SSC GD 15 Feb 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 15th Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite D and third to the right of B. G is between A and F.H is to the right of A. E is between C and D. Who is sitting third to the right of H? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 2 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some rubies are garments. 

2) Some garments are garnets. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some rubies are garnets. 

II. No ruby is a garnet. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 5 J, KL, M, N and are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Science on Wednesday. O teaches Math second day after J. K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English. M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J. Which subject is taught between Thursday and Saturday? 

(A) English 

(B) Math 

(C) Social Science 

(D) Science 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

100, 96, 80, 44, ? 

(A) 64 

(B) 20 

(C) -20 

(D) 16 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Artificial : Natural :: Answer : ? 

(A) Question

(B) Reply 

(C) Problem 

(D) Solution 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 21 

(B) 63 

(C) 49 

(D) 37 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Kidney 

(B) Nose 

(C) Liver 

(D) Lungs 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. P is sitting at one extremeend. Q is sitting to the immediateleft ofS. P is sitting second to the right of T. U is not sitting at any extreme end. is sitting between R and T. Who is sitting at the extreme right end? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

45 : 405 :: 49 : ? 

(A) 169 

(B) 637 

(C) 144 

(D) 525 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) PQH 

(B) HJL 

(C) GJM 

(D) ELM 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Words, Synonyms, Antonymous 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 15 In a certain code, STEERING is written as HGVVIRMT.How will Q. be written in that code? 

(A) JFVHGILM 

(B) JFVHGRLM 

(C) JEVHGRLM 

(D) JFVHGRIM 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 16 

(B) 19 

(C)

(D) 11 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Famous : Renowned :: Fierce : ? 

(A) Will 

(B) Fear 

(C) Desire 

(D) Violent 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

3, 15, 32, 59, ? 

(A) 125 

(B) 105 

(C) 101 

(D) 115 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All mustards are corns. 

2) All corns are olives. 

Conclusion: 

I. All mustards are olives. 

II. Some olives are mustards. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

PEL, NGK, LIJ, JKI, ? 

(A) HMH 

(B) HHM 

(C) MHH 

(D) MMH 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

AC : BF :: JK : ? 

(A) LM 

(B) UT 

(C) TU 

(D) TV 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

25 + 5 × 7 − 12 ÷ 3 = 26 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) + and × 

(C) − and ÷ 

(D) + and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 In a certain code, UP is written as 336. How will ATE be written in that code? 

(A) 20 

(B) 100 

(C) 80 

(D) 60 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is situated in: 

(A) Sikandara 

(B) Burhanpur 

(C) Jabalpur 

(D) Sasaram 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Which of the following cities is associated with the Kumbh Mela? 

(A) Meerut 

(B) Ujjain 

(C) Mathura 

(D) Varanasi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 Which of the following Hindu shrines is recently declared as a National Heritage by the Government of Pakistan? 

(A) Katas Raj 

(B) Panj Tirath 

(C) Varun dev temple 

(D) Hinglaj Mata temple 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 29 Who is the winner of the Women’s Singles Indonesian Masters Badminton tournament 2019? 

(A) Arundhati Pantawane 

(B) Shivani Gadde 

(C) Saina Nehwal 

(D) P.V. Sindhu 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Choose the correct group of diseases that are spread by air: 

(A) Cholera, Typhoid, Tuberculosis 

(B) Tuberculosis. Pneumonia. Influenza 

(C) Warts, common cold, cough 

(D) AIDS, Typhoid, Pneumonia 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 Under which land revenue system, the zamindars were given the rights to transfer their properties subject to the payment of a fixed amount to the Government? 

(A) Permanent Settlement 

(B) Jagirdari Settlement 

(C) Ryotwari Settlement 

(D) Mahalwari Settlement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 Which of the following features of the Organised sector is NOT correct? 

(A) The enterprises under this sector are registered with the Government. 

(B) Workers get paid leaves during the holidays. 

(C) Workers under this sector enjoy security and employment. 

(D) The employers are bound to provide leave travel concession to its workers. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 In the context of temple architecture, the most important part of the templeis: 

(A) Gopuram 

(B) Mandapam 

(C) Pradakshina Patha 

(D) Garbhagriha 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 In which of the following protected areas in India the human interference is prohibited? 

(A) National Parks 

(B) Wetlands 

(C) Wildlife sanctuaries 

(D) Biosphere Reserves 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 The Zanskar, the Hunza and the Nubra are the tributaries of: 

(A) Indus 

(B) Tapi 

(C) Brahmaputra 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the culture of Maharashtra? 

(A) Its popular danceis called ‘Gotipua’. 

(B) Ganesh Chaturthiis its main festival. 

(C) Its folk theatre is called Tamasha. 

(D) Its traditional saree is called Paithani. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 Who among the following is invited as the chief guest at the 2019 Republic Day of India? 

(A) President of South Africa 

(B) President of Sri Lanka 

(C) Prime Minister of Japan 

(D) President of Nepal 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 The plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as: 

(A) Thermosetting Plastics 

(B) Thermo Plastics 

(C) Thermo resistant Plastics 

(D) Thermo dynamic Plastics 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 With reference to the climatic conditions of the Prairies, which of the following statements is correct? 

(A) The local wind “Loo” blowshere. 

(B) The annual rainfall is very heavy. 

(C) There is a North South wind barrier. 

(D) It has the continental type of climate with extreme temperatures. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 The dispute between two states can be resolved by the Supreme Court of India under its: 

(A) Appellate Jurisdiction 

(B) Advisory Jurisdiction 

(C) Supervisory Jurisdiction 

(D) Original Jurisdiction 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 What will happen to the boiling point and freezing point of water when some common salt is added in it? 

(A) Boiling point elevation, freezing point depression 

(B) No change 

(C) Only boiling point increases or decreases 

(D) Boiling point depression, freezing point elevation 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Special Economic Zones are being set up by the Government in order to attract: 

(A) Traditional artisans 

(B) Cooperative companies 

(C) Foreign companies 

(D) Local companies 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The B.P. Mandal commission was set up to study the reasons of backwardness of the: 

(A) scheduled tribes 

(B) scheduled castes 

(C) rural women and children 

(D) socially and economically backward classes 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Which of the lenses used to cure Myopia? 

(A) convex 

(B) concave 

(C) parabolic 

(D) cylindrical 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 45 Who among the following rulers is related to “market regulatory measures” in medieval India? 

(A) Alauddin Khilji 

(B) Sher Shah Suri 

(C) Muhammed Bin Tughlaq 

(D) Jahangir 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 46 The other name of Per Capita Income is: 

(A) National Income 

(B) Total Income 

(C) Intermediate Income 

(D) Average Income 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 Under which of the following acts the system of Dyarchy was introduced in India? 

(A) Government of Indian Act 1935 

(B) Government of Indian Act 1909 

(C) Government of Indian Act 1947 

(D) Government of Indian Act 1919 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 In 2016 Rio Olympics, Indian gymnast Dipa Karmakar attempted the most dangerous vault known as: 

(A) Yurchenko 

(B) Rudi 

(C) Tsukahara 

(D) Produnova 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Napthaline ball disappears after some days dueto the process of: 

(A) sublimation 

(B) melting and evaporation 

(C) melting 

(D) evaporation 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 The recent largest ever coastal defence exercise is conducted by the Indian Navy is named as: 

(A) SEA SERPENT 

(B) SEA HAWK 

(C) SEA SEIZURE 

(D) SEA VIGIL 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A sum of ₹ 10000 is lent on simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum. What is the difference between Simple interest for 6 years and the simple interest for 2 years? 

(A) ₹4000 

(B) ₹8000 

(C) ₹6000 

(D) ₹4500 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, Principal = Rs.10000 

Rate of interest = 15% 

Simple Interest for 1 year = 15% of Rs.10000 = Rs.1500 

Then, Simple Interest for 2 years = 2*1500 = Rs.3000 

Simple Interest for 6 years = 6*1500 = Rs.9000 

Therefore, Required difference = Rs.9000-Rs.3000 = Rs.6000. 

 

Q. 52 What is the mean of the given data? 

2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 

(A)

(B) 4.5 

(C) 5.5 

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 A train is moving with a uniform speed. Train crosses a bridge of length 243 meters in 30 seconds and a bridge of length 343 meters in 36 seconds. What is the speed of the train? 

(A) 60 km/hr 

(B) 72 km/hr 

(C) 64 km/hr 

(D) 65 km/hr 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 54 The area of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than the side of square by 9 cm and its breadth is less than the side of square by 6 cm. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle? 

(A) 84 cm 

(B) 74 cm 

(C) 78 cm 

(D) 76 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 55 A car covers a certain distance at a speed of 54 km/hr in 7 hours. What should be the speed of car to cover the same distance in 6 hours? 

(A) 72 km/hr 

(B) 56 km/hr 

(C) 63 km/hr 

(D) 54 km/hr 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 56 The curved surface area of a cone is 550 cm2 . If the area of its base is 154 cm2 , then what will be the volume of the cone? 

(A) 2464 cm3 

(B) 1836 cm3 

(C) 1232 cm3 

(D) 1472 cm3 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 The table given below shows the marks obtained by 4 students in 5 subjects. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

What is the total percent marks of P4? 

(A) 67.2% 

(B) 59.5% 

(C) 62.6% 

(D) 65.8% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 What is the value of (14 ÷ 49 − 3 ÷ 7/2 of 5) ? 

(A) 17/35

(B) 4/35

(C) 6/35

(D) 7/35

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 59 The product of two numbers is 720. If their Least Common Multiple is 360, then what will be the Highest common Factor of these two numbers? 

(A) 60 

(B) 20 

(C) 120 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

We know that, Product of two numbers Given, Product of two numbers = 720 LCM = 360 

= LCM × HCF 

Then, 

720 = 360 × HCF 

=> HCF = 2 

 

Q. 60 A person buys 25 kg of rice for ₹600 and sells them at a loss equal to the selling price of 5 kg rice. What will be the loss percentage? 

(A) 14.28% 

(B) 16.66% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 20% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 Height of a right circular cylinder is 12 cm. If the radius of its base is 21 cm, then what will be the curved surface area of the cylinder? 

(A) 1544 cm2 

(B) 1584 cm2 

(C) 1456 cm2 

(D) 1632 cm2 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 What is the value of 24 − [48 ÷ {48 × (48 ÷ (24 × 24))}] ? 

(A) 16 

(B) 12 

(C) 18 

(D) 20 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 If X/3 = Y/5 = Z/9, then what is the ratio of X : Y : Z?

(A) 9 : 5 : 6 

(B) 3 : 5 : 6 

(C) 15 : 9 : 5 

(D) 3 : 5 : 9 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 Pipe X can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe Y can fill the same tank in 36 hours. In how many hours both pipe X and pipe Y together can fill one-third part of the tank? 

(A) 9 hours 

(B) 3 hours 

(C) 15 hours 

(D) 27 hours 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 Average marks of 15 students of class first is 160. Average marks of 10 students of class second is 120. Average marks of 15 students of class third is 180. What will be the average marks of students of all the classes together? 

(A) 157.5 

(B) 162.5 

(C) 155.5 

(D) 167.5 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 A person purchases 36 articles for ₹360. How many articles must he sold for ₹360, so that the profit is 50%? 

(A) 18 

(B) 36 

(C) 24 

(D) 32 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 A, B and C invest ₹14000, ₹18000 and ₹24000 respectively to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹25480, then what is total share of A and B? 

(A) ₹6370 

(B) ₹14560 

(C) ₹17290 

(D) ₹19110 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 If S is 160% of T, then T will be what percent of S? 

(A) 85% 

(B) 62.50% 

(C) 65.20% 

(D) 70% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 69 The table given below shows the production of rice and the area under rice cultivation of a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5. 

What is the percentage change in the yield per square meter of Y5 as compared to Y1? 

(A) 33.33% 

(B) 25% 

(C) 20% 

(D) 37.5% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 The table given below shows the production of rice and the area under rice cultivation of a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5. 

What is the per year average production of rice? 

(A) 702000 kg 

(B) 644000 kg 

(C) 686000 kg 

(D) 668000 kg 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 The ratio of two numbers is 14 : 25. If the difference between them is 264, then which is the smaller of the two numbers? 

(A) 316 

(B) 294 

(C) 336 

(D) 282 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the two numbers be 14x and 25x 

Difference between the numbers = 25x – 14x = 11x 

Given, 11x = 264 => x = 24 

Then, Smallest number 

= 14x = 14 × 24 = 336 

 

Q. 72 What will be the average of 16, 17, 18, ….. upto fifteen terms? 

(A) 23.5 

(B) 23 

(C) 26 

(D) 24 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 73 40 persons can repair a bridge in 12 days. If 8 more persons join them, then in how many days bridge can be repaired? 

(A) 11 days 

(B) 10 days 

(C) 9 days 

(D) 8 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 74 A sum of ₹14000 is lent at compound interest (interest is compounded annually) for 3 years. If the rate of interest is 10%, then what will be the compound interest? 

(A) ₹4,634 

(B) ₹4,645 

(C) ₹4,364 

(D) ₹4,643 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 The ratio of the marked price and the cost price of a pen is 3 : 2 while the ratio of marked price and selling price is 5 : 4. What is the profit percentage? 

(A) 20% 

(B) 24% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 16% 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given MP:CP=3:2 

Multiplying 5 with numerator and denominator 

MP:CP=15:10 

MP:SP=5:4 

Multiplying 3 with numerator and denominator 

MP:SP=15:12 

Therefore MP:CP:SP=15:10:12 

CP=10x SP=12x 

Profit %=((12x-10x)/10x)*100 

=20% 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To keep someone at arm’s length. 

(A) To avoid someone 

(B) To be near someone 

(C) To disturb someone 

(D) To love someone 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

You must ………. hard to get the best deal. 

(A) navigate 

(B) neglect 

(C) negate 

(D) negotiate 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

The work on two projects are already going on which will connect Leh-Ladakh by railway line and air. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) is already going on 

(C) is already go on 

(D) is already going up 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who feeds on human flesh 

(A) Cannibal 

(B) Omnivorous 

(C) Vegan 

(D) Carnivorous 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Apelling 

(B) Appeeling 

(C) Appeling 

(D) Appealing 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who makes official examination of accounts 

(A) Controller 

(B) Supervisor 

(C) Auditor 

(D) Officer 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Select the synonym of the given word. 

Forsake 

(A) Accept 

(B) Adopt 

(C) Adapt 

(D) Abandon 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. I would rather to go home than go to a restaurant for dinner. 

(A) than go to 

(B) I would 

(C) for dinner. 

(D) rather to go 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The adventurer in him cannot ………. the call of the mountains. 

(A) respond 

(B) resist 

(C) restrain 

(D) restore 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. It is a fact that you are known by me. 

(A) by me. 

(B) you are known 

(C) a fact 

(D) It is 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the synonym of the given word. 

Favoured 

(A) Rejected 

(B) Preferred 

(C) Neglected 

(D) Trusted 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Even children shrink away from food thinking that they should become overweight. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) are become 

(C) were become 

(D) might become 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

……….. many cooks spoil the broth. 

(A) So 

(B) (A) few 

(C) Too 

(D) Few 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 89 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Mischeivous 

(B) Mischieveous 

(C) Mischievious 

(D) Mischievous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

You will be needing to complete all the pending work before it becomes unmanageable. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) would be needing 

(C) will be needed 

(D) will need 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 91 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Peculiar 

(A) Usual 

(B) Quiet 

(C) Strange 

(D) Sacred 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To be at home. 

(A) To be at ease 

(B) To be casual 

(C) To be formal 

(D) To be perplexed 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

Ritesh is best than many other boys in his class. 

(A) than many 

(B) in the class. 

(C) other boys 

(D) Ritesh is best 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

The Last one in this long procession of silent men and women was a thin old man. Even (1)………. carried a load of two baskets, slung on a pole on his (2)……….. In one basket there were (3)…………. pots. The other basket it seemed there was a quilt, extremely (4)………… and patched, but clean still. (5)………… the load was light, it was too much for the old man. 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) they 

(B) it 

(C) he 

(D) she 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) head 

(B) neck 

(C) hand 

(D) shoulder 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) one 

(B) some 

(C) any 

(D) none 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) ragged 

(B) beautiful 

(C) shining 

(D) new 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) Although 

(B) Because 

(C) Since 

(D) But 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Ruthless 

(A) Humble 

(B) Merciless 

(C) Careful 

(D) Kind 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

All good things ………. come to an end 

(A) must 

(B) ought 

(C) shall not 

(D) have not 

Answer: (A) 

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