SSC CHSL Tier-I 11 July 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 

(11 July 2019 Shift-I) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 In a code language, GOURD is written as IQSTF. How will APHID be written in that language? 

A CRJKF 

B CRFLF 

C CRFKF 

D CREKF 

Answer: C 

 

Q.2 ‘ENGINEER’ is related to ‘BUILDING’ in the same way as ‘WRITER’ is related to ‘_________’. 

A BOOK 

B PAPER 

C PEN 

D INK 

Answer: A 

 

Q.3 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A QSUV 

B DFHJ 

C JLNP 

D CEGI 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Car 

B Jeep 

C Truck 

D Ship 

Answer: D 

 

Q.5 Arrange the following words in the sequence as they appear in English dictionery order. 1. Mercury 2. Earth 3. Jupiter 4. Venus 5. Mars 

A 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 

B 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 

C 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 

D 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? FJ, HL, ? , LP, NR 

A JM 

B JN 

C GM 

D IN 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (16, 36, 64) 

A (6, 36, 80) 

B (10, 30, 58) 

C (9, 25, 62) 

D (12, 32, 50) 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All hens are eggs. 

All birds are eggs. 

All eggs are lions. 

Conclusions: 

I. All hens are lions. 

II. Some lions are eggs. 

III. All birds are lions. 

A Only conclusions II and III follow. 

B Only conclusions I and II follow. 

C Only conclusion I follows. 

D All the conclusions follow. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Anil and Abhay are brothers. Swati is the daughter of Samir and sister of Anil. How is Abhay’s mother related to Samir? 

A Sister 

B Wife 

C Sister-in-law 

D Mother 

Answer: B

 

Q.11 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the pattern that will be on the face opposite to the one having 

Answer: D 

 

Q.12 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 29, 31 

A 15, 17 

B 23, 25 

C 11, 13 

D 20, 21 

Answer: C

 

Q.14 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Rats, Frogs, Snakes 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair. Cement : Building 

A Wire : Electricity 

B Wood : Furniture 

C Book : Author 

D Pen : Pencil 

Answer: B 

 

Q.16 How many triangles are present in the following figure ? 

A 11 

B 9 

C 10 

D 13 

Answer: A 

 

Q.17 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 2, 4, 7, 12, 19, 30, ? 

A 47 

B 38 

C 43 

D 36 

Answer: C 

 

Q.18 What was the day of the week on 15 August 2013? 

A Thursday 

B Monday 

C Wednesday 

D Tuesday 

Answer: A 

 

Q.19 Select the Answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter-pair is related to the first letter-pair. DJ : HT : : HM : ? 

A PY 

B JK 

C LW 

D LP 

Answer: C 

 

Q.21 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figures (X, Y and Z). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded ? 

Answer: D 

 

Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (49, 81, 121) 

A (9, 4, 8) 

B (16, 25, 49) 

C (36, 64, 100) 

D (16, 64, 100) 

Answer: C

 

Q.23 Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

5 + 8 − 30 × 10 ÷ 2 = 240 

A × and ÷ 

B + and ÷ 

C + and − 

D × and − 

Answer: D 

 

Q.24 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest. 

A 65 

B 95 

C 75 

D 85 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 If BARBER is coded as 116 and GLINT is coded as 73, then how will LIZARD be coded as? 

A 92 

B 93 

C 91 

D 90 

Answer: A 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 Who among the following was included in Facebook ‘Hall of Fame 2019’ for detetcing a Whatapp Bug that violated privacy of a user? 

A Sonam Wangchuk 

B Jeje Lalpekula 

C Baichung Bhutia 

D Zonel Sougaijam 

Answer: D 

 

Q.27 Who was sworn in as the new chief minister of Andhra Pradesh on 30th May 2019? 

A Chandrababu Naidu 

B Raghuveera Reddy 

C Pawan Kalyan 

D YS Jagan Mohan Reddy 

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 In the context of the banking system in India, what does IFSC stand for? 

A Indian Financial Structural Code 

B Indian Functional System Calculation 

C Indian Financial System Code 

D Indian Financial Social Code 

Answer: C 

 

Q.29 Which country has become the second country in the world to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency? 

A Bhutan 

B Ireland 

C Norway 

D Canada 

Answer: B 

 

Q.30 Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________. 

A Iodine 

B Potassium 

C Iron 

D Calcium 

Answer: B 

 

Q.31 Which one of the following lakes and their locations is INCORRECTLY matched? 

A Lonar-Maharashtra 

B Chilika-Andhra Pradesh 

C Loktak-Manipur 

D Roopkund-Uttarakhand 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 In the context of the Internet, what is the full form of MAN? 

A Master Area Network 

B Makeshift Area Network 

C Massive Area Network 

D Metropolitan Area Network 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 Who among the following was re-elected as the Prime Minister of Israel April 2019? 

A Imad Khamis 

B Benjamin Netanyahu 

C Ranil Wickremesinghe 

D Sheikh Hasina 

Answer: B 

 

Q.34 In the cabinet of the 17th Lok Sabha, who has been appointed as the Finance Minister ? 

A Amit Shah 

B Nirmala Sitharaman 

C Smriti Irani 

D Rajnath Singh 

Answer: B 

 

Q.35 In May 2019, the kilogram was redefined for the first time in 130 years. It will now be redefined by a fundamental property of nature known as: 

A Planck’s Constant 

B Electric Constant 

C Gravitational Constant 

D Magnetic Constant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.36 Rovers Cup is associated with which of the following sports? 

A Swimming 

B Lawn Tennis 

C Snooker 

D Football 

Answer: D 

 

Q.37 Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee was set up to study ________. 

A the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India 

B the impact of globalisation on India 

C the standards maintained by government hospitals in India 

D the environmental issues of the western ghats in India 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of river Kaveri? 

A Vaigai 

B Kabini 

C Bhavani 

D Amravati 

Answer: A 

 

Q.39 Which of the following classical dances and their places of origin is INCORRECTLY matched ? 

A Kuchipudi-Odisha 

B Bharatanatym-Tamilnadu 

C Mohiniattam-Kerala 

D Sattriya-Assam 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 According to which Article of the Constitution of India shall the council of ministers be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha? 

A Article 29 

B Article 75 

C Article 35 

D Article 302 

Answer: B 

 

Q.41 The Salal Project is constructed on the river: 

A Chenab 

B Bhima 

C Krishna 

D Manjra 

Answer: A 

 

Q.42 Which of the following is a western flowing river? 

A Sabarmati 

B Gomti 

C Mahanadi 

D Krishna 

Answer: A 

 

Q.43 The head quarter of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is located in _______. 

A Madrid 

B Amsterdam 

C Zurich 

D Paris 

Answer: C 

 

Q.44 Which of the following dances is in UNESCO’s Intangible Heritage List? 

A Fugdi 

B Chhau 

C Jhoomar 

D Dalkhai 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party? 

A Munshi Ram 

B Devi Lal 

C Kanshi Ram 

D Lakshman Singh 

Answer: C 

 

Q.46 Which of the following texts gives a detailed account of the kings of Kashmir ? 

A Rajatarangini 

B Dipavamsa 

C Vinaya Pitaka 

D Katha Sarit Sagar 

Answer: A 

 

Q.47 The Samkhaya School of Philosophy was founded by ________. 

A Patanjali 

B Kapila 

C Kumarila Bhatta 

D Gautama 

Answer: B 

 

Q.48 The headquarters of computer technology giant, Intel is in ____________. 

A London 

B Tokyo 

C California 

D Frankfurt 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 Which of the following is an example of terrestrial habitat? 

A Grassland 

B Lagoon 

C Pond 

D Swamp 

Answer: A 

 

Q.50 Pullela Gopichand is the chief national coach of the Indian ________ team as of June 2019. 

A Badminton 

B Basketball 

C Archery 

D Table tennis 

Answer: A 

 

Quantative Appititute 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 The platform of a station 400 m longstarts exactly where the last span of a bridge 1.2 km long ends. Howlong will a train 200 m long and travelling at the speed of 72 km/htake to cover the distance between the starting point of the span of the bridge and the far end of the platform ? 

A 1.6 min 

B 1.5 min 

C 1.8 min 

D 1.2 min 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 An article having marked price, ₹900, was sold for ₹648 after two successive discounts. The first discount was 20%. What was the percentage rate of the second discount? 

A 5 

B 15 

C 10 

D 12.5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 A purchased two articles for ₹200 and ₹300 respectively and sold at gains of 5% and 10%respectively. What was his overall gain percentage ? 

A 6 

B 9 

C 5 

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 If 10/7 (1 − 2.43 × 10−3) =  1.417 + x, then x is equal to:  

A 0.0417 

B 0.417 

C 0.0081 

D 0.81 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

How much percentage marks more than B has C scored in practical ? 

A 40 

B 30 

C 60 

D 20 

Answer: B 

 

Q.56 The simplified value of { 1¼ of ( 2 ⅓ ÷ 1 ⅖) − 1 5/12 } + 1/9 ÷ 2 ⅓ + 2/7 + ⅙ is: 

A 7/3

B 3/2

C 7/6

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions 

The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

Q.57 Arrange the students B, C and D according to the ascending order of the aggregate marks scored by them. 

A B, D, C 

B B, C, D 

C C, D, B 

D D, B, C 

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 What is the average marks of the four students in theory? 

A 60 

B 65 

C 70 

D 68 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.59 With reference to a number greater than one, the difference between itself and its reciprocal is 25% of the sum of itself and its reciprocal. By how much percentage (correct one decimal place) is the fourth power of the number greater than its square ? 

A 57.8 

B 62.5 

C 64.5 

D 66.7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 For all ∝i′ s,(i = 1,2,3,…..20) lying between 0 ∘ and 90 ∘ , it is given that  sin ∝1 +sin ∝2 +sin ∝3 +……. + sin ∝20= 20. What is the value (in degrees) of (∝1 + ∝2 + ∝3 +……… + ∝20) ? 

A 1800 

B 900 

C 0 

D 20 

Answer: A

 

Q.61 The ten digit number 2x600000y8 is exactly divisible by 24. If x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0, then the least value of (x + y) is equal to: 

A 5 

B 8 

C 9 

D 2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.62 The value of 18.43×18.43−6.57×6.57/11.86 is: 

A 23.62 

B 25 

C 26 

D 24.12 

Answer: B 

 

Q.63 O, G, and H are respectively the circumcentre, centroid, incentre and orthocentre of an equilateral triangle. Which of these points are identical ? 

A O and I only 

B O and G only 

C O, G, land H 

D O, G and H only 

Answer: C

 

Q.64 A certain sum was invested on simple interest. The amount to which it had grown in five years was times the amount to which it had grown in three years. The percentage rate of interest was: 

A 10% 

B 20% 

C 25% 

D 15% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete 20% of the work in 6 days. If they work together in how many day scan they finish 50% of the work, if they work together ? 

A 12 

B 6 

C 8 

D 9 

Answer: B 

 

Q.66 What is the value of cosec2 30 + sin2 45 + sec2 60 + tan2 30

A 53/6

B 8 

C 25/3

D 9 

Answer: A 

 

Q.67 △ABC ∼ △DEF  and their perimeters are 64 cm and 48 cm respectively. What is the length AB, if DE is equal to 9 cm ? 

A 17.5 cm 

B 16 cm 

C 12 cm 

D 18 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 If (3x + 1)3 + (x − 3)3 + (4 − 2x)3 + 6(3x + 1)(x − 3)(x − 2) = 0 , then x is equal to: 

A -1 

B −21 

C 1 

D 12

Answer: A 

 

Q.69 For 0 ∘ ≤ θ ≤ 90∘ , what is θ , when  √3cosθ + sinθ = 1 ? 

A 90∘ 

B 0∘

C 45∘ 

D 30∘ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.70 During a practice session in a stadium an athlete runs along a circular track and her performance is observed by her coach standing at a point on the circle and also by her physiotherapist standing at the centre of the circle. The coach finds that she covers an angle of 72 in 1 min. What will be the angle covered by her in 1 second according to the measurement made by her physiotherapist ? 

A It depends on the position of the coach on the circular track 

B 4.8 

C 1.2 

D 2.4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.71 The two diagonals of a rhombus are respectively, 14 cm and 48 cm. The perimeter of the rhombus is equal to: 

A 120 cm 

B 160 cm 

C 80 cm 

D 100 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.72 AB and CD are two chords of a circle which intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that, AB = 10 cm, CO = 1.5 cm and DO = 12.5 cm. What Is the ratio between the larger and smaller among AO and BO ? 

A 7:3 

B 3:2 

C 3:1 

D 4:1 

Answer: C

 

Q.73 The ratio of the square of a number to the reciprocal of its cube is 243/16807. What is the number 

A 2/7

B 7/3

C 3/7

D 5/7

Answer: C 

 

Q.74 The average of 1088 real numbers is zero. At most how many of them can be negative? 

A 100 

B 88 

C 544 

D 1087 

Answer: D 

 

Q.75 The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

Who among the students could not pass ? 

A A only 

B B and C 

C B only 

D B and D 

Answer: D 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The minister promise to looked into the matter of fuel emissions and air pollution. 

A promise to looks into 

B No improvement 

C promised to look into 

D promises to looking at 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. ABSTRACT 

A elusive 

B concrete 

C intangible 

D vague 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make no headway 

A check if the head can pass through 

B unable to progress ahead 

C unable to overtake anyone 

D forced to fix a new goal 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. Once again, higher food inflation, in combination with fuel and power, provided ______ to the wholesale inflation. 

A impression 

B inspiration 

C insight 

D impetus 

Answer: D 

 

Q.80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A. Using matches however came much later.

B. The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

C. In olden times fires were made by rubbing two flints against each other till a spark was produced.

D. And this spark set fire to dry straw, leaves or wood. 

A CBDA 

B BDAC 

C ADBC 

D BCDA 

Answer: D 

 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. HOPE 

A daring 

B courage 

C despair 

D confidence 

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. The interviewer asked Ramesh, “Do you have any idea about our products?” 

A The interviewer asked Ramesh that if he had any idea about the products. 

B The interviewer asked Ramesh if he have any idea about their products. 

C The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products. 

D The interviewer asked Ramesh if they had any idea about his products. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.83 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Someone gave him a new case for his credit cards. 

A He is given a new case for his credit cards. 

B He had given a new case for his credit cards. 

C He was given a new case for his credit cards. 

D He has given a new case for his credit cards. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. We had already covered half the distance when we reached a three-road junction. 

B. I was worried it might pounce on us. 

C. But thankfully we picked up speed and it got left behind. 

D. Suddenly, a barking dog began to chase the bike for some distance. 

A ABDC 

B DACB 

C BDAC 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. She was unable to produce sufficient evidences for support her accusations. 

A to produce 

B She was unable 

C sufficient evidences for 

D support her accusations 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Q.86 ACCURATE 

A real 

B sincere 

C precise 

D genuine 

Answer: C 

 

Q.87 DEDICATION 

A contentment 

B trepidation 

C determination 

D commitment 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. My professor gave me a lot of useful advices when I was writing my research paper. 

A gave me a lots of useful advices 

B gave me a lot of useful advice 

C No improvement 

D give me lots of useful advices 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words A person who sells and arranges cut flowers 

A nutritionist 

B agriculturist 

C florist 

D botanist 

Answer: C 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make short work of something 

A reduce the size 

B dispose of quickly 

C edit carefully 

D shorten some dress 

Answer: B 

 

Q.91 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A manegeable 

B managable 

C manageble 

D manageable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words One who draws or produces maps 

A cartographer 

B photographer 

C designer 

D draftsman 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. As he crossed the desert he nearly ______ to thirst when he was forced to go without water for four days and five nights. 

A succumbed 

B subsisted 

C survived 

D submerged 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A fourtieth 

B seventeenth 

C fifteenth 

D fourteenth 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The team began searching for reasons for their poor performance in the tournament. 

A The team began 

B in the tournament 

C searching for reasons 

D for their poor performance 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies. 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A Totally 

B But 

C Nearly 

D Not 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A will seems 

B seems 

C was seemed 

D seem 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A one 

B a 

C the 

D an 

Answer: B 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A their 

B these 

C this 

D that 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A below 

B towards 

C away 

D about 

Answer: B 

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