SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 27 Aug Shift 2
Q. 1 If BLACKSMITH is coded as CNBELUNKUJ, then CHILDREN will be coded as ?
A. DJINETEP
B. DJJNETFP
C. DIJMESFO
D. DIJMEYEP
Q. 2 If 17 + 17 = 2895
18 + 18 = 3245
19 + 19 = 3615
then 23 + 23 = ?
A. 5765
B. 5295
C. 2565
D. 4005
Q. 3 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary
A. Dyke
B. Dwindle
C. Dwell
D. Dye
A. B, C, D, A
B. C, B, A, D
C. B, C, A, D
D. C, B, D, A
Q. 4 Select the missing number (In figure (1)) from the given responses.
A. 432
B. 501
C. 512
D. 332
Q. 5 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
DHL : PTX : : BFJ : ?
A. KOS
B. NRV
C. NRU
D. NPS
Q. 6 Select the related word from the given alternatives.
Donkey : Brays : : Monkey : ?
A. Trumpets
B. Bellows
C. Chatters
D. Grunts
Q. 7 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
ABDE : FGIJ : : IJLM : ?
A. NMOP
B. NOPQ
C. NOQR
D. NPQR
Q. 8 Select the related number from the given alternatives.
1 : 8 : : ? : 64
A. 36
B. 27
C. 30
D. 25
Q. 9 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Diving
B. Swimming
C. Driving
D. Sailing
Q. 10 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.
A. CTES
B. VDZC
C. MKOJ
D. RGTF
Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.
A. 245
B. 443
C. 633
D. 843
Q. 12 Find the wrong number in the series:
28 33 31 36 34 29
A. 29
B. 36
C. 30
D. 34
Q. 13 How many squares are there in the square figure ABCD?
A. 16
B. 17
C. 30
D. 26
Q. 14 Which answer figure (among (1), (2), (3), (4) will complete the pattern in the question figure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 15 Find the word that cannot be formed from the letters in the given word.
SEGREGATION
A. NATION
B. GREAT
C. GREETINGS
D. SEATING
Q. 16 Asha is taller than Pratima. Prabhas is shorter than Pratima. Alka is shorter than Asha. Alka is taller than Prabhas. Who among the following is the shortest?
A. Pratima
B. Alka
C. Prabhas
D. Asha
Q. 17 Below some statements are given , followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statement: All intelligent people are creative.
Conclusion I: Some creative people are intelligent.
Conclusion II: All intelligent people are creative.
A. only conclusion I follows
B. only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or II follows
D. Both conclusions I and II follow
Q. 18 Shama, during the time of sunset, started walking towards the opposite side of sun and then she turns right and right again. What direction is she facing?
A. South
B. West
C. East
D. North
Q. 19 What is the mirror image (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) of the following figure? The mirror may be represented by a line XY.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 20 Find the missing term in the given series:
2 7 10 22 18 37 26 ?
A. 42
B. 52
C. 46
D. 62
Q. 21 Find the missing term in the given series:
4 12 48 240 1440 ?
A. 7620
B. 10080
C. 6200
D. 10020
Q. 22 Find the missing term of the following series?
GEFH ZXYZ SQRT ?
A. LJKM
B. KILN
C. JGIO
D. NLMO
Q. 23 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 14, 23, etc., and ‘E’ can be represented by 56, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘CURE’
A. 10
B. 19
C. 20
D. 9
Q. 25 In which of the following figures (among (1), (2), (3), (4)), the given figure is embedded?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 26 The Kakori conspiracy was a train robbery that took place between Kakori and Lucknow in
A. 1931
B. 1919
C. 1925
D. 1929
Q. 27 Who was the first lady Governor of an Indian State?
A. Vijaylakshmi Pandit
B. Sharda Mukherjee
C. Fathima Beevi
D. Sarojini Naidu
Q. 28 Which cell organelle is the site of photosynthesis and also contains chlorophyll?
A. Chloroplasts
B. Vacuole
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleolus
Q. 29 What are the components responsible for acid rain?
A. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) and Carbon monoxide (CO)
B. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Carbon monoxide (CO)
D. Oxides of carbon (COx) and Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
Q. 30 The headquarters of FIFA is in
A. Berlin
B. Vienna
C. France
D. Zurich
Q. 31 Which of the following is an insulator?
A. Mercury
B. Carbon
C. Germanium
D. Glass
Q. 32 Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate?
A. Goa
B. Karnataka
C. Mizoram
D. Himachal Pradesh
Q. 33 Which monument is known as the ‘Dream in Stones’?
A. Char Minar
B. Ajanta Caves
C. Sanchi Stupa
D. Panch Mahal
Q. 34 Name the process by which bubbles from liquid are formed?
A. Effervescence
B. Surface Tension
C. Surface Energy
D. Degasification
Q. 35 Zeolite is
A. hydrated aluminosilicate
B. hydrated calcium sulphate
C. dehydrated aluminosilicate
D. dehydrated calcium sulphate
Q. 36 Highest source of air pollution in the world is
A. Automobile
B. Industries
C. Household wastes
D. Aircraft
Q. 37 Who wrote the famous line: ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’
A. William Shakespeare
B. J. K. Rowling
C. John Keats
D. George Eliot
Q. 38 The boiling point of water depends upon the
A. atmospheric pressure
B. volume
C. density
D. mass
Q. 39 Which of the following deserts has the highest gold deposits?
A. Kyzyl – Kum desert
B. Gobi desert
C. Mojave desert
D. Tanami desert
Q. 40 The Himalayas are also known by the name
A. ancient mountains
B. fold mountains
C. valley mountains
D. Indus mountains
Q. 41 The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends upon:
A. its climate
B. the longitude of the place
C. its latitude
D. the altitude of the place
Q. 42 Alluvial soils are rich soil for crop cultivation but are poor in
A. humus
B. nitrogen and humus
C. organic material
D. inorganic material
Q. 43 By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?
A. 42nd
B. 46th
C. 61st
D. 88th
Q. 44 Bamboo is classified as
A. Tree
B. Grass
C. Shrub
D. Herb
Q. 45 Which apparatus is used to measure the intensity of light?
A. Lux meter
B. Calorimeter
C. Anemometer
D. Altimeter
Q. 46 L.P.G. is mostly liquified
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. butane
D. methane
Q. 47 What is used in storage batteries?
A. Copper
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Zinc
Q. 48 The first computer made available for commercial use was
A. MANIAC
B. ENIAC
C. UNIVAS
D. EDSAC
Q. 49 Which river originates from the Amarkantak plateau?
A. Narmada River
B. Son River
C. Betwa River
D. Godavari River
Q. 50 Thomas Cup is associated with
A. Billiards
B. Table Tennis
C. Lawn Tennis
D. Badminton
Q. 51 In ΔABC, AB = a – b, AC = √(a² + b²) and BC = √2ab, then find angle B.
A. 60°
B. 30°
C. 90°
D. 45°
Q. 52 If 10% of x is 3 times 15% of y, then find x : y.
A. 7 : 2
B. 9 : 2
C. 8 : 3
D. 11 : 4
Q. 53 Find the value of 1/(1 + tan²θ) + 1/(1 + cot²θ)
A. 1/4
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 2
Q. 54 Find the value of the equation given in the figure
A. 6
B. 10
C. 8
D. 4
Q. 55 Two rifles are fired from the same place at a difference of 11 min 45 seconds. But a man who is coming towards the same place in a train hears the second sound after 11 minutes. Find the speed of the train (Assuming speed of sound = 330 m/s)
A. 72 km/h
B. 36 km/h
C. 81 km/h
D. 108 km/h
Q. 56 If a + 1/(a – 2) = 4, then the value of (a – 2)² + (1/(a – 2))² is:
A. 0
B. 2
C. -2
D. 4
Q. 57 The average of runs of a cricket player of 20 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
A. 116
B. 114
C. 170
D. 76
Q. 58 If x = 6pq/(p + q), then the value of (x + 3p)/(x – 3p) + (x + 3q)/(x – 3q) is
A. 6
B. 8
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 59 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is
A. 2 : 1
B. 3 : 1
C. 1 : 3
D. 5 : 4
Q. 60 If x = 1 + √2 + √3, then find the value of x² – 2x + 4
A. 2(7 + √6)
B. 2(4 + √6)
C. 2(3 + √7)
D. (4 + √6)
Q. 61 A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 km/hr and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then A’s speed is equal to:
A. 3 km/hr
B. 4 km/hr
C. 5 km/hr
D. 7 km/hr
Q. 62 A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be
A. 40%
B. 100%
C. 120%
D. 140%
Q. 63 A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then how much profit or loss will he have?
A. Rs. 55 gain
B. Rs. 30 profit
C. Rs. 30 loss
D. Rs. 30 profit
Q. 64 A sum of money invested at a compound interest amounts to Rs. 800 in 3 years and to Rs. 840 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is :
A. 2 1/2 %
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6 2/3%
Q. 65 If D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides of an equilateral triangle ABC (given in the figure), then the ratio of the area of triangle DEF and DCF is:
A. 1.1 : 1
B. 1 : 1.1
C. 0.9 : 1
D. 1 : 1
Q. 66 How many common tangents can be drawn on two circles touching each other externally?
A. Infinity
B. 0
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 67 If tanθ + 1/tanθ = 2, then the value of tan²θ + 1/tan²θ is equal to:
A. 6
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 68 From 40 m apart from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of its top is 60°. What is the height of the tower?
A. 120/√3 m
B. 60/√3 m
C. 50/√3 m
D. 130√7 m
Q. 69 If the price of sugar increases by 20%, one can buy 2 kg less for Rs. 50. What is the amount of sugar that could be bought before price hike?
A. 10 kg
B. 12 kg
C. 14 kg
D. 16 kg
Q. 70 In how many years will a sum of Rs. 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs. 926.10?
A. 2 1/2 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 1/2 years
Q. 71 The number of coins of radius 0.75 cm and thickness 0.2 cm required to be melted to make a right circular cylinder of height 8 cm and base radius 3 cm is:
A. 500
B. 600
C. 460
D. 640
Q. 72 Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If difference between their ages is 2 years, how old is Pushpa today?
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
Questions: 73 – 75
Study the following bar graph (Given in figure) carefully to answer the questions:
Q. 73 The yield per acre of India is what percent more than that of Pakistan?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Q. 74 If the yield per acre is arranged in ascending order, then what is the difference between the yield per acre of first three countries and last three countries
A. 168 quintals
B. 172 quintals
C. 182 quintals
D. 190 quintals
Q. 75 The yield per acre produced by Bangladesh is what percent of the total yield per acre produced by all countries?
A. 14%
B. 13.5%
C. 14.8%
D. 16%
Questions: 76 – 77
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The villager has customarily been very conservative in his attitude and approach. He is reluctant to change his traditional way of thinking and doing things. His attitude, in many aspects, is: “homemade is best”. For instance, most cattle farmers in the villages, prefer to feed their cows and buffaloes with a home-mix comprising local oilseeds like mustard or cottonseed, pulses, jaggery, salt, etc. It takes numerous visits, hard-convincing, daily trials and experience to convince the rural cattle farmer that compound feeds, scientifically formulated, improve the yields of milk, without any incremental costs. The age-old values and attitude towards caste, creed, woman, time and money take time to change. The villager has traditionally been a believer in the philosophy of ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. He has found it more convenient to blame his economic destitution, poor living conditions and straitened social status on ‘bhagya’, ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. The security that the villagers find in the ‘status quo’, acts as a disincentive to change and experiment, in his short run. Many of these antiquated attitudes, value-system and outlooks are changing, due to improved levels of awareness and education. However, the rate of change is sluggish. Attitudes have fossilised over the centuries, do take time to change.
Q. 76 When will you call a person conservative in his attitude and approach?
A. when he likes to try out every new idea before accepting it.
B. when he sticks to old ways of thinking and doing.
C. when he solves his problems through tried out methods.
D. when he imputes motives to change-agents.
Q. 77 What does the phrase “home made is best” imply?
A. The best should not be discarded.
B. Change for the sake of change is not good.
C. People should go in for swadeshi because it is home-made
D. Whatever is being practised is better than what is new.
Q. 78 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.
DEVASTATION
A. DESTRUCTION
B. CONSTRUCTION
C. SEPARATION
D. FRUSTRATION
Q. 79 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.
A. Connaisseur
B. Conoisseur
C. Connossieur
D. Connoiseur
Q. 80 In the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Fit like a glove
A. to fit snugly
B. something tight and sticky
C. soft and easy to ware
D. difficult to hold
Q. 81 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To pull a long face
A. to make fun
B. to look sad
C. to irritate someone
D. to pull someone’s face
Q. 82 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Cat nap
A. …
B. …
C. make a snoring sound while sleeping
D. to sleep briefly
Q. 83 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To flog a dead horse
A. to act in a foolish way
B. To waste one’s efforts
C. To revive interest in an old effort
D. None of these
Q. 84 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Money given to agents on sales.
A. help
B. Commission
C. assignment
D. endeavour
Q. 85 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Person believing in one marriage
A. polygamist
B. misogynist
C. monogamist
D. philanthropist
Q. 86 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
A system of government in which only one political party is allowed to function.
A. Oligarchy
B. Dictatorship
C. Totalitarianism
D. Theocracy
Q. 87 In this question, a sentence or a part of sentence is quoted. Below are given alternatives to the quoted part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, answer is (4)
She “cut a sad figure” in her first performance on the stage.
A. made a sorry figure
B. cut a sorry face
C. cut a sorry figure
D. no improvement
Q. 88 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.
A. ….
B. Gloomy
C. Dying
D. Superfluous
Q. 89 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.
SOOTHE
A. Agitate
B. Perturb
C. Fluster
D. Mollify
Q. 90 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.
EPITOME
A. quintessence
B. paragon
C. enlargement
D. incarnation
Q. 91 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.
GUMPTION
A. ingenuity
B. stupidity
C. sagacity
D. acumen
Q. 92 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.
The waiter hasn’t brought the coffee _________________ I’ve been here for ________________ an hour.
A. still
B. yet
C. up
D. till
Q. 93 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.
I always fall __________ old friends in times of need.
A. over
B. through
C. back on
D. off
Q. 94 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.
A person came in with a baby who, she said ______________________ a safety pin
A. swallowed
B. just swallowed
C. had just swallowed
D. …
Q. 95 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.
the monsoon did not arrive _________________ time.
A. at
B. by
C. on
D. after
Q. 96 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.
He is (1) / capable to do this work (2) / within the stipulated period. (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 97 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.
I used (1) / a pair of trousers (2) / for a week (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 98 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.
He has made a (1) / mistake of (2) / which I am certain. (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 99 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.
Good heavens! (1) / How was she (2) / grown! (3) No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 100 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.
The weather (1) / of the new place (2) / did not suit Ravi. (3) / No error (4)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | B | C | C | B | C | B |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | A | C | B | A | C | D | B | C | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | B | A | C | C | D | C | D | A | B | D |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | C | D | A | A | A | C | A | C | B |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | B | A | B | A | C | C | C | A | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | C | B | B | D | C | B | A | C | A | B |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | D | A | C | D | D | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | B | A | A | C | B | D | A | C | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | D | B | C | C | B | B | C | D | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | B | C | C | C | B | A | D | B | A |