. remembrance
C. reimburssement
D. reflection
Answer: C.
Q. 176 Select the antonym of the given word. COMPLACENT
A. conceited
B. concerned
C. contentious
D. contended
Answer: B.
Q. 177 Select the antonym of the given word LAUNCH
A. withdraw
B. dinner
C. release
D. brake
Answer: A.
Q. 178 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. to show or state that someone or something is not guilty of something
A. escape
B. pardon
C. charge
D. vindicate
Answer: D.
Q. 179 Select the synonym of the given word. ELUSIVE
A. distorted
B. wrong
C. intangible
D. refined
Answer: C.
Q. 180 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. “Get down to brass tacks now”, ordered the Team Leader, when he found that the targets were nowhere near completion.
A. start taking up the most important facts of a situation
B. become angry about something that is not done
C. come back to the tracks and start again
D. examine the thumb tacks used to fix a notice
Answer: A.
Q. 181 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. Advocates say the idea of a basic income eliminates poverty traps and ……… income while ……….. the individual and reducing paperwork.
A. redistributes; empowering
B. earned; helping
C. earns; eliminating
D. distributes; empowers
Answer: A
Q. 182 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. contraction
B. contextual
C. concievable
D. commitment
Answer: C.
Q. 183 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Last year the UK saw it’s first child diagnosed with intemet addiction.
A. Last year
B. the UK saw
C. it’s first child
D. diagnosed with
Answer: C.
Q. 184 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. the science and art of growing fruits, vegetables, flowers, or ornamental plants
A. agriculture
B. horticulture
C. viniculture
D. sericulture
Answer: B
Q. 185 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Tesla designed system for sending electricity over the air through a series of enormous towers.
A. for sending electricity
B. Tesla designed system
C. through a series of enormous towers
D. over the air
Answer: B.
Q. 186 Select the synonym of the given word. REQUISITE
A. dominant
B. dynamic
C. critical
D. obligatory
Answer: D.
Q. 187 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. All societies are held together by seven universal moral rules, which include ……….. to superiors and ……….. the property of others.
A. deferring; respecting
B. deferring; guarding
C. following; respecting
D. conforming; guarding
Answer: A.
Q. 188 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. Inquisitive
B. Inherent
C. Inistitutional
D. Invitation
Answer: C.
Q. 189 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
The idea of a basic income as a replacement for means-tested ………. payments has its share of supporters on both the left and the right of the political ……….
A. extra; support
B. goodness; zone
C. free; range
D. welfare; spectrum
Answer: D.
Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
Doing short bursts of high intensity exercise can be most effective to weight loss than moderate workouts.
A. more effective to weight loss than
B. No substitution required
C. most effective for weight loss than
D. more eflective for weight loss than
Answer: D.
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. Passage:
Screen time is an inescapable reality of modern childhood, with kids of every age …………. (1) hours upon hours in front of iPads, smartphones and televisions. That’s not always a bad thing: Educational apps and TV shows …………… (2) great ways for children to sharpen their developing brains and …………… (3) their communication skills-not to mention the break these ………………… (4) provide to harried parents. But tread carefully: A. number of troubling studies connect delayed cognitive …………….. (5) in kids with extended exposure to electronic media.
Q. 191 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.
A. complying
B. spending
C. earning
D. cheating
Answer: B.
Q. 192 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.
A. are
B. is
C. were
D. have been
Answer: A.
Q. 193 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.
A. improve
B. bumish
C. dull
D. freshen
Answer: A.
Q. 194 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.
A. vessels
B. gadgets
C. utensils
D. products
Answer: B.
Q. 195 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.
A. increment
B. improvement
C. progress
D. change
Answer: C.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 196 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. a company or person that makes or sells sweets or chocolate
A. confectioner
B. vendor
C. chef
D. wholesaler
Answer: A.
Q. 197 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. apartheid
B. appearance
C. approppriate
D. apparent
Answer: C.
Q. 198 Select the antonym of the given word EXPANSION
A. complaint
B. constraint
C. contraction
D. constriction
Answer: C.
Q. 199 Select the antonym of the given word. EVASIVE
A. frank
B. abusive
C. opaque
D. slippery
Answer: A.
Q. 200 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
The World Health Organization were classified Internet gaming as an official mental health disorder.
A. No substitution required
B. The World Health Organization classify Internet gaming
C. The World Health Organization has classified Internet gaming
D. The World Health Organization classifying Internet gaming
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 How many triangles are there in the following figure?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 19
D. 24
Answer: B
Q. 2 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. Stationery
B. Eraser
C. Pen
D. Paper
Answer: A.
Q. 3 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
FLOWER: UOLDVI:: JASMINE: ………..
A. QZGNRMV
B. QZHMRNV
C. QAHNRMV
D. QZHNRMV
Answer: D
Q. 4 The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown. How would this paper look when unfolded?
Answer: C.
Q. 5 Kunal’s house is located to the south of a coffee shop. There is a park to the east of the coffee shop. The local market is to the north of the park. If the distance of the market from the park is equal to the distance of the coffee shop from Kunal’s house, in which direction is the market with respect to the coffee shop?
A. West
B. South-East
C. North-East
D. South-West
Answer: C.
Q. 6 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All executives are humble people.
All humble people are rich.
Conclusions:
I. All executives are rich.
II. All humble people are executives.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Only conclusion II follows.
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
D. Both conclusions I and II follow.
Answer: A.
Q. 7 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 11:242
A. 15 : 375
B. 5 : 52
C. 8 : 128
D. 9 : 729
Answer: C.
Q. 8 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given word-pair. Surgeon : Scalpel
A. Tailor : Shirt
B. Doctor : Hospital
C. Navy : Lieutenant
D. Sculptor : Chisel
Answer: D.
Q. 9 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 8
B. 34
C. 64
D. 16
Answer: B.
Q. 10 Which letter-cluster will replace the Q. mark (?) in the following series? CFZ, EGX, HIU, JLS, MPP,?
A. NTO
B. OTN
C. MSN
D. OUN
Answer: D.
Q. 11 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: C.
Q. 12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right side.
Answer: C.
Q. 13 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 343: 512
A. 1009:1331
B. 27 : 125
C. 216 : 729
D. 8 : 27
Answer: D.
Q. 14 Among the following four words, three are similar in one specific way and one is odd. Select the odd word.
A. Habitat
B. Stable
C. Den
D. Barn
Answer: A.
Q. 15 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Cat, Mammal, Parrot
Answer: B.
Q. 16 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 396
B. 792
C. 571
D. 451
Answer: C.
Q. 17 If A = 2 and C = 4, then PARTICLE = ……….
A. 172172094136
B. 1621820104136
C. 1721921104136
D. 172192094126
Answer: C.
Q. 18 Three of the following four number pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 14 : 3
B. 7 : 6
C. 12 : 4
D. 21 : 2
Answer: C.
Q. 19 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: A.
Q. 20 Which number will replace the Question mark (?) in the following series?
3, ?, 101, 10202
A. 95
B. 10
C. 100
D. 99
Answer: B.
Q. 21 ‘Month’ is related to ‘March’ in the same way as ‘Season’ is related to ‘ ……….
A. Year
B. Festival
C. Spring
D. Week
Answer: C
Q. 22 Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making the following equation correct.
14÷ 641 − 5 + 45 × 120 = 5
A. + and ×
B. × and −
C. + and −
D. − and ÷
Answer: B
Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. FHK : KMP:: ……..: UWZ
A. PRV
B. PRU
C. PSU
D. ORU
Answer: B
Q. 24 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some bed sheets are towels.
Some towels are pillows.
Conclusions:
I. Some pillows are bedsheets.
II. No pillow is a bedsheet.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Only conclusion II follows.
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
D. Either conclusion I or II follows.
Answer: D
Q. 25 Select the option that will come next in the given series.
Answer: B.
Q. 26 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. World, Asia, Nepal
Answer: D.
Q. 27 Which letter will replace the Q. mark (‘2) in the following series? C, F, K, R, A, ?
A. J
B. I
C. M
D. L
Answer: D.
Q. 28 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
7 × 2 + 5 − 16 ÷ 4 = 13
A. × and ×
B. ÷ and ×
C. ÷ and +
D. × and −
Answer: A.
Q. 29 In a certain code language, CADET is written as 31457. How will DEFER be written as in the same language?
A. 45769
B. 45678
C. 45659
D. 35658
Answer: C.
Q. 30 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Classes 2. Entrance Exam 3. Result 4. Admission 5. Graduation 6. Job
A. 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
B. 5, 2, 6, 4, 3, 1
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 6, 5
Answer: C.
Q. 31 Select the option that is embedded in the following figure.
Answer: C.
Q. 32 Select the pair which has the same relation between the words as the relation between the words of the given pair.
Horse: gallop
A. Mouse: pit
B. Bird: fly
C. Elephant: gigantic
D. Lion: roar
Answer: B.
Q. 33 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.
Answer: A.
Q. 34 Three of the following four number pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.
A. 54 : 64
B. 28 : 32
C. 119 : 136
D. 91 : 104
Answer: A.
Q. 35 Which number will replace the Question mark (?) in the following series?
0.15, 0.20, 0.30, 0.45, 0.65, ?
A. 0.90
B. 0.80
C. 0.95
D. 0.85
Answer: A.
Q. 36 Identify the number that does NOT belong in the given series. 2, 6, 6, 10, 8, 12, 12, 15, 14, 18
A. 18
B. 12
C. 15
D. 8
Answer: C
Q. 37 ‘Temperature’ is related to ‘Degree’ in the same way as ‘Time’ is related to ‘…..’
A. Litre
B. Metre
C. Newton
D. Seconds
Answer: D
Q. 38 Arjun starts walking towards the east. After walking 50 m, he turns to his left and walks 15 m. From there, he again turns to his left and walks 30 m. Finally, he turns to his left one last time and walks 15 m. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 40 m
B. 10 m
C. 30 m
D. 20 m
Answer: D.
Q. 39 If ‘ + ’ means ‘ × ’, ‘ × ’ means ‘ + ’, ‘ + ’ means ‘ − ’ and ‘ − ’ means ‘ ÷ ’, then what will be the value of the following expression?
16 × 3 + 5 − 2 ÷ 4
A. 7
B. 9
C. 10
D. 19
Answer: B.
Q. 40 In a code language, CERTAIN is written as DFSUBJO. How will SUMMER be written as in that language?
A. RVNNFS
B. TUNMFS
C. TVNNFT
D. TVNNFS
Answer: D
Q. 41 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (25, 144, 47)
A. (16, 82, 23)
B. (9, 72, 8)
C. (15, 96, 340)
D. (19, 78, 20)
Answer: D.
Q. 42 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 16 : 68 :: 28 : ………
A. 119
B. 49
C. 346
D. 77
Answer: A.
Q. 43 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Hour 2. Month 3. Second 4. Days 5. Minute 6. Week
A. 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 6, 5
Answer: B.
Q. 44 Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. KMPT
B. OQSV
C. QSVZ
D. EGJN
Answer: B.
Q. 45 Two positions of the same dice are shown. What will be the number opposite ‘3’?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B.
Q. 46 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (4, 24, 214)
A. (8, 81, 721)
B. (3, 27, 81)
C. (2, 26, 125)
D. (5, 35, 341)
Answer: D.
Q. 47 If in a certain code, WATER is written as XZUDS, then which word will be coded as BMHKF?
A. CLING
B. ALIEN
C. EARTH
D. ANGLE
Answer: D.
Q. 48 Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.
A. SWYBE
B. HKNQT
C. CFILO
D. QTWZC.
Answer: A.
Q. 49 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Females, Mothers, Fathers
Answer: C.
Q. 50 Select the correct mirror image of the given image when the mirror is placed on the right side.
Answer: C.
General knowledge
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 Name the ‘Father of Indian Economic Reforms’.
A. Narendra Modi
B. PV Narasimha Rao
C. Yashwant Sinha
D. Manmohan Singh
Answer: B.
Q. 52 Iron boils at about ……… degree Celsius.
A. 3861
B. 2861
C. 2181
D. 3182
Answer: B.
Q. 53 The Chipko movement is associated with:
A. Sustainable development
B. Transparency in public life
C. Afforestation
D. Preventing the felling of trees
Answer: D.
Q. 54 Adults with an annual income between ……… can avail of a housing loan under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana.
A. 6 and 15 1akhs
B. 6 and 18 lakhs
C. 6 and 25 lakhs
D. 6 and 21 lakhs
Answer: B.
Q. 55 ‘Capra aegagrus hircus’ ls commonly known as …………
A. Dog
B. Cow
C. Goat
D. Hen
Answer: C.
Q. 56 As head of a reputed advertising agency, ……… created iconic advertisements for Surf detergent, Liril bath soap, Bajaj scooters, and Cherry Blossom shoe polish.
A. Gerson da Cunha
B. Prahlad Kakkar
C. Alyque Padamsee
D. Prasoon Joshi
Answer: C.
Q. 57 Navakalevara is a ritual that takes place in a temple in ………..
A. Tirupati
B. Shirdi
C. Jagannath Puri
D. Sabrimala
Answer: C.
Q. 58 Guru ……….. is known as the cobbler saint.
A. Ayya Vaikundar
B. Jiva Goswami
C. Ravidas
D. Narahari
Answer: C.
Q. 59 Which is the seventh-largest country in the world by land area?
A. Australia
B. Argentina
C. Brazil
D. India
Answer: D.
Q. 60 Who started the temple entry movement in 1927?
A. Vinobha Bhave
B. Medha Patkar
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Answer: D
Q. 61 As per the Guinness World Records, which of the following was the world’s richest temple in 2011?
A. Jagannath Temple
B. Tirumala Tirupati Venkateswara Temple
C. Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple
D. SiddhiVinayak Temple
Answer: C.
Q. 62 Name the long-haired mammals found throughout the Himalayan region.
A. Heifer
B. Bison
C. Ox
D. Yak
Answer: D.
Q. 63 ……….. is known as the ‘Father of Indian Ornithology”.
A. John James Audubon
B. Konrad Lorenz
C. Salim Ali
D. Allan Octavian Hume
Answer: D.
Q. 64 Sunita Williams, renowned astronaut of Indian origin, spent a record of …….. days in space.
A. 150
B. 195
C. 175
D. 200
Answer: B.
Q. 65 The inaugural session of the Supreme Court of India took place on …………
A. 26th January 1950
B. 28th January 1950
C. 29th January 1950
D. 31st January 1950
Answer: B.
Q. 66 At what temperature does iron melt?
A. 1638∘C
B. 1538∘C
C. 1583∘C
D. 1683∘C
Answer: B.
Q. 67 Sound cannot travel through …………
A. fire
B. soil
C. water
D. vacuum
Answer: D.
Q. 68 Which of the following creatures use ultrasonic sound to catch their prey?
A. Hawks
B. Bats
C. Cats
D. Dogs
Answer: B.
Q. 69 Who hoists the national flag at the Red Fort on Independence Day?
A. Chief Justice
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor
D. President
Answer: B.
Q. 70 Which cricketer made his Test debut in Karachi at the age of 16?
A. Hardik Pandya
B. Rahul Dravid
C. Sachin Tendulkar
D. Shanthakumaran Sreesanth
Answer: C.
Q. 71 ……….. was the Chief Justice of India from January 1950 to November 1951.
A. Bijan Kumar Mukherjea
B. Mehr Chand Mahajan
C. Harilal Jekisundas Kania
D. Bhuvaneshwar Prasad Sinha
Answer: C.
Q. 72 The world’s largest cricket stadium is being built in which state of India?
A. Gujarat
B. Chandigarh
C. West Bengal
D. Maharashtra
Answer: A.
Q. 73 Currency printing press of India is NOT located in …………
A. Kochi
B. Mysore
C. Salboni
D. Dewas
Answer: A.
Q. 74 The pH of pure water ( H2O ) is ……… at 25 degree Celsius.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 6
Answer: B.
Q. 75 ‘Megaptera novaeangliae’ is commonly known as ……………
A. Bumblebee
B. Tree frog
C. African wild cat
D. Humpback whale
Answer: D
Q. 76 Who said the following words? “A. flag is a necessity for all nations. Millions have died for it.”
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Bhikaiji Cama
D. Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: D.
Q. 77 Which of the following is NOT a popular Gharana (styles) of Hindustani classical music?
A. Patiala Gharana
B. Gwalior Gharana
C. Mewati Gharana
D. Rajwadi Gharana
Answer: D.
Q. 78 NASA. launched the world’s smallest and lightest satellite, Kalamsat on 22 June 2017 devised by 18-year- old ………. and his team from Tamil Nadu.
A. Sharook Rashid
B. Khursheed Rifath
C. Rifath Sharook
D. Salman Rashid
Answer: C.
Q. 79 ………….. of Kenya won the Mumbai Marathon, 2019
A. Akalnew Shurnet
B. Aychew Bantie
C. Cosmas Lagat
D. Birke Debele
Answer: C.
Q. 80 ‘Canis lupus’ is commonly known as ………….
A. Gray wolf
B. Goat
C. Hen
D. Cow
Answer: A.
Q. 81 The first Invasion of Muhammad Ghori was in ………. when he attacked Multan.
A. 1287 AD
B. 1475 AD
C. 1089 AD
D. 1175 AD
Answer: D.
Q. 82 India holds the ………….. position in the production of cows’ milk as of January 2018.
A. Second
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third
Answer: A.
Q. 83 The minimum age criteria for appointment as the Vice President of India is ………
A. 21
B. 30
C. 35
D. 25
Answer: C.
Q. 84 The dance form Dand1a 1s synonymous with ……….
A. Navratri
B. Onam
C. Bihu
D. Ganesh Chaturthi
Answer: A.
Q. 85 Apart from the first edition, New Delhi also hosted the ………… edition of the Asian Games.
A. 7th
B. 9th
C. 8th
D. 11th
Answer: B.
Q. 86 After 1994, how many sessions of the Rajya Sabha are usually held in a year?
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. six
Answer: B.
Q. 87 As of AY 2019-20, what is the rate of income tax payable by an Indian national over the age of 80 years, earning an annual income up to ₹ 5,00,000?
A. 20%
B. 5%
C. 0%
D. 30%
Answer: C.
Q. 88 India’s ace shuttler and Rio Olympics silver medallist ………. was ranked seventh on Forbes’ list 2018 of highest-earning women sportspersons in the world.
A. Sania Mirza
B. Saina Nehwal
C. Santosh Yadav
D. PV Sindhu
Answer: D.
Q. 89 Who was the economist who wrote the book ‘Small is beautiful?
A. David Ricardo
B. Amartya Sen
C. Karl Marx
D. E. F. Schumacher
Answer: D.
Q. 90 Who wrote the book ‘The Audacity of Hope’?
A. Bill Clinton
B. Bill Gates
C. George Bush
D. Barack Obama
Answer: D.
Q. 91 In January 2019, NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) discovered its third small exoplanet, named HD. 21749b in the constellation
A. Lupus
B. Lacerta
C. Reticulum
D. Antlia
Answer: C.
Q. 92 Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Nuclear Programme’?
A. Vikram Sarabhai
B. CV Raman
C. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
D. APJ Abdul Kalam
Answer: C.
Q. 93 Shivaji’s son from Saibai was named ……………
A. Shahaji
B. Shahu
C. Sambhaji
D. Bajirao
Answer: C.
Q. 94 Under Article ……… of the Constitution of India, the quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one- tenth of the total number of Members of the House.
A. 102
B. 100
C. 103
D. 101
Answer: B.
Q. 95 Calcutta became the capital of British India in ………….
A. 1765
B. 1727
C. 1756
D. 1772
Answer: D.
Q. 96 Who founded the Servants of India Society in 1905?
A. Sayid Ahmed Khan
B. Annie Besant
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer: C.
Q. 97 With which of the following games is the Deodhar Trophy associated?
A. Hockey
B. Football
C. Cricket
D. Golf
Answer: C.
Q. 98 In pre-independent India, the British moved the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi in ……….
A. 1911
B. 1913
C. 1924
D. 1921
Answer: A.
Q. 99 The ……. waterfalls in Chhattisgarh are also known as the Niagara Falls of India.
A. Hebbe
B. Dudhsagar
C. Magod
D. Chitrakoot
Answer: D.
Q. 100 The Nehru-Liaquat Pact was signed in ………..
A. 1948
B. 1947
C. 1949
D. 1950
Answer: D.
Quantitative
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 101 A square cardboard with a side of 3 m is folded through one of its diagonal to make a triangle. The height of the triangle is:
A. 3/√2 m
B. 2√3 m
C. 3√2 m
D. 2/√3 m
Answer: A.
Q. 102 What percentage of ₹ 124 is ₹ 49.60?
A. 250
B. 16
C. 123
D. 40
Answer: D.
Q. 103 sin18∘ − cos72∘ is equal to:
A. 1/2
B. 0
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B.
Q. 104 The surface area of a cube is 1176 cm2. Its volume is:
A. 3486 cm3
B. 3206 cm3
C. 2744 cm2
D. 3964 cm3
Answer: C.
Q. 105 A. boy is standing near a pole which is 2.7 m high and the angle of elevation is 30“. The distance of the boy from the pole is ( √3 =1.73):
A. 4.68 m
B. 4.63 m
C. 4.53 m
D. 4.42 m
Answer: A.
Q. 106 Find the inner surface area of four walls of a rectangular room with length 7 m breadth 5 m and height 3.5 m
A. 168 m2
B. 84 m2
C. 126 m2
D. 42 m2
Answer: B.
Q. 107 The given pie chart shows runs scored by A in 6 matches.
In the given pie chart. if A scored a century in matches 4 and 6, What would have been her average score?
A. 89.7
B. 93.4
C. 91.2
D. 84.5
Answer: A
Q. 108 The line graph shows the temperature on four Sundays of three cities.
In the given line graph, what was the difference in temperature between Delhi and Mumbai on the 2nd Sunday?
A. 13
B. 17.2
C. 7.2
D. 21
Answer: C.
Q. 109 The given bar chart shows the number of marks scored by a student in each subject in three years:
In the given bar chart. what is the percentage increase in marks in Mathematics in 2012 compared to 2008? (round off)
A. 89
B. 100
C. 95
D. 92
Answer: A.
Q. 110 On dividing a number by 38, the quotient is 24 and the remainder is 13, the number is:
A. 956
B. 904
C. 925
D. 975
Answer: C
Q. 111 A can do work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. After 5 days of working together, how much work will be left?
A. 7/25
B. 11/36
C. 5/13
D. 5/12
Answer: B.
Q. 112 A customer gets a discount of ₹90 which is 12%. The selling price is:
A. ₹770
B. ₹540
C. ₹660
D. ₹580
Answer: C.
Q. 113 The line graph shows the temperature on four Sundays of three cities.
In the given line graph, when was the maximum temperature recorded in Delhi?
A. 1st Sunday
B. 2nd Sunday
C. 4th Sunday
D. 3rd Sunday
Answer: A.
Q. 114 If a3 − b3 = 208 and a − b = 8 ,then (a + b)2 − ab is equal to:
A. 42
B. 38
C. 52
D. 26
Answer: D.
Q. 115 The base of an isosceles triangle is 6 cm and its perimeter is 16 cm. Its area is:
A. 11 cm2
B. 12 cm2
C. 9 cm2
D. 10 cm2
Answer: B.
Q. 116 If the compound interest @10% p.a compounded half-yearly for 1½ years is ₹2,522. The principal amount is:
A. ₹16,000
B. ₹15,400
C. ₹18,500
D. ₹20,000
Answer: A.
Q. 117 14−6×215÷3+3is equal to:
A. ¼
B. 2
C. ⅘
D. 6⅖
Answer: A.
Q. 118 At a certain time of a day a tree 5.4 m in height casts a shadow of 9 m. If a pole casts a shadow of 13.5 m at the same time, the height of the pole is:
A. 6.3 m
B. 9.9 m
C. 7.2 m
D. 8.1 m
Answer: D.
Q. 119 Three partners A, B, and C, share profits and losses in the ratio of 3: 4: 7. If the profit for the year before charging 30% tax is ₹1,10,166 what is B’s share of profit after tax?
A. ₹22,033.20
B. ₹24,673.10
C. ₹31,476
D. ₹9,442.80
Answer: A.
Q. 120 The shadow of a tower. when the angle of elevation of the sun is 60∘ is found to be 15 in shorter than when it is 45∘. The height of the tower is:
A. 26.5 m
B. 35.5 m
C. 41.5 m
D. 20.5 m
Answer: B.
Q. 121 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that AB is the diameter of the circle circumscribing it and angle ADC = 1420. Then angle BAC is equal to:
A. 600
B. 400
C. 520
D. 500
Answer: C.
Q. 122 One tap can fill a tank in 3 hours and a leak can empty the tank in 5 hours. If the tap and the leak (which was half closed) were left open. How long will it take for the tank to fill?
A. 42/7 hours
B. 7½ hours
C. 5⅓ hours
D. 6⅔ hours
Answer: A.
Q. 123 converted to percentage is: 64/25
A. 25.6
B. 256
C. 0.256
D. 2.56
Answer: B.
Q. 124 Pipe A can fill a cistern in 4 hours and another pipe B is installed. Both the pipes together fill the cistern in 2 1/2hours. How long will it take for B alone to fill the cistern?
A. 6 2/3 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 5 1/6 hours
D. 6 3/8 hours
Answer: A.
Q. 125 If the cost price of 4 chairs is equal to the selling price of 3 chairs, then the profit or loss percentage is:
A. 6 2/3 hours
B. 20%
C. 16 2/3%
D. 25%
Answer: A.
Q. 126 A, B and C start walking together from a point. Their steps measure 42 cm, 56 cm, and 64 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance they should walk so that each takes an exact number of steps?
A. 13.44 m
B. 14.06 m
C. 14.58 m
D. 15.60 m
Answer: A.
Q. 127 The students of a class donated ₹3,481 towards the relief fund. Each student donated an amount equal to the number of students in the class. The number of students in the class is:
A. 49
B. 59
C. 61
D. 51
Answer: B.
Q. 128 The average of all prime numbers between 21 and 50 is(round off to one decimal number):
A. 32.9
B. 35.9
C. 33.7
D. 34.8
Answer: B.
Q. 129 The area of a parallelogram is 338 m2. If its altitude is twice the corresponding base, its base is:
A. 13
B. 14
C. 28
D. 26
Answer: A.
Q. 130 A bought 38 kg rice @ ₹54.50/kg, 45 kg rice @ ₹62/kg and 55 kg rice @ ₹48/kg. He sold the mixture @ ₹65/kg. His profit or loss percentage is:
A. Loss 1.04
B. Profit 16.8
C. Loss 1.7
D. Profit 19.6
Answer: D.
Q. 131 The product of HCF and LCM of two numbers is 3321. If one of the numbers is 369, the HCF of the numbers is:
A. 3
B. 21
C. 9
D. 27
Answer: C.
Q. 132 A and B can finish work together in 30 days. B and C can finish the same work together in 24 days and A and C can finish the work together in 40 days. If all three work together, how long will it take them to complete the work?
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 5 days
Answer: C.
Q. 133 In what time will a sum double itself at 8% p.a simple interest?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 8 years
D. 12.5 years
Answer: D.
Q. 134 If x − 1 /x= 3√2 , then x2 + 1 / x2is equal to:
A. 52
B. 56
C. 20
D. 46
Answer: C.
Q. 135 The number 45789 is divisible by which of the single-digit numbers:
A. Only by 9
B. Only by 3 and 9
C. Only by 3
D. Only by 3 and 7
Answer: C.
Q. 136 (24 ÷ 6 − 2) + (3 × 2 + 4) is equal to:
A. 24
B. 16
C. 20
D. 12
Answer: D.
Q. 137 If 5cosθ − 12sinθ = 0 ,the value of (2 sinθ+cosθ)/ (cosθ−sinθ) is:
A. 1 75/119
B. 3 1/7
C.2 34/35
D. 3 2/3
Answer: B.
Q. 138 The given bar chart shows a number of marks scored by a strident in each subject in three years:
In the given bar chart, if the number of marks in Social Studies in the year 2012 is 13% of the school strength, the number of students is:
A. 400
B. 540
C. 500
D. 580
Answer: C.
Q. 139 PA and PB are two tangents to a circle with center O, from a point P outside the circle. A and B are points on the circle. If ∠OAB = 35∘, then ∠APB is equal to:
A. 35∘
B. 70∘
C. 25∘
D. 20∘
Answer: B.
Q. 140 The given bar chart shows a number of marks scored by a student in each subject in three years:
In the given bar-chart, in which subject was the lowest marks scored in 2010?
A. Social studies
B. Mathematics
C. English
D. Science
Answer: C.
Q. 141 A train travels at a speed of 76 km/h. If it crosses a pole in 36 seconds. the length of the train is:
A. 720 m
B. 675 m
C. 760 m
D. 630 m
Answer: C.
Q. 142 A saves 12% of her income. If she spends ₹2,16,128, her total income is:
A. ₹2,42,063
B. ₹2,45,600
C. ₹2,48,000
D. ₹2,43,560
Answer: B.
Q. 143 The given pie chart shows runs scored by A in 6 matches.
In the given pie chart, what is the increase or decrease in score in match 4 as compared to match 2?
A. +27
B. -27
C. -60
D. +60
Answer: D.
Q. 144 The line graph shows the temperature on four Sundays of three cities.
In the given line graph, what was the average temperature on the 3rd Sunday in all the three cities? (rounded to first decimal)
A. 24
B. 23
C. 19.7
D. 25.4
Answer: C.
Q. 145 If an airplane covers a distance of 980 km in 35 minutes, then what time it will take to cover a distance of 1470 km.
A. 12hour
B. 181 hours
C. 78 hour
D. 1⅙ hours
Answer: C.
Q. 146 If (2x − 5) 3 + (x + 2) 3 + (3x − 9) 3 = (2x—5)(3x—9)(3x + 6) , then what is the value of x ?
A. 7
B. 2
C. 18
D. 5
Answer: B.
Q. 147 The average height of 12 students of a class is 132.5 cm. If one more strident joins. the average height becomes 131.2 cm. the height of the new student is:
A. 112.7 cm
B. 122.3 cm
C. 115.6 cm
D. 128.5 cm
Answer: C.
Q. 148 The liquid in a container is sufficient to paint an area of 11.28 m2. How many boxes of dimensions 30 cm × 25 cm × 12 cm can be painted with the liquid in this container?
A. 40
B. 24
C. 32
D. 12
Answer: A
Q. 149 The given pie chart shows runs scored by A in 6 matches.
In the given pie chart. What are the average runs scored in all matches? (rounded off)
A. 85
B. 90
C. 88
D. 84
Answer: D
Q. 150 Find the weight of a solid cylinder of height 35 cm and radius 14 cm if the material of the cylinder weighs 8 gm/cm3.
A. 172.48 kg
B. 160 kg
C. 177.44 kg
D. 166 kg
Answer: A.
English
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 151 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. It’s Greek to me
A. incomprehensible
B. incredible
C. intangible
D. inevitable
Answer: A.
Q. 152 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a person who advocates complete political or social change
A. fanatic
B. hero
C. radical
D. leader
Answer: C.
Q. 153 Select the antonym of the given word. RESTRICTED.
A. banned
B. barred
C. unmanned
D. unbounded
Answer: D.
Q. 154 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.
Though paper has been the dominant medium for print, the British parliament had managed valiantly to hold back the paper tide for over half a millennium.
A. to hold back the paper tide
B. Though paper has been
C. Parliament had managed
D. the dominant medium for print
Answer: C.
Q. 155 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. In 2016, after some unseemly back-and-forth to the Commons and Lords, it was decided that Acts of Parliament should no longer be printed on calfskin.
A. should no longer be printed on calfskin
B. after some unseemly back-and-forth
C. it was decided
D. to the Commons and Lords
Answer: D.
Q. 156 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
It makes no difference to overall health whether you lose weight slow or quick, according to new research by York University.
A. No substitution required
B. whether you lose weight slow or quickly
C. whether you lose weight slowly or quickly
D. whether you lose weight slowly or quick
Answer: C.
Q. 157 Select the synonym of the given word.
CONTRAVENE
A. brake
B. broach
C. flaunt
D. breech
Answer: D.
Q. 158 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. For years Indians looking for meaty ………….. have been stuck with the ……. soya nuggets.
A. substitutes; ubiquitous
B. alternates; global
C. Substitutes: regional
D. alternative; zonal
Answer: A.
Q. 159 Select the synonym of the given word. LYRICAL
A. brilliant
B. musical
C. prosaic
D. overwhelming
Answer: B.
Q. 160 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. an arrangement of flowers that is usually given as a present
A. bouquet
B. cluster
C. wreath
D. bunch
Answer: A.
Q. 161 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
We really need to look at interventions that focus on long-term weight management that can achieve sustained weight loss at the recommended one to two pounds per week.
A. that focus on long-term
B. No substitution required
C. that focus with long-term
D. whom focus on long-term
Answer: A.
Instructions
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Passage:
Sedentary lifestyles are killing us — we need to build activity into our everyday lives, not just leave it for the gym. Google searches relating to physical fitness peak in January. Many people even trawl the web to find out about “desk exercises” and “workouts on the go” in case they are too busy to use their new gym memberships.
Our relationship with exercise is complicated. Reports from the UK and the US show it is something we persistently struggle with. As the new year rolls around, we anticipate having the drive to behave differently and become regular exercisers, even in the knowledge that we will probably fail to do so. Why do we want to exercise? What do we expect it to do for us? We all know we are supposed to be exercising, but hundreds of millions of us can’t face actually doing it. It is just possible that the problem lies at the heart of the idea of exercise itself.
Exercise is movement of the muscles and limbs for a specific outcome, usually to enhance physical fitness. As such, for most of us, it is an optional addition to the working day — yet another item on a long list of responsibilities alongside the fulfilment of parental duties or earning money to put food on the table. But because the principal beneficiaries of exercises are we ourselves, it is one of the easiest chores to Shirk. At the end of the working day, millions of us prefer to indulge in sedentary leisure activities instead of what we all think is good for us: a workout.
Fitness crazes are like diets: if any of them worked, there wouldn’t be so many. CrossFit, the intensely physical, communal workout incorporating free weights, squats, pull-ups and so forth, is still less than 20 years old. Spin classes — vigorous group workouts on stationary bikes — have only been around for about 30. Aerobics was a craze about a decade before that, although many of its high energy routines had already been around for a while. Before that, there was the jogging revolution, which began in the US in the early 19605. The Joggers Manual, published in 1963 by the Oregon Heart Foundation, was a leaflet of about 200 words that sought to address the postwar panic about sedentary lifestyles by encouraging an accessible form of physical activity, explaining that “jogging is a bit more than a walk”. The jogging boom took a few years to get traction, hitting its stride in the mid- to late-80s, but it remains one of the most popular forms of exercise, now also in groups.
The exercise craze that dominated the 19505 was, oddly, not even an exercise. The vibrating exercise belt promised users could achieve effortless weight loss by having their midriffs violently jiggled. It didn’t work, but you can still find similar machines available for purchase today.
Q. 162 Why do most people make exercise their last priority?
A. It does not help in earning their livelihood.
B. It is an added responsibility besides looking after the family.
C. The main beneficiaries of exercise are people themselves.
D. They prefer to indulge in sedentary leisure activities.
Answer: C.
Q. 163 Which of the following does not classify as an exercise?
A. High-energy Aerobics routines
B. Using midriff vibrating belt
C. Workouts on stationary bikes
D. Squats and pull-ups
Answer: B.
Q. 164 Why do Google searches related to physical fitness peak in January?
A. It is the time to renew gym membership.
B. It is a common new year resolution.
C. In the new year people want to look slim and trim.
D. The cold weather encourages people to exercise.
Answer: B.
Q. 165 The sentence — “Exercise is movement of the muscles and limbs for a specific outcome, usually to enhance physical fitness”
A. defines exercise
B. devalues exercise
C. defends exercise
D. describes exercise
Answer: A.
Q. 166 Which expression means the same as ‘an intense and widely shared enthusiasm for something, especially one that is short-lived; a craze.’
A. Mania
B. Fad
C. Phase
D. Obsession
Answer: B.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 167 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. admiration
B. adroit
C. administration
D. adreneline
Answer: D.
Q. 168 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a person who has unnatural anxiety about one ’s own health typically involving imagined symptoms of illness.
A. nymphomaniac
B. hypochondriac
C. neurotic
D. psychotic
Answer: B.
Q. 169 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. to give someone the cold shoulder
A. ignore or show indifference
B. deny someone comforting clothes
C. serve cold meat to someone
D. bury someone in freezing cold
Answer: A.
Q. 170 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. ingratitude
B. ingredeints
C. indigenous
D. engraving
Answer: B.
Q. 171 Select the antonym of the given word. COMPROMISE
A. dissent
B. agreement
C. disturbance
D. treaty
Answer: A.
Q. 172 Select the synonym of the given word. MEMOIR
A. diary
B. episode
C. anecdote
D. story
Answer: A.
Q. 173 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. The Natural History of Selborne, records the importance of the earthworm to soil and describes an England unspoiled by the Industrial Revolution.
A. describe an England
B. unspoiled by the Industrial Revolution
C. records the importance
D. of the earthworm to soil
Answer: A.
Q. 174 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. It seems that authors’ creativity is not restricted to their work and happily overflows into their names too.
A. happily overflows
B. authors’ creativity
C. into their names too
D. restrict to their work
Answer: D.
Q. 175 Select the synonym of the given word. EXASPERATING
A. exhausting
B. saddening
C. exalting
D. flustrating
Answer: D.
Q. 176 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. put one’s cards on the table
A. to be able to continue
B. to be honest
C. to accept defeat
D. to deal a game of cards
Answer: B.
Q. 177 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. Telemedicine is the delivery of clinical services across …….. and IT devices. It’s a subset of a wider ………… care originally developed for doctors to be able to ………. patients living in rural and remote areas.
A. telephone; virtual; diagrose
B. telephones: actual; discharge
C. telecoms; virtual; treat
D. telecom; visual; admit
Answer: C.
Q. 178 Select the synonym of the given word. ENIGMATIC.
A. inquisitive
B. resolute
C. purgative
D. mysterious
Answer: D.
Q. 179 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. to send back a criminal or an unwanted person to the country of his/her origin.
A. excavate
B. exile
C. export
D. extradite
Answer: D.
Q. 180 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. be the Devil’s advocate
A. to present a counter argument just for the sake of it
B. to present an argument in favor of a well-known evil man
C. to represent an accused in a murder trial
D. to represent the devil as an advocate in witch trials
Answer: A.
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. Passage:
A. massive fire in Chennai destroyed 184 cars ………….. (1) to a private cab aggregator. ………….. (2) blaze is suspected to have been triggered ……………. (3) tall dried grass caught fire flom a discarded ……………. (4) cigarette butt, said rescue services ………………. (5) .
Q. 181 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.
A. belonged
B. belongs
C. were belonging
D. belonging
Answer: D
Q. 182 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.
A. One
B. The
C. Some
D. A.
Answer: B.
Q. 183 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.
A. of
B. until
C. after
D. by
Answer: C.
Q. 184 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.
A. smoking
B. lighting
C. firing
D. smouldering
Answer: D
Q. 185 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.
A. special
B. victim
C. official
D. culprit
Answer: C.
Instructions For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 186 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
A. simple life of freedom and happiness is one of the more difficult things to achieve.
A. No substitution required
B. one of the most difficult things to achieve.
C. one of the most difficult things to achieve.
D. one of the more difficult things to achieve.
Answer: B.
Q. 187 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. get a taste of your own medicine
A. be given the medicine meant for others
B. be treated by the same doctor
C. be given the same treatment that you have given to others
D. make, taste and take medicines for others
Answer: C.
Q. 188 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. existensial
B. ecstatic
C. extortion
D. extensive
Answer: A.
Q. 189 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. At the back of the eye there are light-sensitive ………… which connect to a small patch of brain tissue. They also ………… to areas of the brain that ………… mood and alertness.
A. cells; link; adjust
B. cells; join; adjust
C. cells; link; regulate
D. muscle; link; regulate
Answer: C.
Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
I sometimes pass a delivery man wheeling a large handcart of Japanese food. The cart bears a striking message: ‘Creating a world where everyone believes in their own authenticity.’
A. No substitution required
B. Creating a world whereas everyone believes in their own authenticity
C. Been created a world where everyone believes in their own authenticity
D. Created a world where everyone believes in their own authenticity
Answer: A.
Q. 191 Select the antonym of the given word. PERPETRATE
A. prevent
B. commit
C. react
D. perpetuate
Answer: A.
Q. 192 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. People flom ……… societies go to bed and wake up several hours earlier than people in ……….. countries do and seem to sleep better than the ………..
A. traditional; developed; later
B. modern ; developed; latter
C. modern; undeveloped; later
D. traditional; developed; latter
Answer: D.
Q. 193 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. exclamation
B. eccentricity
C. exscitement
D. expenditure
Answer: C.
Q. 194 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
Just as technology has changed the way we shop, book a taxi, hold business meetings, and even find a parking spot, so too is it transforming the way we access healthcare, wherever we are in the world.
A. so too was it transforming the way we accessed healthcare
B. No substitution required
C. so too is it transforming the way we access healthcare
D. so too had it transformed the way we access healthcare
Answer: C.
Q. 195 Select the antonym of the given word. RECOVERED.
A. lost
B. last
C. latest
D. leased
Answer: A.
Q. 196 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. Even on an overcast winter’s day, it is at least 10 times ……….. outside than in a standard office. By ………… to work and getting outdoors at lunchtime, we can begin to reconnect with the light.
A. brightest; walking
B. brighter; walking
C. brighter; walk
D. bright; walk
Answer: B.
Q. 197 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. furios
B. frenzied
C. freeze
D. fractional
Answer: A.
Q. 198 Select the antonym of the given word. THREATEN
A. criticize
B. compete
C. coax
D. commend
Answer: D.
Q. 199 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a table or flat surface where offerings are made to a deity
A. sanctorum
B. pew
C. altar
D. stone
Answer: C.
Q. 200 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. To be interested in the changing seasons is a happy state of mind than to be hopelessly in love with spring.
Q : 1 – 10 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words / phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
“I promise to open a bank account for a British citizen in just two minutes”. With a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start a new bank called Lintel, the twominute pledge is one of his selling points. He reckons that he can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5m ($7.5m) start-up cost. lie hopes to start doing business early next year. Since April, 2013, three new British banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licenses. An official at the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) who doles out banking licences is part of the Bank of England, says people are now applying to open banks in”unprecedented numbers.” Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since March, 2013, the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorization. The capital requirements for the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers then look for niches, whether in products, customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch from one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. One such niche market will be immigrants, both students on short-stay visas and longer-term economic migrants and new start-up banks promise to offer a full range of products, in many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and Gatwick airports. Another niche (e.g. Atom Bank), by contrast, is technological. It will be the first British bank to be digital-only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the bank’s overheads. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the Competition and Markets Authority, an official watchdog. Most of the new entrants would agree with the authority’s criticism that some features of the traditional banking system “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. They attack what they call the opaque pricing of many current accounts and view to drive change. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms.
Q. 1 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word DOLES given in bold as used in the passage
A. Benefits
B. charity
C. sorrows
D. Handouts
E. issues
Q. 2 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word APPEARED given in bold as used in the passage
A. Performed
B. shown
C. survived
D. Lived
E. emerged
Q. 3 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
A. Many large banks have collapsed and their place is being taken over by foreign banks
B. All present British banks largely offer digital services and are reducing physical branches
C. British banks are facing a financial crunch and need a stimulus from the government.
D. The Bank of England has improved the process of issuance of bank licenses.
E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage
Q. 4 What is the author’s view regarding the start-up innovations in banking ?
A. These pose a threat to the banking system as they are not governed by stringent regulations.
B. Their operations are mainly online making it difficult for certain functions of their customers
C. These are providing an alternative to traditional banking and may transform the banking industry
D. These will not be very successful as customers are wary of leaving traditional banks.
E. Other than those given as options
Q. 5 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage ?
A. As new banks are being set-up, the nature of Banking will change in British
B. While many innovations are taking place in banking, banks lack capital to sustain these.
C. Bank credit in England is at an all time low present.
D. Technology is taking over banks puffing security at risk
E. Customers are unhappy with the central bank’s decision to encourage setting up of new risky banks.
Q. 6 What does the example of Lintel cited in the passage convey ?
A. New generation banks have grown bigger than conventional banks
B. Britain’s central bank is allowing banks to be setup indiscriminately
C. Quite a few new banks are being setup in Britain targeting certain customer needs.
D. Bypassing time-consuming but necessary regulations puts banks at risk
E. The Central Bank of England has to implement stricter regulatory measures.
Q. 7 Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word CLASSIC given in bold as used in the passage
A. Remarkable
B. Stylish
C. Typical
D. Inexpensive
E. Usual
Q. 8 According to the passage, which of the following has/have impacted bank startups?
(A) Failure of foreign banks
(B) Eagerness of individual and companies to set up banks
(C) Changing loyalties of customers
A. Only B
B. Only A
C. All A, B and C
D. Only A and C
E. Only B and C
Q. 9 Which of the following best describes die Competition and Market Authority’s opinion of the traditional banking system ?
A. Its services and products are cheap and favour small businesses at the cost of robustness
B. It lacks transparency in its processes and its practices are not always fair.
C. Traditional banks are less profitable than new banks, despite the government’s efforts.
D. The quality of their services is not the same abroad and domestically causing distress to customers
E. Innovations are being brought in despite existing rules prohibiting these.
Q. 10 Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word RESTRICT given in bold as used in the passage.
A. Exhibit
B. Encourage
C. chock
D. Exploit
E. contract
Questions: 11 – 15
Rearrange the given six sentences / group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a Hello Kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.
B. Unfortunately, owing to the demanding economy prospects for this mall are not good.
C. The Global Harbor mall in China once ranked among the World’s biggest shopping malls with its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.
D. With a mix of these utilities for consumers, it blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian election of stores.
E. As a result, bringing it back to its old position has become more urgent than ever.
F. It is only a slight exaggeration to say that China’s economic hopes rest on the faux- Corinthian columns of this mall.
Q. 11 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
A. E
B. B
C. A
D. F
E. C
Q. 12 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. F
D. U
E. E
Q. 13 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. F
E. D
Q. 14 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. F
E. D
Q. 15 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after the rearrangement ?
A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B
E. F
Questions: 16 – 20
Each question below has two blanks each blank indicating that something has been omitted Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q. 16 Guests should look………to the new international artists who are………to perform this writer.
A. forward, scheduled
B. ahead,set
C. eagerly, lately
D. closer,likely
E. carefully ,about
Q. 17 ……….to a scientist, thousands of fossils be………inside a cave at the Word heritage site.
A. Exclusive, unclaimed
B. Relating, locally
C. Relying, behind
D. Pertaining, buried
E. According, untouched
Q. 18 Two months after ordering the authorities to ……… the scam, the court finally………to take the first step towards monitoring the investigation on Monday
A. look, seemed
B. investigate, assumed
C. search, decided
D. probe, appeared
E. delve, made
Q. 19 It has been ……… three months that the students of the institute began their strike ……. the appointment of the Chairman of the Council.
A. about ,of
B. more, opposing
C. close,for
D. over, against
E. around ,to
Q. 20 ….being unwell, the Minister………to continue his protests till the problem is resolved.
A. Although, wants
B. Despite, intends
C. Though, suggests
D. Since, prolongs
E. After, resolve
Questions: 21 – 25
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will he in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.
Q. 21 With 80 percent of the working age population, already employed, there is limited room for employment growth to contribute strong about economic activities in the future.
A. With 80 percent of the working age population
B. already employed, there is limited room
C. for employment growth to contribute strong about
D. economic activities in the future.
E. no error
Q. 22 The global economy, slaved by stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being further hampered by England’s decelerating growth.
A. The global economy, slaved by
B. stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being
C. further hampered
D. by England’s decelerating growth.
E. no error
Q. 23 The country’s economic growth could be fade dramatically as the years to come owing to an aging population.
A. The country’s economic growth
B. could be fade dramatically
C. as the years to come
D. owing to an aging population
E. no error
Q. 24 The country’s economic growth will largely be stable in the third quarter as the impact of a stock market plunge is been lessened.
A. The country’s economic growth will
B. largely be stable in the third quarter
C. as the impact of a stock market plunge
D. is been lessened
E. No error
Q. 25 A major component supporting the nation’s rapid economic growth has been growth of exports.
A. A major component supporting
B. the nation’s rapid
C. economic growth has
D. been growth of exports.
E. No error
Questions: 26 – 30
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested. One of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case.
India’s private-schooled, English-speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the …26…. The vast majority of Indian children attend government-run primary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India …27… for more than 88% of India’s primary-school students, of whom over 87% were …28… in government run schools. This is where we see some of the nation’s toughest challenges. The number of students completing their primary education with …29… numeracy and literacy’ skills is startling. To see this manifest in an economic sense, one may attribute India’s slow productivity growth-lagging behind that of East Asian economics-to a lack of.. .30… in the foundational elements of countrywide, high-quality education.
Q. 26 Fill in the blanks
A. least
B. lurch
C. minority
D. future
E. past
Q. 27 Fill in the blanks
A. Amounted
B. totalized
C. accumulated
D. added
E. accounted
Q. 28 Fill in the blanks
A. bordered
B. existed
C. enrolled
D. hatred
E. proposed
Q. 29 Fill in the blanks
A. astute
B. inadequate
C. certain
D. pursued
E. together
Q. 30 Fill in the blanks
A. progress
B. contribution
C. particulars
D. boundaries
E. schools
Q. 31 A bag contains 6 red, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are red in colour ?
A. 4/13
B. 8/13
C. 5/13
D. 2/13
E. 6/13
Q. 32 A vessel contains a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 : 4. 12 litre of this mixture is taken out and 8 litre of apple juice is added to the mixture. If the respective quantities of apple juice and orange juice in the vessel are equal, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel ? (in litre)
A. 60
B. 84
C. 96
D. 48
E. 72
Questions: 33 – 37
In these questions, two equations, numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer:
(1) x > y
(2) x > y
(3) x < y
(4) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
(5) x < y
Q. 33 I.x²=81
II. y²+13y + 36 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 34 I.x²- 13x +14 = 0
II. 3y² -17y + 22 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 35 I.x²+ 9x + 9 = 0
II. 4y²+ 9y + 5 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 36 I. 2×2 – 11x + 14 = 0
II. 2y2 -7y + 6 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 37 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0
II. 2y²– 19y + 44 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 38 A and B together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. B alone can complete the same work in 24 days. In how many days can A alone complete the same work ?
A. 38 days
B. 50 days
C. 48 days
D. 42 days
E. none of these
Q. 39 The average salary of A, B and C is Rs. 7,200/-. The average salary of B, C and D is Rs. 7,550/-. If D’s salary is 25% more than A’s salary, what is the average of B and C’s salary ?
A. Rs. 8,950/-
B. Rs. 8,450/
C. Rs. 8,300/-
D. Rs. 8,900/-
E. Rs. 8,700/-
Questions: 40 – 44
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact answer.)
Q. 40 9659 + 20.99 + 7.921 ÷ 11 .97 = ?
A. 960
B. 950
C. 1260
D. 1280
E. 1120
Q. 41 25.01% of 541 ÷ 29.97% of 30.01 + ? = 140
A. 90
B. 145
C. 125
D. 85
E. 110
Q. 42 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?
A. 520
B. 650
C. 480
D. 590
E. 630
Q. 43 (12.5 x 14) ÷ 20 + 41.25 = ?³ ÷ 2.5
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
E. 7
Q. 44 √230 ÷ 2.017 + 58.794 = ?
A. 80
B. 102
C. 68
D. 96
E. 77
Q. 45 B is 8 years elder to A and B is also 8 years younger to C. 12 years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages of A, B and C ?
A. 32 years
B. 48 years
C. 72 years
D. 42 years
E. 36 years
Q. 46 To reach Point B at 10 a.m. from Point A, Abni will have to travel at an average speed of 15 km/h. He will reach point B at 12 p.m., if he travels at an average speed of 10 km/h. At what average speed should Abhi travel to reach Point B at 9 a.m. ?
A. 20 km/h
B. 18 km/h
C. 16 km/h
D. 24 km/h
E. 22 km/h
Q. 47 The time taken by a boat to travel a distance upstream is twice the time taken by it to travel the same distance downstream. What is the speed of the boat upstream if it travels 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 min ? (in km/h)
A. 5.5
B. 6.
C. 6.5
D. 8
E. 4
Questions: 48 – 52
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?
Q. 48 10 10 16 40 100 ?
A. 220
B. 300
C. 200
D. 150
E. 340
Q. 49 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8
A. 40
B. 31
C. 20
D. 42
E. 34
Q. 50 7 6 10 27 104 ?
A. 297
B. 439
C. 515
D. 386
E. 624
Q. 51 9 4 3 3 4 ?
A. 11
B. 7.5
C. 9.5
D. 12.5
E. 8
Q. 52 139 135 128 116 97 ?
A. 69
B. 55
C. 71
D. 82
E. 63
Q. 53 The respective ratio of the sum invested for 2 years each in Scheme A offering 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) and in Scheme B offering 8% simple interest is 1: 2. Difference between the interests earned from both the schemes is Rs. 990/-. How much was invested in Scheme A ?
A. Rs.9,500/-
B. Rs.9,000/-
C. Rs.12,000/-
D. Rs. 11,000/-
E. Rs. 10,000/-
Questions: 54 – 58
Refer to the table and answer the give questions.
Data related to candidates appeared and qualified from State ‘X’ in the competitive exam during 5 years
Q. 54 In 2003, if the number of female qualified candidates was 70, what was the respective ratio of number of female qualified candidates and number of male qualified candidates in the same year ?
A. 5:9
B. 7:11
C. 10:11
D. 10:13
E. 5:7
Q. 55 Number of appeared candidates increased by 20% from 2002 to 2006. If 25% of the appeared candidates qualified in 2006, what was the number of qualified candidates in 2006 ?
A. 205
B. 215
C. 245
D. 240
E. 230
Q. 56 If the average number of qualified candidates in 2002 and 2005 was 433, what percent of appeared candidates qualified in the competitive exam in 2002 ?
A. 60
B. 75
C. 45
D. 70
E. 50
Q. 57 In 2004, if the difference between number of male qualified candidates and number of female qualified candidates was 120, What was the number of appeared candidates in 2004 ?
A. 840
B. 800
C. 660
D. 600
E. 720
Q. 58 In 2001, the respective ratio of number of appeared candidates to qualified candidates was 5 : 2. Number of female candidates qualified in 2001 constitutes what percent of the number of appeared candidates in the same year?
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 125%
D. 20%
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 59 If the volume and covered surface area of a cylinder are 462 m³ and 264 m² respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder ? (in m²)
A. 351
B. 357
C. 363
D. 339
E. 341
Questions: 60 – 64
Refer to the graph and answer the Number of visitors in Country “XYZ” from City A and City B
Q. 60 The number of visitors from City A in May is what percent less than the number of visitors from City B in July ?
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 10%
E. 20%
Q. 61 What is the average number of visitors from City B in May, June, August and September ?
A. 260
B. 230
C. 265
D. 245
E. 255
Q. 62 What is the difference between the total number of visitors from City A and City B together in September and the total number of visitors from both the cities together in August ?
A. 170
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140
E. 150
Q. 63 The number of visitors from City A in April increased by 20% from the previous month. What is the respective ratio between the number of visitors from City A in July and the number of visitors from the same city in March?
A. 18 : 7
B. 19 : 7
C. 17 : 8
D. 19:5
E. 18:5
Q. 64 The number of visitors from City B increased by what percent from April to June?
A. 132%
B. 120%
C. 133 1/3%
D. 134%
E. 127 2/3%
Q. 65 ‘A’ gave 40% of an amount to ‘B’. From the money B got, he paid 20% to a tax. Out of the remaining amount, the amounts paid by B towards tuition fees and towards library membership are in the respective ratio of 3 : 5. If B paid Rs. 1,720/- as library membership fees, how much money did A have at the beginning ?
A. Rs. 9,000/-
B. Rs. 12,400/-
C. Rs. 12,000/-
D. Rs. 8,000/
E. Rs. 8,600/-
Questions: 66 – 70
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven people, namely O, P, Q, R, S, T and U will attend a farewell but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, May, July, October and December. Each of them also likes different stationary items namely Pen, Stapler, Ruler, Folder, Envelope, Label and Worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes Envelope will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. Only one person will attend a farewell between the one who likes Envelope and O. The one who likes Ruler will attend a farewell immediately before O. Q will attend a farewell immediately after O. P will attend a farewell in one of the months before Q. Only two people will attend a farewell between Q and P. U will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. T will attend a farewell immediately after U. Only one person will attend a farewell between O and the one who likes folder. U likes neither open nor stapler. The one who likes pen will attend a farewell immediately before the one who likes Worksheet. S does not like Ruler.
Q. 66 Which of the following represents the people who will attend a farewell in March and October respectively ?
A. T,Q
B. T,O
C. U,O
D. U,Q
E. T,S
Q. 67 Which of the following represents the month in which R will attend a farewell ?
A. may
B. cannot be determined
C. july
D. october
E. march
Q. 68 How many people will attend a farewell between the months in which U and O will attend a farewell ?
A. more than 3
B. 3
C. none
D. 2
E. 1
Q. 69 As per the given arrangement, February is related to Envelope and March is related to Ruler, which of the following is July related to following the same pattern ?
A. label
B. pen
C. folder
D. worksheet
E. stapler
Q. 70 Which of the following stationary does S like ?
A. worksheet
B. label
C. pen
D. folder
E. stapler
Questions: 71 – 75
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
J, K, L, M, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each One of them is also related to M in same way or the other. Only two people sit between Q and L. M sits second to the left of Q. Only three people sit between L and M’s wife. M’s son sits second to the right of M’s wife. Only three people sit between M’s son and M’s brother. M’s daughter sits second to the left of M’s brother. J sits to the immediate right of R. R is neither the son nor the wife of M. M’s sister sits second to the left of R. K. sits to the immediate right of M’s sister. Only two people sit between K and M’s father. T sits second to the right of M’s mother.
Q. 71 How many people sit between Q and J, when counted from the left of J?
A. 4
B. 1
C. none
D. 5
E. 2
Q. 72 How is K related to R?
A. brother
B. nephew
C. daughter-in law
D. uncle
E. mother
Q. 73 Who sits second to the right of R?
A. R
B. M’s brother
C. T
D. M’s daughter
E. K
Q. 74 Who amongst the following is the wife of M ?
A. Q
B. K
C. N
D. J
E. O
Q. 75 Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information ?
A. All the given statements are true
B. M sits second to the left of L
C. K is an immediate neighbour of R
D. S is the daughter of L
E. R sits second to the right of M’s wife
Questions: 76 – 80
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-T, U, V, W and X are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2-D, E, F, G and H are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The person facing V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F. W sits second to the left of U. U faces one of the immediate neighbours of E. G is not an immediate neighbour of D. G does not sit at an extreme end of the line. X does not face D.
Q. 76 Who amongst the following is facing E ?
A. X
B. T
C. U
D. V
E. W
Q. 77 What is the position of G with respect to H ?
A. Third to the right
B. Second to the right
C. Second to the left
D. Immediate right
E. Immediate lef
Q. 78 Which of the following statements is true regarding X ?
A. Only two persons sit between X and U
B. X faces one of the immediate neighbours of F
C. W is an immediate neighbour of X
D. None of the given statements is true
E. X sits at an extreme ends of the line
Q. 79 Who amongst the following is facing T ?
A. E
B. H
C. D
D. F
E. G
Q. 80 Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group ?
A. XW
B. D F
C. F E
D. T U
E. G D
Questions: 81 – 85
Study the following information answer the given questions.
In a certain code language, ‘offer prayers to god’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’ ‘prayers for school assembly’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’ ‘school offer special education’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv ‘assembly must to school’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’ (All codes are two letter codes only)
Q. 81 In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for?
A. either offer or to
B. god
C. school
D. Either ‘education’ or ‘special’
E. must
Q. 82 What is the code for ‘assembly’ in the given code language ?
A. tm
B. rx
C. st
D. da
E. Other than those given as options
Q. 83 What is the code for ‘prayers’ in the given code language ?
A. nh
B. oc
C. gv
D. pu
E. rx
Q. 84 What may be the possible code for ‘assembly ground’ in the given code language ?
A. ve bi
B. da nh
C. nh ve
D. ve da
E. bi da
Q. 85 If ‘school to home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘home for god’ ?
A. aj gv nh
B. pu aj bi
C. nh bi pu
D. bi da aj
E. aj oc pu
Questions: 86 – 88
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Each of the six salespersons viz, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sells a different number of life insurance policies in a day. U sells more policies than Y and Z but less than X. Z sells more policies than only W. X does not sell the most number of policies. The one who sells the third highest number of policies sells 33 policies and the one who sells the lowest number of policies sells 11 policies in a day. Y sells 13 more policies than W.
Q. 86 If the number of policies which V sells in a day is less than 47, and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many policies does he sell ?
A. 24
B. 45
C. 39
D. 27
E. 21
Q. 87 How many policies does Z possibly sell ?
A. 19
B. 26
C. 30
D. 24
E. 41
Q. 88 Who amongst the following sells the second highest number of policies in a day ?
A. v
B. Y
C. W
D. X
E. Z
Questions: 89 – 93
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer:
(1) If only conclusion II is true
(2) If only conclusion I is true
(3) If both conclusions I and II are true
(4) If either conclusion I or II is true
(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q. 89 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E
Conclusions : I. A > F II. R < K
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 90 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J
Conclusions : I. D > B ; II. E > S
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 91 Statements: A > B > C < D < E < F
Conclusions : I. C < F ; II. A > E
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 92 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J
Conclusions : I. J < B ; II. J = B
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 93 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E
Conclusions : I. Y > K ; II. F < Y
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Questions: 94 – 95
Study the following information to answer the given questions
❖ K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y
❖ Y is the sister of T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J
❖ S has only one daughter. S is married to R
❖ K is the brother of D. U is the father-in-law of D
Q. 94 How is D related to Y ?
A. Cannot be determined
B. mother
C. uncle
D. father
E. aunt
Q. 95 If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C ?
A. cousin
B. husband
C. wife
D. cannot be determined
E. brother
Questions: 96 – 100
In these questions, two statements followed by two/three conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(1) If only conclusion II is true
(2) if only conclusion I is true
(3) If both conclusions I and II are true
(4) If either conclusion I or II is true
(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q. 96 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.
Conclusions: I. Some thoughts being points is a possibility. II. No view is a thought.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 97 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.
Conclusions: At least some ideas are points. II. All thoughts being ideas is a possibility
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 98 Statements: Some slides are photos. All photos arc images. All images are creations.
Conclusions :
I. At least some images are slides.
II. All photos are creations.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 99 Statements : No loss is profit. Some profits are gains.
Conclusions:
I. No gain is a loss
II. Some gains are losses.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 100 Statements : No space is a gap. All tissues are gaps. No gap is a crack.
Directions (1 – 5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A),(B),(C),(D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(A) with the country’s decades- old investment boom fast dwindling, it needs consumption to kick in as a new driver of growth.
(B) It is only a slight exaggeration to say that china’s economic hopes rest on the faux-corinthian columns og global horror.
(C) Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a hello kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.
(D) It blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian selection of stores.
(E) Global harbor ranks among the world’s biggest shopping malls, its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.
Q. 1 Which of the following should be first sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 2 Which of the following should be third sentence of the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 3 Which of the following should be second sentence of the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 4 Which of the following should be fourth sentence of the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 5 Which of the following should be fifth(last) sentence of the rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Questions: 6 – 10
Directions(6-10): Each of the following questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. choose the set of words for each blank that fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q. 6 A clash between_________of two rival gangs in high security prison _________several inmates injured.
A. member, left
B. members, left
C. leaders, leave
D. groups, put
E. volunteers, have
Q. 7 Banks caused a bubble, failed to do due_________and _________more than what was warranted to developers.
A. diligence, lent
B. diligent, lend
C. diligently, borrowed
D. carelessly, lent
E. carelessness, lending
Q. 8 Acting__________on vehicles polluting city, government ordered all commercial vehicles entering city to_________environmental compensation charge.
A. toughness, pay
B. toughly, paying
C. leniently, pay
D. tough, play
E. roughly, paid
Q. 9 The project has__________under fire for___________a vital elephant corridor in kaziranga.
A. gone, destroy
B. come, destructed
C. went, destroying
D. reached, destruction
E. come, destroying
Q. 10 Health minister has given all city government hospitals a two day________to get prepared for H1N1 _________
A. deadline, outbreak
B. hardline, outbreaking
C. headline, outbreak
D. period, spread
E. hotline, spreading
Questions: 11 – 20
Directions(11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
“I promise to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes”, with a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start the new bank called Lintel; the two minute pledge is one of his selling points. Young entrepreneurs can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5 million euros start up cost. Since April 2013 three new british banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licences. A person, who doles out banking licences at the prudential regulation authority(PRA), part of the bank of england, says people are now applying to open banks in ‘unprecedented numbers’. Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says, with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since march 2013 the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorisation. The capital requirements of the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch for one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. The niche will be about immigrants, both students on short -stay visas and longer -term economic migrants. They are treated “extremely bad”by existing banks he claims. He will offer a full range of products in ,many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers –such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and gatwick airports. Atom bank’s niche, by contrast , is technological. It will be the first british bank to the digital only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the banks overheads. set up by Mark Mullen, a former head of branchless bank first direct, and anthony thomson, co-founder of another of the new wave of “challenger” banks, Metro, atom bank should start operating in the second half of this year. Metro bank itself, which started in 2010, is following a quite different road: it is opening new branches almost as quickly as traditional banks like lloyds, RBS, Barclays and HSBC are closing them. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the competition and Markets authority, an official watchdog. Most with authority’s criticism that some features of the current banking market “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms. Mr. Mullen, for instance, attacks what he calls the opaque pricing of many current accounts: a selling point of atom bank, he claims, is that all its pricing will be utterly transparent.”we will drive change”, he says.
Q. 11 Which of the following is/are correct in the context of the given passage?
I. The young entrepreneur is to start a new bank called unitel.
II. The start-up cost of a new bank is set at 5 million euros.
III. The young entrepreneur promises to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes.
A. only I and II
B. only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. only II
E. all three I, II and III
Q. 12 what should be the most appropriate title of the given passage?
A. state of existing banks in the united kingdom
B. prospective willingness to open new banks in the united kingdom
C. economic slowdown and existing banks
D. hurdles in opening a new bank in london
E. none of these
Q. 13 which of the following statements is not correct in the context of the given passage?
A. since april 2013, three new british banks have come to light.
B. the capital requirements for the start-ups are higher than they used to be.
C. all new entrepreneurs are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to change banks
D. A new bank can be up and running just six months after authorisation
E. none of these
Q. 14 new entrants are looking for niches whether in products, customers or technology. Which of the following is not correct in this regard?
A. they are thinking about immigrants as they are treated extremely badly by existing banks.
B. offering a full range of products in many languages and digitally.
C. some branches to be located at the most convenient places for the the target customers.
D. opening bank accounts without proper identification
E. none of these
Q. 15 select the correct statement(s) in the context of the given passage.
I. Atom bank’s niche is technological.
II. Metro bank was started in 2010.
III. Atom bank was set up by mark mullen.
A. only I
B. Only III
C. only I and III
D. only II and III
E. all three I, II and III
Q. 16 select the incorrect statement in the context of the given passage.
A. anthony thomson is co-founder of metro bank.
B. all the pricing of atom bank will be utterly transparent
C. the banking sector is currently the subject or review
D. barclays, HSBC and RBS are new entrants in banking sector
E. none of these
Q. 17 Similar meaning for “Dole out”
A. give out
B. leave
C. borrow
D. cancel
E. accept
Q. 18 Similar meaning to “Appear”
A. seam
B. arrive
C. begin to exist
D. append
E. appease
Q. 19 opposite to “classic”
A. accepted
B. traditional
C. modern
D. elegant
E. musical
Q. 20 opposite to “restrict”
A. impede
B. limit
C. control
D. allow
E. restrain
Questions: 21 – 25
Direction(21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error,select no error as your answer.ignore the error of punctuations if any.
Q. 21 insurance ombudsman have(1)/sought more power to settle higher(2)/ claim causes as the number(3)/of complaints continue to rise.(4)/no error(5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 22 The rising cases of dengue across(1)/many Indian states has fastly(2)/turned into new business opportunities (3)/for pharma, FMCG and insurance.(4)/ no error(5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 23 Earlier studies have shown (1)/ that even drinking water, beverages and soft drinks(2)/were not totally(3)/free of hazardous chemicals.(4)/no error (5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 24 Over the past two(1)/months, the prices of oil has(2)/surged due to (3)/estimates of less productions. (4)/no error(5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 25 With the clew of benefits and business friendly policies(1)/acting as a magnet the
government has succeeded in making (2)/ the state the more preferred destinations(3)/ for investments and business.(4)/no error(5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Questions: 26 – 30
Directions(26-30): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered against each five words are suggested,one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
India’s private schooled, English speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the______(26). The vast majority of Indian children______(27) government run preliminary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India ______(28)for more than 88 % of India’s primary school students, of whom over 87% were enrolled in government run schools. This is where we see one of the nations____(29) challenges. India’s education system has not achieved strong learning out comes for reasons that are as diverse and_____(30) as the country itself. Key among these reasons is poor teaching quality which results from a multitude of factors.
Q. 26 which word suits the best?
A. minor
B. major
C. majority
D. minority
E. maturity
Q. 27 which word suits the best?
A. go
B. follow
C. attend
D. attended
E. leave
Q. 28 which word suits the best?
A. account
B. accounted
C. arranged
D. counted
E. accumulated
Q. 29 which word suits the best?
A. tougher
B. stricter
C. toughest
D. simplest
E. simpler
Q. 30 which word suits the best?
A. nuanced
B. difference
C. similar
D. simplified
E. divine
Q. 31 A trader has 400 kg of ride. He sells a part of it at a profit of 36% and remaining part at a loss of 24%. He overall loses 12% in the whole transaction.Find the quantity of rice sold at 24% loss.
A. 320 kg
B. 330 kg
C. 300 kg
D. 350 kg
E. none of these
Q. 32 The volume and curved surface area of a right circular cylinder are 462 cu. metre and 264 sq. metre respectively. What is the total surface area of the cylinder?(in sq metre)
A. 332
B. 341
C. 336
D. 431
E. none of these
Q. 33 In a vessel, there is a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. A quantity of 12 litres from the mixture is replaced by 8 litres of apple juice. Thereafter the quantities of apple and orange juices in the resultant mixture become same. Find out the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel.
A. 76 litres
B. 65 litres
C. 60 litres
D. 80 litres
E. none of these
Questions: 34 – 38
what approximate value will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions. you are not expected to calculate the exact value.
Q. 34 25.01% of 541 ÷ (29.97% of 20.01)+ ?=140
A. 110
B. 145
C. 85
D. 95
E. 125
Q. 35 1680.11-12.03 x 14.93 + ?² = 1644
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
E. none of these
Q. 36 1442 ÷ 36 + 2/9 x 4049 – 125.01 = ?
A. 820
B. 815
C. 840
D. 850
E. none of these
Q. 37 9659 ÷ 20.99 + 7921 ÷ 11.97 = ?
A. 1140
B. 1160
C. 1120
D. 1150
E. none of these
Q. 38 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?
A. 590
B. 700
C. 540
D. 550
E. none of these
Questions: 39 – 43
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of candidates from a state X who appeared and qualified in a competitive exam during last 5 years.
Q. 39 In 2001, 6400 candidates appeared at the exam and 401 of them qualified males and females was 3: 5. What is the total number of female candidates who qualified in these two years?
A. 1120
B. 1220
C. 1330
D. 1150
E. none of these
Q. 40 In 2004, what percent of male candidates did qualify in the exam among all qualified candidates?
A. 51%
B. 61%
C. 55%
D. 56%
E. none of these
Q. 41 In 2002, 54% of appeared candidates did qualify. How many female candidates did qualify in the exam?
A. 280
B. 170
C. 180
D. 250
E. 240
Q. 42 In 2003, a total of 68 male candidates did qualify . what is the respective ratio will between males and females who had qualified in 2003?
A. 11 : 25
B. 19 : 25
C. 17 : 25
D. 25 : 13
E. 13 : 19
Q. 43 what is the average number of candidates who did not qualify in the exam in the years 2003 and 2005?
A. 1165
B. 1156
C. 1065
D. 1056
E. none of these
Q. 44 There are 6 red balls, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls in an urn. Two balls are drawn at random. what is the probability that none of the drawn balls is of red colour?
A. 8/13
B. 7/13
C. 6/13
D. 5/13
E. 4/13
Questions: 45 – 49
what will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series?
Q. 45 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8
A. 31
B. 32
C. 29
D. 33
E. 34
Q. 46 7 6 10 27 104 ?
A. 516
B. 515
C. 525
D. 535
E. 540
Q. 47 139 135 128 116 97 ?
A. 65
B. 68
C. 69
D. 67
E. 80
Q. 48 10 10 16 31 70 ?
A. 156
B. 150
C. 180
D. 184
E. 148
Q. 49 9 4 3 3 4 ?
A. 9.5
B. 8.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.5
E. 7.5
Q. 50 Time taken by a boat in going upstream a certain distance is twice the time taken in going the same distance downstream. Find the speed of boat upstream if it covers 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 minutes.
A. 6 kmph
B. 7 kmph
C. 6.5 kmph
D. 7.2 kmph
E. none of these
Q. 51 To reach a point B at 10 am from point A, Abhinav travels at an average speed of 15 kmph. He reaches the point B at 12 noon, if he travels at an average speed of 10 kmph. Find the average speed of Abhinav if he intends to reach the point B at 9 am(in kmph)
A. 87/7
B. 120/7
C. 101/7
D. 121/7
E. none of these
Q. 52 B is 8 years older than A and 8 years younger than C. 12 years hence, respective ratio of the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages A, B and C?
A. 58 years
B. 46 years
C. 48 years
D. 60 years
E. none of these
Questions: 53 – 57
Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of tourists visiting country ‘XYZ’ from city A and city B during 6 different months.
Q. 53 What is the difference between the average number of tourists from city A and city B during april , may and june taken together?
A. 63 : 31
B. 64 : 75
C. 31 : 63
D. 11 : 13
E. none of these
Q. 54 By what percent is the number of tourists from state A less than that form state B in the month of june?
A. 13.97
B. 13.27
C. 12.25
D. 14.5
E. 13.8
Q. 55 By what percent the number of tourists from city B increased in august in respect to april ?
A. 36.67
B. 60.57
C. 65.27
D. 66.67
E. none of these
Q. 56 by what percent approximately is the total number of tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city B taking all the months together?
A. 1.5%
B. 2%
C. 4%
D. 3%
E. 2.5%
Q. 57 What is the respective ratio between the total number of tourists from states A and B during april, may and june taken together?
A. 63 : 31
B. 64 : 75
C. 31 : 63
D. 11 : 13
E. none of these
Questions: 58 – 62
In each of the following questions, two equations, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
Q. 58 I. x² = 81
II. y² + 13y + 36 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 59 I. 2x² – 11x + 14 = 0
II. 2y² – 7y + 6 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 60 I. 3x² – 13x + 14 = 0
II. 3y² – 17y + 22 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 61 I. 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0
II. 4yv + 9y + 5 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 62 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0
II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 63 24 men can complete a piece of work in 28 days. 27 men start working and are replaced by 14 women after 8 days. In how many days will 14 women finish the remaining work?
A. 12 days
B. 14 days
C. 13 days
D. 12 1/2 days
E. 15 days
Q. 64 A gave 40% of his monthly salary of Mr. B. Mr. B spent 20% of this amount on taxi fare. He spent the remaining amount in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 on tuition fees and library membership. If he spent Rs. 1720 for membership, what is A’s monthly salary?
A. Rs. 8500
B. Rs. 8600
C. Rs. 7600
D. Rs. 7500
E. none of these
Q. 65 A invests a certain sum in scheme A at compound interest(compounded annually) of 10% per annum for 2 years. In scheme B he invests at simple interest of 8% per annum for 2 years. He invests in schemes A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. The difference between the interests earned from both the schemes in Rs. 990. Find the amount invested in scheme A.
A. Rs. 7500
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 9000
D. Rs. 8500
E. Rs. 8600
Questions: 66 – 70
In a certain code language, “offer prayers to god” is written as ‘bi gv oc st’. “prayers for school assembly” is written as ‘tm oc da pu’. “school offer special education” is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’. “assembly must to school” is written as ‘da st rx tm’
All the codes are two letter codes.
Q. 66 what is the code for ‘must’ in the given code language ?
A. da
B. other than those given as options
C. rx
D. tm
E. st
Q. 67 what is the code for ‘education’ in the given code language?
A. either ‘mk’ or ‘nh’
B. either ‘tm’ or ‘gv’
C. mk
D. nh
E. tm
Q. 68 If ‘school to home’ is coded as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then how ‘home for god’ will be coded ?
A. pu gv aj
B. bi aj oc
C. da bi st
D. aj bi pu
E. bi mk rx
Q. 69 What may be the possible code for ‘school must offer training’ in the language ?
A. rx gv mk tm
B. tm rk rx gv
C. oc gv oc bi
D. st gv oc bi
E. gv da nh pu
Q. 70 what does the code ‘da’ stand for in the given code language?
A. school
B. to
C. prayers
D. other than those given as options
E. assembly
Questions: 71 – 75
Directions(71-75) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
give answer(1) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
give answer (2) if either conclusion I is true.
give answer (3) If only conclusion I is true
give answer (4) if only conclusion II is true
give answer (5) i both the conclusion I and conclusion II are true
Q. 71 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E
conclusion : I. A > F
II. R ≥ K
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 72 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E
conclusions: I. Y > K
II. F < Y
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 73 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J
conclusions : I. E > C II. E = C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 74 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J
conclusions : I. D ≥ S II. E ≥ S
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 75 statement : A > B ≥ C < D < E ≤ F
conclusions : I. C < F II. A ≥ E
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Questions: 76 – 80
Directions(76-80): In each of the following questions, two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance form the commonly known as facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known as facts.
give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.
give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows
give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
give answer(4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
give answer(5): if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 76 statements:
some slides are photos.
all photos are images.
all images are creations.
conclusions:
I. at least some images are slides.
II. all photos are creations.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 77 statements:
no space is a gap.
all fissures are gaps.
no gap is a crack.
conclusions:
I. no space is crack.
II. no fissure is a crack.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 78 statements:
no loss is a profit.
some profits are gains.
conclusions:
I. no gain is a loss.
II. some gains are losses.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 79 statements:
all points are views.
no view is an idea.
some ideas are thoughts.
conclusions:
I. some thoughts being points is a possibility.
II. no view is a thought.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 80 statements:
all points are views.
no view is an idea.
some ideas are thoughts.
conclusions:
I. at least some ideas are points.
II. all thoughts being ideas is a possibility.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Questions: 81 – 82
U is the mother of D. S is the sister of D. L is the father of S. L has only one daughter. M is the daughter of S. P is the daughter of D.
Q. 81 If R is married to S, then how is R related to U ?
A. grandson
B. nephew
C. son-in-law
D. uncle
E. cannot be determined
Q. 82 How is S related to P?
A. aunt
B. sister
C. mother
D. niece
E. grandmother
Questions: 83 – 85
six sales persons- U,V,W,X,Y and Z- sell insurance policies. Each of them sold different number of policies. U sold more policies than both Y and Z but less than X.
Z sold more policies than only W. X did not sell the highest number of policies. Third highest number of policies sold is equal to
Q. 83 who among the following did sell exactly 33 policies?
A. X
B. Y
C. Z
D. U
E. cannot be determined
Q. 84 which of the following may represent the number of policies sold by Z?
A. 26
B. 19
C. 9
D. 36
E. 28
Q. 85 who among the following did sell less policies than only V ?
A. U
B. Y
C. X
D. Z
E. cannot be determined
Questions: 86 – 90
directions(86-90): study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row–1,D,E,F,G and H are seated and all of them are facing south but not necessarily in the same order. In row–2,T,U,V,W and X are seated and all of them are facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The one who faces V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F but does not face V. W sits second to left of U. U faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of D, G is not an immediate neighbour of D,G does not sit at the extreme end of the row. X does not face H.
Q. 86 who amongst the following its facing V ?
A. G
B. E
C. F
D. D
E. cannot be determined
Q. 87 which of the following statements is true regarding T ?
A. T faces F
B. only two persons sit to the left of T
C. T sits to the immediate left of T
D. U sits fourth to the right of T
E. None of the given statements is true.
Q. 88 what is the position of D with respect to F?
A. third to the right
B. second to the right
C. immediate left
D. third to the left
E. second to the left
Q. 89 fourth of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
A. H
B. T
C. X
D. D
E. U
Q. 90 who amongst the following is facing F ?
A. T
B. W
C. V
D. X
E. U
Questions: 91 – 95
Eight persons- J, K , L M ,Q, R, S and T –are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is related to M in some way or the other. Two persons are sitting between Q and L. M is sitting second to the left of Q. Three persons are sitting between L and the wife of M. The son of M is sitting second to the right of the wife of M. Three persons are sitting between the son of M and the brother of M. The daughter of M is sitting second to the left of the brother of M. J is sitting to the intermediate right of the R. R is neither son nor wife of M. The sister of M is sitting to the immediate right of the sister of M. Two persons are sitting between K and the father of M. T is sitting second to the right of the mother of M.
Q. 91 who amongst the following is the brother of M?
A. L
B. S
C. T
D. R
E. J
Q. 92 What is the position of M’s daughter with respect to M’s son ?
A. third to right
B. second to the left
C. third to the left
D. second to the right
E. immediate right
Q. 93 who amongst the following is the wife of M?
A. K
B. S
C. R
D. L
E. T
Q. 94 Which of the following statements is true regarding the given seating arrangement ?
A. M’s father is sitting to the immediate left of M’s son
B. only four persons are sitting between S and J
C. M is sitting exactly between his daughter and brother
D. M’s wife is sitting just opposite to M’s father
E. none of the given statements is true.
Q. 95 who amongst the following is the sister of M?
A. R
B. S
C. L
D. J
E. Q
Questions: 96 – 100
Seven persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T and U–attended a farewell party in the months of february, march, april, may, july, october and december but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them likes different stationery items viz., pen, stapler, ruler, solder, envelope, label and worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes envelope attended a farewell party in that month which has less than 31 days. T attended farewell party between O and the who likes folder. O does not like label. The one who likes pen attended farewell party immediately before the one who like worksheet. S does not like ruler. The person who likes label attended the farewell party in the month having less than 31 days.
Q. 96 which one of the following stationery items is liked by T?
A. Pen
B. folder
C. label
D. stapler
E. worksheet
Q. 97 which of the following combinations of month-person-stationery item is correct?
A. march-U-pen
B. july-O-pen
C. october-S-label
D. may-Q-ruler
E. april-T-envelope
Q. 98 which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
A. Q attended farewell party in october
B. O likes worksheet
C. R attended farewell party immediately before S
D. S attended farewell party in july
E. none of the given statements is true
Q. 99 who among the following attended the farewell party in April?
A. T
B. O
C. Q
D. R
E. P
Q. 100 who among the following attended the farewell party immediately after R ?
A. S
B. Q
C. O
D. U
E. P
Answer Sheet
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answer
E
C
D
B
A
B
A
D
E
A
Question
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Answer
B
B
B
D
E
D
A
C
C
D
Question
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Answer
D
B
C
B
C
D
C
B
B
A
Question
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Answer
A
B
C
C
A
B
C
A
B
B
Question
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Answer
C
C
D
E
A
B
C
D
C
A
Question
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answer
B
C
A
C
E
B
B
A
A
B
Question
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
Answer
D
B
A
B
C
C
A
E
B
E
Question
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
Answer
A
E
B
D
C
E
B
C
A
B
Question
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Answer
C
A
B
D
C
A
C
D
E
B
Question
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Answer
B
E
A
E
C
D
B
A
E
C
×
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प्रश्न 1. एसएससी की बहन कौन है? 
IBPS PO Prelims Exam
