SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 20

B. 24

C. 32

D. 28

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 01, 86, etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “FACE”.

A. 31, 32, 02, 56

B. 67, 86, 97, 98

C. 00, 12, 13, 01

D. 23, 89, 68, 23

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

43 + 18 ÷ 9 x 4 – 3 = 87

A. + and ÷

B. x and +

C. ÷ and –

D. – and +

Q. 9 If 5 @ 3 @ 1 = 3 and 6 @ 9 @ 1 = 4, then 5 @ 9 @ 11 = ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Form

2. Foaming

3. Flower

4. Flame

5. Fog

A. 43251

B. 43215

C. 34251

D. 34215

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 17, 19, 23, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 26

D. 24

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

AC,DF, GI, ?

A. JK

B. JL

C. KL

D. KM

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cone

B. Cylinder

C. Cube

D. Triangle

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 25

B. 144

C. 361

D. 143

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. MN

B. AB

C. CE

D. XY

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Humans, Female, Children

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Nile : River : : Atlas : ?

A. Paper

B. Map

C. Mountain

D. Nature

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3 : 28 : : 4 : ?

A. 62

B. 63

C. 65

D. 64

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AD : BE : : MP : ?

A. PR

B. NQ

C. QR

D. NR

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SUSTENANCE

A. TEEN

B. SUN

C. NEST

D. CRUST

Q. 21 Present ages of M and N are in the ratio 7 : 8 respectively. After five years this ratio becomes 8 : 9. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 30

Q. 22 N remembers his birthday is before 16th December. N’s brother remembers his birthday is after 14th December. On which date of December is his birthday?

A. 14

B. 16

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some plates are cups.

II. All cups are red.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are red.

II. All plates are red.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “GOLD” is written as “IQNF”. How is “DRUM” written in that code language?

A. HSWO

B. FSVP

C. FSWP

D. FTWO

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “MAN” is written as “56” and “WAN” is written as “76”. How is “OPT” written in that code language?

A. 100

B. 101

C. 102

D. 103

Q. 26 How many positive factors of 76 are there?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.9)³+(2.4)³] ÷ [(7.9)²−7.9×2.4+(2.4)²]?

A. 11.4

B. 13.1

C. 10.3

D. 12.7

Q. 28 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. 2⁶⁰⁰>7⁹⁰⁰

II.3⁴⁰⁰>9⁵⁰⁰

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 29 How many numbers are there from 200 to 285 which are divisible by 7?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 22

D. 32

Q. 30 If N = √9 + √7, then what is the value of (1/N)?

A. √9 – √7

B. 2(√9 – √7)

C. (√9 – √7)/2

D. 4(√9-√7)

Q. 31 What is the unit’s digit of 216²¹⁶?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 32 P, Q and R undertook a work for Rs 52000. Together P and Q complete (2/5)th part of the work. What is the share (in Rs) of R?

A. 30000

B. 31000

C. 31200

D. 30400

Q. 33 Two popes S and T can fill a tank in 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. Pipe U can alone empty the same tank in 4 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 34 If the area of an equilateral triangle is 12√3 m², then what is the value (in metres) of its height?

A. 4.5

B. 6.5

C. 6

D. 4√3

Q. 35 A trader gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. To earn profit of 12% , by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 20

B. 40

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 36 An article has marked price of Rs 7200 and is available at a discount of 20%. The shopkeeper gives another discount to the buyer and sells the article for Rs 4896. What is the second discount (in %) offered?

A. 20

B. 12

C. 15

D. 10

Q. 37 If M : N = 2 : 7 and M : O = 4 : 3, then what is (M+N) : (N+O)?

A. 18:17

B. 17:19

C. 17:7

D. 18:3

Q. 38 If the sum of two numbers is equal to five times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 3:2

B. 2:1

C. 4:3

D. 2:5

Q. 39 Average of 15 numbers is 20. If a number 4 is also included, then what will be the average of these 16 numbers?

A. 17

B. 18

C. 18.5

D. 19

Q. 40 Sahil sold a fan to Ankit at a profit of 10%. ANkit sold the fan to Pulkit at a profit of 20%. If Pulkit pays Rs 330 for fan, then for how much (in Rs) Sahil bought the fan?

A. 300

B. 280

C. 340

D. 250

Q. 41 On selling an article for Rs 455, a shopkeeper losses 30%. For how much (in Rs) he should sell the article in order to earn a profit of 30%?

A. 750

B. 245

C. 845

D. 680

Q. 42 A man saves 36% of his income in 9 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 6 months, then by how much percentage should he increases his monthly savings?

A. 50

B. 33.33

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 43 Two numbers are 25% and 15% less than the third number respectively. First number is what percent less than the second number?

A. 11.76

B. 13.5

C. 17.8

D. 20.4

Q. 44 A car travels at a speed of 75 m/s for 2 hours. What is the distance (in km) travelled by the car?

A. 500

B. 525

C. 540

D. 550

Q. 45 An 800 metre long train crosses a 450 metre long bridge in 50 seconds. What is speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 80

D. 85

Q. 46 What is the simple interest (in Rs) on a principal of Rs 2000 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years?

A. 250

B. 200

C. 150

D. 225

Q. 47 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the total number of students in section E and section B?

A. 3060

B. 2900

C. 5300

D. 6000

Q. 48 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the difference between the number of students in section C and section D?

A. 86

B. 180

C. 196

D. 42

Q. 49 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

The number of students in section A is what percent of that of section B?

A. 90

B. 110

C. 109

D. 111.11

Q. 50 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the average number of students of the 2 smallest sections?

A. 1860

B. 1170

C. 1600

D. 1730

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Sports other than cricket (1)/ should also be given (2)/ their due importance in India (3)/ No Error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Deeds (1)/ not words (2)/ are what (3)/ really count (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Risha ______ a salary of Rs 50,000 every month.

A. have earned

B. earning

C. earn

D. earns

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

She ______ her mind after seeing the damaged washing machine.

A. losing

B. lose

C. lost

D. was loses

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Brevity

A. Crispness

B. Greatness

C. Fondness

D. Meekness

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Accord

A. Confer

B. Refusal

C. Dissension

D. Opposition

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Absolute

A. Division

B. Complete

C. Small

D. Half

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Swift

A. Rapid

B. Slow

C. Fast

D. Lonely

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fragrance

A. Strength

B. Stench

C. Steal

D. Dirt

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Agony

A. Suffering

B. Pain

C. Grief

D. Delight

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Can’t judge a book by its cover

A. We should not buy books without checking the cover

B. We should not judge others

C. We should not judge something primarily on its appearance

D. We should judge something primarily on its appearance

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

To keep body and soul together

A. To be in love

B. To be undecided

C. To make hospitable

D. To manage to live

Q. 63 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

One must (be working in a job) for which one has a natural talent.

A. be taking up a job

B. to prfferring a job

C. take up a job

D. No improvement

Q. 64 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Ruby does not like (me coming so late).

A. me come so late

B. my coming so late

C. I coming so late

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to run away secretly with a romantic partner

A. Effect

B. Engage

C. Elope

D. Entice

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to express regret for something that one has done wrong

A. Action

B. Reaction

C. Anxiety

D. Apologize

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Disilusionment

B. Dissillusionment

C. Disillussionment

D. Disillusionment

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Cactuss

B. Cactus

C. Ccttus

D. Kaktus

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Mehak made

P: a terrible mistake

Q: by not going

R: to the party

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The next

P: generation should use

Q: the non-renewable energy

R: wisely and sparingly

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built.

A. continuity

B. destiny

C. choice

D. volition

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character.

A. big

B. huge

C. small

D. large

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

en and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves

A. under

B. upon

C. with

D. No option is correct

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great he ights, if weare lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our fe et is crumbling.

whether in public life or student ______,

A. life

B. thought

C. dilemma

D. apathy

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

A. heavens

B. ground

C. sky

D. roof

Q. 76 Which of the following approves the draft framework of the Five Year Plans?

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Inter State Council

C. Finance Ministry

D. National Development Council

Q. 77 Mira Seth Committee was related with development of ______.

A. primary education

B. women health

C. handlooms

D. gender equality

Q. 78 Which part of the Indian Constitution has been called its soul?

A. Fundamental Duties

B. Citizenship

C. Preamble

D. Directive Principles

Q. 79 How much time does it take in the creation of Indian Constitution?

A. 2 years 11 month and 17 days

B. 3 years 10 months 28 days

C. 4 years 8 months 10 days

D. 5 years 7 months and 15 days

Q. 80 Where was the capital of Gandhara, one of the sixteen Mahajanpadas?

A. Champa

B. Takshashila

C. Hataka

D. Patali

Q. 81 Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the ______.

A. Ramakrishna Mission

B. Brahma Samaj

C. Arya Samaj

D. Theosophical society

Q. 82 Between which of the following two planets are the asteroids found?

A. Saturn and Uranus

B. Jupiter and Saturn

C. Mars and Jupiter

D. Earth and Mars

Q. 83 In which of the following states of India bamboo drip irrigation method is prevalent?

A. Rajasthan

B. Meghalaya

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh

Q. 84 Which part of the patato is eaten?

A. Stem

B. Root

C. Leaf

D. Flower

Q. 85 Which of the following in NOT a part of the digestive system?

A. Small Intestine

B. Large Intestine

C. Vacuole

D. Pancreas

Q. 86 Which of the following is a group of invertebrate animals?

A. Mammalia

B. Pisces

C. Reptilia

D. Arthropoda

Q. 87 Which one of the following statement is true about the gravitational force between two bodies?

A. It’s always repulsive

B. It’s always attractive

C. It can be attractive or repulsive

D. It’s neutral

Q. 88 Which part of the magnet has the least magnetic power?

A. at north pole

B. at south pole

C. in the middle

D. No option is correct

Q. 89 A standard alphanumeric keyboard of a laptop usually consists of how many keys?

A. 76-80 keys

B. 81-84 keys

C. 100-104 keys

D. 108-12 keys

Q. 90 Which of the following fact is true about alpha particles in an atom?

A. are positively charged particles

B. are negatively charged particles

C. are beam of neutrons

D. emits gamma radiation

Q. 91 A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state (or vice versa) is called ______.

A. Evaporation

B. Condensation

C. Sublimation

D. Diffusion

Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a major component of biotic environment?

A. Plant

B. Animal

C. Dcomposer

D. Water

Q. 93 In which of the following year Sampurn Gramin Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched?

A. 1988

B. 2001

C. 2004

D. 2007

Q. 94 Who among the following scientists invented the Telephone?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. James Watt

C. J.L Baird

D. C. Sholes

Q. 95 With which sport is Novak Djokovic associated?

A. Football

B. Golf

C. Tennis

D. Baseball

Q. 96 Which place is originally related to the famous Meenakari named “Theva Kala”?

A. Kerala

B. West Bengal

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 97 In which of the following fields is the B. C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Environment

D. Medical

Q. 98 Whose biography is the book ‘Anything but Khamosh’?

A. Manoj Bajpai

B. Shatrughan SInha

C. Nana Patekar

D. Sonakshi SInha

Q. 99 India is NOT a member of which of the following organization?

A. SAARC

B. BRICS

C. BIMSTEC

D. NATO

Q. 100 In which of the following countries the river Padma flow?

A. Nepal

B. Bhutan

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	C	A	A	D	C	B	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	C	B	B	C	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	A	C	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	B	C	B	C	A	A	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	A	C	A	B	A	B	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	D	C	A	A	B	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	C	D	C	D	D	B	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	B	A	C	D	B	C	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	D	B	D	C