Vidhyarthi Darpan %

RAS/RTS Previous Year Paper 1995 (Pape-I )

RAS/RTS Preliminary exam 1995

Paper-I (General Knowledge)

प्रश्न 1. राजस्थान में भूरी मिट्टी का प्रसार क्षेत्र है –

(A) बनास नदी का प्रवाह-क्षेत्र

(B) राजस्थान का दक्षिणी भाग

(D) अरावली के दोनों तरफ के भाग

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 2. राजस्थान के किस जिले में तेल एवं प्राकृतिक गैस की संभावनाएं अच्छी हैं, वह है –

(A) बाड़मेर

(B) जालौर

(D) गंगानगर

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 3. पुनर्जागरण संस्कृति का इटली में प्रारम्भ होने का कारण था –

(A) इटली में विज्ञान का विकास

(B) अति-विकसित शिक्षा

(D) धर्मनिरपेक्ष परम्परायें

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 4. निम्न में से किस पशु की आकृति, जो मोहर पर मिली है, जिससे ज्ञात होता है कि सिंधु घाटी व मेसोपोटामिया की सभ्यताओं के मध्य व्यापारिक संबंध थे –

(A) घोड़ा

(B) गधा

(D) हाथी

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 5. ‘इतिहास के पिता’ की पदवी सही अर्थों में निम्न में से किससे संबंधित हैं?

(A) हेरोडोटस

(B) यूरीपिडीज

(D) सुकरात

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 6. निम्न चार सिद्धांतों का किस संत से संबंध हैं?

(i) हवन करना चाहिए

(ii) जीवों पर दया करनी चाहिए

(iii) सायं ईश्वर की आरती तथा भजन करना चाहिए

(iv) प्रात:काल स्नान करना चाहिए –

(A) धन्ना

(B) जांभोजी

(D) सन्त पीपा

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 7. सन्त पीपा के अनुसार मोक्ष का प्रमुख साधन था –

(A) मूर्ति पूजा

(B) भक्ति

(D) यज्ञ

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 8. राजस्थान में बहुधा सूखा एवं अकाल पड़ने का आधारभूत कारण है –

(A) अरावली का दक्षिण-पश्चिमी से उत्तर-पूर्व की ओर प्रसार

(B) अनियमित, अपर्याप्त एवं निश्चित वर्षा

(D) विवेकहीन एवं अवैज्ञानिक ढंग से पानी का उपयोग

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 9. हाल ही में चीन द्वारा संयुक्त राज्य के प्रति कड़ा विरोध निम्न विवाद पर व्यक्त किया गया –

(A) ली टेन्ग ह्यू का संयुक्त राज्य भ्रमण

(B) चीन को उत्कृष्ट तकनीकी के स्थानान्तरण पर प्रतिबन्ध

(D) संयुक्त राष्ट्र सुरक्षा परिषद का विस्तार

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 10. भारत का सबसे ऊँचा पर्वत है?

(A) कंचनजंगा

(B) मकालू

(D) माउण्ट एवरेस्ट

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 11. अकबर द्वारा बनाई गयी श्रेष्ठ इमारतें पायी जाती हैं –

(A) आगरा के किले में

(B) लाहौर के किले में

(D) फतेहपुर सीकरी में

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 12. सहकारी साख समितियों का ढांचा है –

(A) एक-स्तरीय

(B) द्वि-स्तरीय

(D) चतुर्थ-स्तरीय

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 13. प्राकृतिक संसाधनों की प्रकृति एवं उपलब्धता के आधार पर राजस्थान में उन उद्योगों के विकास की सर्वाधिक संभावनाएं है जिनका आधार है –

(A) पशुधन

(B) कृषि

(D) वन

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 14. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा जोड़ा सही है –

देश-राजधानी

(A) रवांडा-नैरोबी

(B) केन्या-किन्शासा

(D) जैरे-किगाली

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 15. पसीने का मुख्य उपयोग है –

(A) शरीर का ताप नियन्त्रित रखने में

(B) शरीर में जल की मात्रा सन्तुलित रखने में

(D) त्वचा के छिद्र में गन्दगी दूर रखने का

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 16. अरावली विकास परियोजना का मुख्य उद्देश्य है –

(A) मिट्टी-अवक्रमण को नियन्त्रित करना

(B) थार-मरुस्थल के प्रसार को रोकना

(D) पारिस्थितिकी स्थिरता को बनाये रखना

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 17. संथाल निवासी हैं –

(A) मध्य भारत के

(B) दक्षिणी भारत के

(D) पूर्वी भारत के

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 18. रशियन खिलाड़ी ओल्गा कुजेनकोवा ने महिला हैमर थ्रो में कितनी दूरी का विश्व रिकार्ड बनाया।

(A) 65.54 मीटर

(B) 66.72 मीटर

(D) 70.25 मीटर

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 19. 8 मई, 1995 को मनाए गए रेड क्रॉस दिवस का विषय (थीम) था –

(A) निर्धनों की मुफ्त दवाईयाँ

(B) पोलियो का उन्मूलन

(D) बीमारों की देखरेख, घायलों की चिकित्सा

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 20. संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण कार्यक्रम सासाकावा पुरस्कार, 1994 किसको प्रदान किया गया है –

(A) एम.एस. स्वामीनाथन

(B) मेनका गाँधी

(D) ऐलीसन हरग्रीव्स

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 21. एक मजदूर रेल की पटरी पर कार्य कर रहा था। एक लड़का कुछ दूरी पर अपने कान पटरियों पर रखकर जब मजदूर द्वारा की जाने वाली हथौड़े की आवाज को सुनता है तो उसे दो बार आवाजें सुनाई देती हैं। इसका कारण है –

(A) ध्वनी का वेग इस्पात में वायु की अपेक्षा अधिक है।

(B) ध्वनी का वेग वायु में इस्पात की अपेक्षा अधिक है।

(D) उसके काल ध्वनि स्त्रोत से भिन्न दूरियों पर है।

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 22. दक्षेस (सार्क) शिखर सम्मेलन मई, 1995 का निर्णय है –

(A) सन् 2002 ई. तक निर्धनता उन्मूलन

(B) क्षेत्रीय व्यापार के उदारीकरण का खण्डन

(D) दक्षिण एशिया वरीयता व्यापार समझौता (साप्टा) का खंडन

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 23. जिस जिले की वार्षिक वर्षा में विषमता का प्रतिशत सर्वाधिक है, वह है –

(A) बाड़मेर

(B) जयपुर

(D) बांसवाड़ा

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 24. निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा एक जैव-अवक्रमणीय नहीं है?

(A) घरेलू मल-मूत्र

(B) लैब अपमार्जक

(D) पौधों की पत्तियां

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 25. इस वर्ष इंदिरा आवास योजना की मुख्य विशेषता है –

(A) दस लाख मकानों का निर्माण

(B) बंधुआ मजदूरों की मुक्ति

(D) केंद्र द्वारा दस करोड़ रुपए का प्रावधान

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 26. शिमला वार्ता के भारतीय प्रतिनिधिमंडल के एक वरिष्ठ सदस्य ने हाल ही में व्यक्त किया है कि भुट्टो कश्मीर में युद्ध विराम रेखा को अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमा में क्रमशः : परिवर्तन के लिए शिमला में सहमत हो गए थे। उनका नाम है –

(A) जगत मेहता

(B) प्रवण मुखर्जी

(D) पी.एन.धर

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 27. आर्मती देसाई का समाचारों में चर्चित होने का कारण था –

(A) नर्मदा बचाओ आंदोलन में भूमिका

(B) बैंकाक मेराथन में कांस्य पदक की प्राप्ति

(D) राष्ट्रीय एकीकरण के लिए इंदिरा गांधी पुरस्कार से सम्मानित

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 28. प्रत्यावर्ती धारा किस लिए उपयुक्त नहीं है –

(A) स्टोरेज बैटरी को चार्ज करने हेतु

(B) इलेक्ट्रिक मोटर चलाने हेतु

(D) इलेक्ट्रिक टोस्टर को गर्म करने हेतु

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 29. अपना गाँव, अपना काम योजना प्रारम्भ की गई –

(A) 1 दिसम्बर, 1990 को

(B) 1 जनवरी, 1991 को

(D) 2 अक्टूबर, 1991 को

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 30. बहुउद्देशीय नदी घाटी परियोजनाओं को आधुनिक भारत के मन्दिर’ किसने कहा था?

(A) डॉ. राजेन्द्र प्रसाद

(B) जवाहर लाल नेहरु

(D) महात्मा गाँधी

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 31. नई औद्योगिक नीति, 1991 में लघु उद्योगों के लिए पूंजी विनियोग की सीमा है –

(A) 45 लाख रु.

(B) 60 लाख रु.

(D) 40 लाख रु.

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 32. राजस्थान में प्रत्येक जिले के सहकारी बैंक का नाम है?

(A) क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक

(B) प्राथमिक सहकारी बैंक

(D) केन्द्रीय सहकारी बैंक

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 33. कथन (A)- विश्व में पर्यावरण अवक्रमण की गम्भीर समस्या है।

कारण (R)- इस समस्या का प्रमुख कारण है मिट्टी एवं वनों का अवक्रमण।

(A) A सही है परन्तु R असत्य है

(B) A एवं R दोनों सही है

(D) A सही है परन्तु R आंशिक रुप से ही सही है

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 34. महानदी पर निर्मित बाँध का नाम है –

(A) भाखड़ा नांगल

(B) गाँधी सागर

(D) तुंगभद्रा

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 35. कथन (अ)- राजस्थान के पश्चिमी मरुस्थलीय जिलों में आजकल भरपूर खाद्यान्न फसलें होती हैं।

कारण (ब)- इन्दिरा गाँधी नहर ने जैसलमेर और बाड़मेर जिलों में सिंचाई सुविधा प्रदान कर दी हैं

उपयोग कीजिए यदि –

(A) कथन सही है और कारण भी सही है।

(B) कथन सही है और कारण भी गलत है।

(D) कथन गलत है परन्तु कारण सही है।

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 36. ‘वीर भारत समाज’ की स्थापना किसके द्वारा हुई ?

(A) जोरावर सिंह बारहट

(B) गोकुल दास असावा

(D) विजय सिंह पथिक

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 37. क्या मुख्य कारण है कि एक आँख की अपेक्षा दो आंखों का होना अधिक उपयुक्त है –

(A) दो आँखों के कारण आसानी से पहचाने जा सकते हैं

(B) दो आँखों के कारण हम अंधेरे व हल्के प्रकाश में देख सकते हैं

(D) इसी कारण से दूरी व गहराई का अहसास होता है

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 38. अखिल भारतीय खादी और ग्रामीण बोर्ड की स्थापना की गई थी –

(A) प्रथम योजना में

(B) द्वितीय योजना में

(D) चतुर्थ योजना में

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 39. निम्न में से कौन 43वीं पुरुष विश्व टेबल टेनिस चैम्पियनशिप का विजेता है?

(A) लीयू गुओलिअंग

(B) कांग लिंगहुई

(D) डियांग सोंग

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 40. निम्न में से कौन 1995 की फ्रेंच ओपन टूर्नामेंट का विजेता है?

(A) आंद्र आगासी

(B) जिम कूरियर

(D) थामस मस्टर

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 41. कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास क्रियाओं की सभी प्रकार की साख आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करने वाली एकमात्र संस्था है –

(A) आर.बी.आई.

(B) नाबार्ड

(D) नाफेड

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 42. एस्ट्रोजन किसके द्वारा उत्पादित होता है –

(A) अण्ड

(B) पुटिका

(D) गर्भाशय

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 43. गलती से रामू किसी इंजेक्शन की अधिक मात्रा लगा लेता है, जिसके कारण उसे ऐंठन, मिर्गी, बेहोश हो जाती है। अन्ततः कुछ समय पश्चात उसकी मृत्यु हो जाती है। इसका कारण है –

(A) रक्त में अवसामान्य शर्करा सांद्रता

(B) रक्त में अत्यधिक शर्करा सांद्रता

(D) रक्त में कैल्शियम आयनों का प्रभाव

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 44. वैदिक युगीन ‘सभा’

(A) गाँवों के व्यावसायिक लोगों की संस्था थी

(B) राज-दरबार होता था

(D) राज्य के समस्त लोगों की एक राष्ट्रीय सभा थी

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 45. निम्न भाषाओं में से किस भाषा को दिल्ली सुल्तानों ने संरक्षण प्रदान किया?

(A) अरबी

(B) तुर्की

(D) उर्दू

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 46. ‘मीणा’ का अर्थ है –

(A) वनवासी

(B) वनरक्षक

(D) मछली

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 47. निम्न में से कौन-सा गुण मनुष्य को अन्य सभी वानर गुणों से पृथक करता है –

(A) जानने की इच्छा प्रकट करना

(B) घ्राण शक्ति का अपविकसित होना

(D) ठोढ़ी को बाहर निकलना

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 48. निम्न में से किस शासक ने द्वितीय बौद्ध सभा का आयोजन किया था?

(A) अजातशत्रु

(B) कालसोक

(D) अशोक

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 49. सातवीं योजना का प्रमुख नारा था –

(A) भोजन, काम और उत्पादकता

(B) सभी बच्चों के लिए नि:शुल्क शिक्षा

(D) सामुदायिक विकास कार्यक्रम

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 50. निर्धारित अवधि से एक वर्ष पूर्व समाप्त होने वाली पंचवर्षीय योजना हैं –

(A) द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना

(B) तृतीय पंचवर्षीय योजना

(D) पंचम पंचवर्षीय योजना

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 51. अमेरिकन टेलीफोन व टेलीग्राफ ने एक ऐसी कम्प्यूटर कार्य प्रणाली विकसित की है जो कि बहुत इस्तेमाल वातावरण प्रदान करती है। इसे कहते हैं –

(A) वी.जी.ए.

(B) युनिक्स

(D) यू.टी.ए.

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 52. जल स्वच्छीकरण हेतु फ्रांस में विकसित नैनो फिल्ट्रेशन तकनीक में जल विशेष झिल्ली से छाया जा सकता है, जिसका रुधिर का होता हैं –

(A) 1 आंगस्ट्रोम

(B) 10 आंगस्ट्रोम

(D) 1000 आंगस्ट्रोम

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 53. “मॉरफीन” किससे प्राप्त होती है –

(A) फूल

(B) पत्ती

(D) तना

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 54. “प्रत्यक्ष जीवन शास्त्र” के रचयिता थे –

(A) माणिक्यलाल वर्मा

(B) जमनालाल बजाज

(D) पं. नयनूराम शर्मा

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 55. राजस्थान की आठवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना में जिस खण्ड (मद) में सबसे अधिक प्रतिशत धन निर्धारित किया है, वह है –

(A) कृषि,

(B) सिंचाई एवं बाढ़ नियंत्रण

(D) सामाजिक एवं सामुदायिक सेवायें

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 56. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक जोड़ा सही है

गरीबी रेखा के नीचे जनसंख्या का प्रतिशत (1993-94) राज्य प्रतिशत

(A) पंजाब 45.3

(B) बिहार 13.8

(D) राजस्थान 34.3

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 57. निम्न में से किसके पुनरावलोकन हेतु गोपीनाथ मुंडे समिति की नियुक्ति की गई –

(A) ऐनरोन परियोजना

(B) निर्वाचन सुधार

(D) वेतन आयोग प्रतिवेदन

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 58. किस देश ने यूनेस्को के 183वें सदस्य के रूप में पुनः सदस्यता ग्रहण कर ली है?

(A) जाम्बिया

(B) दक्षिण अफ्रीका

(D) इण्डोनेशिया

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 59. जिनके उत्पादन में भारत में राजस्थान का प्रथम स्थान है, वे हैं –

(A) रॉक फॉस्फेट, टंगस्टेन एवं जिप्सम

(B) ग्रेनाइट, संगमरमर एवं बलुआ-पत्थर

(D) अभ्रक, घीया पत्थर एवं फ्ल्यू ओराइट

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 60. यदि आप इलेक्ट्रॉनिक एक्सचेंज से जुड़े टेलिफोन की एस.टी.डी. बंद (लॉक) करना चाहें तो कौन कोड इस्तेमाल होगा?

(A) 124, ABCD, 1

(B) 124, ABCD, 2

(D) 124, ABCD,0

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 61. सास-बहू का मन्दिर स्थित है –

(A) अरथूना में

(B) नागदा में

(D) आहड़ में

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 62. मई सन् 1994 में सम्पन्न यमुना नदी जल के बंटवारे संबंधी समझौते के अनुसार राजस्थान को मिलने वाले जल की मात्रा है –

(A) 800 क्यूसेक

(B) 70 करोड़ घनमीटर

(D) 120.5 करोड़ घनमीटर

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 63. सक्रिय उपर्जित अंसक्राम्यता किसके उत्पादन का परिणाम है –

(A) एन्टीबॉडीज

(B) वेक्सीन

(D) निस्पंदित हो सकने वाले वाइरस

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 64. इस वर्ष “बॉयस बैलट मेडल” जो कि रायल नीदरलैण्ड विज्ञान अकादमी द्वारा दस वर्ष में दिया जाता हैं किसको दिया गया है?

(A) डॉ. पी.एम. भार्गव

(B) डॉ. पी.वी. राव

(D) डॉ. ए. शर्मा

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 65. 1930 के दशक में भरतपुर में राजनीतिक जागृति का श्रेय किसको जाता है –

(A) श्री किशनलाल जोशी

(B) ठाकुर देशराज

(D) युगल किशोर चतुर्वेदी

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 66. पहला ईरानी शासक जिसने भारत के कुछ भाग को अपने अधीन किया था –

(A) साइरस

(B) केम्बिसिस

(D) शहार्श

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 67. निम्न में से कौन राजस्थान का अग्रणी शतरंज खिलाड़ी है?

(A) नाजिर

(B) नासिर

(D) प्रवीण

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 68. नदी जिसका उद्गम राजस्थान से होता है और जो अपना जल खम्भात की खाड़ी में उड़ेलती है, वह है –

(A) लूनी

(B) माही

(D) पार्वती

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 69. भारत में सबसे महत्वपूर्ण लघु-स्तर उद्योग है –

(A) वस्त्र उद्योग

(B) कागज उद्योग

(D) जूट उद्योग

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 70. निम्नलिखित को सुमेल कीजिए –

बाँध – स्थान

(A) जवाहर सागर बाँध I. चितौड़गढ़

(B) राणा प्रताप सागर बाँध II. कोटा

(D) बजाज सागर बाँध IV. भीलवाड़ा

A B C D

(A) I IV III II

(B) II I IV III

(D) III IV I II

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 71. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा जोड़ा सही है?

(A) सी. राजगोपालाचारी-इण्डिया विन्स फ्रीडम

(B) मणि शंकर अय्यर-दी पाकिस्तान पेंपर्स

(D) मार्गेट थैचर-दी फ्यूचर ऑफ एन.पी.टी.

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 72. सहकारी तंत्र में संचालित शक्कर का कारखाना स्थित है?

(A) उदयपुर में

(B) श्रीगंगानगर में

(D) केशोरायपाटन में

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 73. चीन में वास्तविक कागज के निर्माण का श्रेय किसको दिया जाता है –

(A) साई-लून

(B) वा वाँग

(D) कुंग-जु

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 74. निम्न में से कौन-सा नवीनतम समझा जाता है?

(A) हिडलबर्ग मानव

(B) क्रोमैग्नॉन मानव

(D) लिएण्डरथल मानव

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 75. एक अज्ञात गैस जल में शीघ्रता से घुल जाती है। गैस युक्त जलीय घोल में लाल लिटमस नीला हो जाता है। यह गैस हाइड्रोजन क्लोराइड के साथ सफेद धूम्र भी देते हैं। यह अज्ञात गैस है –

(A) सल्फर डाईआक्साइड

(B) नाइट्रिक आक्साइड

(D) कार्बन मोनोक्साइड

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 76. फोटोग्राफी प्लेट को विकसित करने में –

(A) सोडियम थायोसल्फेट उपचायक की भांति उपयोग होता है

(B) मुक्त ब्रोमीन निकलती है

(D) विकसित करने वाले घोल में तब तक रखा जाता है, जब तक कि समस्त ब्रोमाइड घुल नहीं जाता।

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 77. चोल-शासकों के समय में बनी हुई प्रतिमाओं में सबसे अधिक विख्यात हुई –

(A) पत्थर की प्रतिमायें

(B) संगमरमर की प्रतिमायें

(D) नटनाज शिव की काँसे की प्रतिमायें

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 78. लैरी प्रेसलर निम्न में से सम्बद्ध है –

(A) पाकिस्तान को संयुक्त राज्य की सैनिक सहायता पर प्रतिबन्ध की समाप्ति का समर्थन

(B) संयुक्त राज्य-पाकिस्तान के मधुर सम्बन्ध को सशक्त बनाना

(D) राष्ट्रपति निर्वाचन हेतु प्रत्याशी की घोषणा

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 79. भारत का योजना आयोग है –

(A) एक स्वायत्तशासी संस्था

(B) एक सलाहकार संस्था

(D) एक वैधानिक संस्था

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 80. योजना-अवकाश की अवधि का सम्बन्ध है –

(A) 1965-68 से

(B) 1966-69 से

(D) 1978-80 से

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 81. निम्न में से कौन-सा पहले नियत क्रमियता को भंग करता हैं?

(A) निषेचित अण्डा

(B) गेस्टुला

(D) फीटस

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 82. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक युग्म सही है – जनगणना, 1991

जिला लिंग-अनुपात

(A) धौलपुर 796

(B) डूंगरपुर 942

(D) जालौर 810

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 83. बाड़मेर जिले में लिग्नाइट पर आधारित 1000 मै. वा. शक्ति परियोजना का प्रस्ताव स्थान है –

(A) कापुर्डी

(B) जालीपा

(D) चोटन

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 84. सुमेल कीजिए –

(A) नियाग्रा प्रपात I. पामीर

(B) हजारों झीलों की भूमि II. पेरिस

(D) विश्व की छतें IV. न्यूयार्क राज्य

A B C D

(A) III IV I II

(B) IV III II I

(D) IV I II III

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 85. यदि कोई सूचना टेलीफोन द्वारा डायल करके अन्यत्र टेलीविजन स्क्रीन पर देखी-पढ़ी जा सके तो उसे कहते हैं?

(A) टेलेक्स

(B) टेलीफैक्स

(D) टेलीप्रोसेसिंग

उत्तर – B

प्रश्न 86. एक इलेक्ट्रॉन पुंज को फास्फोरस कोटेड पर्दे पर फोकस कर प्रतिबिम्बों को पर्दे पर जनित करना कहलाता है –

(A) मास्टर स्कैन

(B) टोटल स्कैन

(D) राडार स्कैन

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 87. राजस्थान के ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में गरीबी उन्मूलन हेतु सबसे महत्वपूर्ण का कार्यक्रम है –

(A) राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण विकास कार्यक्रम

(B) समग ग्रामीण विकास

(D) ग्रामीण भूमिहीनों हेतु रोजगार गारण्टी कार्यक्रम

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 88. प्रसिद्ध भारतीय क्रिकेट खिलाड़ी सचिन तेंदुलकर की शादी किससे हुई?

(A) डॉ. अंजलि मेहता

(B) डॉ. आशा मेहता

(D) डॉ. आभा मेहता

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 89. वाहनों में उत्सर्जित कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड को कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड में परिवर्तित करने वाली उत्प्रेरक परिवर्तक की सिरेमिक डिस्क किससे स्तरित होती है –

(A) चाँदी

(B) स्वर्ण

(D) पैलेडियम

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 90. “जैपा” (ZEPA) है –

(A) बोस्निया की सर्ब सेना का सेनापति

(B) श्रीलंका का सुरक्षित क्षेत्र

(D) संयुक्त राष्ट्र के नियंत्रण में फिलिस्तीन का एक नगर

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 91. राज्य स्तरीय मानव अधिकार आयोग की स्थापना जिन राज्यों द्वारा की गई है, वे हैं?

(A) राजस्थान और पश्चिम बंगाल

(B) पश्चिम बंगाल और हिमाचल प्रदेश

(D) महाराष्ट्र और गुजरात

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 92. आर्कटिक महासागर एवं प्रशांत महासागर को जोड़ने वाला जलडमरूमध्य है?

(A) बेरिंग

(B) टोरेस

(D) मलक्का

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 93. निम्न तथ्यों में से कौन-सा तथ्य ऐसा हैं जो अकबर को राष्ट्रीय सम्राट सिद्ध करने में सहायक नहीं है?

(A) अकबर ने इस्लाम धर्म को त्याग दिया था

(B) प्रशासनिक एकता और कानूनों की एकरूपता

(D) अकबर की धार्मिक नीति

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 94. निम्न मुसलमान विद्वानों में से हिन्दी साहित्य के लिए किसका सबसे महत्वपूर्ण योगदान है –

(A) अबुल फजल

(B) फैजी

(D) अब्दुल कादिर बंदायुनी

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 95. ‘यूनेस्को’ द्वारा वर्ष 1995 को घोषित किया गया है –

(A) मानव अधिकार वर्ष

(B) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय साक्षरता अभियान वर्ष

(D) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय सहिष्णुता वर्ष

उत्तर – D

प्रश्न 96. पी. वेणुगोपाल के समाचारों में चर्चित होने का कारण है –

(A) उनकी लम्बी कतिवा ‘रुख ते रिशी’

(B) भारतीय साहित्य के उत्थान में योगदान

(D) बच्चों और महिलाओं का उत्थान

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 97. रोम का प्रथम शासक कौन था?

(A) न्यूमिटोर

(B) रीमस

(D) हैमिल्कर बर्का

उत्तर – C

प्रश्न 98. पूर्व रोमन शासक जस्टिनियन का सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण योगदान किस क्षेत्र में था –

(A) विधि

(B) स्थापत्य कला

(D) साहित्य

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 99. जैविक जगत में होने वाले कार्य, गुण व पद्धति का अध्ययन कर इस ज्ञान को मशीनी जगत में उपयोग करने को क्या कहते हैं?

(A) बायोनिक्स

(B) बायोनोमिक्स

(D) बायोमीट्री

उत्तर – A

प्रश्न 100. किसी की संस्कृति के वैज्ञानिक विवरण के अध्ययन को कहते हैं?

(A) इथनोलोजी

(B) इथनोग्राफी

(D) एथिक्स

उत्तर – A

Latest Current Affairs 29 April 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
29 April 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

A) Glitches on CoWIN platform as COVID-19 vaccination registration begins for 18+.

As the registration of all citizens above 18 years of age for vaccination against COVID-19 started on the CoWIN portal at 4 p.m. on Wednesday, many people took to social media to complain about the technical problems they faced. The third phase of the inoculation drive, which would also include those between 18 and 45 years, is scheduled to begin from May 1. Some of them complained that the portal was not responding while others complained that it had crashed. At 4.35 p.m., a tweet from the verified Twitter handle of the Aarogya Setu mobile application said the CoWIN portal is working and that there was a minor glitch at 4 p.m., which was fixed. Cowin portal is working. There was a minor glitch at 4 pm that was fixed. 18 plus can register, it said. After registration, taking an appointment to get a Covid-19 vaccine jab would be mandatory for those aged between 18 and 44 years as walk-ins will not be allowed initially, officials had said. Appointments will be based on slots made available by states and private vaccination centres. Those above 45 years of age can still avail the facility of on-site registration to get vaccinated, they had said. An increased demand is expected once the vaccination is opened for all. For the purpose of crowd control, registering on the CoWIN portal and making an appointment to get a vaccine will be mandatory for those aged between 18 and 45 years. Walks-in will not be allowed in the beginning so that there is no chaos, an official had said. The inoculation process and the documents to be provided to get the jab remain the same. Media reports, citing government sources, said that the site, post-glitches, was getting 27 lakh hits a minute.

B) Shift journalist Kappan to a hospital in Delhi, SC tells U.P. govt.

The Supreme Court on Wednesday asked the Uttar Pradesh government to shift journalist Siddique Kappan to a hospital in Delhi, like the Ram Manohar Lohia or the AIIMS. A Bench of Chief Justice N.V. Ramana, Justices Surya Kant and A.S. Bopanna directed Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, for the State, to shift Mr. Kappan to a Delhi hospital for proper medical treatment. The order came despite serious objections raised by Mehta on behalf of the State. Mehta said Kappan was found COVID-negative in an RT-PCR test and he cannot be singled out among other inmates for treatment in a hospital in Delhi. He said he could be kept in a hospital in Mathura. He said there were hundreds of other inmates with or without co-morbidities. But the Bench pointed out that the plea concerned the health of a man. The Bench said the State has an obligation to protect the health of an individual. It said it was not going into anything except that Kappan received medical treatment in a hospital outside U.P. Once he is sound of health, the court said, he would be brought back to Mathura jail, from where he could take appropriate measures for relief in accordance with the law, the Bench noted. The Kerala Union of Working Journalists (KUWJ) alleged that Kappan has been chained to a cot in the hospital he was admitted to, after falling in the bathroom and later testing positive for Covid-19.

C) SII cuts Covishield price for states to ₹300 per dose.

With a number of States expressing their inability to commence the third phase of vaccination from May 1 owing to vaccine scarcity, the Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII) on Wednesday announced that it was reducing the price of its Covishield vaccine to the States from ₹400 to ₹300 per dose as a philanthropic gesture. As a philanthropic gesture on behalf of SII, I hereby reduce the price to the states from ₹400 to ₹300 per dose, effective immediately; this will save thousands of crores of state funds going forward. This will enable more vaccinations and save countless lives, said SII CEO Adar Poonawalla on Twitter. SII had earlier given its per dose pricing of its ‘Covishield’ vaccine as ₹150 for the Central government, ₹400 for State governments and ₹600 for private hospitals while Bharat Biotech (which rolls out ‘Covaxin’) had quoted ₹150 for the Centre, ₹600 for State governments, and ₹1200 for private hospitals. Meanwhile, Maharashtra Health Minister Rajesh Tope today said that despite the Centre announcing the third phase to begin from May 1, it would not be possible to begin the vaccinations on that date as the only two indigenous producers SII and Bharat Biotech could not supply the requisite amounts of doses for the smooth conduct of the inoculation drive.

D) India declines UN’s offer of assistance, says it has ‘robust system’

India has declined assistance offered by the United Nations of its integrated supply chain for Covid-19-related material, saying the country has a robust system to deal with the required logistics, a spokesperson for UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said. One of the things we did is we offered the assistance of our integrated supply chain if it was required. We’ve been told at this point that it’s not needed because India has a reasonably robust system to deal with this. But our offer stands, and we’re willing to help in whatever way we can, Farhan Haq, Deputy Spokesman for the UN Chief, said in response to a question by PTI. On whether any shipments of essential materials from UN agencies are expected to reach India amid the crisis, Haq said, None have been sought so far, but like he said, they do have people, including our people who deal with operational and logistical issues who are willing to help, if we’re needed, and we’re in touch with our counterparts in India to see whether that will be useful.

E) Home Ministry notifies GNCT Act that effectively makes L-G the ‘government’ of Delhi.

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on Wednesday issued a gazette notification stating that the provisions of the Government of National Capital Territory (GNCT) of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, would be deemed to have come into effect from April 27. This comes a day after the Delhi High Court cautioned the Delhi government to put its house in order over the issue of inadequate oxygen supply in the city, adding that the Centre would be asked to take over if the Delhi government couldn’t manage the situation created by the pandemic at hand. The Act, which gives the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) of Delhi more teeth and substantially waters down the powers of both the elected government and the Legislative Assembly, will clarify the expression Government and address ambiguities in legislative provisions to promote harmonious relations between the legislature and the executive. Coming as the development does in the middle of the Covid-19 pandemic, the Act is expected to trigger another round of confrontation between the L-G and the Delhi government under the AAP.

F) EC mandates rules for Assembly polls’ counting day.

The Election Commission of India (EC) on Wednesday made it mandatory for all candidates and their agents to have either negative Covid-19 test results or both doses of a vaccine before entering the counting halls on May 2, when votes in the five ongoing Assembly polls are tabulated. The EC issued instructions for counting of votes in the West Bengal, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry elections at a time the country is going through an unprecedented surge of Covid-19. On Tuesday, the EC had banned all victory processions on May 2, and restricted the number of people accompanying winning candidates to collect their certificate of election from the Returning Officer to two. In view of the second wave of the pandemic and in order to ensure a completely Covid-safe arrangements during counting, the Commission has been regularly consulting the Chief Secretaries and the Chief Electoral Officers of all five poll going States/ UT and has taken their views and safety measures/ protocol to be followed during the pandemic, an EC statement said. The EC ordered the District Election Officers (DEO) to be the Nodal Officers for counting centres in order to make sure Covid-19-related rules are followed. No candidates/agents will be allowed inside the counting hall without undergoing RT-PCR/RAT test or without having two doses of vaccination against Covid-19 and will have to produce negative RT-PCR report or RAT report or vaccination reports within 48 hours of start of counting, the EC instructions read. It added that the DEO should make arrangements for the tests before counting day.

G) Trinamool candidate’s widow files case of culpable homicide against West Bengal Deputy Election Commissioner.

In a first, the widow of Trinamool Congress (TMC) candidate Kajal Sinha, who recently died of Covid-19, has filed a case of culpable homicide against Sudip Jain, Deputy Election Commissioner In-Charge of West Bengal, accusing the Election Commission of India (EC) of deliberate and intentional omission leading to her husband’s death. Sinha was the TMC candidate from the Khardaha Assembly constituency, which went to polls in the 6th phase of the ongoing West Bengal Assembly election on April 22. He died three days after voting for his seat was held on April 25. Other than Sinha, three other candidates died during the prolonged election campaign in the State. Two candidates were from the Jangipur constituency the Revolutionary Socialist Party’s Pradip Nandi and Congress’ Rezaul Haque. Samir Ghosh, independent candidate from Baisnabnagar Assembly constituency, also succumbed to Covid-19. In her complaint, Nandita Sinha said that the EC had shown complete unpreparedness, negligence, lack of accountability and utmost disregard towards the lives of the common people. West Bengal alone, she said, has 95,000 Covid-19 cases and the EC had decided to carry out elections over eight phases spanning over 33 days despite the already precarious situation in the rest of the country. It has malignantly chosen to continue with eight phases of polls despite having reason to believe that the infection would spread at an alarming rate causing widespread death across West Bengal and the nation, she said. She also accused the EC of intentionally not taking any steps to ensure Covid-19 protocols were followed at public rallies.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) India, Australia, Japan push for supply chain resilience.

The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) formally launched on Tuesday by the Trade Ministers of India, Japan and Australia brought a wary response from China, which has described the effort as ‘unrealistic’. Piyush Goyal, Minister for Commerce and Industry, launched the SCRI along with Dan Tehan, Australia’s Minister for Trade, Tourism and Investment, and Hiroshi Kajiyama, Japan’s Minister for Economy, Trade and lndustry. The three sides agreed the pandemic revealed supply chain vulnerabilities globally and in the region and noted the importance of risk management and continuity plans in order to avoid supply chain disruptions. Some of the joint measures they are considering include supporting the enhanced utilisation of digital technology and trade and investment diversification, which is seen as being aimed at reducing their reliance on China. The SCRI aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience with a view to eventually attaining strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the region, a statement said. China’s Foreign Ministry on Wednesday described the move as ‘unrealistic’. The formation and development of global industrial and supply chains are determined by market forces and companies choices, spokesperson Zhao Lijian said. Artificial industrial ‘transfer’ is an unrealistic approach that goes against the economic laws and can neither solve domestic problems nor do anything good to the stability of the global industrial and supply chains, or to the stable recovery of the world economy.

B) EU lawmakers give nod to the post-Brexit trade agreement.

European Union leaders, their British counterparts, and European businesses expressed hope on Wednesday that the final ratification of the post-Brexit trade deal will open a new, positive era of cooperation despite the many divisive topics remaining between the former partners. Lawmakers at the European Parliament voted 660-5 with 32 abstentions to endorse the free trade agreement. Voting took place on Tuesday but results were not announced until Wednesday morning. After EU lawmakers ratified the agreement ensuring that free trade continues between the two sides without tariffs and quotas, U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson said the vote marked the final step in a long journey, providing stability to our new relationship with the EU as vital partners, close allies and sovereign equals. Relations between the EU and the U.K. have been strained since a Brexit transition period ended on January 1. The two sides have argued so far this year over issues ranging from violations of the so-called Northern Ireland protocol, COVID-19 vaccine supplies to the full diplomatic recognition of the EU in Britain.

Latest Current Affairs 28 April 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
28 April 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

A) Election Commission bans victory processions on or after counting day.

The Election Commission of India (ECI) on April 27 banned victory processions after the declaration of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, West Bengal and Kerala Assembly election results on May 2, due to the surge in Covid-19 cases. The decision comes a day after the ECI faced flak from the Madras High Court over violations of Covid-19 protocols during campaigning for the five Assembly elections. The court blamed the ECI for the second wave of the pandemic in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. In view of the surge in Covid-19 cases throughout the country, the Commission has decided to make more stringent provision to be followed during the process of counting, in addition to the existing broad guidelines dated 21st August, 2020, the ECI said in a letter to the Chief Electoral Officers of all States. It said no victory processions would be allowed after the counting of votes and only a maximum of two people would be allowed to accompany the winning candidate or their authorised representative to receive the certificate of election from the Returning Officer. The ECI had issued guidelines for elections during the pandemic in August last year and then reiterated them during the latest Assembly elections.

B) SC says it can’t remain a ‘mute spectator’, but won’t transfer COVID-related cases from HCs.

The Supreme Court cannot remain a mute spectator in the face of a national calamity. However, the apex court will not interfere in the work done by various High Courts across the country to monitor and manage life-saving Covid-19 management amid a second wave of the pandemic, a Special Bench led by Justice D.Y. Chandrachud made it clear on Tuesday. The Bench, also comprising Justices L. Nageswara Rao and S. Ravindra Bhat, sat for almost the whole day, grilling the Centre, States and authorities on the various aspects of COVID-management in a suo moto hearing. During a national crisis, the SC cannot be a mute spectator. The role of the Supreme Court is complimentary in nature. The court will examine issues which travel beyond the boundaries of States and have national repercussions, the Bench said, assuaging apprehensions that the apex court would derail the ongoing work of the HCs. Over 11 State High Courts are hearing Covid-19-related cases and passing orders on a daily basis. High Courts are best suited to make an assessment of ground realities in each States and find flexible solutions for problems faced by citizens. No need to interfere in the work of the HCs, the Bench observed. The Bench questioned the Centre about its vaccine pricing policy. It asked why different manufacturers were pricing their vaccines differently. Justice Bhat asked whether the Centre should not invoke a statutory regime and introduce uniform rates. The Bench asked how vaccines sold in private hospitals turn out more expensive. What is the rationale or basis for different manufacturers coming out with different prices? What is the Centre doing about it? Control the prices and bring them under a statutory regime under the Drugs Control Act or the Patents Act, the Bench addressed Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, for the Centre. Justice Bhat pointed out to the law officer, this is a pandemic and a national crisis. If this is not the time to issue such powers (to control prices), then when is it? The court directed the government to file an affidavit by April 30.

C) SC allows Vedanta to produce oxygen at the Sterlite plant in Tamil Nadu.

Supreme Court on Tuesday allowed Vedanta to operate its oxygen production unit at its Sterlite Copper premises in Thoothukudi as an extraordinary measure to tide over the national shortage of oxygen amid the second wave of Covid-19. The court that the Tamil Nadu government had met stakeholders extensively both at the executive and political levels and decided to let Vedanta operate the plant, which would be able to produce up to 200 MT of liquid oxygen within 10 days. With this, the State overcame its initial objections to the reopening of the Vedanta premises, which were closed in 2018 due to environmental problems. They are inclined to allow Vedanta’s prayer to operate the oxygen plant as a standalone unit. The order is passed only in view of the national need for oxygen. The order will not create any equity in favour of Vedanta, Justice Chandrachud noted. The Bench asked the Tamil Nadu government to form a committee to monitor Vedanta, which will include the District Collector, Tuticorin; SP Tuticorin; District Environmental Engineer; Sub Collector Tuticorin; and two government officials with knowledge of the affairs. Vedanta will not be allowed to enter and operate the copper smelting plant under the garb of this order. It is in the nature of an oversight panel. The committee will work in tandem with local community members and address their concerns. The order will hold ground till July 31.

D) Thoothukudi residents oppose the plan to resume operations at a sealed Sterlite plant.

A cross-section of Thoothukudi has decided to oppose any move to allow Vedanta’s sealed Sterlite Copper plant to resume operations even to produce oxygen for medical needs. The copper smelter unit at SIPCOT Industrial Complex has remained idle after it was closed in May 2018 following the death of 13 anti-Sterlite protesters who were killed in a police firing. Sterlite Copper chief executive officer Pankaj Kumar had submitted an appeal to the State government seeking permission to operate its oxygen plant alone at the copper smelter complex to supply 1,050 tonnes of oxygen per day to hospitals. The company also moved the Supreme Court with its offer. On April 22, the Central government supported the company, while Tamil Nadu opposed it. The State government had asked the Thoothukudi administration to conduct a public hearing on the issue and send its report on April 23 to enable it to submit an affidavit before the Supreme Court. The district administration had invited select people both in favour of and against the move to resume operations for oxygen production for the public hearing at the Collectorate. As people protested against restricting the number of invitees, eventually about 50 were allowed to attend the public hearing chaired by Collector K. Senthil Raj. Journalists were asked to leave within minutes of the commencement of the hearing that ended within 30 minutes. The Collector did not brief journalists as he rushed to prepare his report to be sent to the State government.

E) Govt lashes out at the Australian newspaper for showing Modi in poor light.

Facing a barrage of criticism from a number of international newspapers for its handling of the coronavirus crisis, the government hit out at The Australian newspaper for reproducing an article that portrayed Prime Minister Narendra Modi in a poor light, accusing him of leading India into a viral apocalypse. In a letter addressed to the Editor of the Australian newspaper Christian Dore, the Indian High Commission in Canberra said that the article sought to undermine the Modi government for its approach to the pandemic, which the government said had been universally acclaimed. It is astonishing to see that your respected publication has chosen to reproduce a baseless malicious and slanderous article without bothering to check the facts of the case with any authorities in the Government of India, said the rejoinder, signed by India’s Deputy High Commissioner, who claimed that last year’s lockdown, the ongoing vaccination drive, an up-gradation in diagnostics and treatment facilities, as well as India’s “Vaccine Maitri” initiative, where it exported 66 million vaccines to 80 countries (now 95 countries), were counters to the article’s assertions. It is unclear why the government chose to respond to the article in Canberra, given that it had been reproduced from the original article in The Sunday Times, in the U.K. previously, and is one of the several scathing columns written internationally about the government’s response. On Monday, The Sydney Morning Herald also published a piece, written by the former High Commissioner to India and board member of the Australia India institute John McCarthy that said that Modi’s government has not distinguished itself, by allowing the Kumbh Mela and going ahead with massive rallies as the coronavirus pandemic spread.

F) No request for Covid-19 facilities at a five-star hotel, says Delhi High Court.

The Delhi High Court on Tuesday said it has not made any request for creating Covid-19 facilities for its judges, staff and their families in a five-star hotel. Taking suo motu cognisance of news reports which said that 100 rooms at Ashoka Hotel in the national capital have been converted into a COVID health facility for judges of Delhi High Court on its request, a bench of Justices Vipin Sanghi and Rekha Palli said, No communication has been made to anyone in this regard. They have not made any such request for taking over facilities of a five-star hotel, the bench said and directed the Delhi government to take corrective steps immediately. In an order issued by the sub-divisional magistrate of Chanakyapuri on April 25, it was stated that the COVID facility at Ashoka Hotel will be associated with Primus Hospital. The order also said that the facility was being set up at the request of the Delhi High Court. Terming the order as wrong, the bench said the image is projected as a result of it was that the Delhi High Court judges have taken it for their benefit or that the Delhi government has done it to appease the court. The High Court also did not agree with senior advocate Rahul Mehra’s claim that the media played mischief, saying the media is not wrong. It said that the media only pointed out what was wrong in the order and it was the SDM’s order which was wrong.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) The U.S. will share vaccines from AstraZeneca once the vaccine clear federal safety reviews.

The U.S. will begin sharing its entire pipeline of vaccines from AstraZeneca once the vaccine clear federal safety reviews, the White House said, with as many as 60 million doses expected to be available for export in the coming months. The move greatly expands on the Biden administration’s action last month to share about 4 million doses of the vaccine with Mexico and Canada. The AstraZeneca vaccine is widely in use around the world but not yet authorised by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. The move comes as the White House is increasingly assured about the supply of the three vaccines being administered in the U.S., particularly following the restart of the single-dose Johnson & Johnson shot over the weekend. Given the strong portfolio of vaccines that the U.S. already has and that have been authorised by the FDA, and given that the AstraZeneca vaccine is not authorised for use in the U.S., we do not need to use the AstraZeneca vaccine here during the next several months, said White House COVID-19 coordinator Jeff Zients. Therefore the U.S. is looking at options to share the AstraZeneca doses with other countries as they become available.

B) Iran, U.S. warships engage in a tense encounter.

American and Iranian warships had a tense encounter in the Gulf earlier this month, the first such incident in about a year amid wider turmoil in the region over Tehran’s tattered nuclear deal, the U.S. Navy said on Tuesday. Footage released by the Navy showed a ship commanded by Iran’s Revolutionary Guard cut in front of the USCGC Monomoy, causing the Coast Guard vessel to come to an abrupt stop with its engine smoking on April 2. The Guard also did the same with another Coast Guard vessel, the USCGC Wrangell, said Commodore Rebecca Rebarich, a spokeswoman for the Navy’s 5th Fleet. Such close passes risk the ships colliding at sea. Iran did not immediately acknowledge the incident. The interaction marked the first unsafe and unprofessional incident involving the Iranians since April 15, 2020, she said. However, Iran had largely stopped such incidents in 2018 and nearly in the entirety of 2019, she said. In 2017, the Navy recorded 14 instances of what it describes as unsafe interactions with Iranians.

SSC CPO 16 March 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC CPO 16th-March-2019-Shift-3

Reasoning

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 Three of the following four word-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. Carpenter : Saw

B. Warrior : Sword

C. Author : Pen

D. Mason : Knife

Answer: D

Q. 2 ‘Cardiology’ is related to ‘Heart’ in the same way as ‘Pathology’ is related to ‘……….’.

A. Diseases

B. Man

C. Body

D. Soil

Answer: A.

Q. 3 In a code language, 54831 is coded as 63922. What will be the code for 86274 in that language?

A. 75365

B. 77185

C. 95365

D. 95185

Answer: C.

Q. 4 Three of the following four options are similar in a certain way and one is different. Find the one that is different.

A. 6 – 36 – 216

B. 10 – 100 – 1000

C. 3 – 6 – 27

D. 5 – 25 – 125

Answer: C.

Q. 5 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. RY : QZ :: HK :

A. GJ

B. GL

C. IL

D. IM

Answer: B.

Q. 6 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following three classes.

Hospital, Doctor, Patient

Answer: D.

Q. 7 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 215

B. 169

C. 144

D. 196

Answer: A.

Q. 8 A. Nurse moved 90 m in the East in a hospital to look for her duty Doctor, then she turned right and went 20 m. After this she turned right and after going 30 m she reached I.C.U. but the Doctor was not there. From there she went 100 m to her north and met her doctor. What distance did she moved to meet her duty doctor from the starting point.

A. 100 m

B. 120 m

C. 80 m

D. 140 m

Answer: A.

Q. 9 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 5 : 29

B. 8 : 62

C. 3 : 7

D. 6 : 34

Answer: A.

Q. 10 In the following diagram, the rectangle represents doctors, the triangle represents players and the circle represents philosophers. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons.

According to the given diagram, How many players are philosophers but not Doctors?

A. 17

B. 7

C. 5

D. 12

Answer: A.

Q. 11 Which number will come next in the following series? 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, …….

A. 139

B. 127

C. 125

D. 126

Answer: B.

Q. 12 Given is a set of three figures, X, Y and Z, showing the folding sequence of a piece of paper. Fig Z shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Study these figures carefully and select the option that would most closely resemble this piece of paper when unfolded.

Answer: B.

Q. 13 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the right side.

Answer: D.

Q. 14 Two statements are given, followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some boxes are dolls. All dolls are pens. Conclusions: I. Some boxes are pens. II. Some pens are boxes. III. Some pens are dolls. IV. All pens are dolls.

A. Only conclusions I, II and IV follow.

B. All the conclusions follow.

C. Only conclusions I, II and III follow.

D. Only conclusions II, III and IV follow.

Answer: C.

Q. 15 Select the option that gives the correct explanation for the following group of words. Bridge, Link, Chain

A. They join two parts.

B. They are suits of cards.

C. They are types of medals.

D. They are jewels.

Answer: A.

Q. 16 Identify the number that does NOT belong in the given series. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 344, 512, 729

A. 512

B. 729

C. 64

D. 344

Answer: D.

Q. 17 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1) Alarm Set 2) Office 3) Car 4) Wake up 5) Alarm Rang 6) Get Ready

A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 6, 2

B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

C. 1, 4, 5, 6, 3, 2

D. 1, 5, 4, 6, 3, 2

Answer: D.

Q. 18 Choose the option which has the relation as the words given below : boy : girl

A. horse – roe

B. cat – Kitten

C. cock – hen

D. donkey – bray

Answer: C.

Q. 19 Find the number of squares in the following figure.

A. 6

B. 4

C. 9

D. 7

Answer: D.

Q. 20 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?, 65, 82, 101

A. 48

B. 42

C. 50

D. 49

Answer: C.

Q. 21 If ‘A’ denotes ‘ ÷ ’, ‘B’ denotes ‘ × ’, ‘C’ denotes ‘ + ’ and ‘D’ denotes ‘ − ’, then what will be the value of the following expression? 12 B. 12 A. 4 C. 5 D. 1

A. 39

B. 50

C. 40

D. 59

Answer: C.

Q. 22 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. UVwXXYY

B. BCdEFFF

C. IJkLLMM

D. PQrSSTT

Answer: B.

Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 25 : 15625 :: 30 : ……..

A. 2700

B. 27000

C. 900

D. 2500

Answer: B.

Q. 24 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All plants are flowers.

No flower is blue.

Conclusions:

I. Some plants are blue.

II. Those plants that are not flowers are blue.

A. Only conclusion II follows.

B. Only conclusion I follows.

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

D. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: C.

Q. 25 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. Cairo

B. Paris

C. Ottawa

D. Kyat

Answer: D.

Q. 26 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? XCA, WDZ, UFX, RIU, NMQ,?

A. IKJ

B. JKO

C. JFU

D. IRL

Answer: D.

Q. 27 Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite the face showing 4?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 6

Answer: B.

Q. 28 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

Answer: A.

Q. 29 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given set of words (in the same order). Hand : Finger : Ring

A. Face : Nose : Nose pin

B. Anklet : Foot : Ankle

C. Earring : Ear : Jewel

D. Cap : Head : Hair

Answer: A.

Q. 30 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Select the most appropriate option for these numbers in relation to their inclusion in the series. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, (12), 14, 16, (18), 20

A. The first bracketed number is correct and the second is incorrect.

B. The first bracketed number is incorrect and the second is correct.

C. Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.

D. Both the bracketed numbers are correct.

Answer: D.

Q. 31 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: B.

Q. 32 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Select the most appropriate option for these numbers in relation to their inclusion in the series. 1, 9, 25, 49, (81), 121, 169, (215), 239

A. Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.

B. The first bracketed number is incorrect and the second is correct.

C. The first bracketed number is correct and the second is incorrect.

D. Both the bracketed numbers are correct.

Answer: C.

Q. 33 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. FEDC.

B. YXVW

C. LKIJ

D. NMKL

Answer: A.

Explanation: The arrangement of the alphabets are in the alphabetical order in the following manner- 3rd alphabet-4th alphabet-2nd alphabet-1st alphabet

Option A. violates this arrangement so is the odd one out.

Option A. is correct.

Q. 34 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 13 : 84.5 :: 20 : ……

A. 120

B. 150

C. 100

D. 200

Answer: D.

Explanation:

13 : 1322= 84.5

20 : 2022 = 200

Option D. is correct.

Q. 35 If TEMPLE is coded as ELPMET, then how will CHURCH be coded as?

A. HCURCH

B. HCRUHC.

C. HCRUCH

D. HCURHC.

Answer: B.

Explanation: The alphabets in TEMPLE are coded in opposite i.e ELPMET

Therefore CHURCH is coded as HCRUHC.

Option B. is correct

Q. 36 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 64 : 6

B. 7 : 49

C. 10 : 100

D. 4 : 16

Answer: A.

Explanation: The second number is the square of the first number, for ex 4² = 16

Option A. violates that.

Option A. is correct

Q. 37 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following three classes. Stationery, Pencil, Apple

Answer: B.

Explanation: Pencil is a stationery item and apple is not.Therefore the following diagram explains it.

Option B. is correct.

Q. 38 Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?

18 − 3 ÷ 6 + 24 × 12 = 48

A. × and − , 3 and 6

B. ÷ and − , 12 and 6

C. × and + , 3 and 6

D. ÷ and × , 3 and 12

Answer: A.

Explanation: Using Option A, we put them in the equation , 18 − 3 ÷ 6 + 24 × 12 = 48

18 × 6 ÷ 3 + 24 − 12 = 48

So option A. satisfies the equation.

Option A. is correct.

Q. 39 If ‘ARUN’ is coded as 54, then how will ‘VARUN’ be coded as?

A. 76

B. 78

C. 67

D. 87

Answer: A.

Explanation: We add the corresponding numerical values of the alphabets as per the alphabetical series.

A. = 1, R = 18, U=21, N = 14, V=22

ARUN = 1+18+21+14 = 54

VARUN = 22+1+18+21+14 = 76

Option A. is correct.

Q. 40 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

Answer: B.

Explanation: Option B. is correct.

Q. 41 In a certain code language, ‘mee muk pic’ means ‘roses are yellow”, ‘nil dic’ means ‘white flowers’ and ‘pic muk dic’ means ‘flowers are fruits’. What is the code for ‘white’ in that language?

A. muk

B. nil

C. dic

D. pic

Answer: B.

Q. 42 Select the option that will come next in the given series.

Answer: A.

Explanation: The image is getting rotated by 90 degrees in the counterclockwise direction.

Option A. is correct.

Q. 43 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. Apple : Fruit :: Spinach : ……..

A. Food

B. Flower

C. Root

D. Vegetable

Answer: D.

Explanation: Apple is a fruit and Spinach is a vegetable.

Apple : Fruit :: Spinach : Vegetable

Option D. is correct.

Q. 44 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

Answer: A.

Explanation: The image is getting rotated by 90 degrees and also 1 parallel line is being added.

Option A. is correct.

Q. 45 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 4 : 20 :: 8 : …..

A. 64

B. 40

C. 56

D. 32

Answer: B.

Explanation: 4 : 20 :: 8 : 40

4 × 5 = 20 and 8 × 5 = 40

Option B. is correct.

Q. 46 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure .

Answer: C.

Explanation:

Option C. is correct.

Q. 47 Which of the following two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

6 ÷ 5 − 5 × 5 + 6 = 35

A. + and −

B. + and ÷

C. × and −

D. ÷ and ×

Answer: D.

Explanation: Using option D. we get,

6 × 5 − 5 ÷ 5 + 6 = 35

Option D. is correct.

Q. 48 Rama walks from his university campus 4 km towards north and then turns to the right to reach his department. Alter walking 2.5 km from the department he turns to the left and walks 4 km and reached Conference hall. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?

A. South-West

B. North-East

C. South

D. West

Answer: B.

Explanation: Rama walks from his university campus 4 km towards north and then turns to the right to reach his department. Alter walking 2.5 km from the department he turns to the left and walks 4 km and reached Conference hall.

So he is in the north east direction from the starting place. (The dashed line shows the direction)

Option B. is correct.

Q. 49 Which letter will come next in the following series? Z, U, Q, N, L, ……

A. M

B. G

C. H

D. K

Answer: D.

Explanation: The alphabets are in reverse alphabetical order in the following pattern :

Z → (−5)U → (−4)Q → (−3)N → (−2)L → (−1)K

Option D. is correct.

Q. 50 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Gateway of India 2. World 3. Mumbai 4. India 5. Maharashtra

A. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

B. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

D. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1

Answer: C.

Explanation: The chronological order for the following is as follows : (as per geography)

2. World > 4. India > 5. Maharashtra > 3. Mumbai > 1. Gateway of India

Option C. is correct.

General knowledge

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 Citrullus lanatus is the botanical name for ……..

A. Apple

B. Watermelon

C. Banana

D. Orange

Answer: B.

Q. 52 …… founded the ‘Bal Charkha Sangh’, where children were taught to spin & weave.

A. Vinoba Bhave

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: C.

Q. 53 The 11th President of India, ……… was also known as the ‘Missile Man’.

A. K R Narayanan

B. Zakir Hussein

C. APJ Abdul Kalam

D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

Answer: C.

Q. 54 The Hindi film ‘Kai Po Che’ is based on the book titled ……. by Chetan Bhagat.

A. Two States

B. One Night At The Call Centre

C. Three Mistakes Of My Life

D. Five Point Someone

Answer: C.

Q. 55 Who was the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog as of January 2019?

A. Narendra Modi

B. Sushma Swaraj

C. Amit Shah

D. Ram Nath Kovind

Answer: A.

Q. 56 Who is the founder of the biotech Indian company called ‘Biocon’?

A. Ratan Tata

B. Indu Jain

C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw

D. Mukesh Ambani

Answer: C.

Q. 57 The fear of foreigners is called:

A. Toxiphobia

B. Xenophobia

C. Sitophobia

D. Theophobia

Answer: B.

Q. 58 Malus pumila is the botanical name of the ………. tree.

A. Orange

B. Water melon

C. Banana

D. Apple

Answer: D.

Q. 59 The Panchayat Raj System was first adopted by the state of ………

A. West Bengal

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Rajasthan

Answer: D.

Q. 60 The Puma Kumbh Mela takes place every ……… years at one of the four places by rotation, Prayag, Haridwar, Ujjain and Nashik.

A. six

B. two

C. twelve

D. three

Answer: C

Q. 61 The festival of ___________ is also known as Phagawa.

A. Diwali

B. Holi

C. Sankranti

D. Ganesh Chaturthi

Answer: B.

Q. 62 Which of the following flowers is botanically known as Narcissus?

A. Carnation

B. Rose

C. Daffodil

D. Lily

Answer: C.

Q. 63 Pung Cholam is the folk dance of which state ?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Manipur

C. Kerala

D. Karnataka

Answer: B.

Q. 64 Which of the following is the unit of Magnetic field strength?

A. Ohm

B. Gauss

C. Tesla

D. Weber

Answer: C.

Q. 65 Padma Vibhushan is the …………. civilian award of India.

A. highest

B. second highest

C. third highest

D. fourth highest

Answer: B.

Q. 66 ONGC. discovered the country’s first shale gas reserve at:

A. Chandikhol

B. Durgapur

C. Jamnagar

D. Padur

Answer: B.

Q. 67 ……. was born to the Chauhan King Someshvara and his queen Karpuradevi in 1166 CE.

A. Prithviraj Chauhan

B. Maharana Pratap

C. Maharaja Suraj Mal

D. Maharaja Man Singh

Answer: A.

Q. 68 According to the Vedic principles, which amongst the following is incorrect ?

A. Vaishyas or the common people were born from man’s legs

B. Kshatriyas or the warrior-kings were born from the man’s arms

C. Shudra or the labourer and servant were born from man’s feet

D. Brahmins or the learned ones were born from man’s ears

Answer: D.

Q. 69 Which of the following flowers is botanically known as Dianthus?

A. Rose

B. Lily

C. Daffodil

D. Carnation

Answer: D.

Q. 70 Gir National Park is known for its ……….

A. Red silk cotton

B. Orangutan

C. Cherry blossom

D. Asiatic Lions

Answer: D.

Q. 71 ……… was a professor of political science and economics at the University of Taxila.

A. Kautilya

B. Bindusara

C. Samudragupta

D. Ajatshatm

Answer: A.

Q. 72 Nyctophobia is the fear of:

A. Birds

B. Darkness

C. Light

D. Animals

Answer: B.

Q. 73 ………. is a textile art fiom Gujarat / Rajasthan.

A. Bandhani

B. Paithani

C. Chanderi

D. Ikat

Answer: A.

Q. 74 The festival of …………. is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars.

A. Sankranti

B. Navratri

C. Diwali

D. Holi

Answer: B.

Q. 75 In the body, excess of _____ is the reason for arthritis.

A. Lactic Acid

B. Acetic Acid

C. Nitric Acid

D. Uric Acid

Answer: D

Q. 76 Which of the following was NOT a part of the ‘Navratna’ at Vikramaditya’s court?

A. Kshapanaka

B. Kalidasa

C. Vararuchi

D. Surdas

Answer: D.

Q. 77 ……….. is situated at the confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers.

A. Vishnuprayag

B. Karnaprayag

C. Nandaprayag

D. Rudraprayag

Answer: D.

Q. 78 Which of the following clubs, founded in 1889, is the oldest Indian club still in operation as on January 2019?

A. Indian Bank Recreational Club

B. Calcutta Cricket & Football Club

C. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club

D. North Imphal Sporting Association

Answer: C.

Q. 79 The Indian Olympic Association has expressed interest to host the …………. summer Olympics.

A. 2020

B. 2024

C. 2032

D. 2028

Answer: C.

Q. 80 ………. city tops the list of top 10 richest cities in India, with 8 GDP of $ 209 billion.

A. New Delhi

B. Kolkata

C. Bengaluru

D. Mumbai

Answer: D.

Q. 81 The ancient name of the river Tungabhadra was:

A. Vitasta

B. Kubha

C. Pampa

D. Sindhu

Answer: C.

Q. 82 Prince Khurrarn grew up to be known as:

A. Jahangir

B. Akbar

C. Humayun

D. Shah Jahan

Answer: D.

Q. 83 Arundhati Roy won Man Booker Prize in 1997 for her book:

A. History of Wolves

B. 2 States

C. The Minisz of Utmost Happiness

D. The God of Small Things

Answer: D.

Q. 84 The BHIM app was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on:

A. 31^st October, 2016

B. 26^th January, 2016

C. 30^th December, 2016

D. 15^th August, 2016

Answer: C.

Q. 85 Who is the only foreigner to receive the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2019?

A. Anilkumar Manibhai Naik

B. Teejan Bai

C. Balwant Moreshwar Purandare

D. Ismail Omar Guelleh

Answer: D.

Q. 86 Natural pearls contain more than 80% ……….

A. sodium carbonate

B. calcium carbonate

C. silica

D. quartz

Answer: B.

Q. 87 Which of the following is the first port in India to become a public company?

A. Kandla

B. Mangalore

C. Ennore

D. Morrnugao

Answer: C.

Q. 88 India was divided into India and Pakistan by the ……….. Act.

A. India Independence

B. Division of India

C. Partition of India

D. Government of India

Answer: A.

Q. 89 ………… is the world’s richest cricket board as of year 2018.

A. England and Wales Cricket Board

B. Cricket South Africa

C. Board of Control for Cricket in India

D. Pakistan Cricket Board

Answer: C.

Q. 90 Tennis player Somdev Kishore Devvarman was awarded the ………. in 2018.

A. Padma Bhushan

B. Bharat Ratna

C. Padma Vibhushan

D. Padma Shree

Answer: D.

Q. 91 Which of the below mentioned human organs can regrow after damage in adults?

A. Lung

B. Gall bladder

C. Kidney

D. Liver

Answer: D.

Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a mint of the Sectnity Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL)?

A. India Government Mint, Gorakhpur

B. India Government Mint, Mumbai

C. India Government Mint, Hyderabad

D. India Government Mint, Kolkata

Answer: A.

Q. 93 …………. was affectionately called ‘Ba’.

A. Vijayalaxmi Pandit

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Kasturba Gandhi

D. Sarojini Naidu

Answer: C.

Q. 94 Eid ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, which falls in the ……… month of the Islamic calendar.

A. tenth

B. sixth

C. eighth

D. twelfth

Answer: A.

Q. 95 Name the recipient of the Padma Bhushan Award, 2019 for Trade and Industry (Food Processing).

A. Mahashay Dharam Pal Gulati

B. Narsingh Dev Jamwal

C. Harvinder Singh Phoolka

D. Vallabhbhai Vasrambhai Marvaniya

Answer: A.

Q. 96 Photophobia means:

A. Addiction to light

B. Addiction to taking photos

C. Sensitivity to light

D. Dislike towards taking photos

Answer: C.

Q. 97 Tata Iron And Steel company (TISCO) was incorporated in:

A. 1911

B. 1907

C. 1913

D. 1915

Answer: B.

Q. 98 Vedic civilisation flourished along the river ………..

A. Indus

B. Yamuna

C. Ganga

D. Saraswati

Answer: D.

Q. 99 The last Nizam of Hyderabad:

A. Nasir Jung

B. Qulich Khan

C. Mir Osman Ali Khan

D. Muzafar Jung

Answer: C.

Q. 100 Bos mutus is the scientific name for:

A. wild yak

B. Ox

C. Horse

D. Buffalo

Answer: A.

Quant

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 101 3 × 7 + 4 − 6 ÷ 3 − 7 + 45 ÷ 5 × 4 + 49 is equal to:

A. 99

B. 101

C. 103

D. 67

Answer: B.

Q. 102 A steel vessel has a base of length 60 cm and breadth 30 cm. Water is poured in the vessel. A cubical steel box having an edge of 30 cm is immersed completely in the vessel, By how much will the water rise?

A. 12 cm

B. 9 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 15 cm

Answer: D.

Q. 103 The given pie-chart, shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.

In the given pie-chart by what percentage the Promotion cost on the book is less than the Paper cost?

A. 75

B. 50

C. 25

D. 60

Answer: D.

Q. 104 If a + b − c = 7,ab − bc − ca = 21 , then a³ + b³ − c³ + 3abc =

A. -98

B. 98

C. 124

D. 117

Answer: A.

Q. 105 If two equal circles whose centres are O and O’ intersect each other at the point A. and B, OO’ = 12 cm and AB. = 16 cm, then radius of the circle is:

A. 12 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 14 cm

D. 10 cm

Answer: D.

Q. 106 A. boy increases his speed to 5/9 times of his original speed. By this he reaches his school 30 minutes before the usual time. How much time does he takes usually?

A. 67.50 minutes

B. 67.10 minutes

C. 67.75 minutes

D. 67.25 minutes

Answer: A.

Q. 107 The given bar chart, shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

In the given bar-chart, the ratio of total sales of all branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000 to 2001 is:

A. 55 : 48

B. 7 : 11

C. 45 : 58

D. 48 : 55

Answer: D

Q. 108 ₹15,000 was invested by A and B together to start a small business. They got a profit of ₹2,000 at the end of the year. B took his profit share of ₹600. How much did A invest?

A. ₹10,000

B. ₹2,000

C. ₹10,500

D. ₹9,000

Answer: C.

Q. 109 Pipe A. can fill a tank in 16 minutes and pipe B. empties it in 24 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together. after how many minutes should B. be closed, so that the tank is filled in 30 minutes?

A. 20 minutes

B. 18 minutes

C. 21 minutes

D. 15 minutes

Answer: C.

Q. 110 If roots of x² − 4x + a = 0 are equal, then a =

A. -8

B. 4

C. -4

D. 8

Answer: B

Q. 111 If a sum becomes ₹1,460 in two years and ₹1,606 in three years due to the compound interest, then annual rate of interest is:

A. 11%

B. 9%

C. 10%

D. 8%

Answer: C.

Q. 112 Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits?

A. 80

B. 60

C. 40

D. 20

Answer: C

Q. 113 Side AB of a triangle ABC is 80 cm long, whose perimeter is 170 cm. If angle ABC = 60^∘, the shortest side of triangle ABC measures ……… cm.

A. 25

B. 21

C. 17

D. 15

Answer: C.

Q. 114 (8 + 4 − 2) × (17 − 12) × 10 − 89 is equal to:

A. 4150

B. 4120

C. 413

D. 411

Answer: D.

Explanation: (8 + 4 − 2) × (17 − 12) × 10 − 89 = 10 × 5 × 10 − 89

= 500 − 89 = 411

Q. 115 When the integer n is divided by 7, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder if 5n is divided by 7?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Answer: D.

Explanation: Dividend = n

Divisor = 7

Quotient = Q

Remainder = 3

n = 7Q+3

Multiplying with 5,

5n = 35Q+15

Dividing with 7,

5n7+35Q7+157

Here, When 15 is divided by 7, the remainder will be 1.

Therefore, 1 will be the remainder when 5n is divided by 7.

Q. 116 A. earns ₹40 per hour and works for 12 hours. B. earns ₹60 per hour and works for 10 hours. Find the ratio of their per day wages.

A. 4 : 5

B. 5 : 4

C. 15 : 4

D. 6 : 5

Answer: A.

Explanation: Salary of A. per hour = Rs.40

Number of hours A. work per day = 12 hours

Then, Total salary A. gets per day = 12 × 40 = Rs.480

Salary of B. per hour = Rs.60

Number of hours B. work per day = 10 hours

Then, Total salary B. gets per day = 60 × 10 = Rs.600

Therefore, Ratio of their salaries = 480 : 600 = 4 : 5.

Q. 117 The perimeter of a square is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 14 cm. Find the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square.

A. 25.57 cm

B. 31.57 cm

C. 23.57 cm

D. 21.57 cm

Answer: C.

Explanation: Let the side of the square be a cm. Perimeter of the square = 4a cm.

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(16+14) = 2*30 = 60 cm Given, 4a = 50 => a = 15 cm

Diameter of semicircle = 15 cm

Then, Circumference of semicircle = 22/7 × 15/2 + 15 = 23.57 + 15 = 38.57cm

Q. 118 The unequal side of an isosceles triangle is 2 cm. The medians drawn to the equal sides are perpendicular. The area of the triangle is:

A. 1 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 2 cm

Answer: B.

Q. 119 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.

In the given line graph. what is the total sale of Product A. in the year 2005 and 2009 taken together?

A. 17500

B. 18500

C. 14600

D. 16400

Answer: D.

Explanation: Production of A. in 2005 = 11000

Sale of A. in 2005 = 60% of 11000 = 6600

Production of A. in 2009 = 14000

Sale of A. in 2009 = 70% of 14000 = 9800

Therefore, Total production of A. in 2005 and 2009 together = 6600+9800 = 16400.

Q. 120 When the sun’s angle of depression changes from 30∘ to 60∘ . the length of the shadow of a tower decreases by 70 m. What is the height of the tower?

A. 45.65 m

B. 60.55 m

C. 65.55 m

D. 36.55 m

Answer: B.

Explanation: Let the initial distance of the shadow from the foot of the tower be x m Then, New distance will be (x-70) m

Tan30⁰ = hx

=13=hx

=x=h3

tan600=hx-70

=3=hx-70

=3=hh3-70

=h=3(h3-70)

=h=3h-703

=2h=703

=h=353=351.73=60.55m

Therefore, The height of the tower = 60.55 m

Q. 121 If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is equal to:

A. 4% of a

B. 2% of a

C. 16% of a

D. 8% of a

Answer: A.

Explanation: Given, 20% of a = b

Then, b% of 20 = 20% of b = 20% of 20% of a

= ⅕ × ⅕ × a = 1/25× a

= 4% of a

Q. 122 (cosecA. − sinA)² + (secA. − cosA)² − (cotA. − tanA)² is equal to.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. -1

Answer: A.

Explanation: (cosecA. − sinA)² + (secA. − cosA)² − (cotA. − tanA)²

= cosec² A. + sin² A. − 2cosecAsinA. + sec² A. + cos² A. − 2secAcosA. − (cot² A. + tan² A. − 2cotAtanA)

= cosec² A. + sin² A. − 2 + sec² A. + cos² A. − 2 − cot² A. − tan² A. + 2

= (cosec² A. − cot² A) + (sin² A. + cos² A) + (sec² A. − tan² A) − 2

= 3 − 2 = 1

Q. 123 0.72×0.72×0.72−0.39×0.39×0.390.72×0.72+0.72×0.39+0.39×0.39is equal to:

A. 0.33

B. 0.45

C. 0.39

D. 0.36

Answer: A.

Explanation: Given fraction is in the form of a3-b3a2+ab+b2 which is a − b

Here, a = 0.72 and b = 0.39

Therefore, a − b = 0.72 − 0.39 = 0.33

Q. 124 A. number is first decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. The number so obtained is 100 less than the original number. The original number is:

A. 100000

B. 100

C. 10000

D. 1000

Answer: C.

Explanation: Let the number be 100x.

New number after decrease and increase of 10% = 100x 90100110100=99x

Given, 100x-99x = 100

x = 100

Then, The original number = 100x = 100*100 = 10000.

Q. 125 A. man could not decide between discount of 30% or two successive discounts of 25% and 5%, both given on a shopping of ₹2,000. What is the difference between both the discounts?

A. ₹15

B. No difference

C. ₹20

D. ₹25

Answer: D.

Explanation: Given, Marked Price = Rs.2000

Discount-1 = 30% of Rs.2000 = Rs.600

Effective discount with discounts of 25% and 5% = 25-5 + 255/100 = -30 + 1.25 = -25.75%

28.75% of Rs.2000 = Rs.575

Therefore, Difference between the discounts = Rs.600 – Rs.575 = Rs.25.

Q. 126 At what rate percent per annum with simple interest will a sum of money double in 12.5 years?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12.5

D. 6

Answer: A.

Explanation: Let the Principal be Rs.P

Amount after 12.5 years = Rs.2P

Interest = Rs.2P – Rs.P = Rs.P Let the rate of interest be R%

=> PR12.5100=P

R=10012.5=8%

Therefore, Rate of interest = 8%.

Q. 127 The LCM of two numbers is 168 and their HCF is 12. If the difference between the numbers is 60. What is the sum of the numbers?

A. 122

B. 164

C. 112

D. 108

Answer: D.

Explanation: Let the two numbers be a and b.

Product of two numbers = Product of their LCM and HCF

ab = 168*12 = 2016

Given, a-b = 60

(a + b)² = (a − b)² + 4ab

(a + b)² = 60² + 4 × 2016 = 3600 + 8064 = 11664

Then, a + b = 108

Therefore, Sum of two numbers = 108.

Q. 128 If x + x⁻¹ = 2 , then the value of x³ + x−3 is:

A. 3

B. ½

C. 1

D. 2

Answer: D.

Explanation:

Given, 1x + x=2

Cubing on both sides

Q. 129 A. unique circle can always be drawn through x number of given non-collinear points, then x must be:

A. 1

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

Answer: D.

Explanation: A. unique circle can be drawn using 3 non-collinear points. Hence, x = 3.

Q. 130 The speed of a car increases by 2 km/hr after every one hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 km, what was the total distance travelled in 12 hours?

A. 558 km

B. 650 km

C. 560 km

D. 552 km

Answer: D.

Explanation: The distances travelled by the car in each hour will be 35,37,39,…. The distance travelled in the last hour will be 35/12 + (12 – 1)2 = 35 + 12 = 57 km

Then, Total distance travelled in 12 hours = 2(35 + 57) = 6 × 92 = 552 km

Q. 131 Seema bought a mobile at a discount of 20%. Had she received a discount of 25%, she could have saved an additional ₹1000. How much did she pay for the mobile ?

A. ₹24,000

B. ₹22,000

C. ₹25,000

D. ₹16,000

Answer: D.

Explanation: Let the MRP of the mobile be Rs.100x

Discount = 20% of Rs.100x = Rs.20x

Selling Price = Rs.100x – Rs.20x = Rs.80x

If the discount is 25%, then Selling Price = 75% of Rs.100x = Rs.75x

Given, Rs.80x – Rs.75x = Rs.1000 5x = 1000

x = 200

Then, Amount which Seema paid = Rs.80x = Rs.80*200 = Rs.16000.

Q. 132 The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 60.25 kg and that of the remaining 10 boys is 45.75 kg. The average weight of all boys in the class is:

A. 54.67

B. 53.76

C. 55.37

D. 56.27

Answer: A.

Explanation: Given, Average weight of 16 students = 60.25 kg

Then, Total weight of 16 students = 60.25*16 = 964 kg

Average weight of 10 students = 45.75 kg

Then, Total weight of 10 students = 45.75*10 = 457.5 kg/1421.5 26

Then, Total weight of 26 students = 964+457.5 = 1421.5 kg

Therefore, Average weight of 26 students = 26 = 54.67kg

Q. 133 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.

In the given line graph, what is the total sale of Products A. and B. in the year 2007?

A. 13460

B. 10290

C. 11500

D. 12490

Answer: B.

Explanation: Production of A. in 2007 = Rs.7000

Sale of A. in 2007 = 75% of Rs.7000 = Rs.5250

Production of B. in 2007 = Rs.9000

Sale of B. in 2007 = 56% of Rs.9000 = Rs.5040

Total sale of A. and B. in 2007 = Rs.5250+Rs.5040 = Rs.10290

Q. 134 A. cube of side 1 m length is cut into small cubes of side 10 cm each. How many such small cubes can be obtained?

A. 10

B. 100

C. 10000

D. 1000

Answer: D.

Explanation: Number of small cubes = Volume of large cube/Volume of each small cube

10313=10001=1000

Q. 135 A. sells a car to B. at 10% loss. If B. sells it for ₹5,40,000 and gains 20%. the cost price of the car for A. was:

A. ₹5,10,000

B. ₹5,40,000

C. ₹5,20,000

D. ₹5,00,000

Answer: D.

Explanation:

Q. 136 If a + b = 8,ab = −12, then a³ + b³

A. -244

B. -833

C. 800

D. 833

Answer: C.

Explanation: Given a + b = 8 ab = −12

Then, a³ + b³ = (a + b)³ − 3ab(a + b)

= 8³ − 3(−12)(8) = 512 + 288 = 800

Q. 137 The given pie-chart, shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.

In the given pie-chart, by what percentage Printing and Binding cost on the book is less than the other costs?

A. 50/3

B. 100/3

C. 47/3

D. 20/3

Answer: B.

Explanation: Total Printing and Binding cost = 20+20 = 40% of total cost

Other costs = 10+25+15+10 60% of total cost.

Therefore, Required percentage = 60

Q. 138 4/3 tan² 60⁰ + 3cos² 30⁰ – 2sec² 30⁰ – ¾ cot² 60⁰ is equal to:

A. 8/3

B. 5/4

C. 7/3

D. 10/3

Answer: D.

Explanation: 4/3 tan² 60⁰ + 3cos² 30⁰ – 2sec² 30⁰ – ¾ cot² 60⁰

=43(3)2+3(32)2-2(23)2-341(3)2

=433+334-243-3413

=4+94-83-14

=103

Q. 139 The average of 26 numbers is zero. Of them, how many may be greater than zero, at the most?

A. 0

B. 25

C. 20

D. 15

Answer: B.

Explanation: Given that the average of 26 numbers is zero. Then, Sum of 26 numbers = 0 In that, If sum of 25 numbers is 25a, then the 26th number should be -25a. Hence, Maximum 25 numbers can be greater than zero.

Q. 140 What will be total cost of polishing curved surface of a wooden cylinder at rate of ₹20 per m 2 , if its diameter is 40 m and height is 7 m?

A. ₹18600

B. ₹18400

C. ₹17500

D. ₹17600

Answer: D.

Explanation: Given, Diameter of the cylinder = 40 m Radius of the cylinder = 20 m Height of the cylinder = 7 m Curved

surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh

= 2 × 22/7× 20 × 7 = 880m2

For 1 sq.m, Rs.20 will be charged.

Then, for 880 sq.m, Rs.20*880 = Rs.17600 will be charged.

Q. 141 A. can do a work in 20 days, while B. can do the same work in 25 days. They started the work jointly. Few days later C. also joined them and thus all of them completed the whole work in 10 days. All of them were paid total of ₹700. What is the share of C?

A. ₹75

B. ₹55

C. ₹70

D. ₹65

Answer: C.

Explanation: Given, A. can do the work in 20 days. B. can do the work in 25 days

Efficiency of A. = 100/20 = 5%

Efficiency of B. = 100/25 = 4%

After a few days, C. joined.

If they work for 10 days, then (5+4)*10 = 90% of work will be completed by A. and B.

Remaining 10% of work will be done by C.

Hence, Salary of C. will be 10% of Rs.700 = Rs.70.

Instructions: The given bar chart. shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

Q. 142 In the given bar-chart, total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 taken together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is:

A. 560

B. 240

C. 310

D. 650

Answer: A.

Explanation: Total sales of B1(in thousands) = 105+80 = 185

Total sales of B3(in thousands) = 95+110 = 205

Total sales of B5(in thousands) = 75+95 = 170

Total sales of B1, B3 and B5 together(in thousands) = 185+205+170 = 560

Q. 143 In the given bar-chart, the ratio of total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 to total sales of branches B2, B4 and B6 taken together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is:

A. 45 : 23

B. 47 : 56

C. 56 : 47

D. 23 : 45

Answer: C.

Explanation: Total sales of B1(in thousands) = 105+80 = 185

Total sales of B3(in thousands) = 95+110 = 205

Total sales of B5(in thousands) = 75+95 = 170

Total sales of B1, B3 and B5 together(in thousands) = 185+205+170 = 560

Total sales of B2(in thousands) = 75+65 = 140

Total sales of B4(in thousands) = 85+95 = 180

Total sales of B6(in thousands) = 70+80 = 150

Total sales of B2, B4 and B6 together(in thousands) = 140+180+150 = 470

Therefore, Ratio = 560 : 470 = 56 : 47.

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 144 From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is . If the tower is 270 m high. the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:

A. 476.65 m

B. 367.65 m

C. 467.65 m

D. 376.65 m

Answer: C.

Explanation: Given, Height of the tower = 270 m

Let the distance from the foot of the tower to P be x m

Tan30 = AB/BP

13=270x

x=2703=2701.732=467.65m

Q. 145 The product of two numbers is 6760 and their HCF is 13. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B.

Explanation: Let the two numbers be 13x and 13y since HCF is divisible by two numbers.

13x × 13y = 6760

169xy = 6760

xy = 40

For HCF to be 13, there should be no common factors except 1.

Then, (x,y) can be (5,8) and (1,40).

Therefore, The numbers can be 13*5,13*8 = 65,104 and 13*1,13*40 = 13,520

Therefore, There can be 2 pairs of such numbers.

Q. 146 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank. if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?

A. 18

B. 16

C. 15

D. 17

Answer: A.

Explanation: Number of buckets₁ x Capacity of each bucket₁ = Number of buckets₂ x Capacity of each bucket₂

12 × 13.5 = 9 × x

=> x = 18

Therefore, Number of buckets required = 18 litres.

Q. 147 The line graph shows the production of product A. and B. (in thousands) during the period 2004 to 2009 and the second line Graph shows the percentage sale of these products.

In the given line graph, what is the total sale of Product B. in the year 2004 and 2008 together?

A. 12500

B. 14600

C. 11950

D. 11825

Answer: D.

Explanation: Production of B. in 2004 = 8500

Sale of B. in 2004 = 55% of 8500 = 4675

Production of B. in 2008 = 11000

Sale of B. in 2008 = 65% of 11000 = 7150

Total sale of B. in 2004 and 2008 together = 4675+7150 = 11825.

Q. 148 Original breadth of a rectangular box is 20 cm. The box was then remade in such a way that its length increased by 30% but the breadth decreased by 20% and the area increased by 100 cm². What is the new area of the box?

A. 2500 cm²

B. 2200 cm²

C. 2400 cm²

D. 2600 cm²

Answer: D.

Explanation: Let the length of the rectangle be l cm

Breadth of the rectangle = 20 cm

Area of the rectangle = 20l sq.cm

New length of the rectangle = 130% of l = 1.3l cm

New breadth of the rectangle = 80% of 20 = 16 cm

New area of the rectangle = 16*1.3l = 20.8l sq.cm

Given, 20.8l – 20l = 100

=> 0.8l = 100 => l = 125 cm

Therefore, New length of the rectangle = 1.3*125 = 162.5 cm

New area of the rectangle = 162.5*16 = 2600 sq.cm

Q. 149 The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pic-chart and answer the questions based on it.

In the given pie-chart, by what percentage the Royalty on the book is less than the Printing cost?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 10

D. 15

Answer: B.

Explanation: Expenditure of Royalty of book = 20%

Expenditure of printing = 15%

Required percentage = 20 – 1520100=520100=25%

Q. 150 3 men, 4 women and 6 children can complete a work in 7 days. A. woman does double the work a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this work in 7 days?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 9

D. 7

Answer: D.

Explanation: Efficiency of 2 children = Efficiency of 1 men = Efficiency of ½ women

Efficiency of 1 child = Efficiency of ¼ women

Efficiency of 6 children = Efficiency of 3/2 women

Therefore, Total efficiency of 3 men, 4 women and 6 children = 3/2 + 4 + 3/2 = 3 + 4 = 7 women

Therefore, 7 women are required to complete the work in 7 days.

English

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 151 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

It is known that …………, extreme weather, and diseases are the factors responsible for crop failure.

A. draught

B. draft

C. daft

D. drought

Answer: D.

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Passage:

By the 19205 the improvements in street lighting, domestic lighting and a surge in coffee houses – which were sometimes open all night — was complete. As the night became a place for legitimate activity, the length of time people could dedicate to rest dwindled.” Evening’s Empire puts forward an account of how this happened. “Associations with night before the 17th Century were not good,” it says. “The night was a place populated by people of disrepute – criminals, prostitutes and drunks. Even the wealthy, who could afford candlelight, had better things to spend their money on. There was no prestige or social value associated with staying up all night.”

That changed in the wake of the Reformation and the counter- Reformation. Protestants and Catholics became accustomed to holding secret services at night. If earlier the night had belonged to reprobates, now respectable people became accustomed to exploiting the hours of darkness. This trend migrated to the social sphere too, but only for those who could afford to live by candlelight. With the advent of street lighting, however, socializing at night began to filter down through the classes.

In 1667, Paris became the first city in the world to light its streets, using wax candles in glass lamps. It was followed by Lille in the same year and Amsterdam two years later, where a much more efficient oil powered lamp was developed. A. small city like Leipzig in central Germany employed 100 men to tend to 700 lamps. London didn‘t join their ranks until 1684 but by the end of the century, more than 50 of Europe’s major tovms and cities were lit at night. Night became fashionable and spending hours lying in bed was considered a waste of time.

“People were becoming increasingly time-conscious and sensitive to efficiency, certainly before the 19th Century,” says Roger Ekirch. “But the industrial revolution intensified that attitude by leaps and bounds.” Strong evidence of this shifting attitude is contained in a medical journal from 1829 which urged parents to force their children out of a pattern of first and second sleep. “If no disease or accident there intervene, they will need no further repose than that obtained in their first sleep.”

Today, most people seem to have adapted quite well to the eight-hour sleep, but Ekirch believes many sleeping problems may have roots in the human body’s natural preference for segmented sleep as well as the ubiquity of artificial light. This could be the root of a condition called sleep maintenance insomnia, where people wake during the night and have trouble getting back to sleep, he suggests. The condition first appears in literature at the end of the 19th Century, at the same time as accounts of segmented sleep disappear.

Q. 152 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the nights in 19205 in Europe?

A. Mostly people of disrepute haunted the streets at night.

B. Nights became a time for legitimate activity

C. Protestants and Catholics started holding secret services at night.

D. Socializing at night became common among all classes.

Answer: A.

Q. 153 Which of the following phenomena helped classdivision vanish vis-a-vis nightlife?

A. Counter-reformation

B. Reformation

C. Streetlights

D. Cheaper candles

Answer: C.

Q. 154 The author observes, “by the end of the century, more than 50 of Europe’s major towns and cities were lit at night.” Which century was he referring to?

A. 17th century

B. 19th century

C. 16th century

D. 20th century

Answer: A.

Q. 155 In which city were 100 men employed to tend to 700 lamps?

A. London

B. Lille

C. Amsterdam

D. Leipzig

Answer: D.

Q. 156 Which is the most significant cause of sleep maintenance insomnia?

A. ubiquity of artificial light

B. waking up during the night

C. a gowing belief in eight-hour-sleep blocs

D. ignoring the human body’s natural preference for segmented sleep

Answer: D.

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 157 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. miniature

B. municipality

C. monopoly

D. manpulates

Answer: D.

Q. 158 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

The problem of world hunger arises because of the economic inequality that distort food distribution.

A. that distort food distribution.

B. The problem of

C. because of the economic inequality

D. world hunger arises

Answer: A.

Q. 159 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Economic growth is sustainable only if all countries has food security.

A. sustainable only if

B. Economic growth is

C. has food security.

D. all countries

Answer: C.

Q. 160 Select the synonym of the given word PLEDGED.

A. promised

B. respected

C. fulfilled

D. honored

Answer: A.

Q. 161 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom. Go against the grain.

A. Something that is ugy and unpopular

B. Something in conflict with one’s value system

C. Something that we can accept with dilficulty

D. Something done deliberately

Answer: B.

Q. 162 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To beat a dead horse

A. A. significant effort

B. A. filtile effort

C. A. deliberate effort

D. A. joint effort

Answer: B.

Q. 163 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. constitutional right to cast vote

A. licensed

B. franking

C. fianchise

D. duty

Answer: C.

Q. 164 Select the antonym of the given word. PROVISIONAL

A. planned

B. permanent

C. insured

D. supplied

Answer: B.

Q. 165 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. power of reading thoughts of others

A. telepathy

B. medium

C. astrology

D. instinct

Answer: A.

Q. 166 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Bite the bullet

A. to restrain yourself from doing something unpleasant

B. to force yourself to do something unpleasant

C. to amuse yourself by doing something unpleasant

D. to dislike yourself for having done something unpleasant

Answer: B.

Q. 167 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.

With cloth in demand both at home, where the population was increasing, and abroad, where British colonies were a captive market, improving spinning methods were essential to meet the demand.

A. improve spinning methods were essential

B. improved spinning methods were essential

C. improved spirming methods was essential

D. No improvement

Answer: B.

Q. 168 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a place for the collection of dried plants

A. museum

B. aquarium

C. herbarium

D. flora

Answer: C.

Q. 169 Select the synonym of the given word. BENEFICIARIES

A. addressers

B. recipients

C. profiteers

D. donors

Answer: B.

Q. 170 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.

With Mumbai’s mad rush and heavy traffic, it becomes extremely difficult for people to reach their destination on time.

A. reached their destination on time.

B. to reaching their destination on time.

C. to reach their destination at time.

D. No improvement

Answer: D.

Q. 171 Select the synonym of the given word PREVENTIVE

A. prophetic

B. prepared

C. predicted

D. protective

Answer: D.

Q. 172 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. During the Great Depression, America’s dance marathon craze was more of a ……… strategy than a form of ………..

A. basic; entertainment

B. fundamental; celebration

C. survival; entertainment

D. survival; education

Answer: C.

Q. 173 Select the synonym of the given word. NEGLECTED.

A. superfluous

B. unknown

C. ignored

D. negated

Answer: C.

Q. 174 Select the antonym of the given word. PROVINCIAL

A. pastoral

B. public

C. rustic

D. metropolitan

Answer: D.

Q. 175 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. fasinated

B. fashion

C. facsimile

D. fastidious

Answer: A.

Q. 176 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.

Eighteenth-century machines typically used water power, hence the early factories was located on the fast-flowing rivers.

A. were located near the fast-flowing rivers.

B. was located near the fast-flowing rivers.

C. were located on the fast-flowing rivers.

D. No improvement

Answer: A.

Q. 177 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Trachoma is a debilitating and painful ……… which can cause the eyelashes to turn inwards and stab the eye.

A. taint

B. infection

C. contagion

D. factor

Answer: B.

Q. 178 Select the most appropriate meanmg of the given idiom. Caught red-handed

A. To discover a murderer using the clues

B. To catch a thief who steals red paints

C. To catch someone doing something illegal

D. To try to arrest someone without any evidence

Answer: C.

Q. 179 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Always a bridesmaid never a bride

A. Someone who always comes second

B. Someone who is born unlucky

C. Someone who fulfills his or her potential

D. Someone who does not deserve to win

Answer: A.

Q. 180 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. parakeets

B. pupeteer

C. puppies

D. parapet

Answer: B.

Q. 181 Select the antonym of the given word. SUBDUED.

A. subtle

B. excited

C. hushed

D. motivated

Answer: B

Q. 182 Identify the segnent in the sentence; which contains the grammatical error.

That his body did not decompose confirmed what the Greeks thought about him and what Alexander use to believe about himself-that he was not an ordinary man, but a god.

A. thought about him

B. he was not an ordinary man

C. use to believe about himself

D. his body did not decompose

Answer: C.

Q. 183 Identify the segment in the sentence; which contains the grammatical error.

When Alexander the Great died in Babylon in 323 B.C., his body didn’t begin to show signs of decomposition for a full six day, according to historical accounts.

A. his body didn’t begin to show

B. When Alexander the Great died

C. signs of decomposition for a full six day

D. according to historical accounts

Answer: C.

Q. 184 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. indicate

B. innovate

C. invite

D. innundate

Answer: D

Q. 185 Select the most approprlate Viord for the given group of words. excessive bureaucratic fuss

A. footnotes

B. red-tape

C. fastidious

D. officious

Answer: B.

Q. 186 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Moisture created ………. multitudes of visitors over the years has damaged King Tut’s tomb more than any vandalism and so conservators are working to …………… the historic monument …………. the impact of heavy-breathing, heavysweating tourists.

A. by; guard; against

B. by; dry; off

C. from; dry; against

D. from; guard; from

Answer: A.

Q. 187 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a book that contains information on various subjects

A. magazine

B. omnibus

C. guide

D. encyclopedia

Answer: D.

Q. 188 Select the antonym of the given word. INDICTED.

A. imprisoned

B. examined

C. hanged

D. released

Answer: D.

Q. 189 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Scientists and politicians are ……….. becoming aware of another factor that could seriously threaten the ………… balance between production and consumption of food and climate change.

A. duo; questionable

B. alike; shaky

C. both; tenuous

D. alike; feeble

Answer: C.

Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.

The growing demand for cotton spurred the Industrial Revolution in Britain and inducing Southern planters in America to grows more cotton.

A. No improvement

B. inducing Southern planters in America grew more cotton

C. induce Southern planters in America to grow more cotton

D. induced Southern planters in America to grow more cotton

Answer: D.

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. Passage:

Eating white bread and ready meals could be killing us, according to the first major study linking ‘fiilh‘a-processed” food with ………… (1) death. The study of 45,000 middle-aged people found that every 10 per cent increase in ……………. (2) of “ultra-processed food” was linked to a 14 per cent ……………. (3) risk of death within the next eight years. Previous research has linked consumption …………… (4) foods like white bread, ready meals, sausages, sugary cereals, fizzy drinks to a higher risk of high blood ………… (5) and cancer.

Q. 191 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.1.

A. quiet

B. early

C. easy

D. late

Answer: B.

Q. 192 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.2.

A. input

B. digestion

C. making

D. intake

Answer: D.

Q. 193 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.3.

A. declined

B. decreased

C. improved

D. increased

Answer: D.

Q. 194 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.4.

A. on

B. in

C. from

D. of

Answer: D.

Q. 195 Select the most approprlate option to fill in blank No.5.

A. coagulation

B. clotting

C. pressure

D. infection

Answer: C.

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 196 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. elementary

B. alleviasion

C. olfactory

D. election

Answer: B.

Q. 197 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Hemophilia, a blood clotting disorder, can be passed about the maternal line vdthin families; men are more likely to develop it, while women are usually carriers.

A. likely to develop it

B. a blood clotting disorder

C. can be passed about

D. the maternal line

Answer: C.

Q. 198 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, Select No improvement.

As a result of various inventions during Victoria’s reign, travel and communication became better and improved sanitation techniques turn filthy streets in clean roads.

A. turning filthy streets in clean roads.

B. turn filthy streets into clean roads.

C. No improvement

D. turned filthy streets into clean roads.

Answer: D.

Q. 199 Select the synonym of the given word. DISPROPORTIONATELY

A. unscientifically

B. unreasonably

C. unvaryingly

D. unknowingly

Answer: B.

Q. 200 Select the antonym of the given word. ASSAULT

A. attack

B. retreat

C. pacify

D. affront

Answer: B.

SSC CPO 16 March 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CPO 16th-March-2019-Shift-2

Reasoning

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 If AT = 20 and BEG = 70, then BANK = ……….

A. 318

B. 308

C. 228

D. 282

Answer: B

Q. 2 Identify the number that does NOT belong in the given series.

5, 9, 17, 29, 55, 65

A. 55

B. 29

C. 9

D. 5

Answer: A.

Q. 3 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 2047

B. 4702

C. 6041

D. 4306

Answer: C.

Q. 4 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct mirror image of the given figure?

Answer: D.

Q. 5 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Vegetables, Brinjal, Apple

Answer: C.

Q. 6 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (18, 54, 36)

A. (16, 40, 32)

B. (10, 40, 20)

C. (2, 6, 10)

D. (8, 24, 16)

Answer: D.

Q. 7 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given word-pair. Steel: Iron

A. Chromium : Silver

B. Brass : Copper

C. Bronze : Iron

D. Nickel : Tin

Answer: B.

Q. 8 Choose the option which has the same relation as the words given below : Airplane : Airport/Hangar

A. Car : Garage

B. Farm : Grains

C. Objects : Store/Storehouse

D. Horse : Saddle

Answer: A.

Q. 9 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

7 − 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 3 = 8 × 3 + 6 ÷ 2 − 3

A. 4 and 5

B. 7 and 5

C. 4 and 2

D. 6 and 7

Answer: B.

Q. 10 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1) Editor

2) Publisher

3) Author

4) Reader

5) Bookseller

A. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

B. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

D. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

Answer: A.

Q. 11 If ‘ × ’ stands for addition, ‘ ÷ ’ stands for subtraction, ‘ + ’ stands for multiplication, and ‘ − ’ stands for division, then what will be the value of the following expression?

26 ÷ 13 × 8 + 6 − 2

A. 17

B. 47

C. 27

D. 37

Answer: D.

Q. 12 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s) from the statements.

Statements: Some roads are metros. Some metros are cars.

Conclusions:

I. All cars are either roads or metros.

II. Some cars are metros.

A. Only conclusion I follows.

B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

C. Only conclusion II follows.

D. Either conclusion I or II follows.

Answer: C.

Q. 13 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. Lion

B. Whale

C. Elephant

D. Shark

Answer: D.

Q. 14 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Jaisalmer, Jaipur, Rajasthan

Answer: D.

Q. 15 Three of the following four number pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 37 : 75

B. 29 : 59

C. 28 : 56

D. 26 : 53

Answer: C.

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. ADGJ : ZWTQ :: MPSV : ………

A. NKHE

B. MKHE

C. NJGC.

D. GJLM

Answer: A.

Q. 17 ‘Optimist’ is related to ‘Pessimist’ in the same way as ‘Cheerful’ is related to ‘ ………

A. Selfish

B. Beautiful

C. Ugly

D. Gloomy

Answer: D.

Q. 18 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers. (12, 37, 112)

A. (15, 46, 139)

B. (7, 24, 73)

C. (13, 40, 118)

D. (9, 28, 83)

Answer: A.

Q. 19 Select the number-pair in which the two timbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 13 : 174

A. 15 : 224

B. 8 : 69

C. 14 : 200

D. 9 : 81

Answer: B.

Q. 20 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. KOTZ

B. DHMS

C. GIMP

D. FJOU

Answer: C.

Q. 21 In a certain code langiage, SON is written as 345 and ROAM is written as 6412. How will RANSOM be written as in the same language?

A. 615342

B. 651342

C. 615324

D. 612435

Answer: A.

Q. 22 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Identify the different one.

A. 15 : 115

B. 23 : 161

C. 29 : 203

D. 27 : 189

Answer: A.

Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. HVW : FTU :: DRS : …….

A. FTU

B. BOQ

C. BPQ

D. APQ

Answer: C.

Q. 24 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

1, 4, 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, ?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 31

D. 21

Answer: D.

Q. 25 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

7, 14, 33, 70, 131, ?

A. 190

B. 218

C. 131

D. 222

Answer: D.

Q. 26 Select the option that will come next in the given series.

Answer: C.

Q. 27 Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. UFXC.

B. SHBY

C. TGPK

D. YAJQ

Answer: D.

Q. 28 Select the correct alternative to indicate the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1) Knee 2) Heel 3) Ankle 4) Thigh 5) Calf

A. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5

B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4

C. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Answer: D.

Q. 29 If sign ‘+’ is interchanged with ‘÷’ and number ‘2’ is interchanged with ‘6’, which of the following equations would be correct?

A. 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 8

B. 2 + 8 ÷ 6 = 6

C. 2 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8

D. 2 + 6 ÷ 8 = 11

Answer: D.

Q. 30 Choose the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed to the right of the word.

Answer: A.

Q. 31 Select the option that will come next in the given series.

Answer: B.

Q. 32 How many squares are there in the following figure?

A. 8

B. 14

C. 10

D. 12

Answer: C.

Q. 33 If in a language, ‘foot’ is called ‘elbow’, ‘elbow’ is called ‘ankle’, ‘ankle’ is called ‘palm’, ‘palm’ is called ‘finger’ and ‘finger’ is called ‘knee’, then in that language, on what would one wear a ring?

A. Ankle

B. Knee

C. Palm

D. Finger

Answer: B.

Q. 34 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is difierent. Identify the different one.

A. 9 : 729

B. 13 : 2197

C. 7 : 343

D. 17 : 4814

Answer: D.

Q. 35 Select the option that is embedded in the following figure. (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: C.

Q. 36 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II Assuming these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: No Tablet is a lion. All lions are bells.

Conclusions:

I. No bell is the tablet.

II. Some bells are lions.

A. Only conclusion I follow.

B. Both conclusions I and II follow.

C. Only conclusion II follows.

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: C.

Q. 37 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

IVM, HWL, GXK, FYJ, ?

A. EZH

B. EAH

C. EZI

D. DZI

Answer: C

Q. 38 Which letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? B, E, H, K, N, ?

A. O

B. P

C. Q

D. N

Answer: C.

Q. 39 Select the Venn diagram that represents the correct relationship between the following classes. Fathers, Doctors, Singers

Answer: A.

Q. 40 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the given number pair. 68: 30

A. 350 : 49

B. 222 : 131

C. 125 : 27

D. 520 : 350

Answer: D

Q. 41 The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Answer: D.

Q. 42 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

A. Potato

B. Garlic

C. Tomato

D. Ginger

Answer: C.

Q. 43 A. man is facing towards the east. He then turns 45^∘ anti-clockwise, again 180^∘ anti-clockwise and then 225^∘clock wise. In which direction is he facing now?

A. West

B. North

C. South

D. East

Answer: D.

Q. 44 If in a certain code, EDITION is written as VWRGRLM, then which word will be coded as SLMVHGB?

A. HAUGHTY

B. HONESTY

C. AMNESTY

D. EDITORS

Answer: B.

Q. 45 ‘Belgium’ is related to ‘Europe’ in the same way as ‘Japan’ is related to ‘…..’.

A. Africa

B. Australia

C. Asia

D. Europe

Answer: C.

Q. 46 From his house, Avinash went to Kapil’s house situated 500 m towards the north-east of his own house. From there, both of them went to Varun’s house situated 400 m towards the south of Kapil’s house. What is the shortest distance between Avinash’s current location and his location at the beginning?

A. 900 m

B. 400 m

C. 300 m

D. 500 m

Answer: C.

Q. 47 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 23 : 138 :: 17 : ………

A. 96

B. 102

C. 346

D. 56

Answer: B.

Q. 48 If the following figure is folded to form a cube, how many dots would appear on the face opposite the face bearing four dots?

A. 5

B. 3

C. 6

D. 2

Answer: A.

Q. 49 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

Answer: B.

Q. 50 Select the option that will come next in the given series.

Answer: D.

General knowledge

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 Which of the following would you associate with the word ‘dioptre’?

A. Urology

B. Ophthalmology

C. Neurology

D. Oncology

Answer: B.

Q. 52 ………. fabric fiom Madhya Pradesh is registered with a GI tag.

A. Pembarthi

B. Chanderi

C. Bhagalpuri

D. Sholapuri

Answer: B.

Q. 53 Which of the following is NOT a nationalised bank?

A. South Indian Bank

B. Syndicate Bank

C. Canara Bank

D. Vijaya Bank

Answer: A.

Q. 54 Which of the following is NOT a national political party?

A. Nationalist Congress Party

B. Bhartiya Janata Party

C. United Democratic Party

D. Indian National Congress

Answer: C.

Q. 55 ‘Expectation is the root of all heartache’ is a quote by ……….

A. William Shakespeare

B. Dalai Lama

C. Mahavir

D. Buddha

Answer: A.

Q. 56 Considered one of the best in India, Temi Tea garden is the only tea estate in the state of:

A. West Bengal

B. Sikkim

C. Assam

D. Odisha

Answer: B.

Q. 57 Which renowned tabla player’s son is also a famous tabla player who has collaborated with international bands?

A. Ustad Bismillah Khan

B. Ustad Amjad Ali

C. Ustad Allah Rakha

D. Ustad Rashid Khan

Answer: C.

Q. 58 Who was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal?

A. Karunam Malleswari

B. Saina Nehwal

C. Mary Kom

D. Sakshi Malik

Answer: A.

Q. 59 ……… was honoured with the “Outstanding Parliamentarian Award” in 2017.

A. Hukum Dev Narayan

B. Bhartruhari Mahtab

C. Ghulam Nabi Azad

D. Dinesh Trivedi

Answer: B.

Q. 60 …….. is the biography of Sachin Tendulkar.

A. The Test of My Life

B. Playing to Win

C. Playing It My Way

D. Ace Against Odds

Answer: C

Q. 61 In humans, each cell normally contains ……….. pairs of chromosomes.

A. 22

B. 24

C. 23

D. 21

Answer: C.

Q. 62 Mangal Pandey was hanged in 1857 for attacking the British officers in:

A. Allahabad

B. Benaras

C. Calcutta

D. Barrackpore

Answer: D.

Q. 63 Who discovered radium?

A. Abdus Salam

B. Alexander Fleming

C. Pierre and Marie Currie

D. Ronald Ross

Answer: C.

Q. 64 Who is the second woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. Smriti Irani

B. Nirmala Sitharaman

C. Meira Kumar

D. Suman Mahajan

Answer: D.

Q. 65 India celebrates National Engineer’s Day on September 15, which is the birth anniversary of:

A. Veeru Shahastrabuddhi

B. Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya

C. E. Sreedharan

D. Shiva Ayyadurai

Answer: B.

Q. 66 ………… was the first President of the Bharatiya Janata Party.

A. Kushabhau Thakre

B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

C. Lal Krishna Advani

D. Murli Manohar Joshi

Answer: B.

Q. 67 Nepa Nagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for:

A. Steel Mills

B. Pottery

C. Sugar Mills

D. Newsprint Factory

Answer: D.

Q. 68 ‘All the world’s a stage, And all the men and women merely players’ — is a phrase from the play:

A. Macbeth

B. Julius Ceaser

C. The Merchant of Venice

D. As You Like It

Answer: D.

Q. 69 The Thimithi festival in Tamil Nadu is celebrated in the honor of:

A. Padmavati

B. Sita

C. Draupadi

D. Surpanakha

Answer: C.

Q. 70 Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) was established in:

A. 2001

B. 2005

C. 2003

D. 2006

Answer: D.

Q. 71 Penicillin, one of the world’s first antibiotics, was discovered by:

A. Marie Curie

B. Alexander Fleming

C. Alexander Graham Bell

D. Pierre Curie

Answer: B.

Q. 72 The Wright brothers completed the world’s first successfiil controlled powered flight in:

A. 1908

B. 1909

C. 1911

D. 1903

Answer: D.

Q. 73 The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in:

A. 1988

B. 1984

C. 1976

D. 1967

Answer: B.

Q. 74 Which of the following has an odometer?

A. Water heater

B. Car

C. Blood pressure monitoring device

D. Air pump

Answer: B.

Q. 75 The ………… period has been described as the ‘golden age’ of Indian history.

A. Mughal

B. Maratha

C. Gupta

D. Buddhist

Answer: C

Q. 76 Which of the following is NOT a printing press of the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL)?

A. Bank Note Press

B. Bank Security Press

C. Currency Note Press

D. Security Printing Press

Answer: B.

Q. 77 The Sanskrit phrase “Atithi Devo Bhava” means:

A. I salute you

B. The guest is God

C. Good day

D. See you soon

Answer: B.

Q. 78 Which Indian State/Union Territory has the shortest coastline?

A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

C. Puducherry

D. Tamil Nadu

Answer: C.

Q. 79 Who among the following is the highest-rated Visually impaired chess player in India?

A. Darpan Inani

B. Baskaran Adhiban

C. Krishnan Sasikiran

D. Pentala Harikrislma

Answer: A.

Q. 80 ………… was officially acknowledged as the most recorded artist in music history by the Guinness Book of World Records in 2011.

A. Mariah Carey

B. Asha Bhosle

C. Lata Mangeshkar

D. Beyonce

Answer: B.

Q. 81 Which Gharana of classical singing did late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?

A. Etawah

B. Malhar

C. Kirana

D. Dhrupad

Answer: C.

Q. 82 As of January 2019 ……….. was the longest serving Chief Minister of Gujarat.

A. Keshubhai Patel

B. Narendra Modi

C. Madhav Singh Solanki

D. Chimanbhai Patel

Answer: B.

Q. 83 Ohm’s Law states that:

A. Electric current = Voltage / Resistance

B. Power = Voltage +Current

C. Power = Voltage × Current

D. Electric current = Resistance / Voltage

Answer: A.

Q. 84 The Test of My Llfe is an autobiography of.

A. Yuvraj Singh

B. Sachin Tendulkar

C. MS Dhoni

D. Gautam Gambhir

Answer: A.

Q. 85 The names of the Wright brothers credited with inventing the airplane were:

A. William and Oliver

B. William and Orville

C. Wilbur and Orville

D. Wilbm and Oliver

Answer: C.

Q. 86 As on December 12, 2018 The Nationalist Congress Party was led by:

A. Sudhakar Reddy

B. Sharad Pawar

C. Rahul Gandhi

D. Sitararn Yechury

Answer: B.

Q. 87 Kanishka was a ……….. king.

A. Kushan

B. Gupta

C. Maurya

D. Chola

Answer: A.

Q. 88 ‘Sardeshmukhi’ in the Maratha regime was a:

A. Designation equivalent to Peshwa

B. A. coin during the Maratha regime

C. Tax levied on revenue

D. Name given to Shivaji

Answer: C.

Q. 89 ………. is the stigma of Crocus Sativus L.

A. Safiron

B. Turmeric

C. Artichoke

D. Ginger

Answer: A.

Q. 90 What is known as Hunter’s Moon in the West, is called as ……….. in India.

A. Pausha Purnima

B. Magha Purnima

C. Chaitra Purnima

D. Kartik Purnima

Answer: D.

Q. 91 Which of the following states is NOT famous for the Bhut Jolokia pepper?

A. Odisha

B. Nagaland

C. Manipur

D. Assam

Answer: A.

Q. 92 Inertia is proportional to:

A. Mass

B. Weight

C. Length

D. Height

Answer: A.

Q. 93 Fulminology is the study of:

A. Volcanic eruptions

B. Lightening

C. Natural gases

D. Atmosphere

Answer: B.

Q. 94 The …….. is a tax on production/manufacture of goods within the country.

A. Sales tax

B. Excise duty

C. Service tax

D. Customs duty

Answer: B.

Q. 95 Devanagari evolved from the ………. script.

A. Brahmi

B. Inuktikut

C. Hebrew

D. Kana

Answer: A.

Q. 96 ………… won a gold medal by setting a world record score in the men’s skeet final event of the 8th Asian Shotgun Championship held in Kuwait in December 2018.

A. Saeed Al Maktoum

B. Angad Vir Singh Bajwa

C. Vijay Kumar

D. Jitu Rai

Answer: B.

Q. 97 Which Indian state has the maximum number of sea ports?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Maharashtra

C. Gujarat

D. Kamataka

Answer: B.

Q. 98 The Mughal empire reached its greatest extent under:

A. Jahangir

B. Shah Jahan

C. Akbar

D. Aurangzeb

Answer: D.

Q. 99 ………… means the minimum lending rate which is determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and no bank is allowed to lend funds below this rate.

A. Cash reserve ratio

B. Base rate

C. Repo rate

D. Marginal cost

Answer: B.

Q. 100 This contemporary Indian dancer who merged Kathak and Kathakali with other dance forms has been awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1996 and Padma Shri in 2007. His/her name is:

A. Birju Maharaj

B. Jailal Misra

C. Astad Deboo

D. Uday Shankar

Answer: C.

Quant

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 101 If x − 1/ x= 2√ 2 , then x² + 1/ x²is equal to:

A. 16

B. 12

C. 11

D. 10

Answer: D.

Q. 102 2.4 converted to percentage is.

A. 0.24

B. 24

C. 240

D. 2.4

Answer: C.

Q. 103 A can do a work in 30 days, B can do the same work in 48 days. After working alone for 20 days A left and B started working, how long will B take to complete the work?

A. 24 days

B. 28 days

C. 38 days

D. 16 days

Answer: D.

Q. 104 The given pie chart shows the favorite sport of students of a school.

In the given pie-chart, if there were 1280 students in all, how many liked football?

A. 102

B. 550

C. 230

D. 384

Answer: D.

Q. 105 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4 and the perimeter is 72 cm. The sides are:

A. 24, 16, 32

B. 48, 24, 12

C. 36, 24, 12

D. 36, 18, 9

Answer: A.

Q. 106 What percent of 2.4 m is 3.2 cm?

A. 75 %

B. 7.5 %

C. 1000⅓ %

D. 13⅓ %

Answer: D.

Q. 107 A shopkeeper buys a book for ₹2,500 and marks its price at 15% above cost. He allows a discount of ₹345. The discount percentage is:

A. 10

B. 12

C. 11

D. 13

Answer: B

Q. 108 A sum at a Simple interest of 8% pa. becomes 7/5 of itself in how many years?

A. 5

B. 2½

C. 3½

D. 2

Answer: A.

Q. 109 PA and PB are two tangents to a circle with centre O, from a point P outside the circle. A and B are points on the circle. If ∠OAB = 38∘ , then ∠APB is equal to:

A. 25∘

B. 35∘

C. 20∘

D. 76∘

Answer: D.

Q. 110 The largest number of four digits that is exactly divisible by 15, 21 and 30 is:

A. 9840

B. 9910

C. 9830

D. 9870

Answer: D

Q. 111 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.

In the given bar chart, What is the difference between the average sales of televisions A and B for 3 years?

A. 78

B. 56

C. 104

D. 60

Answer: D.

Q. 112 Two pipes can fill a cistern in 72 and 90 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are left open how long will it take for the cistern to be half full?

A. 40 minutes

B. 24 minutes

C. 48 minutes

D. 20 minutes

Answer: D.

Q. 113 A. watch was sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold at ₹77 more the profit percent would have been 12%. The cost price of the watch is:

A. ₹3,760

B. ₹3,850

C. ₹3,945

D. ₹3,900

Answer: B.

Q. 114 Find the cost of carpeting a room which is 11 m long and 6 m broad by a carpet which is 60 cm broad at the rate of ₹112.50 per meter.

A. ₹12,375

B. ₹13,280

C. ₹11,695

D. ₹12,040

Answer: A.

Q. 115 A. trader allows a discount of 8% on the marked price. If the selling price is ₹667, the discount in rupees is:

A. ₹47

B. ₹54

C. ₹58

D. ₹43

Answer: C.

Q. 116 A field is 119 m×18 m in dimension. A tank of 17 m×6 m×3 m is dug out in the middle and the soil removed is evenly spread over the remaining part of the field. The increase in level on the remaining part of the field is:

A. 14 cm

B. 13 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 12 cm

Answer: C.

Q. 117 Divide ₹8,288 between A, B, and C. such that the proportion of their shares is 5 : 7 : 9. The share of C is:

A. ₹2,032

B. ₹3,552

C. ₹3,872

D. ₹2,612

Answer: B.

Q. 118 If 15 men can do a piece of work in 14 days, how many men will be needed to do the work in 30 days?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 7

D. 9

Answer: C.

Q. 119 The interest on ₹24,000 in 2 years compounded annually when the rates are 8% p.a and 10% p.a for two successive years is:

A. ₹3,994

B. ₹4,512

C. ₹5,040

D. ₹5,866

Answer: B.

Q. 120 15 − { 5 + 24 ÷ (3 × 9 − 15) } is equal to.

A. -2

B. 11 1/3

C. 6 1/4

D. 8

Answer: D.

Q. 121 The angle of elevation of a flying drone from a point on the ground is 60∘ . After flying for 5 seconds the angle of elevation drops to 30∘ . If the drone is flying horizontally at a constant height of 1000√3 m, the distance traveled by the drone is:

A. 2000 m

B. 1000 m

C. 3000 m

D. 4000 m

Answer: A.

Q. 122 An oil merchant has 3 varieties of oil of volumes 432, 594 and 702 litres respectively. The number of cans of equal size that would be required to fill the oil separately is:

A. 13, 15, 17

B. 8, 11, 13

C. 8, 13, 15

D. 6, 9, 11

Answer: B.

Q. 123 The table below shows the admission and transfer in standards 1-3 of a school.

In the given table, in Standard 1, how many students were there at the end of year 2016?

A. 223

B. 228

C. 236

D. 232

Answer: A.

Q. 124 The average of squares of numbers 1 to 5 is:

A. 11

B. 5

C. 8

D. 9

Answer: A.

Q. 125 210102 can be divided exactly by:

A. 7

B. 3

C. 4

D. 8

Answer: B.

Q. 126 A. pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours and a leak at the bottom can empty that full tank in 6 hours. If after the tank is ⅓ full, the leak is completely closed, how much time from the beginning will it take for the tank to get filled completely?

A. 12 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 9 hours

D. 20/3 hours

Answer: D.

Q. 127 In an examination, Shreya score 84 out of 90 in Mathematics, 45 out of 50 in Science, 23 out of 25 in Computer Science and 68 out of 80 in English. In which subject did Shreya score the highest percentage?

A. Mathematics

B. English

C. Science

D. Computer Science

Answer: A.

Q. 128 (−4) × (1020 ÷ 85 × 3 − 22) is equal to.-

A. -402

B. -56

C. 912

D. 72

Answer: B.

Q. 129 The value of cos² 45^∘ + sin² 30^∘ − sin2 60^∘ is equal to.

A. 3/2

B. ½

C. 0

D. 1

Answer: C.

Q. 130 A, B, and C are partners in a firm sharing profit in the ratio of 3 :4: 5. Ifthey set aside 4% of the profits as emergency find and shared the rest of the profit and B gets his share of profit as ₹1,81,400, the amount of profit set aside for emergency fund is:

A. ₹27,845

B. ₹18,140

C. ₹22,675

D. ₹24,500

Answer: C.

Q. 131 If (x − 2)³ + (x − 3)³ + (x − 10)³ = (x − 2)(x − 3)(3x − 30), then what is the value of x?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 18

D. 3

Answer: B.

Q. 132 In the triangle given above ∠ADB = 90∘ , ∠ABC = 45∘, AD = 10 cm, AC = 20 cm. The length of BC is:

A. 10 cm

B. 27.32 cm

C. 18.42 cm

D. 14.14 cm

Answer: B.

Q. 133 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.

In the given bar-chart, if profit earned per television by C in 1992 was ₹825, the total profit earned was:

A. ₹51150 1akhs

B. ₹5115 1akhs

C. ₹511.5 1akhs

D. ₹51.15 lakhs

Answer: B.

Q. 134 A. gardener planted 1936 saplings in a garden such that there were as many rows of saplings as the columns. The number of rows planted is:

A. 46

B. 44

C. 48

D. 42

Answer: B

Q. 135 A boy walks 15 m in 7 seconds and then walks back in 5 seconds. His average speed (in m/s) is:

A. 6

B. 2.5

C. 3.25

D. 4

Answer: B.

Q. 136 If a³ + b³ = 432 and a + b = 12,then (a + b)² − 3ab is equal to:

A. 42

B. 52

C. 36

D. 38

Answer: C.

Q. 137 The given bar chart, shows the sales (in thousands) for sets of televisions of three companies in three years.

In the given bar-chart, what is the ratio of television sales between A in year 1992 and C in year 1991?

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : 2

C. 2 : 1

D. 1 : 3

Answer: A.

Q. 138 A swimming pool is 40 m in length, 30 m in breadth, and 2.2 m in depth. The cost of cementing its floor and the four sides at ₹25/m² is:

A. ₹43,980

B. ₹37,540

C. ₹34,260

D. ₹37,700

Answer: D.

Q. 139 The value of cot² A − sin^1/²A is equal to:

A. 0

B. -1

C. -2

D. 1

Answer: B.

Q. 140 A river is 3 m deep and 36 m wide which flows at the rate of 5 km/h in to the sea. The volume of water that runs into the sea per minute is:

A. 8300 m

B. 9000 m

C. 7600 m

D. 6400 m

3333

Answer: B.

Q. 141 A part of the journey is covered in 31.5 minutes at 80 km/h and the remaining part in 16 minutes at 75 km/h. The total distance of the journey is:

A. 45 km

B. 38 km

C. 62 km

D. 54 km

Answer: C.

Q. 142 The given pie-chart shows favourite sport of students of a school.

In the given pie-chart, what is the difference in percentage between liking for football and basketball?

A. 10

B. 8

C. 13

D. 12

Answer: D.

Q. 143 A girl 1.2 m tall can just see the sun over a 3.62 m tall wall which is 2.42 m away from her. The angle of elevation of the sun is:

A. 30∘

B. 60∘

C. 90∘

D. 45∘

Answer: D.

Q. 144 The table below shows the admissions and transfers in standards 1-3 of a school.

In the given table, what was the total strength in Standards 1-3 at the end of 2015?

A. 723

B. 721

C. 710

D. 704

Answer: A.

Q. 145 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral such that AB is the diameter of the circle circumscribing it and angle ADC = 144∘. Then angle BAC is equal to (π = 22/7 )

A. 60∘

B. 150∘

C. 54∘

D. 40∘

Answer: C.

Q. 146 Which least number should be added to 1000 so that the number obtained is exactly divisible by 37?

A. 1

B. 25

C. 36

D. 13

Answer: C.

Q. 147 The given pie chart shows the favorite sport of students of a school.

In the given pie-chart, if the school strength was 2500, how many liked cricket more than hockey?

A. 1075

B. 504

C. 900

D. 750

Answer: C.

Q. 148 A rectangular solid is 20 cm long and 12 cm wide. If its volume is 2160 cm³, the height is:

A. 11 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 12 cm

D. 9 cm

Answer: D.

Q. 149 The table below shows the admission and transfer in standards 1-3 of a school.

In the given table, what was the difference between admission and transfer in standard 3 in 2016?

A. 3

B. 9

C. 8

D. 5

Answer: A

Q. 150 A. train 100 m long running at uniform speed crosses a station which is 500 m long in 25 seconds. How long will it take for the train to pass a station that is 380 m long?

A. 21 seconds

B. 20 seconds

C. 19 seconds

D. 22 seconds

Answer: B.

English

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 151 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

A. third of us are feeling compelled to check our phones in the middle of the night.

A. A. third among us feeling compelled to check our phones

B. A. third of us feel compelled to check our phones

C. No substitution required

D. A. third of us feel compelled checking our phones

Answer: B.

Q. 152 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.

A. harsh chaotic mixture of sounds

A. consonance

B. dissonance

C. cacophony

D. euphony

Answer: C.

Q. 153 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Scientists have found that life was creeping and crawling about the Earth 1.5 billion years early than previously thought.

A. previously thought

B. 1.5 billion years early than

C. Scientists have found

D. about the Earth

Answer: B.

Q. 154 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. horrible

B. heiress

C. hospitallity

D. hostility

Answer: C.

Q. 155 Select the synonym of the given word. DETRACTORS

A. devotees

B. reviewers

C. critics

D. admirers

Answer: C.

Q. 156 Select the synonym of the given word. IMMINENT

A. important

B. forthcoming

C. immature

D. truthful

Answer: B.

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Passage:

We often worry about lying awake in the middle of the night – but it could be good for you. A. growing body of evidence from both science and history suggests that the eight-hour sleep may be unnatural. In the early 19903, psychiatrist Thomas Wehr conducted an experiment in which a group of people were plunged into darkness for 14 hours every day for a month. It took some time for their sleep to regulate but by the fourth week the subjects had settled into a very distinct sleeping pattern. They slept first for four hours, then woke for one or two hours before falling into a second four-hour sleep. Though sleep scientists were impressed by the study, among the general public the idea that we must sleep for eight consecutive hours persists.

In 2001, historian Roger Ekirch of Virginia Tech published a seminal paper, drawn fiom 16 years of research, revealing a wealth of historical evidence that humans used to sleep in two distinct chunks. Roger Ekirch says a 1595 engraving by Jan Saenredam is evidence of activity at night. His book At Day’s Close: Night in Times Past, published four years later, unearths more than 500 references to a segmented sleeping pattern – in diaries, court records, medical books and literature, from Homer’s Odyssey to an anthropological account of modern tribes in Nigeria.

Much like the experience of Wehr‘s subjects, these references describe a first sleep which began about two hours after dusk, followed by waking period of one or two hours and then a second sleep. “It’s not just the number of references – it is the way they refer to it, as if it was common knowledge,”Ekirch| says. During this waking period people were quite active. They often got up, went to the toilet or smoked tobacco and some even visited neighbors. Most people stayed in bed, read, wrote and often prayed. Countless prayer manuals from the late 15th century offered special prayers for the hours in between sleeps. Ekirch found that references to the first and second sleep started to disappear during the late 17th Century. This started among the urban upper classes in northem Europe and over the course of the next 200 years filtered down to the rest of Western society. By the 19208 the idea of a first and second sleep had receded entirely fiom our social consciousness. He attributes the initial shift to improvements in street lighting, domestic lighting and a surge in coffee houses – which were sometimes open all night. As the night became a place for legitimate activity and as that activity increased, the length of time people could dedicate to rest dwindled.

Q. 157 The above passage ………. that an eight-hour sleep is natural.

A. confirms the myth

B. elaborates the myth

C. promotes the myth

D. examines the myth

Answer: D.

Q. 158 What did the experiment conducted by Thomas Wehr prove?

A. It brought into question that sleeping for four consecutive hours is necessary.

B. It proved sleeping for eight consecutive hours is not a norm.

C. It established that when the nights are longer, people slept in two distinct chunks.

D. It proved that all people slept in two distinct chunks of four hours.

Answer: B.

Q. 159 Roger Ekirch indicated that ……….

A. sleeping for eight consecutive hours is a modern standard for sleep.

B. a segmented sleeping pattern was an established common habit in nations with long winters.

C. a segmented sleeping pattern was a historically established common old habit.

D. the practice of sleeping for eight consecutive hours was popularized by epics

Answer: C.

Q. 160 Which of the following options is NOT true with reference to the segmented sleeping pattern?

A. People were physically active.

B. People were socially active.

C. People prayed actively.

D. People visited all-night coffee shops.

Answer: D.

Q. 161 What caused the idea of a first and second sleep to entirely recede from our social consciousness?

A. Industrialization and introduction of night shifts

B. All-night coffee shops

C. A. group of rich people defying sleep

D. An active night life facilitated by artificial lighting

Answer: D.

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 162 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given.

the hard remains of a prehistoric animal or plant that are found inside a rock.

A. fossil

B. ruins

C. relics

D. vestiges

Answer: A.

Q. 163 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Creatures began moving properly around 570 million years ago shortly before the Cambrian explosion sparked the first vertebrates.

A. the Cambrian explosion when sparked the first vertebrates.

B. No substitution required

C. the Cambrian explosion whom sparked the first vertebrates.

D. the Cambrian explosion who sparked the first vertebrates.

Answer: B.

Q. 164 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

A. study has uncovered a previously overlooked law of natural selection based on “survival of the slacker”, that is, spend all day lazing about could be good for human evolution.

A. No substitution required

B. spending all day lazing about must be good for human evolution

C. spend all day lazing about will be good for human evolution

D. spending all day lazing about could be good for human evolution

Answer: D.

Q. 165 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

When the mixer would not work Naren’s mother said, “If it’s not one thing , it’s another.How will I manage?”

A. when one thing goes wrong, then another, and another

B. when we entertain one guest, then there are many more coming

C. when we know a cause, then there isn’t another to be looked for

D. when a machine is not functional, it makes others also malfunction

Answer: A.

Q. 166 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Sandhya was excited about getting her new posting but I told her “Dont count your chikens before they hatch”.

A. do not count on something that is not going to happen

B. do not wish for something that has not yet happened

C. do not count on a good thing that has not yet happened

D. do not expect something good to happen

Answer: C.

Q. 167 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. More than 25% people admits they have not sent or received a hand-written letter in the past decade.

A. a hand-written letter

B. More than 25% people admits

C. they have not sent or received

D. in the past decade

Answer: B.

Q. 168 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. Anil and Suresh are just finding their feet in the new venture.

A. beginning to understand the work and feeling confident

B. getting comfortable and getting a good salary

C. buying and using comfortable foot wear

D. making people fall at their feet, accepting defeat

Answer: A.

Q. 169 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Security firms would get prosecuted for a breach of their duty if they do not introduced adequate procedures to protect children from harm.

A. would get prosecuted

B. for a breach of their duty

C. to protect children

D. do not introduced

Answer: D.

Q. 170 Select the antonym of the given word. MUDDLE

A. refuse

B. order

C. refute

D. spoil

Answer: B.

Q. 171 Select the synonym of the given word. CLINCHED.

A. bounded

B. finalized

C. devoted

D. argued

Answer: B.

Q. 172 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. The politician began his speech by saying, “Lend me your ears”.

A. to politely ask for someone’s hearing-aid

B. to politely ask for someone’s speakers

C. to politely ask for someone’s full attention

D. to politely ask for someone’s headphones

Answer: C.

Q. 173 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

Teaching is so much more than ………. in fiont of a whiteboard as one of the most important elements of teaching is ………… relationships with students.

A. standing; building

B. waiting; building

C. waiting; enabling

D. standing; enabling

Answer: A.

Q. 174 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

Although many western cultures are moving towards more ………. less hierarchical organizations, the new research suggests that ……… power structures and basic values of charity and fraternity are the cornerstones of successful societies.

A. organized; radical

B. substantial; informal

C. liberal; traditional

D. liberal; radical

Answer: C.

Q. 175 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. reinforcement

B. remembrance

C. reimburssement

D. reflection

Answer: C.

Q. 176 Select the antonym of the given word. COMPLACENT

A. conceited

B. concerned

C. contentious

D. contended

Answer: B.

Q. 177 Select the antonym of the given word LAUNCH

A. withdraw

B. dinner

C. release

D. brake

Answer: A.

Q. 178 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. to show or state that someone or something is not guilty of something

A. escape

B. pardon

C. charge

D. vindicate

Answer: D.

Q. 179 Select the synonym of the given word. ELUSIVE

A. distorted

B. wrong

C. intangible

D. refined

Answer: C.

Q. 180 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. “Get down to brass tacks now”, ordered the Team Leader, when he found that the targets were nowhere near completion.

A. start taking up the most important facts of a situation

B. become angry about something that is not done

C. come back to the tracks and start again

D. examine the thumb tacks used to fix a notice

Answer: A.

Q. 181 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. Advocates say the idea of a basic income eliminates poverty traps and ……… income while ……….. the individual and reducing paperwork.

A. redistributes; empowering

B. earned; helping

C. earns; eliminating

D. distributes; empowers

Answer: A

Q. 182 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. contraction

B. contextual

C. concievable

D. commitment

Answer: C.

Q. 183 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Last year the UK saw it’s first child diagnosed with intemet addiction.

A. Last year

B. the UK saw

C. it’s first child

D. diagnosed with

Answer: C.

Q. 184 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. the science and art of growing fruits, vegetables, flowers, or ornamental plants

A. agriculture

B. horticulture

C. viniculture

D. sericulture

Answer: B

Q. 185 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Tesla designed system for sending electricity over the air through a series of enormous towers.

A. for sending electricity

B. Tesla designed system

C. through a series of enormous towers

D. over the air

Answer: B.

Q. 186 Select the synonym of the given word. REQUISITE

A. dominant

B. dynamic

C. critical

D. obligatory

Answer: D.

Q. 187 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks. All societies are held together by seven universal moral rules, which include ……….. to superiors and ……….. the property of others.

A. deferring; respecting

B. deferring; guarding

C. following; respecting

D. conforming; guarding

Answer: A.

Q. 188 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. Inquisitive

B. Inherent

C. Inistitutional

D. Invitation

Answer: C.

Q. 189 Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

The idea of a basic income as a replacement for means-tested ………. payments has its share of supporters on both the left and the right of the political ……….

A. extra; support

B. goodness; zone

C. free; range

D. welfare; spectrum

Answer: D.

Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Doing short bursts of high intensity exercise can be most effective to weight loss than moderate workouts.

A. more effective to weight loss than

B. No substitution required

C. most effective for weight loss than

D. more eflective for weight loss than

Answer: D.

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. Passage:

Screen time is an inescapable reality of modern childhood, with kids of every age …………. (1) hours upon hours in front of iPads, smartphones and televisions. That’s not always a bad thing: Educational apps and TV shows …………… (2) great ways for children to sharpen their developing brains and …………… (3) their communication skills-not to mention the break these ………………… (4) provide to harried parents. But tread carefully: A. number of troubling studies connect delayed cognitive …………….. (5) in kids with extended exposure to electronic media.

Q. 191 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.

A. complying

B. spending

C. earning

D. cheating

Answer: B.

Q. 192 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.

A. are

B. is

C. were

D. have been

Answer: A.

Q. 193 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.

A. improve

B. bumish

C. dull

D. freshen

Answer: A.

Q. 194 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.

A. vessels

B. gadgets

C. utensils

D. products

Answer: B.

Q. 195 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.

A. increment

B. improvement

C. progress

D. change

Answer: C.

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 196 Select the word, which means the same as the group of words given. a company or person that makes or sells sweets or chocolate

A. confectioner

B. vendor

C. chef

D. wholesaler

Answer: A.

Q. 197 Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. apartheid

B. appearance

C. approppriate

D. apparent

Answer: C.

Q. 198 Select the antonym of the given word EXPANSION

A. complaint

B. constraint

C. contraction

D. constriction

Answer: C.

Q. 199 Select the antonym of the given word. EVASIVE

A. frank

B. abusive

C. opaque

D. slippery

Answer: A.

Q. 200 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

The World Health Organization were classified Internet gaming as an official mental health disorder.

A. No substitution required

B. The World Health Organization classify Internet gaming

C. The World Health Organization has classified Internet gaming

D. The World Health Organization classifying Internet gaming

Answer: C.

Latest Current Affairs 27 April 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
27 April 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

A) ECI ‘singularly responsible’ for Covid-19 surge, says Madras HC.

The Madras High Court on Monday squarely blamed the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the raging second wave of Covid-19 in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry and asked if the officials were in some other planet when political parties took out Assembly election rallies without adhering to Covid-19 safety protocols despite several judicial orders. Chief Justice Sanjib Banerjee and Justice Senthilkumar Ramamoorthy said public health was of paramount importance and that it was distressing to note that Constitutional authorities had to be reminded of it. Only when a citizen survives, would he/she be able to enjoy the rights that a democratic republic guarantees to him/her, they said. They warned the ECI that a postponement of vote counting (scheduled for May 2) may be ordered if a blueprint on the maintenance of Covid-19 protocol at the counting centres was not produced before the court by April 30. The orders were passed on a writ petition filed by Transport Minister M.R. Vijayabhaskar, a contestant from Karur Assembly constituency, seeking a direction to the ECI to put in place stringent measures aimed at ensuring fairness in counting of votes. During the hearing, the Chief Justice expressed displeasure over the ECI having turned a blind eye to safeguarding public health.

B) MHA asks states to impose containment measures.

The Ministry of Home Affairs has asked States to impose localized restrictions and implement strict containment measures for at least 14-days to flatten the Covid-19 curve. In a letter to States on Monday, Union Home Secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla said that considering the unprecedented surge, there is an urgent need for States and Union Territories to consider strict COVID management and control measures to bring the situation under control. States and UTs, based on their assessment of the situation, may impose local restrictions at district/sub district and city/ward level, with a view to contain the spread of COVID 19, the letter stated. The Health ministry had suggested night curfew, closure of malls and shopping complexes, and restricting office strength to 50% as some of the measures to contain the spread in areas that required intensive action. The spread of the infection has to be controlled through restricting the intermingling amongst people, the only known host for the COVID 19 virus. Social/ political / sports / entertainment / academic / cultural / religious / festival related and other gathering and congregations shall be prohibited. Marriages (attended by up to 50 persons) and funerals/ last rites (attended by up to 20 persons) may be allowed, Health Ministry said, adding that such localised restrictions should continue for 14 days. The Home Ministry also issued a clarification to the Sunday’s (April 25) order issued under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 on liquid oxygen. The order specifically excluded industries manufacturing ampules and vials, the pharmaceutical sector, and the defence forces from its ambit. The order had said that all liquid oxygen, including the existing stock with private plants shall be made available to the government and will be used for medical purposes only. Earlier on April 18, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) had written to States prohibiting supply of oxygen for industrial purposes, except for the exempted nine industries that included the pharmaceutical, petroleum, nuclear energy and the steel sectors.

C) Govt. ordered Twitter to remove 50 posts critical of its handling of Covid-19 pandemic.

Twitter has removed over 50 posts from its platform following orders from the government. The majority of these tweets were critical of the Centre’s handling of the coronavirus pandemic as India grappled with a record number of cases amid shortage of beds and medical oxygen. Many of the removed tweets had content related to shortage of medicine, beds, mass cremations, and the gathering of crowds at Kumbh Mela amid the pandemic. While blocked for viewing in India, these tweets will continue to remain visible outside the country. Some of the verified accounts which saw their tweets removed include Congress Spokesperson Pawan Khera, Member of Parliament Revanth Reddy, a minister from West Bengal Moloy Ghatak, ABP News editor Pankaj Jha, Actor Vineet Kumar Singh, filmmaker Avinash Das and filmmaker and former journalist Vinod Kapri. The details of the order received by Twitter have been put up on the Lumen database, a project of the BerkmanKlein Center for Internet & Society at Harvard University that collects and analyzes requests to remove material from the web. This story was first reported by technology news website Medianama. Earlier in February, the Centre had asked Twitter to remove nearly 1,200 accounts that had posted content related to ‘farmer genocide’ amid the ongoing protests by farmers against the new farm laws.

D) Karnataka announces 14-day lockdown.

The Karnataka Cabinet on Monday announced a partial lockdown across the State for 14 days starting from 9 pm on Tuesday (April 27). Only shops providing essential services would be open from 6 am to 10 am for the next two weeks, Chief Minister B S Yediyurappa announced soon after a Cabinet meeting. There would be no public transport in the State and metro trains would not operate in Bengaluru City. All industries, except manufacturing, would remain closed. The garment industries, which hire lakhs of employees in the State, would remain closed. The Chief Minister said all agriculture-related activities would be allowed in rural areas. Agricultural markets in cities would remain closed. The government has also decided to provide free vaccination for Covid-19 for all those aged between 18 and 44 years in government hospitals and centres from May 1.

E) Tamil Nadu all-party meet resolves to allow oxygen production in Sterlite plant for four months.

An all-party meeting convened by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister Edappadi K. Palaniswami on Monday unanimously resolved to temporarily allow Vedanta’s sealed Sterlite copper smelter plant in Thoothukudi to produce oxygen alone for four months, albeit with conditions. Considering the need for oxygen and the prevailing Covid-19 situation, it was resolved that the temporary permit may be extended later on, an official release said. The meeting decided that production of copper or the operation of any other units would not be allowed in the plant under any circumstances. Tamil Nadu should be given priority in the [usage of] oxygen produced at the plant. After fulfilling the oxygen needs of Tamil Nadu, the supply could be provided to other States, said another resolution adopted at the meeting. After a specific period, the power supply from Tamil Nadu Electricity Board (Tangedco) would be disconnected, said the resolution. The parties favoured allowing technicians only in the area where oxygen would be produced. The State government would ensure necessary safety measures. Under any circumstances, any unit other than those producing oxygen would not be allowed. The meeting also resolved to constitute a monitoring committee to be headed by the District Collector to supervise oxygen production in the plant. Superintendent of Police, Sub Collector, Thoothukudi, engineers from Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board, two experts to be nominated by the State government, members of the general public from the area/environment experts from NGOs and three anti-Sterlite activists would be part of the panel that would decide on operating the plant producing oxygen.

F) Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments.

The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 1,73,95,241 with the death toll at 1,95,578. Dr V.K. Paul, Member (health) at the NITI Aayog, involved closely in India’s COVID management strategy, has recommended that everyone should wear masks even at home. The time has come to recommend wearing a mask even if you are at home, said Dr. Paul at the weekly press briefing by the Health Ministry. Other officials present at the briefing, including Joint Secretary, Lav Agrawal, Dr Randeep Guleria, Director, All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi also emphasised the importance of masks and social distancing but underlined multiple times that people shouldn’t be panicking. Dr .Guleria said that 85% of those afflicted by the virus would recover without need of any medication and not everyone needed to rush to a hospital. There is unnecessary panic all around and this is causing more harm than good. This is causing hoarding of drugs and misuse of valuable medical resources. An oxygen level of 94-95 doesn’t need an oxygen concentrator and you shouldn’t try to raise it at those levels. Above 94 means your organs are getting adequate oxygen, said Dr. Guleria. Before the pandemic, we’ve managed patients with these machines at 88-90. If it’s below 94, consult with your doc. For hospitals, it’s important to prevent leakage. The benefits of (antiviral) Remdesivir aren’t well established, he added.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) Nomadland’ wins Oscar for Best Picture, ‘My Octopus Teacher’ wins ‘Best Documentary Feature’

‘Nomadland’, a recession-era tale about a community of van dwellers in the American West, won the Oscar for best picture on Sunday. The film stars Frances McDormand as a widow in a depressed Nevada mining town who turns her van into a mobile home and sets out on the road, taking seasonal jobs and making friends along the way. McDormand won her third Oscar for ‘Nomadland’, cementing her reputation as one of the best actresses of her generation. McDormand’s win makes her a member of an elite club that includes Meryl Streep, Daniel Day Lewis and Jack Nicholson as the winners of three acting Oscars. The late Katharine Hepburn won a record four. My Octopus Teacher, which has Indian filmmaker Swati Thiyagarajan as associate producer and production manager, won the best documentary feature at the Oscars, which also honoured actor Irrfan Khan and costume designer Bhanu in its ‘In Memoriam’ segment.

B) Radioactive material detected in Sri Lanka.

Sri Lanka said last week it detected radioactive material on a China-bound vessel berthed at the southern Hambantota Port. The vessel has been asked to leave the Port, according to officials, as the shipping company failed to obtain prior clearance for dangerous cargo, as per Sri Lankan law. China’s Minister of Defence Wei Fenghe, meanwhile, will visit Sri Lanka this week, in the second high-level visit from Beijing to Colombo in the past six months. The Minister will arrive on April 27 and leave on April 29, Mohan Samaranayake, Director-General of the Department of Government Information, told The Hindu. The Chinese Defence Minister and People’s Liberation Army (PLA) General’s visit follows that of a high-powered delegation, led by senior Chinese leader and top foreign policy official Yang Jiechi, in October 2020. China has provided crucial support to Sri Lanka in the pandemic year, by way of a $1 billion loan, as well as a $1.5 billion currency swap facility to help the Colombo government boost its foreign reserves. India has recalled the second Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV) that was airlifted on Saturday morning to Indonesia after the Indonesian Navy declared that it had located debris of the missing submarine, KRI Nanggala, suggesting that it had sunk. The Indian Navy had dispatched its DSRV from Visakhapatnam to support the Indonesian Navy in search and rescue efforts for its submarine KRI Nanggala that went missing on Wednesday with 53 personnel onboard.

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