SBI PO 2011 Mains
|
Section |
Questions |
Marks |
|
Logical Reasoning |
50 Questions (1 – 50) |
50 |
|
Quantitative Aptitude |
20 Questions (51 – 70) |
20 |
|
Data Interpretation |
30 Questions (71 – 100) |
30 |
|
General Knowledge |
50 Questions (101 – 150) |
50 |
|
English |
50 Questions (151 – 200) |
50 |
Questions: 1 – 3
Directions (Q 1-3) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
Q. 1 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –
A. Break
B. Change
C. Split
D. Divide
E. Separate
Q. 2 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –
A. Train
B. Instruct
C. Educate
D. Advocate
E. Coach
Q. 3 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –
A. Extend
B. Higher
C. Upward
D. Rise
E. Ascend
Q. 4 Which of the following symbols should replace question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘A>D’ and ‘F>C’ definitely true?
A>B≥C?D≤E=F
A. >
B. <
C. ≤
D. =
E. Either = or ≥
Q. 5 Which of the following expressions is definitely true if the given expressions ‘RQ’ are definitely true?
A. P>Q=R≤T<S
B. S>T≥R>Q<P
C. Q>R≤T>P≥S
D. S>T≥R>Q>P
E. None of these
Q. 6 Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
‘A x B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’
What will come in place of question mark to establish that P is the son-in law of S in the following expression?
P x Q + R – T ? S
A. +
B. x
C. –
D. ÷
E. Either + or ÷
Questions: 7 – 12
Directions (Q 7-12) :
Study the following information to answer the given questions :
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1: P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits third to the right of Q. Either S or W sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces Q sits second to the right of E. Two people sit between B and F. Neither B nor F sits at an extreme end of the line. The immediate neighbor of B faces the person who sits third to the left of P. R and T are immediate neighbors. C sits second to the left of A. T does not face the immediate neighbor of D.
Q. 7 Who amongst the following sit at the extreme ends of the rows?
A. S, D
B. Q, A
C. V, C
D. P, D
E. Q, F
Q. 8 Who amongst the following faces S?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. F
Q. 9 How many persons are seated between V and R?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these
Q. 10 P is related to A in the same way as S is related to B based on the given arrangement. Which f the following is T related to following the same pattern?
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. F
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 11 Which of the following is true regarding T?
A. F faces T
B. V is an immediate neighbor of T
C. F faces the one who is second to the right of T
D. T sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
E. Q sits second to the right of T
Q. 12 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. A-T
B. B-T
C. F-P
D. C-V
E. E-Q
Questions: 13 – 17
Directions (Q 13-17) :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Q. 13 Which bag amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest?
I. Bag Q is heavier than R and S. Bag T is heavier than only bag P.
II. Only three bags are lighter than R. the weight of bag Q is 50 kg, which is 2 kg more than bag R.
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data in either statement I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q. 14 Are all five friends – A, B, C, D and E – who are seated around a circular table facing the centre?
I. A sits to the left of B. B faces the centre. D and E are immediate neighbors of each other. C sits second to the right of E.
II. D sits second to right of C. C faces the centre. Both E and A are immediate neighbors of D. B sits second to the right of A.
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q. 15 In a college, five different subjects viz Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and Mathematics are taught on five different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Friday. Is Chemistry taught on Wednesday?
I. Two subjects are taught between Zoology and Mathematics. Mathematics is taught before Zoology. Chemistry is taught on the day immediately next to the day when Physics is taught. Botany is not taught on Friday.
II. Three lectures are scheduled between the lectures of Botany and Zoology. Mathematics is taught immediately before Physics.
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q. 16 Is it 9 o’clock now?
I. After half an hour, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make an angle of exactly 90° with each other.
II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands of the clock coincided with each other.
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q. 17 Is F granddaughter of B?
I. B is the father of M. M is the sister of T. T is the mother of F.
II. S is the son of F. V is the daughter of F. R is the brother of T.
A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question
D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Questions: 18 – 20
Directions (Q 18 -20) :
Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers and are arranged as per some logic based on the value of the number) Input: win 56 32 93 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance
Step I : 93 56 32 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance win
Step II : 11 93 56 32 bat for 46 28 give chance win him
Step III : 56 11 93 32 bat for 46 28 chance win him give
Step IV : 28 56 11 93 32 bat 46 chance win him give for
Step V : 46 28 56 11 93 32 bat win him five for chance bat
Step VI is the last step of the arrangement in the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions :
Input : fun 89 at the 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68
(All numbers given in the arrangement are 2 digit numbers)
Q. 18 Which of the following would be step II?
A. 89 fun at 28 base camp 35 53 here 68 the
B. 35 53 28 68 16 89 the here fun camp base at
C. 16 89 at fun 28 camp base 35 53 68 the here
D. 53 28 68 16 89 35 the here fun camp base at
E. None of these
Q. 19 Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left in step IV?
A. base
B. at
C. 35
D. The
E. 53
Q. 20 Which step number would be the following output?
53 28 68 16 89 at 35 the here fun camp base
A. There will be no such step
B. III
C. II
D. V
E. IV
Questions: 21 – 27
Directions (Q 21-27) :
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight colleagues A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them holds a different post – Manager, Company Secretary, Chairman, President, Vice President, Group Leader, Financial Advisor and Managing Director. A sits third to the right of the Managing Director. Only two people sit between the Managing Director and H. The Vice President and the Company Secretary are immediate neighbors. Neither A nor H is a Vice President or a Company Secretary. The Vice President is not an immediate neighbor of the Managing Director. The Manager sits second to the left of E. E is not an immediate neighbor of H. The Manager is an immediate neighbor of both the Group Leader and the Financial Advisor. The Financial Advisor sits third to the right of B. B is not the Vice President. C sits on the immediate right of the Chairman. A is not the Chairman. F is not an immediate neighbor of A. G is not an immediate neighbor of the Manager.
Q. 21 Who amongst the following sits third to the left of E?
A. Manager
B. G
C. A
D. Financial advisor
E. B
Q. 22 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. F – Chairman
B. G – President
C. D – Manager
D. A – Financial Advisor
E. B – Managing Director
Q. 23 Who among the following is the President of the company?
A. A
B. C
C. H
D. G
E. D
Q. 24 Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
A. The Group Leader of the company is an immediate neighbor of the Vice President
B. G sits second to the right of D
C. The Group Leader and the Company Secretary are immediate neighbors
D. The Chairman of the company sits to the immediate left of the Managing Director
E. The Group Leader sits second to the left of D
Q. 25 Which of the following post does B hold in the company?
A. Chairman
B. Manager
C. Company Secretary
D. Vice President
E. Financial Advisor
Q. 26 Who among the following sits exactly between the Managing Director and H?
A. H and the Chairman
B. B and G
C. The Chairman and C
D. F and C
E. E and the Group Leader
Q. 27 Who among the following is the Group Leader?
A. C
B. F
C. G
D. H
E. A
Questions: 28 – 31
Directions (Q 28-31) :
Read the following information and the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) given below and answer the questions that follow:
A host of foreign companies are in talks with the Indian government for selling B150, a tough, short-haul plane ideal for connectivity of smaller towns which is lacking in India at present.
(A) B150 planes have not only low operating costs than competing planes like Cezana but also a much better track record in terms of safety and efficiency
(B) The profit margin of road transport operators in the smaller towns connected by B150 planes has been reduced substantially as a majority of people prefer air transport over other means of transport
(C) Smaller towns, at present, are better connected by roads and railways as compared to flight services
(D) B150 planes are capable of operating in sectors where large airlines cannot fly due to challenging conditions such as mist, short runways, etc. Such planes can also double as cargo planes and charter flights for the rich and the elite.
(E) B150 planes need to operate in the existing airports which are suited in bigger cities only and are poorly connected to the smaller cities.
Q. 28 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred from the facts/information given in the statement? (An interference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts)
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. Both B and D
E. Only E
Q. 29 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would weaken the offer made by the foreign companies for selling B150 planes to Indian government?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 30 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a possible consequence of the success B150 planes in smaller cities?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Q. 31 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) would favor the foreign companies; bid to sell B150 planes in India?
A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Both B and C
D. Both A and D
E. Both E and C
Questions: 32 – 37
Directions (Q 32-37) :
Study the following information to answer the given questions :
In a certain code, ‘always create new ideas’ is written as ‘ba ri sha gi’. ‘ideas and new thoughts’ is written as ‘fa gi ma ri’, ‘create thoughts and insights’ is written as ‘ma job a fa’ and ‘new and better solutions is written as ‘ki ri to fa’.
Q. 32 What is the code for ‘ideas’?
A. sha
B. ba
C. gi
D. ma
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 33 What does ‘fa’ stand for?
A. Thoughts
B. Insights
C. New
D. And
E. Solutions
Q. 34 ‘fa lo ba’ could be a code for which of the following?
A. Thoughts and action
B. Create and innovate
C. Ideas and thoughts
D. Create new solutions
E. Always better ideas
Q. 35 What is the code for ‘new’?
A. ki
B. ri
C. to
D. fa
E. ba
Q. 36 Which of the following may represent ‘insights always better’?
A. jo ki to
B. ki to ri
C. sha jo ri
D. to sha jo
E. sha to ba
Q. 37 What is the code for ‘thoughts’?
A. ma
B. fa
C. ba
D. jo
E. Either jo or fa
Q. 38 Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
All existing and upcoming hotels within a 5 km radius of national parks and sanctuaries in India will have to pay 30% of their annual turnover as tax to the government.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the facts/information given in the above statements?
A. The tax collected from the hotels will be used for the betterment of these national parks and sanctuaries
B. Hotels which are sponsored by the government will not have to pay any tax even if these are located within 5 km radius of such wildlife hotspots
C. The ecosystem of the national parks and sanctuaries is adversely affected even if the hotels are located outside the 5 km radius
D. Government allows construction of hotels within 5 km radius of national parks and sanctuaries
E. Such a step is taken by the environment ministry to boost eco-tourism and perk up revenue collection of State governments
Q. 39 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
Tenants’ associations have demanded a ‘vacancy tax’ on all vacant and unsold flats in Mumbai. Which of the following would support the demand made by the tenants’ association?
A. House owners too have demanded for laws that make it easier to evict tenants who default on rent payment
B. Such a tax law would be difficult to implement as it would be difficult to record the number of vacant flats in the city
C. People with surplus money buy many houses and rent these out while many consumers cannot afford even their first house
D. The number of vacant flats in Mumbai is lower than other metros such as Delhi and Chennai where vacancy tax already exists
E. Such a tax would compel the house owners to sell/rent properties which in turn would control hoarding and skyrocketing property prices
Questions: 40 – 45
Directions (Q 40-45) :
In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. 40 Statements :
All rings are circles
All squares are rings
No ellipse is a circle
Conclusions :
I. Some rings being ellipses is a possibility
II. At least some circles are squares
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 41 Statements :
No house is an apartment
Some bungalows are apartments
Conclusions :
I. No house is a bungalow
II. All bungalow are houses
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 42 Statements :
Some gases are liquids
All liquids are water
Conclusions :
I. All gases being water is a possibility
II. All such gases which are not water can never be liquids
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 43 Statements :
All minutes are seconds
All seconds are hours
No second is a day
Conclusions :
I. No day is an hour
II. At least some hours are minutes
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 44 Statements :
Some teachers are professors
Some lecturers are teachers
Conclusions :
I. All teachers as well as professors being lecturers is a possibility
II. All those teachers who are lecturers are also professors
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 45 Statements :
Some teachers are professors
Some lecturers are teachers
Conclusions :
I. No professor is a lecturer
II. All lecturers being professors is a possibility
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
Q. 46 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 47 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 48 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 49 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Q. 50 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Questions: 51 – 55
Directions (Q 51-55) :
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q. 51 32.05% of 259.99 = ?
A. 92
B. 88
C. 8
D. 90
E. 83
Q. 52 1/8 of 2/3 of 3/5 of 1715 = ?
A. 80
B. 85
C. 90
D. 95
E. 75
Q. 53 25.05 x 123.95 + 388.999 x 15.001 = ?
A. 900
B. 8950
C. 8935
D. 8975
E. 8995
Q. 54 561 ÷ 35.05 x 19.99 = ?
A. 320
B. 330
C. 315
D. 325
E. 335
Q. 55 (15.01)² x √730 = ?
A. 6125
B. 6225
C. 6200
D. 6075
E. 6250
Questions: 56 – 60
Directions (Q 56-60) :
In each of these questions, a number series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Q. 56 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12
A. 3602
B. 1803
C. 604
D. 154
E. 36
Q. 57 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511
A. 12
B. 42
C. 1005
D. 196
E. 6066
Q. 58 2 8 12 20 30 42 56
A. 8
B. 42
C. 30
D. 20
E. 12
Q. 59 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5
A. 945
B. 16
C. 24
D. 210
E. 65
Q. 60 7 13 25 49 97 194 385
A. 13
B. 49
C. 97
D. 194
E. 25
Q. 61 Mr X invested a certain amount in Debt and Equity Funds in the ratio of 4:5. At the end of one year, he earned a total dividend of 30% on his investment. After one year, he reinvested the amount including the dividend in the ratio of 6:7 in Debt and Equity Funds. If the amount reinvested in Equity Funds was ₹94,500, what was the original amount invested in Equity Funds?
A. ₹75,000
B. ₹81,000
C. ₹60,000
D. ₹65,000
E. None of these
Q. 62 The age of the father is 30 years more than the son’s age. Ten years hence, the father’s age will become three times the son’s age that time. What is the son’s present age in years?
A. Eight
B. Seven
C. Five
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Q. 63 If the length of a rectangular field is increased by 20% and the breadth is reduced by 20%, the area of the rectangle will be 192 m². What is the area of the original rectangle?
A. 184 m²
B. 196 m²
C. 204 m²
D. 225 m²
E. None of these
Q. 64 The product of one-third of a number and 150% of another number is what percent of the product of the original numbers?
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 120%
E. None of these
Q. 65 Inside a square plot, a circular garden is developed which exactly fits in the square plot and the diameter of the garden is equal to the side of the square plot which is 28 meters. What is the area of the space left out in the square plot after developing the garden?
A. 98 m²
B. 146 m²
C. 84 m²
D. 168 m²
E. None of these
Q. 66 Amit and Sujit together can complete an assignment of data entry in five days. Sujit’s speed is 80% of Amit’s speed and the total key depressions in the assignment are 5,76,000. What is Amit’s speed in key depressions per hour if they work for 8 hours a day?
A. 4800
B. 6400
C. 8000
D. 7200
E. None of these
Q. 67 Out of five girls and three boys, four children are to be randomly selected for a quiz
contest. What is the probability that all the selected children are girls?
A. 1/14
B. 1/7
C. 5/17
D. 2/17
E. None of these
Q. 68 Profit earned by an organization is distributed among officers and clerks in the ratio of 5:3. If the number of officers is 45 and the number of clerks is 80 and the amount received by each officer is ₹25,000, what was the total amount of profit earned?
A. ₹22 lakh
B. ₹18.25 lakh
C. ₹18 lakh
D. ₹23.25 lakh
E. None of these
Q. 69 A shopkeeper labeled the price of his articles so as to earn a profit of 30% on the cost price. He then sold the articles by offering a discount of 10% on the labeled price. What is the actual percent profit earned in the deal?
A. 18%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Q. 70 Mr Shamin’s salary increases every year by 10% in June. If there is no other increase or reduction in the salary and his salary in June 2011 was ₹22,385, what was his salary in June 2009?
A. ₹18,650
B. ₹18,000
C. ₹19,250
D. ₹18,500
E. None of these
Questions: 71 – 75
Directions (Q 71-75) :
In each of these questions, one question is given followed by data in three statements I, II and III. You have to study the question and the data in statements and decide the question can be answered with data in which of the statements and mark your answer accordingly.
Q. 71 What is the rate of interest pcpa?
Statements :
I. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest earned in two years on the amount invested is ₹100.
II. The amount becomes ₹19,500 in three years on simple interest
III. The simple interest accrued in two years on the same amount at the same rate of interest is ₹3,000.
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and either II or III
E. None of these
Q. 72 What is the speed of the train in kmph?
Statements :
I. The train crosses an ‘x’ meter-long platform in ‘n’ seconds
II. The length of the train is ‘y’ meters
III. The train crosses a signal pole in ‘m’ seconds
A. Any two of the three
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. All I, II and III
E. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements
Q. 73 How many students passed in first class?
Statements :
I. 85% of the students who appeared in examination have passed either in first class or in second class or in pass class
II. 750 students have passed in second class
III. The number of students who passed in pass class is 28% of those passed in second class
A. All I, II and III
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements
E. None of these
Q. 74 What is the amount invested in Scheme ‘B’?
Statements :
I. The amounts invested in Schemes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are in the ratio 2:3
II. The amount invested in Scheme ‘A’ is 40% of the total amount invested
III. The amount invested in Scheme ‘A’ is ₹45,000
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. All I, II and III
E. Only III and either I or II
Q. 75 What is the cost of flooring a rectangular hall?
Statements :
I. The length of the rectangle is 6 meters
II. The breadth of the rectangle is two-thirds of its length
III. The cost of flooring the area of 100 cm² is ₹45
A. Only I and III
B. Only II and III
C. All I, II and III
D. Question cannot be answered even with data in all three statements
E. None of these
Questions: 76 – 83
Directions (Q 76-83) :
Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Q. 76 If the profit earned in 2006 by Company B was ₹8,12,500, what was the total income of the company in that year?
A. ₹12,50,000
B. ₹20,62,500
C. ₹16,50,000
D. ₹18,25,000
E. None of these
Q. 77 If the amount invested by the two companies in 2005 was equal, what was the ratio of the total income of the Company A to that of B in 2005?
A. 31:33
B. 33:31
C. 34:31
D. 14:11
E. None of these
Q. 78 If the total amount invested by the two companies in 2009 was ₹27 lakh, while the amount invested by Company B was 50% of the amount invested by Company A, what was the total profit earned by the two companies together?
A. ₹21.15 lakh
B. ₹20.70 lakh
C. ₹18.70 lakh
D. ₹20.15 lakh
E. None of these
Q. 79 If the income of Company A in 2007 and that in 2008 were equal and the amount invested in 2007 was ₹12 lakh, what was the amount invested in 2008?
A. ₹10,87,500
B. ₹10,85,700
C. ₹12,45,000
D. ₹12,85,000
E. None of these
Q. 80 If the amount of profit earned by Company A in 2006 was ₹10.15 lakh, what was the total investement?
A. ₹13.8 lakh
B. ₹14.9 lakh
C. ₹15.4 lakh
D. ₹14.2 lakh
E. None of these
Q. 81 If the amount invested by Company B in 2004 is ₹12 lakh and the income of 2004 is equal to the investment in 2005, what is the amount of profit earned in 2005 by Company B?
A. ₹6.6 lakh
B. ₹18.6 lakh
C. ₹10.23 lakh
D. ₹9.6 lakh
E. None of these
Q. 82 If the investments of Company A in 2007 and 2008 were equal, what is the difference between the profits earned in the two years if the income in 2008 was ₹24 lakh?
A. ₹2.25 lakh
B. ₹3.6 lakh
C. ₹1.8 lakh
D. ₹2.6 lakh
E. None of these
Q. 83 If each of the companies A and B invested ₹25 lakh in 2010, what was the average profit earned by the two companies?
A. ₹18 lakh
B. ₹22.5 lakh
C. ₹17.5 lakh
D. ₹20 lakh
E. None of these
Questions: 84 – 90
Directions (Q 84-90) :
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Q. 84 From State B, which post had the highest percentage of candidates short listed?
A. V
B. IV
C. VI
D. II
E. None of these
Q. 85 What is the average number of candidates (approximately) found eligible for Post III from all states?
A. 6700
B. 6200
C. 4200
D. 4500
E. 5500
Q. 86 What is the overall percentage (rounded off to one digit after decimal) of candidates shortlisted over the total number of candidates eligible for Post I from all the States together?
A. 9.5%
B. 12.5%
C. 7.2%
D. 6.5%
E. None of these
Q. 87 What is the ratio of the total number of candidates short-listed for all the posts together from State E to that from State G?
A. 307:369
B. 73:79
C. 6:5
D. 9:7
E. None of these
Q. 88 The total number of candidates found eligible for Post I from all states together is approximately what percent of the total number of candidates found eligible for Post VI from all States together?
A. 45%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 55%
E. 65%
Q. 89 Which state had the lowest percentage of candidates short listed with respect to candidate eligible for Post IV?
A. G
B. F
C. E
D. C
E. None of these
Q. 90 What is the ratio of the total number of candidates short listed for Post V to that for post VI from all states together?
A. 6:7
B. 55:96
C. 165:278
D. 16:25
E. None of these
Questions: 91 – 95
Directions (Q 91-95) :
These questions are based on the following data. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In s school having 400 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 3:5. The students speak Hindi, English or both the languages. 12% of the boys speak only Hindi. 22% of the girls speak only English. 24% of the total students speak only Hindi and the number of boys speaking both the languages is six times the number of boys speaking only Hindi.
Q. 91 How many boys speak Hindi?
A. 18
B. 126
C. 108
D. 26
E. None of these
Q. 92 How many girls speak only Hindi?
A. 55
B. 117
C. 96
D. 78
E. None of these
Q. 93 How many students speak English?
A. 304
B. 79
C. 225
D. 117
E. None of these
Q. 94 The number of girls speaking only Hindi is what percent of the total number of students speaking only Hindi?
A. 38.2%
B. 71.8%
C. 31.2%
D. 78%
E. None of these
Q. 95 What is the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls speaking both the
Languages?
A. 23:25
B. 12:25
C. 12:13
D. 25:13
E. None of these
Q. 96 The area of the circle is 616 cm². What is the area of the rectangle? ( ● or ‘dot’ indicates centre of the circle)
A. 784 cm²
B. 196 cm²
C. 392 cm²
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Q. 97 What is the average female population in million?
A. 8.32
B. 8.86
C. 8.68
D. 9.12
E. None of these
Q. 98 What is the percent rise in production in 2007 from 2006? (Round off to two digits after decimal)
A. 28.18%
B. 18.18%
C. 16.28%
D. 26.18%
E. None of these
Q. 99 Out of a total 550 students, how many students did not prefer Maths or Economics?
A. 462
B. 154
C. 196
D. 396
E. None of these
Q. 100 What is the difference (in ₹ lakh) between the average salary and the lowest salary?
A. 4.2
B. 2.65
C. 3.65
D. 4.06
E. None of these
Q. 101 A major Public Sector Bank raised interest rates on loans by 25 basis points – was newsin some major financial newspapers recently. This means the bank has raised interest by 25 basis points of
A. Savings Bank Interest Rate
B. Base Lending Rate
C. Repo Rates
D. Present Rates on Deposits
E. Discounted Rates of Interest
Q. 102 The Finance Minister of India in one of his press conferences said that inflationary pressure is likely to continue following recent increase in rates of some commodities in international markets. Which of the following commodities was he referring to as it gets frequent increase at international levels and disturbs our Home Economy substantially?
A. Gold and Silver
B. Petroleum Products
C. Tea and Coffee
D. Sugar
E. Jute and Jute products
Q. 103 Immediately prior to change in the measure of Food Inflation, which of the following indexes was being used for measuring it?
A. Wholesale Price Index
B. Consumer Price Index
C. Interest Rates offered by banks on deposits
D. Sensex and Nifty
E. None of these
Q. 104 What is the full form of ‘FINO’, a term we see frequently in financial newspapers?
A. Financial investment Network and Operations
B. Farmer’s Investment in National Organisation
C. Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
D. Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
E. None of these
Q. 105 Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/poor in India?
(A) Fertilizer
(B) Kerosene
(C) LPG
A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (A) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 106 ‘Bhagyam Oilfields’, which were recently in news, are located in which of the following states in India?
A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat
C. Assam
D. Maharashtra
E. Karnataka
Q. 107 The Finance Minister of India recently decided to review the position of ‘Bad Debts’ in priority sector. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) owing to which FM took this Decision?
(A) Bad Debt in agriculture is still rising substantially every year despite special treatment to it
(B) Bad Debt in other areas of priority sector is almost nil now
(C) Govt. is planning to disburse another installment of ₹1,60,000 crore, which will bring ‘Bad Debts’ almost at ‘Nil level’ and no special treatment will be needed in next fiscal year
A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Both (A) and (B)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 108 Which amongst the following countries is NOT a member of the TAPI pipeline project, which was in news recently?
A. India
B. Afghanistan
C. Portugal
D. Pakistan
E. Turkmenistan
Q. 109 An agreement on Arms Reduction popularly known as ‘START’ is one of the major issues in the way of smooth relations between which of the following two countries?
A. India-Pakistan
B. India-China
C. China-Japan
D. USA-Russia
E. Russia-Iran
Q. 110 The International WWW Conference – 2011 was organized in which of the following places in March 2011?
A. London
B. Paris
C. Vienna
D. Manila
E. Hyderabad
Q. 111 Which of the following international agencies/organizations had initiated an ‘International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance’, which came into effect recently?
A. World Health Organisation (WHO)
B. International Court of Justice
C. International Maritime Organisation
D. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
E. United Nations Organisation (UNO)
Q. 112 ‘BRIC’ which was the organization of 4 nations, namely Brazil, Russia, India and China, has now become ‘BRICS’. Which is the fifth nation in it?
A. South Korea
B. Sri Lanka
C. Singapore
D. Spain
E. South Africa
Q. 113 The process of acquisition of agricultural land and its compensation to farmers recently came up as a major issue in which of the following states? (It also created law and order problem in the state)
A. Haryana
B. Gujarat
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
E. Punjab
Q. 114 What does the letter ‘L’ denote in the term ‘LAF’ as referred every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the RBI?
A. Liquidity
B. Liability
C. Leveraged
D. Longitudinal
E. Linear
Q. 115 BP Plc, which was in news recently, is a major international company in the field of
A. Heavy Machinery
B. Oil exploration and processing
C. Atomic Energy
D. Information Technology
E. None of these
Q. 116 Who amongst the following has been appointed the new coach of the Indian Cricket team for a period of two years?
A. Stuart Law
B. Allan Border
C. Gary Kirsten
D. Duncan Fletcher
E. Allan Donald
Q. 117 Why was Kanishtha Dhankar’s name in news recently?
A. She was crowned Femina Miss India 2011
B. She was adjudged Best Actress 2010 by Film fare
C. She is the new captain of India’s woman cricket team
D. She has become the new Dy Minister of Textile in place of Dayanidhi Maran
E. None of these
Q. 118 K Balachander, who was awarded prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2010, is basically a/an
A. Actor
B. Director
C. Photographer
D. Music Director
E. Choreographer
Q. 119 Banks and other financial institutions in India are required to maintain a certain amount of liquid assets like cash, precious metals and other short-term securities as a reserve all the time. In Banking World, this is known as
A. CRR
B. Fixed Asset
C. SLR
D. PLR
E. None of these
Q. 120 Which of the following space agencies recently launched three satellites and placed them into Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit successfully?
A. NASA
B. ROSCOSMOS
C. cnsa
D. ISRO
E. JAXA
Q. 121 As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India recently, “Bamboo is a liberated item now”. What does it really mean?
(A) Bamboo, henceforth, will be treated as a minor forest produce only
(B) Now villagers are free to sell bamboo in their community forest areas
(C) Gram Sabha has been given right to issue transport passes to legally transport the produce
A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Q. 122 Union Cabinet recently passed a ₹7000-crore project to clean up which of the following rivers in India?
A. Narmada
B. Ravi
C. Ganga
D. Chambal
E. Krishna
Q. 123 As per estimates of the Planning Commission of India, the target growth rate of 12th Five Year Plan is set at
A. 7 to 8%
B. 8.0 to 8.5%
C. 9 to 9.5%
D. 10 to 10.5%
E. 11%
Q. 124 Goodluck Jonathan was recently re-elected the President of
A. South Africa
B. Nigeria
C. Kosovo
D. Haiti
E. None of these
Q. 125 Which of the following schemes has NOT been launched by the Ministry of Rural
Development, Govt. of India?
A. National Old Age Pension Scheme
B. National Maternity Benefit Scheme
C. National Family Benefit Scheme
D. Mid-day Meal Scheme
E. All are launched by Ministry of Rural Development
Q. 126 Where are you likely to find an embedded operating system?
A. On a desktop operating system
B. On a networked PC
C. On a networked Server
D. On a PDA
E. On a mainframe
Q. 127 An online discussion group that allows direct “live” communication is known as
A. Webcrawler
B. Chat group
C. Regional service provider
D. Hyperlink
E. E-mail
Q. 128 Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different approaches to identify and eliminate spam?
A. Directory search
B. Anti-spam program
C. Web server
D. Web storefront creation package
E. Virus
Q. 129 Connection or link to other documents or Web Pages that contain related information is called
A. Dial-up
B. Electronic commerce
C. Hyperlink
D. E-cash
E. Domain name
Q. 130 Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets?
A. Java
B. Cable
C. Domain name
D. Net
E. COBOL
Q. 131 The system unit
A. Coordinates input and output devices
B. Is the container that houses electronic components
C. Is a combination of hardware and software
D. Controls and manipulates data
E. Does the arithmetic operations
Q. 132 System software
A. Allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the device
B. Is a programming language
C. Is part of a productivity suite
D. Is an optional form of software
E. Helps the computer manage internal resources
Q. 133 Computer and communication technology, such as communication links to the Internet, that provide help and understanding to the end user is known as
A. Presentation file
B. Information technology
C. Program
D. Worksheet file
E. FTP
Q. 134 Which of the following is contained on chips connected to the system board and is a holding area for data instructions and information? (processed data waiting to be output
to secondary storage)
A. Program
B. Mouse
C. Internet
D. Memory
E. Modem
Q. 135 Microsoft’s Messenger allows users to
A. Bypass a browser to surf the Web
B. Create a blog
C. Communicate via direct live communication
D. Identify and eliminate spam
E. Make graphic presentations
Q. 136 Portable computer, also known as a laptop computer, weighing between 4 and 10 pounds is called
A. General-purpose application
B. Internet
C. Scanner
D. Printer
E. Notebook computer
Q. 137 The main circuit-board of the system unit is the
A. Computer program
B. Control unit
C. Motherboard
D. RAM
E. None of these
Q. 138 Which of the following is billionth of a second?
A. Gigabyte
B. Terabyte
C. Nanosecond
D. Microsecond
E. Terasecond
Q. 139 Online Marketing is the function of which of the following?
A. Purchase section
B. Production Department
C. IT Department
D. Designs Section
E. A collective function of all staff
Q. 140 Customization is useful for
A. Designing customer specific products
B. Call centers
C. Publicity
D. Motivating the staff
E. Cold calls
Q. 141 The key challenge to market-driven strategy is
A. Selling maximum products
B. Employing maximum DSAs
C. Delivering superior value to customers
D. Being rigid to changes
E. Adopting short-term vision
Q. 142 Effective selling skills depends on
A. Size of the sales team
B. Age of the sales team
C. Peer strength
D. Knowledge level of the sales team
E. Educational level of the sales team
Q. 143 Generation of sales leads can be improved by
A. Being very talkative
B. Increasing personal and professional contacts
C. Being passive
D. Engaging Recovery Agents
E. Product Designs
Q. 144 A Market Plan is
A. Performance Appraisal of marketing staff
B. Company Prospectus
C. Documented marketing strategies
D. Business targets
E. Call centre
Q. 145 Marketing channels mean
A. Delivery objects
B. Sales targets
C. Delivery outlets
D. Delivery boys
E. Sales teams
Q. 146 Social Marketing means
A. Share market prices
B. Marketing by the entire society
C. Internet Marketing
D. Marketing for a social cause
E. Society bylaws
Q. 147 Service Marketing is the same as
A. Internet Marketing
B. Telemarketing
C. Internal Marketing
D. Relationship Marketing
E. Transaction Marketing
Q. 148 Market-driven strategies include
A. Identifying problems
B. Planning marketing tactics of peers
C. Positioning the Organisation and its brands in the marketplace
D. Internal marketing
E. Selling old products
Q. 149 Innovation in marketing is same as
A. Motivation
B. Perspiration
C. Aspiration
D. Creativity
E. Team work
Q. 150 Personal Loans can be canvassed among
A. Salaried persons
B. Pensioners
C. Foreign Nationals
D. NRI customers
E. Non-customers
Questions: 151 – 160
Directions (Q 151-160) :
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
Certain words/phrases have been given in quotes to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Jagir Singh has sold red onions at a market in south Delhi everyday for the past half-century. Perched on an upturned crate, wrapped tight against the chill air, he offers pyaz, a staple for much Indian cooking, for 60 rupees a kilo, the most he can remember. Business is brisk but most customers pick up only a small handful of onions. That is just as well. Wholesale supplies are “tight”, he says, and the quality is poor. As India’s economy grows by some 9% a year, food prices are soaring. In late December, the commerce ministry judged that food inflation had reached 18.3%, with pricey vegetables mostly to blame. Officials have made some attempts to “temper” the rise in the past month – scrapping import taxes for onions, banning their export and ordering low-priced sales at government-run shops. But there is no quick fix. Heavy rain in the west of India brought a roten harvest. Vegetables from farther afield – including a politically sensitive delivery from a neighbouring country – are costly to move on India’s crowded, pot-holed roads. Few refrigerated lorries and poor logistics mean that much of each harvest is wasted. Newspapers allege hoarders are “cashing in”. The biggest problems are structural. Food producers, hampered by land restrictions, “archaic” retail networks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet extra demand from consumers. It was estimated in October that a 39% rise in income per person in the previous five years might have created an extra 220 million regular consumers of milk, eggs, meat and fish. Supplies have not kept up with this potential demand. The broader inflation rate may be a less eye-watering problem than the onions suggest. The central bank has lifted interest rates steadily in the past year and is expected to do so again later this month. Headline inflation fell to 7.5% in November, down by just over a percentage point from October, though it is still above the central bank’s forecast of 5.5% for March.
Q. 151 What is responsible for the increased demand of certain food items amongst consumers?
A. There has been an increase in the wholesale supplies of this food stuff
B. The vegetables in the market are highly priced
C. There has been an increase in the incomes of people
D. There is a lack of availability of vegetables in the market
E. There has been a surge in population
Q. 152 Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
A. The overall inflation is not as bad as the food inflation in India
B. Help from other countries to counter food inflation has proved to be quite encouraging
C. Government is banning the export of certain types of vegetables in order to check food inflation
D. Highly priced vegetables are mostly responsible for the increased food inflation
E. All the above statements are true
Q. 153 Which of the following is/are the reason/s for increase in food/vegetable prices?
(A) Bad weather
(B) Land restrictions
(C) Poor infrastructure for storage and transportations
A. Only (B)
B. Only (A) and (C)
C. Only (A) and (B)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 154 Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) Interest rates are being raised in India
(B) India is witnessing a steady economic growth
(C) It has been proven that the food inflation is mainly because of hoarding
A. All (A), (B) and (C)
B. Only (A) and (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. None is true
Q. 155 Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. Food Inflation in India
B. Onions and Vendors
C. Food Deficit Worldwide
D. Food Imports in India
E. Benefits to Indian Consumers
Q. 156 What can be said about the sale of onions at present as given in the passage?
A. Vegetables vendors are unwilling to sell onions
B. People are not buying as much as they used to
C. The sale of onions has picked up and is unprecedented
D. People are buying more onions than they used to
E. None of these
Q. 157 The usage of the phrase “cashing in” in the passage can possible mean
A. Profiting
B. Running away
C. Paying money
D. Bailing out
E. Buffering
Q. 158 Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word “tight” as used in the passage?
A. Firm
B. Loose
C. Limited
D. Taut
E. Tense
Q. 159 Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word “temper” as used in the passage?
A. Displeasure
B. Anger
C. Rage
D. Harness
E. Control
Q. 160 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word “archaic” as used in the passage?
A. Simple
B. Straightforward
C. Modern
D. Lively
E. Ancient
Questions: 161 – 165
Directions (Q161 – 165) :
Which of the phrases given below each sentence in the options should replace the phrase given in quotes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is then choose option 5 as the correct answer.
Q. 161 Seeing that there was an ongoing sale in one of her favourite stores, Seeta “made a bee line for” it immediately after entering the mall
A. Made a bee’s line for
B. Make bees lined to
C. Made a bee line to
D. Make bee line to
E. No correction required
Q. 162 Sharon made it to work in the “nicks of time”, or else she would have missed the meeting
A. Nick of time
B. Nicked time
C. Nick of timeliness
D. Nick and time
E. No correction required
Q. 163 Varun was “on cloud nine” after having stood first in his class
A. In ninth cloud
B. On nine clouds
C. A cloudy nine
D. Cloud on nine
E. No correction required
Q. 164 Vithal had a habit of “pass the buck” when it came to important issues at work
A. Pass to bucking
B. Passing buck
C. Passing the buck
D. Pass buck
E. No correction required
Q. 165 Puneet “racked his brains” and tried to find an answer to a tricky question given in the paper but couldn’t find one
A. Rake his brain
B. Racked his brains
C. Racked brains
D. Raked brain
E. No correction required
Questions: 166 – 170
Directions (Q 166-170) :
Each question has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
Q. 166 The water transport project on the west coast is ________ to get a shot in the arm with a new plan in which the Road Development Corporation will build the infrastructure and ________ a private party to operate the service.
A. scheduled, let
B. verge, permit
C. set, sanctions
D. slated, allow
E. bound, task
Q. 167 As the weekend finally rolled around, the city folk were only ________ happy to settle down and laugh their cares ________.
A. just, fair
B. too, away
C. extremely, off
D. very, up
E. so, on
Q. 168 The flood of brilliant ideas has not only ________ us, but has also encouraged us to ________ the last date for submission of entries.
A. overwhelmed, extend
B. enjoyed, stretch
C. dismayed, decide
D. scared, scrap
E. happy, boundary
Q. 169 ________ about prolonged power cuts in urban areas, the authorities have decided to ________ over to more reliable and eco-friendly systems to run its pumps.
A. worried, shift
B. frantic, move
C. troubled, jump
D. concerned, switch
E. endangered, click
Q. 170 The high cutoff marks this year have ________ college admission-seekers to either ________ for lesser known colleges or change their subject preferences.
A. cajoled, ask
B. pressured, sit
C. forced, settle
D. strained, compromise
E. entrusted, wait
Questions: 171 – 185
Directions (Q 171-185) :
Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in quotes to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernization, counting on high-tech industries such as information technology and biotechnology to “propel” the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the “Achilles’ heel” of this strategy. Its systematic disinvestment in higher education in recent years has yielded neither world-class research nor very many highly trained scholars, scientists or managers to sustain high-tech development. India’s main competitors – especially China, but also Singapore, Taiwan and South Korea – are investing in large and “differentiated” higher education systems. They are providing access to a large number of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research-based universities that are able to compete with the world’s best institutions. The recent London Times Higher Education Supplement ranking of the world’s top 200 universities include three in china, three in Hong Kong, three in South Korea, one in Taiwan and one in India. These countries are positioning themselves for leadership in the knowledge-based economies of the coming era. There was a time when countries could achieve economic success with cheap labour and low-tech manufacturing. Low wages still help, but contemporary large-scale development requires a sophisticated and at least partly knowledge based economy. India has chosen that path, but will find a major “stumbling block” in its university system. India has significant advantages in the 21st century knowledge race. It has a large higher education sector – the third largest in the world in terms of number of students, after china and the United States. It uses English as a primary language of higher education and research. It has a long academic tradition. Academic freedom is respected. There are a small number of high-quality institutions, departments and centres that can form the basis of quality sector in higher education. The fact that the States, rather than the Central Government, exercise major responsibility for higher education creates a rather “cumbersome” structure, but the system allows for a variety of policies and approaches. Yet the weakness far outweighs the strengths. India educates approximately 10 percent of its young people in higher education compared to more than half in the major industralised countries and 15 percent in china. Almost all of the world’s academic systems “resemble” a pyramid, with a small, high quality tier at the top and a “massive” sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent departments and centres and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges. The University Grants Commission’s recent major support to five universities to build on their recognized strength is a step towards recognizing a differentiated academic system and “fostering” excellence. These universities, combines, enroll well under one percent of the student population.
Q. 171 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
A. The top five universities in India educate more than 10 percent of the Indian student population
B. India’s higher education sector is the largest in the world
C. In the past, countries could progress economically through low manufacturing cost as well as low wages of labourers
D. India has recently invested heavy sums in the higher education sector leading to world-class research
E. All are true
Q. 172 What does the phrase “Achilles’ heel” mean as used in the passage?
A. Weakness
B. Quickness
C. Low quality
D. Nimbleness
E. Advantage
Q. 173 Which of the following is/are India’s strength/s in terms of higher education?
(A) Its system of higher education allows variations
(B) Medium of instruction for most higher learning is English
(C) It has the paraphernalia, albeit small in number, to build a high-quality higher
educational sector
A. Only (B)
B. Only (A) and (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 174 What are the Asian countries, other than India, doing to head towards a knowledge based economy?
(A) Building competitive research-based universities
(B) Investing in diverse higher education systems
(C) Providing access to higher education to select few students
A. Only (A)
B. Only (A) and (B)
C. Only (B) and (C)
D. Only (B)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 175 Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. The Future of Indian Universities
B. Methods of overcoming the Educational Deficit in India
C. India and the Hunt for a Knowledge-Based Economy
D. Indian Economy Versus Chinese Economy
E. Indian Economy and its Features
Q. 176 What did India agree to do at the behest of the World Trade Organisation?
A. It would stop manufacturing all types of pharmaceuticals
B. It would ask its domestic pharmaceutical companies to compete with the international ones
C. It would buy licensed drugs only from the USA
D. It would not manufacture cheap common medicines without a license
E. None of these
Q. 177 Which of the following is/are India’s weakness/es when it comes to higher education?
(A) Indian universities do not have the requisite teaching faculty to cater to the needs of the higher education sector
(B) Only five Indian universities occupy the top position very strongly in the academic pyramid when it comes to higher education
(C) India has the least percentage of young population taking to higher education as compared to the rest of the comparable countries
A. Only (A) and (B)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (A) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 178 Which of the following according to the passage is/are needed for the economic success of a country?
(A) Cheap labour
(B) Educated employees
(C) Research institutions to cater to the needs of development
A. Only (A) and (B)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)
Q. 179 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “FOSTERING” as used in the passage?
A. Safeguarding
B. Neglecting
C. Sidelining
D. Nurturing
E. Ignoring
Q. 180 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “PROPEL” as used in the passage?
A. Drive
B. Jettison
C. Burst
D. Acclimatize
E. Modify
Q. 181 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “MASSIVE” as used in the passage?
A. Lump sum
B. Strong
C. Little
D. Gaping
E. Huge
Q. 182 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “STUMBLING BLOCK” as used in the passage?
A. Argument
B. Frustration
C. Advantage
D. Hurdle
E. Fallout
Q. 183 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “CUMBERSOME” as used in the passage?
A. Handy
B. Manageable
C. Breathtaking
D. Awkward
E. Difficult
Q. 184 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “RESEMBLE” as used in the passage?
A. Against
B. Similar to
C. Mirror
D. Differ from
E. Unfavorable to
Q. 185 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “DIFFERENTIATED” as used in the passage?
A. Similar
B. Varied
C. Harmonized
D. Synchronized
E. Discriminated
Questions: 186 – 190
Directions (Q 186-190) :
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions that follow.
(A) Its prevalence reflects very badly on a society that is not able to stop this evil.
(B) Though elimination of child labour is an impossible task considering the current socio-economic scenario of these poor families, the Indian government is committed to the task of ensuring that no child remains illiterate, hungry and without medical care
(C) Therefore, unless the socio-economic status of the poor families is improved, India has to live with child labour.
(D) The members of these households have to send their children to work, even if the future of these innocent children is ruined, as that is the only choice open for them to survive in this world.
(E) Child labour is, no doubt, an evil that should be done away with at the earliest.
(F) But in a society where many households may have to suffer the pangs of hunger if the children are withdrawn from work, beggars can’t be choosers.
Q. 186 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. E
C. C
D. F
E. D
Q. 187 Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. F
E. E
Q. 188 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. F
C. D
D. B
E. C
Q. 189 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. E
B. A
C. F
D. C
E. D
Q. 190 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. D
E. B
Questions: 191 – 200
Directions (Q 191-200) :
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are given in the questions below and five words are given against it, one of which fits in the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Around the world, forests are being (__1__) at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17-20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a (__2__) role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely (__3__) forest’s capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically (__4__) the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future. However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests (__5__) a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from (__6__); deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and (__7__) to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and (__8__) of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia and South America. (__9__) this, economic pressures frequently drive both local communities and national governments in the developing world to (__10__) these forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.
Q. 191 The word suitable for (__1__) is
A. Ended
B. Destroyed
C. Extinct
D. Killed
E. Wasted
Q. 192 The word suitable for (__2__) is
A. Tough
B. Important
C. Vital
D. Biggest
E. Effective
Q. 193 The word suitable for (__3__) is
A. Affects
B. Diminishes
C. Increases
D. Alternates
E. Impairs
Q. 194 The word suitable for (__4__) is
A. Plagues
B. Develops
C. Reduces
D. Shortens
E. Influences
Q. 195 The word suitable for (__5__) is
A. Sell
B. Offer
C. Give
D. Provide
E. Earns
Q. 196 The word suitable for (__6__) is
A. Transforming
B. Decoding
C. Erupting
D. Draining
E. Eroding
Q. 197 The word suitable for (__7__) is
A. Handiness
B. Excess
C. Availability
D. Access
E. Supply
Q. 198 The word suitable for (__8__) is
A. Beginning
B. Source
C. Ways
D. Reference
E. Measure
Q. 199 The word suitable for (__9__) is
A. Despite
B. Also
C. Inspite
D. Apart
E. Beside
Q. 200 The word suitable for (__10__) is
A. Exploit
B. Encompass
C. Nurture
D. Work
E. Improve
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | D | A | D | A | E | D | A | B | B |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | E | C | B | C | C | D | E | C | D |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | E | A | D | C | E | B | C | E | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | C | D | B | D | A | A | A | E | A |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | D | A | A | A | B | D | A | D | D | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | E | B | C | A | D | D | B | A | E | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | C | E | B | D | C | A | D | E | D |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | C | E | D | E | C | B | C | B | A | E |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | C | A | D | C | E | D | A | E | C | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | D | A | E | C | C | A | B | D | E |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | B | A | A | E | A | A | C | D | E |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | E | E | C | A | B | D | A | B | C | D |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | D | C | C | B | D | D | B | B | C | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | E | A | D | C | E | C | C | E | A |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | C | C | B | C | A | D | D | A | D | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | C | B | E | B | A | B | A | C | E | C |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | E | A | E | C | B | D | B | A | D | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | C | A | D | B | C | D | C | E | D | A |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | E | D | B | D | A | B | D | A | D | E |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | B | C | E | C | B | E | D | B | A | A |