SSC GD 14th Feb 2019 Shift-II
Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 In a certain code, WORKER is written as OKROKR. How will ASSUME be written in that code?
(A) SUESUE
(B) SUESVE
(C) SUMSUM
(D) SSESSE
Answer: (A)
Q. 2 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern.
(A) 729
(B) 125
(C) 256
(D) 225
Answer: (D)
Q. 3 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. Units, Watt, Volt
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Watt and Volt both are subset of Unit as both are measuring units. Therefore option (B) is the perfect representation of the given question.
Q. 4 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
1) Some mouses are whales.
2) All whales are dogs.
Conclusion:
I. Some mouses are dogs.
II. No mouse is dog.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Both conclusions follow.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(D) Only conclusion II follows.
Answer: (A)
Q. 5 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line?
Answer: (D)
Q. 6 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
9, 20, 42, 75, ?
(A) 99
(B) 129
(C) 109
(D) 119
Answer: (D)
Q. 7 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. H is to theleft of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting opposite H?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) G
Answer: (A)
Q. 8 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
1) All knights are nuns.
2) All nuns are men.
Conclusion:
I. All men are knights.
II. All knights are men.
(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(B) Both conclusions follow.
(C) Only conclusion II follows.
(D) Only conclusion I follows.
Answer: (C)
Q. 9 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)
Answer: (A)
Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options.
(A) EKO
(B) JIU
(C) KVG
(D) QMJ
Answer: (A)
Q. 11 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way asthe second term is related to the first term.
DEH : HIL :: GHL : ?
(A) KJP
(B) KPL
(C) KLP
(D) KLO
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
DEH :HIL
D+4 ->H
E+4->I
H+4->L
Similarly
GHL:?
G+4->K
H+4->L
L+4->P
Therefore,
GHL:KLP
Q. 12 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side.
Answer: (B)
Q. 13 Choose the odd one out of the given options.
(A) Colombia
(B) Canada
(C) Asia
(D) China
Answer: (C)
Q. 14 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).
Answer: (C)
Q. 15 In a certain code, CIRCLE is written as 50. How will ALGAE be written in that code?
(A) 57
(B) 26
(C) 23
(D) 59
Answer: (B)
Q. 16 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end.R is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting between P and R?
(A) U
(B) R
(C) Q
(D) O
Answer: (D)
Q. 17 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
SNC, QPA, ORY, MTW, ?
(A) KUU
(B) KVV
(C) KUV
(D) KVU
Answer: (D)
Q. 18 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
20, 24, 40, 76, ?
(A) 130
(B) 120
(C) 145
(D) 140
Answer: (D)
Q. 19 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series.
Answer: (C)
Q. 20 J, K, L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subjectis taught on the day between Social Science and Math?
(A) Science
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Arts
Answer: (B)
Q. 21 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Aeroplane : Hanger :: Gun : ?
(A) Shoot
(B) Armoury
(C) Human
(D) Fire
Answer: (B)
Q. 22 Choose the odd number out of the given options.
(A) 27
(B) 625
(C) 343
(D) 125
Answer: (B)
Q. 23 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct.
30 + 28 × 3 − 16 ÷ 4 = −50
(A) × and ÷
(B) + and −
(C) − and ×
(D) − and ÷
Answer: (B)
Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
22 : 242 :: 18 : ?
(A) 275
(B) 169
(C) 162
(D) 221
Answer: (C)
Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term.
Chef : Knife :: Surgeon : ?
(A) Scalpel
(B) Grip
(C) Chisel
(D) Spade
Answer: (A)
General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 ‘Do or Die’ was the slogan of which famous movement in India?
(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Non-cooperation Movement
(D) Rowlatt Movement
Answer: (A)
Q. 27 Which Indian city is the first to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List?
(A) Bhubaneswar
(B) Indore
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Ahmedabad
Answer: (D)
Q. 28 Doddabetta is the highest peak of which of the following mountain ranges?
(A) Vindhya
(B) Satpura
(C) Aravalli
(D) Nilgiri
Answer: (D)
Q. 29 Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission is correct?
(A) It consists of 10 members.
(B) Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
(C) Mumbai serves as its Headquarters.
(D) Its chairman must be sitting judge in the Supreme Court.
Answer: (B)
Q. 30 The King Khalid International Airport serves which country?
(A) Syria
(B) Traq
(C) Bahrain
(D) Saudi Arabia
Answer: (D)
Q. 31 Which of the following is one of the criteria to represent the standard of living in a country?
(A) Industrial growth
(B) Poverty ratio
(C) National income
(D) Per capita income
Answer: (D)
Q. 32 Rapid integration between countries is known as:
(A) globalisation
(B) liberalisation
(C) modernisation
(D) privatisation
Answer: (A)
Q. 33 The term “double fault” is used in:
(A) volleyball
(B) tennis
(C) snooker
(D) kabbadi
Answer: (B)
Q. 34 ……… is widely used as a fuel and is a major component of compressed natural gas.
(A) Propane
(B) Octane
(C) Methane
(D) Butane
Answer: (C)
Q. 35 Which one of the following products received the first geographical indication (GI) in India?
(A) Mizo Chilli
(B) Ratlami Sev
(C) Joha Rice
(D) Darjeeling Tea
Answer: (D)
Q. 36 Where did Babur defeat Ibrahim Lodhi in 1526?
(A) Haldighati
(B) Kalinjar
(C) Chausa
(D) Panipat
Answer: (D)
Q. 37 Which temples are well-known for their Nagara-style of architecture having erotic sculptures?
(A) Khajuraho
(B) Somnath
(C) Hampi
(D) Meenakshi
Answer: (A)
Q. 38 The temperate grasslands of South Africa are called:
(A) Downs
(B) Praries
(C) Pampas
(D) Velds
Answer: (D)
Q. 39 The prestigious Laureus World Sports Awards was given to the Indian athlete:
(A) Anirban Chatterji
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Dutee Chand
(D) Vinesh Phogat
Answer: (D)
Q. 40 The term ‘mutation’ primarily refers to:
(A) genetic migration
(B) genetic line
(C) genetic correction
(D) genetic mistake
Answer: (D)
Q. 41 Which of the following countries won the Men’s Hockey World Cup 2018?
(A) Belgium
(B) New Zealand
(C) Argentina
(D) Pakistan
Answer: (A)
Q. 42 Panchayati Raj institutions came into existence under the:
(A) 42nd and 43rd Amendment Acts
(B) 86th and 87th Amendment Acts
(C) 63rd and 64th Amendment Acts
(D) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
Answer: (D)
Q. 43 Which IUCN document lists endangered species of flora and fauna?
(A) Blue List
(B) Green List
(C) Red List
(D) Black List
Answer: (C)
Q. 44 Who among the following introduced the practice of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the feet of monarch) in the court?
(A) Allauddin Khalji
(B) Firoz Shah Tughluq
(C) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(D) Ghiyasuddin Balban
Answer: (D)
Q. 45 ……… is a microfinance organisation and community development bank founded in Bangladesh which makes small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral.
(A) Reserve bank
(B) Federal bank
(C) Cooperative bank
(D) Grameen bank
Answer: (D)
Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT a sustainable development goal targeted to be achieved by 2030?
(A) Gender Equality
(B) Zero Hunger
(C) Good Health and Wellbeing
(D) Space Research
Answer: (D)
Q. 47 A………… measures the humidity of the air.
(A) hygrometer
(B) micrometer
(C) thermometer
(D) hydrometer
Answer: (A)
Q. 48 Which household waste has an excellent recycling potential?
(A) Vegetable scraps
(B) Metal
(C) Plastic
(D) Rubber
Answer: (A)
Q. 49 World Energy Out look is released by the:
(A) International Energy Tribunal
(B) International Energy Agency
(C) World Economic Forum
(D) International Energy Organisation
Answer: (B)
Q. 50 According to the 2011 census, the total percentage of Muslims in India is :
(A) 10.2
(B) 12.4
(C) 16.6
(D) 14.2
Answer: (D)
Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 A sum of ₹ 11700 becomes ₹ 16848 in 2 years at the rate of compound interest. If the interest is compounded annually, then what will be the rate of interest?
(A) 20 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 17.5 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: (A)
Q. 52 A sum of ₹ 4650 is lent at simple interest. If the rate of interest is 7.5% per annum, then what will be the simple interest for 4 years?
(A) ₹ 1395
(B) ₹ 1295
(C) ₹ 1495
(D) ₹ 1300
Answer: (A)
Q. 53 Pipe C can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe D can fill the same tank in 40 hours. In how many hours both pipe C and D together can fill the same tank?
(A) 60/7 hours
(B) 60/11 hours
(C) 120/13 hours
(D) 120/11 hours
Answer: (C)
Q. 54 The length, breadth and height of a solid cuboid is 14 cm, 12 cm and 8 cm respectively. If cuboid is melted to form identical cubes of side 2 cm, then what will be the number of identical cubes?
(A) 168
(B) 144
(C) 156
(D) 128
Answer: (A)
Q. 55 The average weight of all the vehicles in a parking is 4000 kg. The average weight of 12 vehicles is 6000 kg. Average weight of the remaining vehicles is 3000 kg. What is the total number of vehicles in the parking?
(A) 40
(B) 36
(C) 20
(D) 30
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Let the total number of vehicles in the parking be x.
Then, Total weight of all vehicles = 4000x kg
Given, Average weight of 12 vehicles = 6000 kg
Total weight of 12 vehicles = 72000 kg
Remaining vehicles = x-12
Given, Average weight of (x-12) vehicles = 3000 kg
Total weight of (x-12) vehicles = 3000*(x-12) = 3000x-36000 kg
Then, 72000 + 3000x – 36000 = 4000x
=> 1000x = 36000 => x = 36
Therefore, Number of vehicles in the parking = 36.
Q. 56 What is the value of 80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (⅓ ÷ 10/3) ?
(A) -12
(B) 40/3
(C) 22/5
(D) -10
Answer: (D)
Q. 57 The total weight of 12 boys and 8 girls is 1080 kg. If the average weight of boys is 50 kg, then what will be average weight of girls?
(A) 55 kg
(B) 50 kg
(C) 60 kg
(D) 45 kg
Answer: (C)
Q. 58 The diagonal of a square is 14 cm. What will be the length of the diagonal of the square whose area is double of the area of first square?
(A) 28√2 cm
(B) 14√2 cm
(C) 28 cm
(D) 21√2 cm
Answer: (B)
Q. 59 The line chart given below shows the production (in 10000 s) of cars in 7 different months.
Production of cars in month M4 is what percent of the production of cars in month M2?
(A) 125%
(B) 75%
(C) 66.66%
(D) 83.33%
Answer: (B)
Q. 60 What is the value of [88 − 44 ÷ (22 × 4) of (½ − ¼ ÷ ⅛ )]??
(A) 265/3
(B) 703/9
(C) 514/9
(D) 711/3
Answer: (A)
Q. 61 The Least Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of two numbers are 60 and 3 respectively. If their difference is 3, then what will be the sum of these two numbers?
(A) 24
(B) 35
(C) 27
(D) 21
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the two numbers be a and b.
We know that the product of two numbers = Product of their LCM and HCF ab = 3*60 = 180
Given, a – b = 3
We know that
(a − b)2 = (a + b)2 − 4ab
32 = (a + b)2 − 4 × 180
9 = (a + b)2 − 720
=> (a + b)2 = 729 => a + b = 27
Therefore, Sum of the two numbers = 27
Q. 62 Selling price and cost price of an article are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What will be the profit/loss percentage?
(A) 40% profit
(B) 28.5% profit
(C) 20% loss
(D) 14.28% loss
Answer: (A)
Q. 63 The length of a rectangle is 16 cm. If the length of diagonal is 20 cm, then what will be the breadth of the rectangle?
(A) 8 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 14 cm
Answer: (B)
Q. 64 The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.
What is the average production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee from year 2009 to 2011?
(A) 1366.67
(B) 1166.67
(C) 1233.33
(D) 1466.67
Answer: (B)
Q. 65 Manish goes to his hometown at the speed of 40 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of Y km/hr. Distance between his home and hometown is 360 km. If he takes total 21 hours, then what is the value of Y?
(A) 25 km/hr
(B) 28 km/hr
(C) 30 km/hr
(D) 33 km/hr
Answer: (C)
Q. 66 P and Q together can complete a work in 20 days. If P alone can complete the same work in 36 days, then in how many days Q alone can complete the same work?
(A) 48 days
(B) 42 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 51 days
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the total work be 180 units (LCM of 20 and 36)
Efficiency of P+Q = 180/20 = 9 units per day
Efficiency of P = 180/36 = 5 units per day
Then, Efficiency of Q = 9-5 = 4 units per day
Therefore, Q can do the work together in 180/4 = 45 days
Q. 67 The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.
The production for the year 2011 is what percent of the production for the year 2009?
(A) 157.5%
(B) 175.25%
(C) 187.5%
(D) 205.25%
Answer: (C)
Q. 68 Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 3 : 8 respectively. If the sum of these four numbers is 432, then what is the sum of first and fourth number?
(A) 192
(B) 216
(C) 240
(D) 232
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the four numbers be 2x,5x,3x and 8x.
Sum of four numbers = 2x+5x+3x+8x = 18x
Given, 18x = 432 => x = 24
Then, Sum of first and last numbers = 2x+8x = 10x = 10*24 = 240.
Q. 69 The length of platform is double of the length of train. Speed of the train is 144 km/hr.If train crosses the platform in 30 seconds, then what is the length of the platform?
(A) 600 metres
(B) 800 metres
(C) 500 metres
(D) 400 metres
Answer: (B)
Q. 70 The ratio of number of children, women and men in colony is 6 : 4 : 3 respectively and the colony has at least 200 members. What will be minimum number of children in the colony?
(A) 48
(B) 72
(C) 64
(D) 96
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Given, Children : Women : Men = 6 : 4 : 3
Let number of children be 6x
Number of women be 4x
Number of men be 3x
Total members in the colony = 6x+4x+3x = 13x
Given, 13x = 200
Here, 200 is not divisible by 13. So, Total members can be taken as 208.
13x = 208
=> x = 16
Therefore, Number of children = 6x = 6*16 = 96.
Q. 71 The marked price of an article is ₹ 1200 and discount offered is 31%. If profit is 15%, then what will be the cost price?
(A) ₹640
(B) ₹704
(C) ₹748
(D) ₹720
Answer: (D)
Q. 72 If the length of a rectangle increases by 50% and the breadth decreases by 25%, then what will be the percent increase in its area?
(A) 15%
(B) 17.5%
(C) 12.5%
(D) 25%
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Given, Increase in Length = 50% Decrease in Breadth = 25%
50 × 25
= 50 − 25 − 100
= 25 − 12.5 = 12.5
Then, Overall Change in Area %
Q. 73 Selling price of first article is ₹ 470 and cost price of second article is ₹ 470. If there is a loss of 20% on first article and profit of 20% on second article, then what will be the overall profit or loss percentage?
(A) 2.22% loss
(B) 4% profit
(C) No profit no loss
(D) 1.80% loss
Answer: (A)
Q. 74 Teena, Reena and Sheena start a business with investment of respectively ₹ 24000, ₹ 28000 and ₹ 20000. Teena invests for 8 months, Reena invest for 10 months and Sheena invests for one year. If the total profit at the end of year is ₹ 25810, then what is the share of Teena?
(A) ₹6960
(B) ₹10150
(C) ₹7940
(D) ₹8700
Answer: (A)
Q. 75 What is the median of the given data?
1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3, 8, 2
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Arranging the given numbers in ascending order: 1,2,2,3,3,5,6,8,8
Median is the middle most number in the series which is 3.
English
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Gita won’t pass the examination and …………. will Rita.
(A) nor
(B) or
(C) either
(D) neither
Answer: (D)
Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement.
Tourists visiting Leh take home photos and memories but leave back a mountain of waste.
(A) leave away
(B) left back
(C) No improvement
(D) leave behind
Answer: (D)
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Passage:
The Second Anglo-Maratha Warhad shattered the (1)……… of the Maratha chiefs, but not theirspirit. The loss of their freedom caused them deep (2)……… They madea last (3)……….. attempt to regain their independencein 1817. The lead in organising a united front of the Maratha chiefs (4)…….. by the Peshwa who was smarting under the (5)……….. contro! exercised by the British Resident.
Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.
(A) patience
(B) dignity
(C) power
(D) time
Answer: (C)
Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.
(A) agony
(B) distress
(C) fear
(D) depression
Answer: (A)
Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.
(A) violent
(B) massive
(C) desperate
(D) feeble
Answer: (C)
Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.
(A) was taking
(B) was taken
(C) had taken
(D) were taken
Answer: (B)
Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.
(A) cruel
(B) orthodox
(C) pleasant
(D) rigid
Answer: (D)
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 83 Select the synonym of the given word.
AGILE
(A) Aggressive
(B) Active
(C) Dull
(D) Lazy
Answer: (B)
Q. 84 Select the correctly spelt word.
(A) Gratefull
(B) Greatfull
(C) Greatful
(D) Grateful
Answer: (D)
Q. 85 Select the antonym of the given word.
HIDEOUS
(A) Beautiful
(B) Secretive
(C) Detestable
(D) Ugly
Answer: (A)
Q. 86 Select the antonym of the given word.
BLESS
(A) Purify
(B) Sanctify
(C) Wish
(D) Curse
Answer: (D)
Q. 87 From the given options, identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Ram alwaystries to do things very carefully and made sure he does them correctly.
(A) to do things
(B) Ram always tries
(C) does them
(D) and made sure
Answer: (D)
Q. 88 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If they had a playground here, they can play after their school is over.
(A) after their
(B) If they had
(C) school is over
(D) they can play
Answer: (D)
Q. 89 Select the correctly spelt word.
(A) Occation
(B) Occassion
(C) Occasion
(D) Ocassion
Answer: (C)
Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.
A red letter day
(A) (A) sad day
(B) (A) boring day
(C) (A) memorable day
(D) (A) painful day
Answer: (C)
Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
Someone who leaves one’s country to settle in another country.
(A) Tourist
(B) Emigrant
(C) Foreigner
(D) Explorer
Answer: (B)
Q. 92 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Just are the ….. of God.
(A) ways
(B) deeds
(C) plans
(D) tricks
Answer: (A)
Q. 93 Select the synonym of the given word.
MELODIOUS
(A) Rhythmic
(B) Rattling
(C) Tuneful
(D) Doleful
Answer: (C)
Q. 94 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.
To eat humble pie
(A) To deny desperately
(B) To defend oneself
(C) To accept error
(D) To be aggressive
Answer: (C)
Q. 95 From the given options, identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error. I said you to prepare the article yesterday but you didn’t.
(A) the article
(B) I said you
(C) you didn’t
(D) to prepare
Answer: (B)
Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
You can visit me on ………. at 7 o’clock.
(A) tomorrow
(B) next month
(C) today
(D) Sunday
Answer: (D)
Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement.
Yesterday eleven coaches of a train headed for Delhi was derailed at Vaishali district of Bihar.
(A) was derailed in
(B) were derailed in
(C) No improvement
(D) were derail at
Answer: (B)
Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
…………. are to be avoided: they lead to conflict.
(A) Questions
(B) Statements
(C) Arguments
(D) Decisions
Answer: (C)
Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement.
On inspection a hundred year old bridge was find being too weak to take the load of lakhs of vehicles everyday.
(A) was being found
(B) No improvement
(C) was found to be
(D) has to be found
Answer: (C)
Q. 100 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
One who is present everywhere
(A) Omnipotent
(B) Omniscient
(C) Omnipresent
(D) Omnivorous
Answer: (C)
