SSC CGL Tier-I 03 September 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 3 Sep Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives :

Owl : Hoots : : Hen : ?

A. Chirps

B. Clucks

C. Coos

D. Cackles

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AKU:?: :·CMW: DN

A. BGL

B. BLQ

C. BGQ

D. BLV

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

5:100::7:?

A. 49

B. 196

C. 91

D. 135

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the · given alternatives

A. time

B. skill

C. interest

D. knowledge

 

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives

A. CPA

B. REB

C. QUD

D. AOT

 

Q. 6 Find the ocld number pair from the given alternatives

A. 15-21

B. 32-41

C. 22-27

D. 31-35

 

Q. 7 Arrange,the following words as per order in the dictionary and then choose the one which comes last.

A. Qualify

B. Quarter

C. Quarrel

D. Quaver

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing._Ghoose the correct alternative from_ the given ones that will complete the series.

DF, GJ,.KM, NQ, RT,?

A. EI

B. UX

C. UV

D. XY

 

Q. 9 A series is given, With one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

2,7, 14,2:,,34,?

A. 47

B. 39

C. 42

D. 46

 

Q. 10 A and B are standing at place “P”. They start moving in the opposite directions at the speed of 5 kmph and 4 kmph respectively. What will be the distance between them after 3 hours?

A. 3 km

B. 21 km

C. 18 km

D. 27 km

 

Q. 11 If Usha is taller than Nisha; Nisha is taller than Asha; Aika is taller then Usha; Harsha is shorter than ‘Asha; then who among them is the tallest?

A. Usha

B. Alka

C. Nisha

D. Asha

 

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters Of the given word :

DHARAMSALA

A. MASALA

B. ARAMANA

C. RAMA

D. SAHARA

 

Q. 13 If in a code GONE is written as ILPB then how may CRIB be written in that code?

A. EUKY

B. EKUY

C. EYUK

D. EOKY

 

Q. 14 In a certain code language,@ represents +, + represents -, α represents ‘+’ and – represents ‘x’. Find out the answer to the following question .

101 – 3 + 64 α 8 + 2 – 9 = ?

A. 295

B. 290

C. 209

D. 105

 

Q. 15 If 12 X 16 = 188 and 14 X 18 = 248, then find . the value of 16 x 20 =?

A. 320

B. 360

C. 316

D. 318

 

Q. 16 Find the missing number from the given alternatives

A. 60

B. 62

C. 64

D. 66

 

Q. 17 One morning, Raju walked towards the sun. After some time he turned left and again to his left. Which direction is he facing?

A. north

B. south

C. east

D. west

 

Q. 18 One or two statements are given followed by two conclusions/ assumptions, I and II.’You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given  conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.

Statement : If people are intelligent, they should be creative.

Conclusions/Assumptions:

I. Creativity and intelligence are related.

II. Creative people are intelligent

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

 

Q. 19 How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

A. 8

B. 15

C. 24

D. 30

 

Q. 20 In a village some of the gold-smiths are literates. Which diagram shows literate goldsmiths?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21  Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures fs the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabet as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., O can be represented by 03, 11, etc., and ‘F’ can be represented by 55, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEAD’

A. 97, 32, 14, 56

B. 88, 41, 20, 57

C. 57, 32, 41, 87

D. 75, 14, 20, 57

 

Q. 26 Who among the following Sikh Gurus had laid the foundation of Amritsar?

A. Guru Amar Das

B. Guru Ram Das

C. Guru Arjan Dev

D. Guru Har Govind

 

Q. 27 In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976, which word was added to the Preamble?

A. Sovereign

B. Equality

C. Secular

D. Socialist

 

Q. 28 Which monument is known as “The National Monument of India”?

A. India Gate

B. Gateway of India

C. Raj Ghat

D. Red fort

 

Q. 29 Which of the following country has recently declared 3 month emergency following a failed military coup?

A. Sudan

B. Turkey

C. Maldives

D. Syria

 

Q. 30 The award which, the famous writer and social of activist Mahasweta Devi, who passed away recently, did not win

A. Sahity Akademi Award

B. Jnanpith Award

C. Saraswati Samman

D. Padam Vibhushan

 

Q. 31 Which place is said to be the Manchester of South india?

A. Coimbatore

B. Salem

C. Thanjavur

D. Madurai

 

Q. 32 A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting with it a

A. high resistance in parallel

B. low resistance on parallel

C. high resistance on Series

D. low resistance in series

 

Q. 33 In computer processing, __ selects processes from the pool and loads them into memory for execution.

A. Job Scheduler

B. Resource Scheduler

C. CPU Scheduler

D. Process Scheduler

 

Q. 34 Name the first cricketer to score- 1000 runs in an innings in any competitive match

A. Prithvi Shaw

B. Pranav Dhanawade

C. Virat Kohli

D. Shikhar Dhawan

 

Q. 35 The beach sands of Kerala are rich in

A. calcium

B. radium

C. thorium

D. manganese

 

Q. 36 During which of the following operating conditions of an automobile, carbon monoxide content in exhaust gas is maximum?

A. Acceleration

B. Cruising

C. Idle running

D. Deacceleration

 

Q. 37 India’s first Railway University will come up at

A. Vadodara, Gujarat

B. Bengaluru, Karnataka

C. Hyderabad,Andhra Pradesh

D. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

 

Q. 38 The Himalayas is the example of

A. Fold mountains

B. Block mountains

C. Ancient mountains

D. Residual mountains

 

Q. 39 The largest irrigation canal in India is____

A. Yamuna canal

B. Indira Gandhi canal

C. Sirhand canal

D. Upper Bari Doab canal

 

Q. 40 Even after sunset, the air near the Earth’s surface continue to receive heat due to

A. insolation

B. Terrestrial Radiation

C. Conduction

D. Convection

 

Q. 41 At the Rio Olympics, who was the flagbearer of the India contingent?

A. Narsingh Yadav

B. Abhinav Bindra

C. Dipa Karunakar

D. Sania Mirza

 

Q. 42 A landscape which is caused due to the fissure in the earth along which one side has moved down with reference to the other is known as.

A. Rift Valley

B. U Shaped Valley

C. V Shaped Valley

D. Hanging Valley

 

Q. 43 The largest artery in human body is

A. Aorta

B. Capillary

C. Vena cava

D. Pulmonary vein

 

Q. 44 An eudiometer measures

A. Atmospheric pressure

B. Time

C. Volume of gases

D. Vapour pressure

 

Q. 45 Trinitrotoluene is

A. used to melt metals

B. used to fuse two metals

C. used as an abrasive

D. used as an explosive

 

Q. 46 In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by Rs. 100 it is known as

A. Disapproval of policy cut

B. Economy cut

C. Vote on Account

D. Token cut

 

Q. 47 One of the leading producers of asbestos in the world is

A. Australia

B. Russia

C. Canada

D. Armenia

 

Q. 48 Beighton Cup t.s associated With which of the following

A. Cricket

B. Hockey

C. Football

D. Volleyball

 

Q. 49 If Reserve Bank of India reduces the cash reserve ratio, it will:

A. increase credit creation

B. decrease credit creation

C. have no impact on credit creation

D. have no definite impact on credit creation

 

Q. 50 Nitrification is the biological process of converting

A. N2 into nitrate

B. N2 into nitrite

C. Ammonia into nitrite

D. Ammonia into N2

 

Q. 51 20 men working 8 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. How many hours per day must 48 men work to complete the same job in 7 days?

A. 12

B. 20

C. 10

D. 15

 

Q. 52 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral ∠DBA = 50° and ∠ADB = 33°. Then the measure of ∠BCD is 

A. 83°

B. 80°

C. 75°

D. 60°

 

Q. 53 A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price to the printed price of the book is

A. 45: 56

B. 50: 61

C. 99: 125

D. none of these

 

Q. 54 The number of pupils of a class is 55. The ratio of the number of male pupils to: the number of female pupils is 5: 6. The 11 number of female pupils is

A. 11

B. 25

C. 30

D. 35

 

Q. 55 5% more is gained by selling a watch for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340. The cost price of the watch is

A. Rs. 110

B. Rs. 140

C. Rs. 200

D. Rs. 250

 

Q. 56 If 60% of the students in a school are boys and the number of girls is 812, how many boys are there in the school?

A. 1128

B. 1218

C. 1821

D. 1281

 

Q. 57 It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and ,the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done; by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is:

A. 3:5

B. 3:4

C. 4:3

D. 4:5

 

Q. 58 If α+1/α =1. then value of (α²-α+1)/(α²+α+1) is (α≠0)

A. 1

B. -1

C. 0

D. 2

 

Q. 59 If m + n = 1, then the value of m³ + n³ + 3mn is: equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 60 The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two disjoint circles is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. Infinitely many

 

Q. 61 In figure, DE || BC. If DE = 3 cm, BC = 6 cm and area of ΔADE = 15 sq. cm, then the area of MBC is

A. 75 sq cm

B. 45 sq cm

C. 30 sq cm

D. 60 sq cm

 

Q. 62 If cos^4θ-sin^4θ=1/3, then the value of tan²θ is

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. 1/4

D. 1/5

 

Q. 63 If a perfect square, nQt divisible by 6, be divided by 6, the remainder will be

A. 1,3 or 5

B. 1, 2 or 5

C. 1, 3 or 4

D. 1, 2 or 4

 

Q. 64 A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 120, and thereby increases his average by 5. The average score after 12th innings is

A. 60

B. 55

C. 65

D. 70

 

Q. 65 The value of the root from figure is

A. 2

B. 4

C. ±2

D. -2

Q. 66 If x^4+1/x^4=119, then the value of (x-1/x) is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 11

D. 3

 

Q. 67 The side BC of MBC is extended to the point D. If ∠ACD =112° and ∠B = 3/4 ∠A.then the value of ∠B is

A. 64°

B. 48°

C. 46°

D. 50°

 

Q. 68 MBC is a right angled triangle, the radius of its circumcircle is 3 cm and the length of .Us altitude drawn from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 2 cm. Then the area of the triangle is

A. 12 sq.cm

B. 3 sq.cm

C. 6 sq.cm

D. 5 sq.cm

 

Q. 69 The height of a tower is 50√3 metre. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 50 metre from its foot is

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

 

Q. 70 The amount of Rs. 10,000 after 2 years, compounded annually with the rate of interest being 10% per annum during the first year and 12% per annum during the second year, would be (in rupees)

A. 11,320

B. 12,000

C. 12,320

D. 12,500

 

Q. 71 The value of tan80° tan 10° +sin² 70° + sin² 20° is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. √3/2

 

Question:- 72-77

The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different countries.

Study the graph carefully and answer the questions.

 

Q. 72 The average yield of the given countries is 

A. 132 1/3 kg

B. 133 1/3 kg

C. 134 1/3 kg

D. 135 1/3 kg

 

Q. 73 By how much percent is India’s per acre yield more than that of Pa!Q.stan’s?

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 33 1/3 %

D. 35%

 

Q. 74 Sri Lanka’s yield {approximately) is what percent of total yield of all the countries?

A. 17.8%

B. 16.2%

C. 18.2%

D. 15.4%

 

Q. 75 Writing the yields of all countries in ascending order, the difference between the sum of yields of first three countries to that of last three countries is

A. 200 kg

B. 212 kg

C. 172 kg

D. 162 kg

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.CUPIDITY

A. fear

B. friendship

C. greed

D. love

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

CAPTIVATE

A. Distract

B. Obscure

C. imprison

D. Release

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word

A. Clandistine

B. Clandestine

C. Clandistene

D. Clandestene

 

Question:- 79-81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have- an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No Error” option.

Q. 79 Can I have (1)/ a loaf of bread (2)/ and a jam jar? (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 80 Now that I am back at work,(1)/ I have beginning (2)/ to feel much better. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 81 The artist, plainly a better critic (1)/ than painter, destroyed what (2)/ he made over for ten years. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Question :- 82-84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled With an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative

 

Q. 82 Never give your friends _

A. the cold arm

B. the cold elbow

C. the cold shoulder

D. the cold hand

 

Q. 83 My mother upset the kettle of boiling water. and __ her hand.

A. scalded

B. scolded

C. scorched

D. wounded

 

Q. 84 His Writings are._ mistakes

A. brooded with

B. burst into

C. replete with

D. boasted of

 

Question :- 85-87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase

 

Q. 85 cat a sorry figure

A. Did not stand straight

B. Apologised for his remarks

C. Created a wrong impression

D. Made a poor impression 

 

Q. 86 To take to task

A. Forgave him

B. Slapped him

C. Gave him extra work

D. Reprimanded him

 

Q. 87 Bring to light

A. Introduced

B. Revealed

C. Seen

D. Brought to life

 

Question:- 88-90

Ouf of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

 

Q. 88 A job carrying no salary

A. Honorory

B. Memento

C. Honorarium

D. Memorandium

 

Q. 89 Act of stealing something in small quantities

A. Pillage

B. Plagiarise

C. Proliferate

D. Pilferage

 

Q. 90 Pertaining to the west

A. Celestial

B. Occidental

C. Oriental

D. Terrestrial

 

Question:-91-95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Four alternatives are’ given to the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed; choose the alternative corresponding to “No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 As soon as I arrived in home, l knew that something was wrong

A. arrived by home

B. arrived home

C. arrived my home

D. no improvement

 

Q. 92 Unfortunately I did not pass in the examination

A. I did not pass over

B. I did not overcome

C. I did not pass

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 His powerful desire brought about his downfall

A. His wishful desire

B. His desire for power

C. His seager desire

D. no improvement

 

Q. 94 Ramesh laid in the shade of a tree before he could walk further

A. lied

B. lay

C. lain

D. no improvement

 

Q. 95 An education in handling money would Imply the ability to oversee, the consequences of overspending or over-borrowing.

A. foresee

B. overlook

C. overvalue

D. no improvement

 

Question :- 96-100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

A knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged ·Studying grammar means hard work : it must be learned as a whole with no part omitted. and it demands much thought and patience. But, once acquired, it can give a lifetime’s pleasure and profit. Its study requires no physical hardship, no special room or expenses. If people spent only their leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year. The author learned it in less than a year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or oil; he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no outside encouragement, then any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same. 

 

Q. 96 Why should we learn grammar?

A. To develop speaking skills

B. To develop writing skills

C. To have a mastery over language

D. To acquire good speaking and writing skills

 

Q. 97 How does the world judge a man’s mind?

A. By his dress

B. By his manners

C. By his appearance

D. By his speech and writing

 

Q. 98 How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar

A. 1year

B. 6 months

C. 2 years

D. 10 months

 

Q. 99 What is the occupation of the writer?

A. teacher

B. soldier

C. artist

D. clerk

 

Q. 100 The learning of grammar should be

A. patient, thoughtful and holistic

B. thoughtful, patient and piecemeal

C. holistic, thoughtful and rapid

D. thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B D B A D A D B A D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B B D A C C D C D B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A D D D C B A A B C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C A B C C A A B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B A A C D D B B A C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C A A C C B B C B C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A C C A D B C C C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C D B B C C A B C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C A C C D B A D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B C B B A D D A B A

 

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