SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 10 Oct Shift 3
Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
A. 36
B. 24
C. 42
D. 66
Q. 2 How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 4
D. 10
Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 32, 67 etc, and ‘A’ can be represented by 12, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the words ‘LOCKS’.
A. 23, 89, 31, 10, 12
B. 01, 13, 67, 86, 11
C. 23, 13, 31, 40, 59
D. 01, 57, 31, 85, 11
Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is
hidden/embedded.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 8 If ‘-‘ means ‘/’, ‘/’ means ‘-‘, ‘+’ means ‘x’ and ” means ‘+’, then which of the following equation is true?
A. 11 x 2 + 9 – 3 = 15
B. 14 + 2 – 4 x 6 = 14
C. 19 + 2 x 6 – 3 = 40
D. 9 – 6 + 12 x 2 = 22
Q. 9 If 27 @ 22 = 25 and 39 @ 33 = 36, then 25 @ 22 = ?
A. 25
B. 49
C. 16
D. 9
Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Guard
2. Guest
3. Grain
4. Grove
5. Graph
A. 54312
B. 34521
C. 35124
D. 35412
Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
4, 6, 10, 18, 34, 66, ?
A. 128
B. 126
C. 130
D. 132
Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
D, F, H, J, ?
A. K
B. L
C. M
D. H
Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Tornado
B. Volcano
C. Typhoon
D. Hurricane
Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 24 – 124
B. 35 – 215
C. 63 – 513
D. 15 – 63
Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
A. ACF
B. JLP
C. RTW
D. GIL
Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes.
Female, Teacher, Writer
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Mustard : Seed : : Cauliflower : ?
A. Fruit
B. White
C. Vegetable
D. Ground
Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
6 : 64 : : 11 : ?
A. 149
B. 100
C. 121
D. 169
Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
POST : NMQR : : HUNT : ?
A. GTMR
B. FSLR
C. FSMR
D. GTLR
Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of given word.
AWARDING
A. SIGN
B. WIND
C. WAR
D. AWARD
Q. 21 Sanjay walks 10 km towards East. He turns right and walks 5 km. He turns right and walks 10 km. How far (in km) is he from his starting point?
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 20
Q. 22 There are 47 cars in a row. A black car is 18th from the right end and the white car is 39th from the right end. How many cars are there between black and white car?
A. 21
B. 20
C. 19
D. 18
Q. 23 In the following question, below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I – All red are coal.
II – Some red are green.
Conclusions:
I – All red are green.
II – Some coals are green.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
Q. 24 In a certain code language, “DATE” is written as “EBUF”. How is “CHIP” written in that code language?
A. DIJQ
B. DIJR
C. DIKQ
D. DJJQ
Q. 25 Ina certain code language, “EAR” is written as “23” and “EYE” is written as “34”. How is “ARM” written in that code language?
A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33
Q. 26 What is the least number which leaves 1 as a remainder when divided by 6 and 7?
A. 85
B. 43
C. 37
D. 29
Q. 27 What is the value of 0.001040?
A. 104/1000
B. 104/1000000
C. 104/100000
D. 104/10000
Q. 28 If 465781P is completely divisible by 12, then what is the vale of P?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 2 or 6
D. 8
Q. 29 What is the value of √(269 – √169)?
A. 17
B. 15
C. 22
D. 16
Q. 30 What is the value of 296 x 304?
A. 89974
B. 89874
C. 79984
D. 89984
Q. 31 What is the value of (√5 – √3) / (√5 + √3)?
A. 4 – √15
B. 6 – 2√15
C. 8 – 2√15
D. 4 + √15
Q. 32 Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 10, 12 and 15 hours respectively. If all the taps are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 2
Q. 33 Two pipes P and Q can fill the tank alone in 20 and 30 hours respectively. If both pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 8
D. 15
Q. 34 The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 8 : 3. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 220 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of the rectangle?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 85
Q. 35 If the difference between a discount of 30% and two successive discounts of 20% on a certain bill is Rs 42, then what is the amount (in Rs) of the bill?
A. 400
B. 300
C. 700
D. 820
Q. 36 If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 40% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 30%, then what is his gain or loss percent?
A. 5% loss
B. 10% loss
C. 2% loss
D. 7.5% profit
Q. 37 Incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 5 : 3. Their expenditures are in the ratio 9 : 5. If both save Rs 1600 at the end of the month, then what is the income (in Rs) of X?
A. 18000
B. 16000
C. 9600
D. 14000
Q. 38 If 6.3 of a = 1.17 of b, then what is a : b?
A. 13 : 70
B. 91 : 7
C. 7 : 130
D. 13 : 7
Q. 39 Average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 42. Which number is the largest of the 5 numbers?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 42
D. 48
Q. 40 A sold a cycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sold the cycle to C at a profit of 30%. If C pays Rs 468 for cycle, then for how much (in Rs) A bought the cycle?
A. 320
B. 400
C. 300
D. 280
Q. 41 By selling an article for Rs 360 there is a loss of 10%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?
A. 324
B. 450
C. 400
D. 380
Q. 42 A number is increased first by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. What is the percentage change in the number?
A. 8% decrease
B. 10% decrease
C. 10% increase
D. 8% increase
Q. 43 A is 20% less than B. B is 10% less than C. C is 30% more than D. If D is 400, then what is the value of A?
A. 374.4
B. 368.6
C. 382.2
D. 354.2
Q. 44 The speed of a boat in still water is 8 km/hr. It covers a distance of 52 km upstream in 8 hours. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the stream?
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2.5
Q. 45 A train running with a speed of 45 km/hr, crosses a telephone pole. If the length of the train is 810 meters, then what is the time taken (in seconds) by the train to cross the pole?
A. 66
B. 64.8
C. 68
D. 67.2
Q. 46 In how much time (in years) will Rs 9000 amount to Rs 13500 at simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
Questions: 47 – 50
The line chart given shows the number of cars manufactured (in 000′) by company X in the year 2015 from the month of July to December.
Q. 47 What is the percentage change in the number of cars manufactured in December to that in July?
A. 130
B. 80
C. 160
D. 140
Q. 48 What is the difference between the maximum and a minimum number of cars
manufactured among the given months as a percentage of the cars manufactured in September?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 150
D. 200
Q. 49 What is the average number of cars manufactured (in 000′) by the company X from July to November?
A. 105
B. 100
C. 115
D. 141
Q. 50 In how many months was the number of cars manufactured a multiple of 10,000?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 7
Questions: 51 – 52
In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.
Q. 51 But migrant laborers who (1) / are being working inside the (2) / premises for years. (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 52 Someone who used to follow (1) / the Satguru told me that I could (2) / work here. (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Questions: 53 – 54
In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.
Q. 53 Sohail was busy when we _______ to see him.
A. went
B. go
C. goes
D. gone
Q. 54 My parents have given their _______ to the match.
A. refuse
B. accept
C. assent
D. expect
Questions: 55 – 57
In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Q. 55 A similar word for ‘TACKLE’ is
A. Avoid
B. Forget
C. Neglect
D. Deal
Q. 56 A similar word for ‘SMUDGE’ is
A. Clean
B. Sanitary
C. Pure
D. Stain
Q. 57 A similar word for ‘UNANIMOUS’ is
A. Split
B. Undisputed
C. Cleaved
D. Seperate
Questions: 58 – 60
In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in the meaning of the given word.
Q. 58 Opposite meaning of ‘DEFY’ is
A. Brave
B. Yield
C. Defeat
D. Ignore
Q. 59 Opposite meaning of ‘OBLIGATE’ is
A. Force
B. In debt
C. Restrict
D. Let off
Q. 60 Opposite meaning of ‘STERN’ is
A. Bitter
B. Cruel
C. Light
D. Grim
Questions: 61 – 62
In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Q. 61 To pull one’s leg
A. To everyone’s liking
B. To make fool of
C. To bribe
D. To be afraid of
Q. 62 Snake in the grass
A. Very clear
B. Something mandatory
C. A hidden enemy
D. An exciting moment
Questions: 63 – 64
Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
Q. 63 But she (win more) hearts for her gallant display of endurance.
A. winned more
B. won more
C. wan more
D. No improvement
Q. 64 In doing so, she (farther) raised the profile of badminton and of women’s sport itself in India.
A. far away
B. far off
C. further
D. No improvement
Questions: 65 – 66
In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.
Q. 65 A portable radio set
A. Transistor
B. Transcription
C. Transposition
D. Transaction
Q. 66 The bony framework of the body
A. Respiratory system
B. Skeleton
C. Neurons
D. Arteries
Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.
A. Woolen
B. Woollen
C. Wollen
D. Wolen
Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.
A. Sukceed
B. Succed
C. Sucede
D. Succeed
Questions: 69 – 70
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.
Q. 69 Deforestation is
P: society and environment
Q: arising as a major
R: problem to the
A. QRP
B. PRQ
C. QPR
D. RPQ
Q. 70 Stress is said to be positive
P: an opportunity for
Q: one to give something
R: when the situation offers
A. QRP
B. RPQ
C. PQR
D. RQP
Questions: 71 – 75
In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.
Reading habit is one of the best characteristics that a man can possess. Once the habit of reading books grows in one, it _______ dies out. It is said that a book is one’s best friend in life. By reading a good book, one cannot only earn knowledge but also ________ experience in life, and realize the eternal truth. A good book can guide one in the ________ direction in his life’s journey. The taste of reading should be acquired early in life because a good book refreshes one’s mind and brings _________ pleasure. Just to read any book, whatever comes near hand, is not called a good reading habit, because worthless books cannot provide knowledge. It is only a good book that can provide innocent joy and pure wisdom that one _________. So there must be a proper selection of books which are to be read.
Q. 71 it _______ dies out.
A. seldom
B. thinks
C. usually
D. frequently
Q. 72 knowledge but also ________ experience
A. wain
B. gain
C. slain
D. wane
Q. 73 guide one in the ________ direction in his life’s
A. lift
B. wrong
C. right
D. front
Q. 74 brings _________ pleasure.
A. cense
B. commence
C. immense
D. condenses
Q. 75 pure wisdom that one _________.
A. ignores
B. retires
C. seperates
D. aspires
Q. 76 __________ by the government of the country makes money acceptable as a medium of exchange.
A. permission
B. instructions
C. authorisation
D. ownership
Q. 77 Literacy rate in India is measured after which age?
A. 5 years and above
B. 7 years and above
C. 9 years and above
D. 11 years and above
Q. 78 Which part of Indian constitution deals with ‘The Union and its Territories’?
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q. 79 In which form of government the final decision-making power lies with those elected by the people?
A. Autocratic
B. Democratic
C. Aristocratic
D. Monarchic
Q. 80 Which is the oldest Veda among the four Vedas?
A. Rigveda
B. Samaveda
C. Yajurveda
D. Atharvaveda
Q. 81 Who was the scholar entrusted by Sultan Mahmud of Gazni to write an account of subcontinent?
A. Malik Jayasi
B. Al-Baruni
C. Amir Khusrau
D. Shah Latif
Q. 82 Movement of Earth on its axis is called _________.
A. Revolution
B. Rotation
C. Translation
D. Illumination
Q. 83 What is the approximate area of India (in lakh sq. km)?
A. 2.78
B. 3.28
C. 4.35
D. 3.6
Q. 84 Whch is/are NOT Abiotic components?
I. Plants
II. Animals
III. Water
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. I, II and III
Q. 85 The incisor tooth is meant for ________.
A. Biting and Cutting
B. Chewing
C. Crushing
D. Churning
Q. 86 At high altitude, RBC’s of human blood will ________.
A. increase in number
B. decrease in number
C. decrease in size
D. increase in size
Q. 87 An object is said to be in what kind of motion if its speed keeps changing while moving along a straight line?
A. Uniform motion
B. Non uniform motion
C. Periodic motion
D. Aperiodic motion
Q. 88 When an electric current passes through a wire it behaves like a ________.
A. Fuse
B. Battery
C. Magnet
D. Element
Q. 89 What is the typed, submitted or transmitted data called in a computer system?
A. Output
B. Input
C. Router
D. Modem
Q. 90 Which of the following is an example of a mixture?
A. Glucose
B. Brass
C. CO₂
D. NO₂
Q. 91 A double bond between two carbon atoms is formed by ________.
A. the transfer of two protons from one carbon atom to another
B. the transfer of one electron from one carbon atom to another
C. two shared electron pairs
D. the sharing of two protons
Q. 92 All green plants and certain blue-green algae which can produce food by photosynthesis are called the __________.
A. Consumers
B. Producers
C. Decomposers
D. Bacteria
Q. 93 What is the minimum age for joining the National Pension Scheme?
A. 18 yers
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years
Q. 94 What was invented by Samuel Colt?
A. Revolver
B. Refrigerator
C. Safety Razor
D. Penicilin
Q. 95 Bull’s eye as associated with which sports?
A. Baseball
B. Badminton
C. Shooting
D. Polo
Q. 96 Which region of India is famous for Patola Print dupattas?
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Gujarat
C. Karnataka
D. Tamilnadu
Q. 97 Who among the following is NOT a recipient of Arjun Award 2017?
A. Cheteshwar Pujara
B. Mariyappan
C. Jasvir Singh
D. Anup Kumar
Q. 98 Who is the author of book named “Godan”?
A. Munshi Prem Chand
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Durga Das
D. B P Singh
Q. 99 Which of the following was adopted as an outcome document of 11th edition of the Asia- Europe Meeting Summit (ASEM-11) held in Mongolia?
A. Ulaanbaatar Declaration
B. Mongolia Declaration
C. Bangkok Framework
D. Hague Declaration
Q. 100 Which is the first Integrated Check Post on the India-Bangladesh Border?
A. Agartala Integrated Check-Post
B. Petrapole Integrated Check-Post
C. Hari Nagar Integrated Check-Post
D. Silchar Integrated Check-Post
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | C | D | D | B | D | A | C | D | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | B | B | C | B | C | C | C | B | A |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | B | B | B | A | B | B | C | A | D | D |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | A | A | A | C | C | C | B | A | B | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | D | A | A | B | B | C | D | C | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | B | C | A | C | D | D | B | B | D | C |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | C | B | C | A | B | B | D | A | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | A | B | C | C | D | C | B | A | B | A |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | B | B | C | A | A | B | C | B | B |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | C | B | A | A | C | B | D | A | A | A |