SSC GD 3 March 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 3rd March 2019 Shift-3 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figures. From the given figures, indicate how it will appear when opened? Figure 

(A) Figure 1 

(B) Figure 2 

(C) Figure 3 

(D) Figure 4 

Answer: D

 

Q. 2 In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? 

(A) 27th 

(B) 26th 

(C) 25th 

(D) 28th 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th When two boys joined, 

The rank of the boy dropped by 1, i.e New rank is 21st 

Total students =45+2 =47 

His new rank from the end: 

47 – 21 + 1 

47 – 20 =27 th 

Option Ais correct. 

 

Q. 3 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: C

 

Q. 4 Study the following Venn-diagram and answer the given question. 

Which letter represents a male politician only? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: D

 

Q. 5 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming That the information in the statements is true, even ifit appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some scooters are planes. 

Some planes are dogs. 

Some dogs are plants. 

Conclusions: 

I. Someplants are scooters. 

II. No plane is scooter. 

(A) Only Conclusion I follows. 

(B) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. 

(C) Only Conclusion II follows. 

(D) Either Conclusion I or II follows. 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Conclusions: 

I. Some plants are scooters – False 

II. No plane is scooter – False 

Neither I nor II follows 

Option Bis correct. 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. 

AFK : EJO :: PUZ : ? 

(A) TXE 

(B) TY(D) 

(C) UOM 

(D) US(C) 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

(A) → (+5)F → (+5)K : E → (+5)J → (+5)O : 

: P → (+5)U → (+5)Z : T → (+5)Y → (+5)(D) 

Option Bis correct. 

 

Q. 7 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming That the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All kids are Adults. 

Some Adults are old. 

Conclusion: 

I. All old are kids. 

II. Some kids are old. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows 

(B) Either conclusion I or II follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

I. All old are kids – False 

II. Some kids are old – False 

Neither I nor II follows 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 8 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Kathakali 

(B) Kuchipudi 

(C) Sattriya 

(D) Hemis 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Kathakali, Kuchipudi and Sattriya are dance forms but Hemis is a National Park 

So Hemis is odd one out 

Option Dis correct 

 

Q. 9 In a certain code, ANIMAL is coded as INALAM, then how is SAMPLE coded in the same way? 

(A) MALESP 

(B) MSALEP 

(C) ASMALE 

(D) MASELP 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the first term is related to the second term. 

35 : 15 :: 72 : ? 

(A) 54 

(B) 27 

(C) 15 

(D) 14 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

3 × 5 = 

35: 15 

72: 

7 × 2 = 14 

35 : 15 :: 72 : 14 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 11 If SENSIBLE is written as 10 and SAMUELS as 9, how will NADAL be written? 

(A)

(B)

(C) 11 

(D)

Answer: D

Explanation: 

SENSIBLE = Total no. of letters +2 = 8+2=10 

SAMUELS = 7+2= 9 

NADAL = 5+2 =7 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: D

 

Q. 13 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

WVU, RQP, MLK, ? 

(A) HGF 

(B) JHI 

(C) HGI 

(D) IGF 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

If we look at the given series, 

WVU -> these 3 letters are in series and in reverse order 

U – 3 = R 

RQP -> these 3 letters are in series and in reverse order 

P – 3 = M 

MLK -> these 3 letters are in series and in reverse order 

K – 3 = H 

So, the next term will be HGF. 

 

Q. 14 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 693 

(B) 385 

(C) 287 

(D) 473 

Answer: C

Explanation: 

693 = 6 + 9 + 3 = 18 (even) 

385 = 3 + 8 + 5 = 16 (even) 

287 = 2 + 8 + 7 = 17 (odd) 

473 = 4 + 7 + 3 = 14 (even) 

Option Cis correct. 

 

Q. 15 Identify the two figures from the following set of figures which are out of position and require interchange of positions to put the entire series in order. 

(A) (B & D) 

(B) (D & E) 

(C) (D & F) 

(D) (A & C) 

Answer: B

 

Q. 16 Five monkeys A, B, C, Dand E are sitting on a branch of a tree. 

C is sitting next to D. Dis not sitting with E.E is on the left end of the branch. Cis on second position from right. Ais immediate right of Band Bis on the right side of E. Who is sitting at the centre? 

(A) D

(B) C

(C) A

(D) B

Answer: C

 

Q. 17 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation: 

78 * 3 * 4 * 36 * 140 

(A) − + × =

(B) − + × =

(C) − + × =

(D) − + × =

Answer: C

 

Q. 18 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

145, 100, 65, 40, ? 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C) 20 

(D) 25 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

145, 100, 65, 40, ? 

145-100 = 45 

100-65 = 35 

65-40 = 25 

40-15 = 25 

So, there is a difference of 15,25,35,45 between each numbers. 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 19 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: B

 

Q. 20 X, Y, Z, P, Q and R are sitting in a row facing north. X is the neighbour of Y and P. Q is the neighbour of Z and R, P is to the right of X and P and Z are immediate neighbours. 

Which pair sits on the extreme ends? 

(A) Y, P 

(B) Y, R 

(C) X, P 

(D) P, Z 

Answer: B

 

Q. 21 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure? 

Answer: B

 

Q. 22 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

2, 8, 32, 128, 512, ? 

(A) 2507 

(B) 2536 

(C) 2067 

(D) 2048 

Answer: D

Explanation: 

2, 8, 32, 128, 512, 2048 

21 = 2 

23 = 8 

25 = 32 

27 = 128 

29 = 512 

211 = 2048 

Option Dis correct. 

 

Q. 23 Four letter clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) JOT 

(B) HMR 

(C) INS 

(D) DLT 

Answer: D

 

Q. 24 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

India : Rupee :: …….. : ……… 

(A) Switzerland : Euro 

(B) Russia: Ruble 

(C) South Africa : Pound 

(D) China : Yen 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

India : Rupee :: Russia: Ruble 

Country : Currency 

Option Bis correct. 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. 

Hand : Finger :: Leg : ……… 

(A) Heel 

(B) Toes 

(C) Walk 

(D) Knee 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Hand : Finger :: Leg : Toe 

We have finger in our hand and have toe in our leg. 

Option Bis correct. 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The women’s team from which country won the 2018 Carrom World Cup, held in South Korea? 

(A) South Korea 

(B) Japan 

(C) India 

(D) China 

Answer: C

 

Q. 27 Who won the 2018 French Open Men’s Tennis? 

(A) Roger Federer 

(B) Rafael Nadal 

(C) Novak Djokovic 

(D) Andy Murray 

Answer: B

 

Q. 28 The humerus is part of the ………. 

(A) spine 

(B) shoulder girdle 

(C) leg 

(D) arm 

Answer: D

 

Q. 29 The ……… was an Actof the Parliamentof Great Britain intended to overhaul the managementofthe East India Company’s rule in India. 

(A) Pitt’s India Act 

(B) Government of India Act of 1858 

(C) Indian Councils Act of 1861 

(D) Regulating Act 1773 

Answer: D

 

Q. 30 The fundamental rights of citizens are embodied in which part of the Indian Constitution? 

(A) Part I 

(B) Part IV(A) 

(C) Part VII 

(D) Part III 

Answer: D

 

Q. 31 The harvest festival, Puthari is celebrated by which tribes? 

(A) Angami 

(B) Garo 

(C) Kodava 

(D) Monpa 

Answer: C

 

Q. 32 Which of the following is a book by Vikram Seth? 

(A) The Ocean of Churn 

(B) River of Smoke 

(C) Riot At Misri Mandi 

(D) The Mistress of Spices 

Answer: C

 

Q. 33 Name the Indian ruler of Harkanya dynasty who was the son of Ajatashatru and who laid the foundation of the city of Pataliputra. 

(A) Pradyota 

(B) Udayin 

(C) Mahanandin 

(D) Nandivardhana 

Answer: B

 

Q. 34 Minimum Support Price for 2018-19 for Jowar of the Hybrid variety is set at …….. 

(A) ₹1,950 per quintal 

(B) ₹1,750 per quintal 

(C) ₹2,430 per quintal 

(D) ₹5,150 per quintal 

Answer: C

 

Q. 35 Centripetal force ‘F’ required for circular motion of an object of mass ‘m’ movingin circle of radius ‘r’ at a tangential velocity ‘v’ is equal to ………. 

(A)  mr/v2
(B)  mv2/r

(C)  mv/r2
(D)  mr2 / v

Answer: B

 

Q. 36 Which city is NOT situated on the Banks of the Chambal River? 

(A) Jabalpur 

(B) Kota 

(C) Gwalior 

(D) Dholpur 

Answer: A

 

Q. 37 Fundamental duties in the Indian constitution are borrowed from the constitution of …………. 

(A) France 

(B) Canada 

(C) USSR 

(D) Britain 

Answer: C

 

Q. 38 Titan the second largest moon in our solar system orbits around the planet …….. 

(A) Uranus 

(B) Jupiter 

(C) Neptune 

(D) Saturn 

Answer: D

 

Q. 39 The Union Budget 2018 announced that Operation Green will be launched for agriculture with a corpus of ………… 

(A) ₹1,000 crore 

(B) ₹500 crore 

(C) ₹5,000 crore 

(D) ₹100 crore 

Answer: B

 

Q. 40 Name the unit in which the calorific value of fuel is expressed. 

(A) Candela 

(B) Kilojoule 

(C) Kelvin 

(D) Kilogram 

Answer: B

 

Q. 41 Which gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands? 

(A) Thyroid Gland 

(B) Pineal Gland 

(C) Adrenal glands 

(D) Pituitary gland 

Answer: D

 

Q. 42 Name the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service. 

(A) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai 

(B) Satyendranath Tagore 

(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 

(D) Dadabhai Naoroji 

Answer: B

 

Q. 43 Which of the following dances is a dance form from Arunachal Pradesh? 

(A) Popir 

(B) Chiraw 

(C) Lezim 

(D) Macha 

Answer: A

 

Q. 44 The battle of Karnal (1739) was won by Persian King Nadir Shah by defeating the army of ………. 

(A) Mughal Emperor, Muhammad Shah 

(B) Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Awadh 

(C) Ghulam Muhammad Ghouse Khan 

(D) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban 

Answer: A

 

Q. 45 Name the Bharat Ratna recipient who was a social reformer and educator. He played a vital role in the upliftment of women. 

(A) Bidhan Chandra Roy 

(B) M Visvesvaraya 

(C) Govind Ballabh Pant 

(D) Dhondo Keshav Karve 

Answer: D

 

Q. 46 Name the devotional folk music of Manipur usually sung by a group of people. 

(A) Domkach 

(B) Khubak eshei 

(C) Gha To Kito 

(D) Banvarh 

Answer: B

 

Q. 47 The Economic Survey report 2017-18 stated that the Agriculture growth in FY18 was likely to be at ………. 

(A) 4.30% 

(B) 2.10% 

(C) 3.90% 

(D) 5.50% 

Answer: B

 

Q. 48 Which island emerged in the Bay of Bengal in the after math of the Bhola cyclone in 1970? 

(A) Lohachara Island 

(B) Jambudwip 

(C) Ghoramara Island 

(D) New Moore Island 

Answer: D

 

Q. 49 Tesla is the unit of …………. 

(A) electric conductance 

(B) magnetic flux density 

(C) capacitance 

(D) magnetic flux 

Answer: B

 

Q. 50 Whois the first Indian to win the Miss Earth pageant since its inception in 2001? 

(A) Dia Mirza 

(B) Reita Faria 

(C) Nicole Faria 

(D) Priyanka Chopra 

Answer: C

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it. 

What was the percentage increase in the production of fertilizers in 2001 compared to that in 2000? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 50% 

Answer: D

 

Q. 52 If 15 workers can earn ₹1,800 in 10 days. Find the earning (in ₹) of 5 workers in 8 days. 

(A) ₹ 540 

(B) ₹ 480 

(C) ₹ 360 

(D) ₹ 400 

Answer: B

 

Q. 53 Simplify: 7.8 – 0.4 of (5.1 – 3.8) + 9.3 x 1.5 

(A) 23.12 

(B) 12.23 

(C) 21.23 

(D) 23.21 

Answer: C

Explanation: 

7.8 − 0.4of(5.1 − 3.8) + 9.3 × 1.5 

Using BODMAS, 

= 7.8 − 0.4of(5.1 − 3.8) + 13.95 

= 7.8 − 0.4of1.3 + 13.95 

= 7.8 − 0.4 × 1.3 + 13.95 

= 7.8 − 0.52 + 13.95 

=21.75 – 0.52 

= 21.23 

Option Cis correct. 

 

Q. 54 A is twice as good as a workman as B. And together, they finish a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days, will A alone finish the work? 

(A) 30 days 

(B) 25 days 

(C) 26 days 

(D) 28 days 

Answer: A

 

Q. 55 If all the sides of a square are increased by 20%, then the area is increased by ………… 

(A) 46% 

(B) 44% 

(C) 43% 

(D) 45% 

Answer: B

 

Q. 56 If a shopkeeper gives two successive discounts of 20% and 15% on a book whose marked price is Rs. 850, then what is the selling price of the book? 

(A) ₹758 

(B) ₹587 

(C) ₹785 

(D) ₹578 

Answer: D

 

Q. 57 Amerchant claims that he sells his goods at CP. But uses a weight of 900g for the 1kg weight. find his gain % 

Answer: D

 

Q. 58 What is the least number which when increased by 8 is exactly divisible by 4, 5, 6 and 7? 

(A) 322 

(B) 312 

(C) 412 

(D) 422 

Answer: C

Explanation: 

LCM of 4, 5, 6 and 7 

= 420 

Therefore the required number is = 420 − 8 = 412 

Option Cis correct. 

 

Q. 59 Out of 12 terms, the average of first 6 terms is 36 and that of last 6 terms is 42. If the average of first 11 terms is 38, find the 12th term. 

(A) 44 

(B) 40 

(C) 50 

(D) 42 

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Total for 12 terms 

= (6 × 36) + (6 × 42) = 468 

Total for first 11 terms 

= 11 × 38 = 418 

= 468 − 418 = 50 

Therefore, 12th term 

Option Cis correct. 

 

Q. 60 Gold is 12 times as heavy as aluminum and copper is 5 times as heavy as aluminum.In what ratio gold and copper should be mixed to get an alloy 8 times of aluminum. 

(A) 2 : 1 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 1 : 2 

(D) 4 : 3 

Answer: B

 

Q. 61  Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it. 

In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers less than the average production of the given years? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: B

 

Q. 62 Vishal covers a distance of 20 km in 30 min. If he covers half of the distance in 18 min, what should be his speed to cover the remaining distance and completes the whole journey in 30 min. 

(A) 50 km/hr 

(B) 55 km/hr 

(C) 60 km/hr 

(D) 65 km/hr 

Answer: A

 

Q. 63 Simplify: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: D

 

Q. 64 Om Prakash travels Bombay to Pune at a speed of 80 km/hr and returns back to Bombay by increasing his speed by 50%, then his average speed for the whole journey is …………. 

(A) 96 km/hr 

(B) 67 km/hr 

(C) 69 km/hr 

(D) 65 km/hr 

Answer: A

 

Q. 65 Manjeet singh sold an article for ₹9000 gaining 1/5 of its C.P. Find the gain %. 

(A) 10% 

(B) 22% 

(C) 20% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: C

 

Q. 66 Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it. 

The average production of 1999 and 2000 was less than the average production of which of the following pairs of years? 

(A) 1998 and 2000 

(B) 1996 and 1997 

(C) 2000 and 2001 

(D) 1995 and 2001 

Answer: C

 

Q. 67 If ₹3800 is distributed among A,B, C such that A: B= 1 : 2 and B: C= 3 : 5,the find the share of B. 

(A) ₹1200 

(B) ₹2000 

(C) ₹1400 

(D) ₹600 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

If ₹3800 is distributed among A,B, Csuch that A: B= 1 : 2 and B: C= 3 : 5 

Equating the two ratios we get A: B: C= 3 : 6 : 10 

Let x = 3800, A: B: C= 3x : 6x : 10x 

(A) + B+ C= 19x = 3800, x = 200 

(B) = 6 × 200 = 1200 

Option Ais correct. 

 

Q. 68 A cloth was 50 cm broad and 8 cm long. When washed, it was found to have lost 25% of its length and 14% of its breath. Then the percentage decreased in area is ………. 

(A) 34.5% 

(B) 35.5% 

(C) 36% 

(D) 35% 

Answer: B

 

Q. 69 In an election contest between A and B, A wins by the margin of 480 votes. If A gets 70% of the total votes. then total votes are 

(A) 1400 

(B) 1200 

(C) 4800 

(D) 1600 

Answer: B

 

Q. 70 The price of a scooter which was bought for ₹84,000 depreciates at the rate of 10% p.a. Find its price after 2 years? 

(A) ₹46080 

(B) ₹68040 

(C) ₹86040 

(D) ₹64800 

Answer: B

 

Q. 71 liters, milk and water are in the ratio 2:1. find the quantity of water to be added to make the ratio 4:3 

(A) 12 liters 

(B) 10 liters 

(C) 15 liters 

(D) 20 liters 

Answer: B

 

Q. 72 Acuboidal tank has 48000 liters of water. Find the depth of water in the tank if length of the tank is 6m and breadth is 4m. 

(A) 4 m 

(B) 6 m 

(C) 3 m 

(D) 2 m 

Answer: D

 

Q. 73 Find the number of years in which an amount invested at 8% p.a. simple interest doubles itself. 

(A) 12 years 

(B) 11 years 

(C) 12½ years 

(D) 10½ years 

Answer: C

 

Q. 74 The mean of a, b, c, d and e is 36. If the mean of b, d and e is 32, what is the mean of a and c? 

(A) 24 

(B) 44 

(C) 42 

(D) 46 

Answer: C

 

Q. 75 If the sum of five consecutive even numbers is 40 more than the average of those numbers, then find the middle number of the series? 

(A) 30 

(B) 10 

(C) 20 

(D) 40 

Answer: B

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Your promotion will be depend the quality of your work. 

(A) depends upon 

(B) will be dependent 

(C) No improvement 

(D) depend on 

Answer: A

 

Q. 77 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A story, poem ora picture that can be interpreted to reveal a hidden meaning. 

(A) Allegory 

(B) Simile 

(C) Resemblance 

(D) Representation 

Answer: A

 

Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. An excellent response for his readers refreshes the author and stirs his creative sense and functional skills. 

(A) An excellent response 

(B) his creative sense 

(C) for his readers refreshes 

(D) functional skills 

Answer: C

 

Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Concerning appreciation of art. 

(A) Particularistic 

(B) Idealistic 

(C) Poetic 

(D) Aesthetic 

Answer: D

 

Q. 80 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To bite off more than you can chew. 

(A) To eat very heavy and rich food 

(B) To challenge someone to do difficult work 

(C) To take on a task too big for oneself 

(D) To finish a work in bits and pieces 

Answer: C

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Online shopping platforms provide ………. information on books, groceries, medicines, etc.so that we can get the latest products. 

(A) timeworn 

(B) old 

(C) instant 

(D) previous 

Answer: C

 

Q. 82 Select the antonym of the given word. 

COMMENCE 

(A) Start 

(B) Pause 

(C) Close 

(D) Clamp 

Answer: C

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

(A) software tool used to read electronic documents is known as …………….. 

(A) motherboard 

(B) browser 

(C) broadband 

(D) internet 

Answer: B

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. In India, child labour is a socio – economic issue that need urgent attention by everyone. 

(A) child labour is a 

(B) socio – economic issue 

(C) by everyone. 

(D) that need urgent attention 

Answer: D

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segmenting the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

While Participating in the marathon an eighteen year old girl was knocked for by a passing truck. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) knocked up by 

(C) knocked in by 

(D) knocked down by 

Answer: D

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted.Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Students should develop a quality of (1)…………. to elders and respecting their views. Their experience and knowledge can play a major role in shaping a student’s personality and career. Students should (2)…………… this much – needed knowledge and experience from parents and teachers. Being (3)………….. helps students to keep themselves morally high. One should not get carried away by success. Students should also learn to respect (4)…………. views and cope with diverse situations. These qualities will play a vital role in the (5)……………. of teamwork and leadership skills. 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) listen 

(B) listened 

(C) listens 

(D) listening 

Answer: D

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) measure 

(B) acquire 

(C) access 

(D) assess 

Answer: B

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) smart 

(B) simple 

(C) intelligent 

(D) sharp 

Answer: B

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) general 

(B) expressive 

(C) typical 

(D) different 

Answer: D

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) structure 

(B) development 

(C) manufacture 

(D) arrangement 

Answer: B

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 91 Select the synonym of the given word. 

IMPLICIT 

(A) Tacit 

(B) Unclear 

(C) Honest 

(D) Unheard 

Answer: A

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The National Sample Survey is Directorate is first set up under the Ministry of Finance in 1950. 

(A) Directorate had first set up 

(B) Directorate were first set up 

(C) No improvement 

(D) Directorate was first set up 

Answer: D

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The news of the general elections was covered by ………… media. 

(A) sole 

(B) multiple 

(C) singular 

(D) single 

Answer: B

 

Q. 94 Select the antonym of the given word. 

EXPAND 

(A) Collect 

(B) Deposit 

(C) Express 

(D) Contract 

Answer: D

 

Q. 95 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Audibal 

(B) Audeuble 

(C) Audible 

(D) Audiable 

Answer: C

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

People high in humility avoid expecting ………… special treatment. 

(A) none 

(B) any 

(C) one 

(D) only 

Answer: B

 

Q. 97 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Bark up the wrong tree. 

(A) To make no mistakes about doing something 

(B) To make dogs bark at cats hiding in trees 

(C) To send dogs to track someone 

(D) To be wrong about the reason for or way of doing something 

Answer: D

 

Q. 98 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Amere 43% of Indian woman own cellular phones, as opposed to almost 80% of men. 

(A) as opposed to 

(B) own cellular phones 

(C) A mere 43% of Indian woman 

(D) almost 80% of men 

Answer: C

 

Q. 99 Select the synonym of the given word. 

RIDDLE 

(A) Puzzle 

(B) Response 

(C) Game 

(D) Reaction 

Answer: A

 

Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Vegetaranian 

(B) Vegaitarian 

(C) Vegetarian 

(D) Vezetarian 

Answer: C

SSC GD 3 March 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 3rd March 2019 Shift-1 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. Keyboard, Monitor, Mouse 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A) 12 

(B) 48 

(C) 24 

(D) 56 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Answer is 24. 

 

Q. 3 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Option (B) is correct Option. 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. 

MNQR : LMPQ :: ? : RSVW 

(A) STWX 

(B) WYTS 

(C) SVWY 

(D) VIWY 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

MNQR : LMPQ :: ? : RSVW 

M-1=L 

N-1=M 

Q-1=P 

R-1=Q 

Similarly, 

S-1=R 

T-1=S 

W-1=V 

X-1=W 

STWX : RSVW 

 

Q. 5 If RED is coded as 19, then how WED would be coded? 

(A) 21 

(B) 28 

(C) 22 

(D) 24 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a round table facing the centre. D is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of B. F is fourth to the right of B. C is fourth to the right of E, whois not an immediate right of B or D. A is not an immediate neighbour of D. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons? 

(A) CBA 

(B) ABC 

(C) GCD 

(D) AHE 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Television : Telecast :: Radio : ? 

(A) Broadcast 

(B) Friendship 

(C) Compose 

(D) Talking 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Television is medium to Telecast 

Similarly, Radio is used for Broadcast. 

 

Q. 8 In a certain code “SMART” is written as “RKXNO”, How is “GREAT” written in that code? 

(A) BGFWO 

(B) FPBWO 

(C) RPFGW 

(D) FPBWR 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

We go in reverse alphabet series to get logic of this word “SMART” = “RKXNO”, 

S-1=R 

M-2=K 

A-3=X 

R-4=N 

T-5=O 

Similary, “GREAT” = “FPBWO” 

G-1=F 

R-2=P 

E-3=(B) 

A-4=W 

T-5=O 

Option (B) is correct. 

 

Q. 9 Choose the option which completes the given figure series 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the Third term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. 

42 : 72 :: 12 : ? 

(A) 30 

(B) 43 

(C) 35 

(D) 48 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the first term is related to the second term. 

Mango : Fruit :: Potato : ? 

(A) Flower 

(B) Fruit 

(C) Vegetable 

(D) Stem 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Mango is a Fruit. Similarly, Potato is an vegetable. 

 

Q. 12 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Dumb 

(B) Sinus 

(C) Deaf 

(D) Blind 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Dumb,Deaf,Blind are Deficiency in human body hence they are similar and form a one group. But Sinus is a disease related to breathing problem. 

Hence Sinus is odd one. 

 

Q. 13 Sonam is older than Renu. komal is younger than Renu. Priya is older than Sonam. Who is the eldest of them? 

(A) Sonam 

(B) Renu 

(C) Priya 

(D) Komal 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

1)Sonam is older than Renu. 

=Sonam >Renu 

2) Komal is younger than Renu. 

=Renu > Komal 

3)Priya is older than Sonam. 

=Sonam >Priya 

If we consolidate all three sentences 1,2,3 the Correct Sequence of age from oldest to youngest is Priya > Sonam > Renu > Komal . Hence Priya is oldest in age. 

 

Q. 14 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 2248 

(B) 3036 

(C) 1258 

(D) 3196 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Add first three digit to get fourth digit of number. 

2248(2 + 2 + 4 = 8) 

3036(3 + 0 + 3 = 6) 

1258(1 + 2 + 5 = 8) 

3196(3 + 1 + 9 = 13 13 6 

Odd one is Option (D) as it does not follow the pattern, last digit should be instead of ) 

 

Q. 15 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All roses are fruits. 

All fruits are trees. 

Conclusions: 

I. All trees are roses. 

II. Some fruits are roses. 

(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow 

(B) Either Conclusion I or II follows 

(C) Only Conclusion I follows 

(D) Only Conclusion II follows 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

14, 18, 24, 32, 42, ? 

(A) 54 

(B) 50 

(C) 52 

(D) 48 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

18-14 = +4 

24-18 = +6 

32-24 = +8 

42-32 = +10 

Hence last number 42 +12 = 54 

14, 18, 24, 32, 42, 54 

 

Q. 17 Four letter clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) KMP 

(B) ACF 

(C) TVY 

(D) BCG 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

K+2=M , M+3=P (KMP) 

A+2=(C) , C+3=F (ACF) 

T+2=V , V+3=F (TVY) 

but, 

B+1=D, C+4=G (BCG) is not the correct pattern. 

Hence Option (D) is odd 

 

Q. 18 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some grapes are mangoes. 

All mangoes are apples. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some mangoes are grapes. 

II. All apples are grapes. 

(A) Only Conclusion I follows 

(B) Either Conclusion I or II follows 

(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow 

(D) Only Conclusion II follows 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 19 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

117, 107, 92, 72, ……… 

(A) 42 

(B) 47 

(C) 37 

(D) 52 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

117-10 = 107 

107- 15 = 92 

92- 20 = 72 

72 – 25= 47 

Hence, Correct Sequence will be 117, 107, 92, 72, 47 

 

Q. 20 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

A, G, L, P, S, … 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Logic of Q. is A+6 =G, G+5=L , L+4=P, P+3=S, S+2=U, Hence U is correct option. 

 

Q. 22 P, M, D, A, F, H, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the center. R is fourth to the right of A, who is third to the right of P. M is second to the left of H, who is second to the left of P. D is third to the right of B. 

Which of the following pairs are immediate neighbors of B? 

(A) AP 

(B) MP 

(C) AF 

(D) FM 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, how will it appear when opened? 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 24 If ‘ + ’ means ‘ × ’, ‘ − ’ means ‘ + ’, ‘ × ’ means ‘ ÷ ’ and ‘ ÷ ’means ‘ − ’ , then find the value of the following equation:- 

21 ÷ 8 + 2 − 12 × 3 =? 

(A) 13.5 

(B) 14 

(C) 10 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The Supreme Court was established at Fort William in …….. as the Apex Court in 1774. 

(A) Delhi 

(B) Shimla 

(C) Mumbai 

(D) Kolkata 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Who won the 2018 US Open Men’s Tennis? 

(A) Andy Murray 

(B) Rafael Nadal 

(C) Novak Djokovic 

(D) Roger Federer 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 The Union Budget 2018 allocated ……… for food processing, which was almost double of the allocation in the previous year’s budget. 

(A) ₹2,900 crore 

(B) ₹1,400 crore 

(C) ₹1,900 crore 

(D) ₹2,400 crore 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 29 In the 2018 Sultan Azlan Shah Cup, India beat which country 4-1 to comeat the fifth place? 

(A) Australia 

(B) Malaysia 

(C) Ireland 

(D) Pakistan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Who did Mughal Emperor Babur defeat in the Battle of Ghagra in 1529? 

(A) Yusuf Adil Shah 

(B) Mahmud Lodi 

(C) Dilawar Khan Husain 

(D) Qasim Barid I 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 The mandible is part of the ………… 

(A) hand 

(B) arm 

(C) skull 

(D) pelvic girdle 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 ………. is an important copper ore mineral 

(A) Galena 

(B) Cassiterite 

(C) Cinnabar 

(D) Chacocite 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 The GDP growth rate for the fiscal year 2017-2018 was pegged at ……… by the Economic Survey report 2017-18. 

(A) 8.25% 

(B) 7.25% 

(C) 5.75% 

(D) 6.75% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the following is the southernmost of the Lakshadweep islands? 

(A) Bitra 

(B) Kavaratti 

(C) Amini 

(D) Minicoy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 Name the type of folk songs of Sikkim which describe the natural beauty of the state. 

(A) Gha To Kito 

(B) Mando 

(C) Khubakeshei 

(D) Deknni 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that: 

(A) Dictatorship is better than democracy 

(B) Inequalities do not exist in dictatorships 

(C) Inequalities exist in democracies 

(D) Democracy deters development 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Name the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament. 

(A) Piloo Mody 

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji 

(C) Bhikaiji Cama 

(D) Jamshetji Tata 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 Which of the following dances is a dance form from Madhya Pradesh? 

(A) Lezim 

(B) Chiraw 

(C) Ottam Thullal 

(D) Macha 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Who founded the Maurya dynasty after defeating Dhana Nanda? 

(A) Bindusara 

(B) Ashoka 

(C) Kunala 

(D) Chandragupta 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Weber is the unit of ………… 

(A) electric conductance 

(B) magnetic flux 

(C) magnetic flux density 

(D) capacitance 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 The formula of Acetonitrile is ………… 

(A) CH3OCN 

(B) C2N2 

(C) CH3CN 

(D) CH2CHCN 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Which of the following is a correct equation of motion? 

(A) u = v + at2 

(B) 2s = (v − u)t 

(C) 2s = 2ut + at2 

(D) v2 + u2 = 2as 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 Which of the following Indian National political parties is reputed to be one of the oldest, founded in 1885 and has experienced many splits? 

(A) Communist Party of India — Marxist (CPI-M) 

(B) Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) 

(C) Indian National Congress (INC) 

(D) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Losar Festivalis celebrated by the people of the ……….. tribe. 

(A) Khasi 

(B) Kodava 

(C) Munda 

(D) Monpa 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Ganymede is by far the largest moon in our solar system orbits around the planet …….. 

(A) Uranus 

(B) Neptune 

(C) Jupiter 

(D) Saturn 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Whose birthday is celebrated as Engineer’s Day? 

(A) Abdul Kalam Azad 

(B) J R D Tata 

(C) M Visvesvaraya 

(D) C V Raman 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 Which of the following rivers flows into the Arabian Sea? 

(A) Mahi 

(B) Krishna 

(C) Penna 

(D) Rushikulya 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 48 Which book by Kiran Desai is a tale of a young man named Sampath Chawla? 

(A) Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard 

(B) Selection Day 

(C) An Equal Music 

(D) It Happens for a Reason 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 Minimum Support Price for 2018-19 for Paddy of the Common variety is set at ………. 

(A) ₹2,430 per quintal 

(B) ₹1,750 per quintal 

(C) ₹5,150 per quintal 

(D) ₹1,950 per quintal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 Which is the first ever known autobiography of an Indian woman? 

(A) My reminences 

(B) Beyond the jungle 

(C) Amar Jiban 

(D) Cityty of 2 gateways 

Answer: (C) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Simplify : 

5 − 6.5 ÷ 13 + 2.3 × 0.8 + 0.4 

(A) 6.83 

(B) 6.74 

(C) 7.38 

(D) 5.38 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 A car travels 60km in the first hour , 65km in the second hour , 70km in the third hour, then the average speed of the car is 

(A) 66 km/hr 

(B) 62 km/hr 

(C) 56 km/hr 

(D) 65 km/hr 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Average speed=Total distance/Total time 

Distance 1=60*1=60 km 

Distance 2=65*1=65 km 

Distance 3=70*1=70 km 

Total distance=195 km 

Total time=3 hours 

Average speed=195/3 

=65 km/hr 

 

Q. 53 Amit borrowed ₹8000 from a moneylender with Simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If he paid ₹2000 as interest at the end of loan period, what was the rate of interest? 

(A) 5% 

(B) 7% 

(C) 6% 

(D) 8% 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

I=PTR/100 

Given I=R 2000 

2000=8000*R*R/100 

R*R=2000/80 

R*R=5*5 

R=5% 

 

Q. 54 Average of ‘n’ observations is 38, average of ‘n’ other observations is 42 and average of remaining ‘n’ observations is 55. Average of all the observations is: 

(A) 45 

(B) 35 

(C) 55 

(D) 40 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sum of first n observations =38n 

Sum of next n observations=42n 

Sum of last n observations=55n 

Total sum=135n 

Average=135n/3n =45 

 

Q. 55 I sold an article for ₹8800 thus gained 10%. For what amount should sell it to get 15% profit? 

(A) ₹9,400 

(B) ₹9,300 

(C) ₹9,200 

(D) ₹9,500 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

SP=8800 

Profit percent=10% 

Therefore 1.1*CP=8800 

CP=8800*100/11 

CP=8000 

We have profit percent=15 

SP=1.15CP 

SP=1.15*8000 

SP=Rs 9200 

 

Q. 56 Simplify: 8 + 3 − ( 5/2 × ⅓) of 12/5 + 4/3 × 3/8

(A) 9.5 

(B) 10 

(C)

(D) 19 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 57 Study the following line graph and answer the question based on it. 

What is the difference between the total productions of the two companies from 1997 to 2000? 

(A) 40000 

(B) 50000 

(C) 30000 

(D) 60000 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Sum of vehicles manufactured in the give years by X =78+119+99+141=437 

Sum of vehicles manufactured in the given years by Y =139+120+100+128=487 

Difference =487k-437k 

=50k 

=50000 

 

Q. 58 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 12 , 15 and 30 days respectively. If they do a work together, find the ratio in which the amount is to be distributed 

(A) 4 : 5 : 2 

(B) 2 : 5 : 4 

(C) 2 : 4 : 5 

(D) 5 : 4 : 2 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

LCM of 12,15 and 30 is 60 units 

Each day (A) can do 60/12 =5 units of work 

Each day (B) can do 60/15 =4 units of work 

Each day (C) can do 60/30 =2 units of work 

So ratio of money is in the ratio of units of work done each day 

i.e 5:4:2 

 

Q. 59 Study the following line graph and answer the question based on it. 

In which of the following years, the difference between the productions of Companies X and Y was the minimum among the given years? 

(A) 1997 

(B) 2000 

(C) 2002 

(D) 1999 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Difference between the sales in 1997=139-119=20 

Difference between the sales in 1998=120-99=21 

Difference between the sales in 1999=141-100=41 

Difference between the sales in 2000=128-78=50 

Difference between the sales in 2001=120-107=13 

Difference between the sales in 2002=159-148=11 

So in the year 2002 it is least 

 

Q. 60 Ramu got a new table for 25% discount. Had he got no discount, Ramu would have had to pay ₹185 more. How much did Ramu pay for the table? 

(A) 535 

(B) 545 

(C) 555 

(D) 565 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 In an examination, a student has to secure 35% of the maximum marks to pass. One student got 70 marks and failed by 70 marks. The maximum marks in the examination are 

(A) 400 

(B) 300 

(C) 500 

(D) 200 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 8:3. Find Its area if perimeter is 132 cm. 

(A) 864 cm2 

(B) 684 cm2 

(C) 648 cm2 

(D) 846 cm2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 Two cylindrical cans has the base of the same size. The diameter of each is 14cm. The height of one can is 10cm and another 20cm. Find the ratio of their volumes. 

(A) 3:2 

(B) 2:3 

(C) 1:2 

(D) 2:1 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 The ratio between two natural number is 3:4 , find the smallest number which must be added to both the numbers so that the ratio becomes 4:5 and the sum of the numbers after adding the smallest number will be 27. 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 Study the following line graph and answer the question based on it. 

The production of Company Y in 1998 was approximately what percent of the production of Company X in the same year 

(A) 212.1% 

(B) 211.2% 

(C) 112.2% 

(D) 122.2% 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The production of Company Y in 1998 is 99k 

The production of Company X in 1998 is 121k 

99k=100% 

121k=(121000/99000)*100 

=122.22% 

 

Q. 66 A alone can do a piece of work in 12 days and B alone in 16 days. They under took to do the work for ₹350. How much will B get ? 

(A) ₹150 

(B) ₹200 

(C) ₹250 

(D) ₹180 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

A can do the work in 12 days and (B) can do in 16 days 

LCM of 12 and 16 is 48 units 

‘A’ can do 48/12 =4 units each day 

‘B’ can do 48/16 =3 units each day 

Each day they can do 7 units of work. 

So total days=48/7 days 

(B) does 3*(48/7) units of the total units 

So (3*(48/7)/48)*350=Rs 150 

 

Q. 67 The mean of a set of eight numbers is 63. If one of the numbers is discarded, the mean of the remaining numbers is 58. The value of discarded number is 

(A) 88 

(B) 89 

(C) 78 

(D) 98 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Sum of the eight numbers=63*8 

=504 

Sum of the 7 numbers =58*7 

=406 

The discarded number=504-406 

=98 

 

Q. 68 Average of first eight multiples of 8 is 

(A) 36 

(B) 46 

(C) 32 

(D) 72 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

First 8 multiples of 8 are 8,16….64 

Sum=8+16….64 

Sum=8(1+2…8) 

=8(8)(9)/2 

=288 

Average=288/8 

=46 

 

Q. 69 A shop keeper reduces the selling price of an article by 39, a gain of 10% turns in to a loss of 3%, then the original price of the article is? 

(A) ₹350 

(B) ₹300 

(C) ₹250 

(D) ₹200 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Here the net change is 10+3 =13% 

Given that this 13% change has occurred due to the change in SP i.e SP has decreased by 39 

So we can say that 13% of CP=39 

13*CP/100 =39 

CP=3900/13 

CP=Rs 300 

 

Q. 70 The differences between the circumference and diameter of a circle is 60 cm, then radius is 

(A) 12 cm 

(B) 13 cm 

(C) 14 cm 

(D) 15 cm 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

2πr − 2r 

Given =60 

2r(π − 1) 

=60 

2r*15=60*7 

r=14 cm 

 

Q. 71 The population of Varanasi is 2,25,000. If the annual birth rate and death rate are 9 % and 7 %, calculate the population of city after 2 years. 

(A) 432090 

(B) 423900 

(C) 243090 

(D) 234090 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In this case the net increase per year is (9-7)%=2%. 

so after 1 year the increase will be 225000*1.02=229500 

After 1 more year the increase will be 229500*1.02=234090 

 

Q. 72 The ratio between 2 numbers is 4:5 and the sum of their squares is 1025 , then the numbers are 

(A) 20 and 25 

(B) 24 and 30 

(C) 8 and 10 

(D) 40 and 50 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the numbers be 4x and 5x 

Sum of the squares is 1025 

(4x)2 + (5x)2 

=1025 

41x2 

=1025 

x2 

=25 

x=5 

The numbers are 20 and 25 

 

Q. 73 A car travels a certain distance at a speed of 120km/hr in 4 hours. What should be the speed of the car if the car covers the same distance in 3 hours 20 minutes. 

(A) 142 km/hr 

(B) 140 km/hr 

(C) 124 km/hr 

(D) 144 km/hr 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Distance=Speed*time 

=120*4 

=480 km 

Speed=distance/time 

=480/(10/3) 

=144 km/hr 

 

Q. 74 Three persons A, B and C can complete one round of circular track in 8, 15 and 20 minutes respectively. If they start together at 8 A.M from a certain point, at which time will they be together again at the starting point? 

(A) 10 AM 

(B) 12 Noon 

(C) 11 AM 

(D) 9 AM 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 The ratio of the ages of Arun and Anand is 3:1. After 5 years Arun age will be 5 more than two times of Anand’s age. Then the present age of Arun is 

(A) 40 

(B) 30 

(C) 35 

(D) 25 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the ages of Arun and Anand be 3x and x 

After 5 years Arun’s age=3x+5 and Anand’s age=x+5 

Given 3x+5=2(x+5)+5 

3x+5=2x+10+5 

x=10 

Present age of Arun=30 years 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

He welcomed the audience with a heart felt gratitude for their kind presence on the day of the social gathering in the college. 

(A) No Improvement 

(B) for their kind presences 

(C) of their kind presence 

(D) for their kind present 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

My cousin won’t be able to leave for Mumbai until his parents will have arrived. 

(A) until his parents will arrive 

(B) until his parents arrive 

(C) until his parents won’t arrive 

(D) No Improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

There is no prediction that ………… how fast dehydration can affect your general health. 

(A) have been showing 

(B) have show 

(C) shows 

(D) showed 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the synonym of the given word. 

FLIMSY 

(A) general 

(B) coarse 

(C) sturdy 

(D) Feeble 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The researchers have discovered numerous sample of decorated sandstone, including chapel art depicting the Egyptian goddess. 

(A) researchers have discovered 

(B) including chapel art 

(C) depicting the Egyptian goddess 

(D) numerous sample of decorated sandstone 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Leadership …………. a rational approach to achieve success in any task. 

(A) requiring 

(B) require 

(C) required 

(D) requires 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Incapable of failure or error. 

(A) Incorrigible 

(B) Incurable 

(C) Infallible 

(D) Irredeemable 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Miscelleneous 

(B) Miscellaneous 

(C) Miscellaneius 

(D) Miscelaneous 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. In the modern world, the computer is an amazing gift to mankind for doing two thing effortlessly. 

(A) the computer is 

(B) an amazing gift 

(C) In the modern world 

(D) for doing two thing effortlessly. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Humans have a natural …………. to coordinate their movements with music. 

(A) disability 

(B) direction 

(C) order 

(D) tendency 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Passage: 

The concept of sustainable development provides a (1)……….. for the integration of environmental policies and development strategies. Sustainable development (2)……….. to meet the needs and aspirations of the present without compromising the (3)………… to meet those in the future. In other words, sustainable development is a (4)………… of change in which the exploitation of resources, the direction of investments, technological development and institutional changes are all in harmony and (5)…………… both current and future potential to meet 

human needs and objectives. 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) comparison 

(B) framework 

(C) figure 

(D) provision 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) diverts 

(B) seeks 

(C) rejects 

(D) distracts 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) invention 

(B) operation 

(C) production 

(D) orientation 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) progress 

(B) permission 

(C) process 

(D) sample 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) dismiss 

(B) enhance 

(C) resist 

(D) relieve 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 91 Select the synonym of the given word. 

BREACH 

(A) Restriction 

(B) Violation 

(C) Settlement 

(D) Restraint 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Some people are so good that a mere looks at them pleases you lot. 

(A) No Improvement 

(B) a mere look at their pleases you 

(C) a mere looks at them pleases you 

(D) a mere look at them pleases you 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

There is a high degree of ………… from e-mail based to social-media based messaging globally. 

(A) transition 

(B) process 

(C) transaction 

(D) method 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A cold – blooded vertebrate typically living on land but breeding in water. 

(A) Fish 

(B) Amphibians 

(C) Mammals 

(D) Reptiles 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

LOGICAL 

(A) Practical 

(B) Contradictory 

(C) Sensible 

(D) Useful 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Apples and Oranges. 

(A) Two unlike things or people 

(B) People working together on a project 

(C) People with similar approaches 

(D) Two similar situations with likely results 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. A clear and defined perception enabled her to dismissed the suggestion given by some people around her. 

(A) suggestion given by 

(B) clear and defined 

(C) some people around her. 

(D) enabled her to dismissed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the antonym of the given word. 

PAUCITY 

(A) Scarcity 

(B) Surplus 

(C) Availability 

(D) Shortage 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Refrigirator 

(B) Refreegerator 

(C) Refrigerator 

(D) Refridgerator 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To burn the midnight oil. 

(A) To eat something at midnight 

(B) To use oil for burning a lamp 

(C) To work till very late in the night 

(D) To fight with someone at midnight 

Answer: (C) 

Latest Current Affairs 24 September 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

Pegasus case | Supreme Court panel may look into allegations

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday indicated the Supreme Court’s intention to form a committee to examine allegations that the government used Israeli-based Pegasus software to spy on citizens. The revelation came when the Chief Justice informed senior advocate C.U. Singh, who represented one of the petitioners in the Pegasus case, that the court wanted to pass orders in the case this week but could not because some of the members it had shortlisted for the committee were unavailable due to personal reasons. Chief Justice Ramana said the court would now pass orders in the Pegasus case sometime next week. We wanted to pass the order this week, but some of the members we thought of in the committee said they would be not be able to for personal reasons. We will pass the order next week sometime, Chief Justice Ramana addressed Singh. The CJI asked Singh to inform the other lawyers in the case. While reserving the case for interim order on September 13, the court had mentioned it would be pronounced in the next two or three days. The court had decided to go ahead with an interim order after the government expressed reservations about filing a detailed affidavit responding to the allegations. The Centre had said it would be public and compromise national security. The petitioners had asked for an affidavit from the Cabinet Secretary or for the court to form a committee led by a sitting judge to probe the snooping controversy. A Bench of Chief Justice Ramana and Justices Surya Kant and Hima Kohli made it clear on September 13 that there would be no more beating around the bush in the issue. The CJI had said the court had given the government a fair opportunity to file a detailed affidavit in order to get a clear idea of its stand in the Pegasus case. We thought the government would file a counter-affidavit now we will pass our interim orders, Chief Justice Ramana had remarked. Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for senior journalists N. Ram and Sashi Kumar, had found the government’s refusal to file a detailed affidavit unbelievable.

Large grazing area lost to growing Chinese presence in eastern Ladakh 

Villagers have lost access to a vast grazing area near Gogra in eastern Ladakh owing to growing Chinese presence in the area, Konchok Stanzin, a councillor from Chushul has claimed. Gogra is one of the several friction points in eastern Ladakh where Indian and Chinese troops have been engaged in a stand-off since April-May 2020. The troops have disengaged from the north and south banks of the Pangong Tso and Gogra sector, creating no zones in areas along the undemarcated Line of Actual Control (LAC) that was regularly patrolled by Indian troops pre-April 2020. Stanzin told The Hindu that the Army has stopped the villagers’ access to the Kiu La pass that was till a few years ago frequented by the villagers of Lukung, Phobrang and Yourgo for cattle-grazing. A group of villagers marched to the Kiu La pass a few days ago but they were denied access by the Army. There used to be a bunker on the upper reaches, but it is no longer there. We fear that the Chinese are nibbling away at our territory. This was never a disputed area, Stanzin said. He added that the area does not have a phone or Internet connectivity and the villagers had decided to go there on their own initiative. Since April 2020, Chinese troops have blocked Indian troops from reaching at least 10 patrolling points (PPs) in eastern Ladakh — running from Depsang plains in the north to the Pangong Tso lake in the south. In all, there are more than 65 PPs from the base of the Karakoram to Chumar. Stanzin said that China has constructed permanent structures and roads close to the LAC while the Indian side could only boast of a few roads. There is no mobile connectivity in border areas and despite repeated pleas, the administration has not acted. It is frustrating. They fix the phone lines for a few hours whenever a VIP arrives here. It’s back to square one once they leave, he said. On April 2, the Ministry of Defence in a communication to Stanzin said, Due to the present operational situation in Ladakh, grazers have been asked to restrict their cattle movements.

Kin of those who died by suicide within 30 days of COVID-19 diagnosis can get financial help, MHA tells SC 

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informed the Supreme Court on Thursday that the families of those who died by suicide within 30 days of a COVID-19 positive diagnosis would be eligible for financial help under the Disaster Management Act. The statement came in the backdrop of the guidelines issued by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which recommended ₹50,000 each as ex gratia assistance to the families of people who died of the virus. The NDMA has proposed that the States should provide the money from their State Disaster Response Fund. In the previous hearing of the case on September 13, a Bench of Justices M.R. Shah and A.S. Bopanna urged the government to consider ex gratia payment to the families of people who committed suicide, unable to bear the shock of a COVID-19 positive diagnosis. On Thursday, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, appearing for the Ministry, stressed that these families were also entitled to avail financial help as granted under the SDRF in accordance with the NDMA guidelines of September 11. That is, they too would be eligible for the ₹50,000 ex gratia payment. If the person committed suicide within 30 days of a positive test, it should be deemed that the person took his own life because of COVID-19, he submitted. During the hearing, the court suggested that the committees proposed to be formed at the district level under the NDMA guidelines to deal with grievances regarding certification of death should be able to directly access hospital medical records to check claims of COVID-19 deaths. This would help resolve cases in which families claim ex gratia assistance but do not have medical records of COVID-19 treatment to show. The court would pass formal orders on the NDMA guidelines on October 4.

Man stabs college student to death near Chennai’s Tambaram railway station 

A 20-year-old college student was murdered in broad daylight by a man near Tambaram railway station in Chennai on September 23. The youth, who knew the victim for a few years, also attempted to kill himself but was stopped by the public. He was later handed over to the police. A senior officer of the Chennai Police said Shwetha, a diploma student at Madras Christian College in Tambaram, was on her way home when the accused Ramachandran, working in a private company in Maraimalai Nagar, wanted to speak to her near the railway quarters located on the east side of the railway station. Though Shweta, a resident of Chromepet, knew him for a few years, she had ended the relationship. They had a verbal spat during which Ramachandran took a small knife kept hidden in his bag and stabbed her. On  hearing her cries, nearby residents rushed to her rescue. In the meantime, the 25-year-old accused also attempted to kill himself, but was stopped by the public. Even before the people could take the victim to a nearby hospital she died, the police officer said. Tambaram Police rushed to the crime scene, and arrested the accused Ramachandran, who is from Nagapattinam. The victim’s body has been sent to Chromepet Government Hospital for post mortem. Senior police officials inspected the crime scene, and are investigating.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

China sends record number of warplanes towards Taiwan. 

China sent a record number of warplanes into Taiwan’s air defence identification zone on Friday and Saturday ahead of a visit to Taipei by French lawmakers. The escalation of Beijing’s intimidation against Taipei comes as China endures growing economic pressures while stepping up domestic regulatory and political crackdowns. According to Taiwan’s defence ministry, 38 military aircraft entered Taiwan’s air defence identification zone on Friday, including 28 J-16 fighters, four SU-30 fighters, four H-6 bombers, an anti-submarine plane and an early warning aircraft. On Saturday, the Chinese Air Force sent 39 aircraft, including 26 J-16 fighters, 10 SU-30 fighters, two anti-aircraft planes and one early-warning aircraft, Taiwan’s defence ministry said. On both days, the numbers markedly exceeded the daily record of 28 planes, which was set in June. Some 16 Chinese military aircraft entered the zone on Sunday, including 12 fighters. Military experts define the incursions as grey zone tactics, operations aimed at eroding Taiwan’s security but stopping short of war. China claims Taiwan as its territory and threatens to invade it if Taipei refuses to submit to its control indefinitely. The Taiwanese government on Saturday denounced the latest incursions. China has been wantonly engaged in military aggression, damaging regional peace, said Su Tseng-chang, the premier. Last week, Beijing described Joseph Wu, the Taiwanese foreign minister as a shrilling fly in an unusual verbal attack that Taipei described as slander and abuse. October is traditionally a politically charged season because both China and Taiwan celebrate their national days this month. On Friday, Beijing marked the establishment of the People’s Republic of China in 1949. On October 10, Taiwan celebrates the Republic of China, the state that was overthrown in mainland China by the PRC but continues to exist in Taiwan, where the ROC government fled in 1949. Last year, however, there was no marked increase in air incursions by China’s People’s Liberation Army.

 

Taipei’s bid to join transpacific trade pact could be held hostage by Beijing

Some observers in Taiwan said the PLA’s increased harassment could be an attempt to intimidate Taiwan ahead of planned exchanges with Europe. Next week, a delegation of French lawmakers is due to visit Taipei. Later this month, Taiwan’s chief economic planner is scheduled to lead a 65-strong delegation to several central and eastern European countries. However, military experts noted that the level of PLA air activity near Taiwan had been at a heightened level for weeks. Since Taiwan conducted its regular annual military exercise in early September, PLA air incursions frequently included fighter jets, a pattern rarely seen until now. The PLA has been sending aircraft into Taiwan’s ADIZ on an average of 20 days per month since September 2020, when Taipei made the incursions public for the first time. Often only one or two anti-submarine warfare or early-warning aircraft a day enter the zone for extended periods. Large numbers of fighters and bombers, like this weekend, have in the past appeared when Taiwan has enjoyed international attention or engaged in foreign exchanges. The warplanes do not enter Taiwan’s sovereign airspace, which begins 12 miles off the coast of its territory. But by frequently entering the ADIZ, they force Taiwan’s military to continuously scramble fighter jets, exhausting its resources and gathering intelligence in the process.

SSC GD 1 March 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 1st March 2019 Shift-II 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Man : Mammal :: Butterfly : ……. 

(A) Caterpillar 

(B) Insect 

(C) Bird 

(D) Reptile 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Man previous history form was known as Mammal. 

Similarly, before becoming a Butterfly it is known as Insect. 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

KN : 121/196 : : RU:______ 

(A) 256/400 

(B) 256/196 

(C) 324/144 

(D) 324/441 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 If SCIENCE is coded as 14 and MATHS is coded as 10, then what will be the code for EXAMINATION? 

(A) 21 

(B) 22 

(C) 11 

(D) 23 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Select from among the four alternatives how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Option (B) is correct Option when folded perfectly. 

 

Q. 5 Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 7-49 

(B) 16-256 

(C) 12-144 

(D) 13-196 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

72 = 49 

162 = 256 

122 = 144 

132 = 169 

Hence Odd one is . But in question 196 is given. 

Hence Option (D) is odd one. 

 

Q. 6 Six friends, Anitha, Punitha, Chithra, Deepthi, Harini and Vani, are sitting in a field. Anitha and Punitha are from the Green house, where as the rest belong to the Red house. Deepthi and Vani are tall. where as the others are short. Anitha, Chithra and Deepthi are wearing saris. where as the others are wearing frocks. 

Who among them is tall and from the Red house but not wearing a sari? 

(A) Deepthi 

(B) Anitha 

(C) Vani 

(D) Chithra 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

1) Anitha and Punitha are from the Green house. 

2) where as the rest belong to the Red house.( i.e. Chithra, Deepthi, Harini and Vani) 

3) Person Wearing sari are i.e. Anitha, Chithra and Deepthi 

4) Whereas other are wearing frocks. (Other than sari person.. place in this frock box) 

5) Deepthi and Vani are tall. Other are short. (We will denote with Tall in capital words and short in small alphabets.) 

6) Now we need to find Who among them is tall and from the Red house but not wearing a sari. (i.e. we will cancel the person who is short and person wearing frock.) 

Hence, Vani is from Red house but not wearing a sari. 

 

Q. 7 Read the given statements and conclusion carefully and decide which of the following options is true with respect to the given conclusion. 

Statements: 

Men who are handsome are generally of the intellectual type. 

Vikram is handsome. 

Conclusion: 

Vikram is intellectual. 

(A) Probably false 

(B) Probably true 

(C) True 

(D) False 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Conclusion is True – Vikram is intellectual. Hence Option (B) is correct. 

 

Q. 8 Which two signs/numbers need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

8 ÷ 2 + 4 = 10 

(A) ÷ and +, 8 and 4 

(B) ÷ and + 

(C) + and ÷, 8 and 2 

(D) + and ÷, 2 and 4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some girls are women. 

No woman is brown. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some girls are not brown. 

II. Some women are girls. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Seven friends — Ajith, Bala, Hari, David, Raja, Sekar and Guna — are sitting around a circular table. David is not the neighbour of Hari and Raja. Ajith is the neighbour of Bala and Hari. Guna, who is second to the left of David, is the neighbour of Sekar and Raja. What is the position of Hari? 

(A) To the immediate left of Ajith 

(B) To the immediate right of Raja 

(C) Third to the left of Sekar 

(D) Second to the left of Bala 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 13 Select the number that will come next in the following series. 

1, 5, 9, 17, 25, 37, 49, 65, 81, ……… 

(A) 99 

(B) 110 

(C) 100 

(D) 101 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

1-5=4 

5-9=4 

9-17=8 

17-25=8 

25-37=12 

37-49=12 

49-65=16 

65-81=16 

Hence,81+20= 101. 

1, 5, 9, 17, 25, 37, 49, 65, 81, 101… 

 

Q. 14 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Cub 

(B) Sty 

(C) Hive 

(D) Kennel 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sty is house of a Pig 

Hive is house of HoneyBee 

Kennel is house of Dog. 

But, Cub is a small child fox,bear,lion. Hence Option (A) is odd one. 

 

Q. 15 Select the word-pair that is analogous to the given word-pair. 

Bird : Fly 

(A) Cat : Kitten 

(B) Fox : Vixen 

(C) Cattle : Herd 

(D) Hors 

E Gallop 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Answer marked by your team is incorrect. 

 

Q. 16 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group. 

1, 2, 6, 21, 88, 446, 2676 

(A)

(B) 446 

(C) 21 

(D) 88 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

1, 2, 6, 21, 88, 446, 2676…. 

1 × 1 + 1 = 2 , 

2 × 2 + 2 = 6 , 

6 × 3 + 3 = 21, 

21 × 4 + 4 = 88, 

88 × 5 + 5 = 445

(but in question 446 is given, hence 446 is wrong number series) 

 

Q. 17 Seven students are standing in a row. B is standing to the left of C and to the right of A. D is standing to the right of E and to the left of A. F is standing to the right of C and to the left of G. Who is standing in the middle? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. 

Carrot, Vegetables, Meat 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 In the following fraction series, two fractions have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

(A) Both the bracketed fractions are incorrect. 

(B) The first bracketed fraction (from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

(C) The first bracketed fraction (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(D) Both the bracketed fractions are correct. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

BMO, EOQ, HQS, KSU, ……….. 

(A) MTV 

(B) NUW 

(C) NTV 

(D) NVW 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) kmn 

(B) prt 

(C) bdf 

(D) suw 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

p+2=r, r+2=t 

b+2=d, d+2=f 

s+2=u, u+2=w 

But option (A) does not follow the sequence, 

k+2=m, m+1=n (it should be M+2=O) 

 

Q. 22 Four pairs of words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one. 

(A) Distance : Odometer 

(B) Wind : Taseometer 

(C) Current : Ammeter 

(D) Humidity : Hygrometer 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Wind is measured in anemometer. Hence Option (B) is Odd and incorrect. 

Remaining all other options measurement of instrument is correct form e.g.Humidity : Hygrometer, Current : Ammeter, Distance : Odometer. 

 

Q. 23 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 24 If E is denoted by F, D is denoted by B, R is denoted by K. U is denoted by V, T is denoted by I,  A is denoted by C, G is denoted by X and H is denoted by W. then how will the word DAUGHTER be written? 

(A) BCWXVIFK 

(B) BCWXWFIK 

(C) BCVXWIKF 

(D) BCVXWIFK 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

As given in Question, E=F, D=B, R=K. U=V, T=I, A=C, G=X and H=W 

Lets replace all values with above alphabets, DAUGHTER=BCVXWIFK 

 

Q. 25 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern. 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following is a contagious disease? 

(A) Diabetes 

(B) Stroke 

(C) Tuberculosis 

(D) Asthma 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 27 In which year was the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted? 

(A) 1954 

(B) 1950 

(C) 1956 

(D) 1958 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 A group of fish is called a: 

(A) school 

(B) army 

(C) standard 

(D) bus 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 Inspired by the constitution of which nation has India added the feature of ‘Directive Principles’ in its constitution? 

(A) USA 

(B) Germany 

(C) Ireland 

(D) Russia 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 On which day is the World Population Day celebrated? 

(A) 2nd june

(B) 15th August

(C) 5th September

(D) 11th July

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 What was the approximate distance that Mahatma Gandhi marched for the Salt Satyagraha Movement? 

(A) 241 miles 

(B) 350 miles 

(C) 400 miles 

(D) 123 miles 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 The Bretton Woods Agreementled to the creation of which one of the following institutions? 

(A) United Nations 

(B) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization 

(C) International Monetary Fund 

(D) International Labour Organization 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 What is the national sport of China? 

(A) Cricket 

(B) Football 

(C) Rugby 

(D) Table Tennis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 What is the first age in the prehistoric period called? 

(A) Palaeolithic age 

(B) Metal age 

(C) Copper age 

(D) Neolithic age 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 On which date is the International Mountain Day celebrated? 

(A) 14th November 

(B) 11th December

(C) 2nd October 

(D) 13th January

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 Who is the author of the book ‘Flight of Pigeon’? 

(A) Shobha Dey 

(B) Gita Piramal 

(C) Sudha Murthy 

(D) Ruskin Bond 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 The run-and-touch game of ‘Kho Kho’ originated in which Indian state? 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Jammu and Kashmir 

(C) Goa 

(D) Maharashtra 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 The Living Root Bridges are a rare ecological phenomenon seen in which state of India? 

(A) West Bengal 

(B) Meghalaya 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Mizoram. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 The yolk of an egg contains more than 90% of which of the given vitamins? 

(A) Vitamin C 

(B) Vitamin B12 

(C) Vitamin K 

(D) Vitamin (A) 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 40 A seesaw is an example of which concept of physics? 

(A) Current 

(B) Time 

(C) Electricity 

(D) Force 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 While trying to promote growth by tax cuts as the fiscal policy, which type of policy is the government trying to follow? 

(A) Expansionary 

(B) Contractionary 

(C) Easy money 

(D) Tight money 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Who among the following has been conferred the Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award 2018? 

(A) Anna Hazare 

(B) Medha Patkar 

(C) Kailash Satyarthi 

(D) Gopalkrishna Gandhi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 Urs Festival in Ajmer commemorates the death anniversary of which Sufi Saint? 

(A) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti 

(B) Hazarat Nizamuddin 

(C) Mian Mir 

(D) Salim Chishti 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 44 ‘Kunbi Dance’ is a popular dance associated with which Indian state? 

(A) Mizoram 

(B) Sikkim 

(C) Jammu and Kashmir 

(D) Goa 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Who was the legendary co-founder and retired chairman of Indian tech giant Infosys? 

(A) Ashish Goel 

(B) NR Narayan Murthy 

(C) Yashish Dahiya 

(D) Navneet Singh 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 What do we call the stock of food grains purchased by the Government of India from the farmers through the Food Corporation of India (FCI)? 

(A) Incentivized stock 

(B) Return stock 

(C) Subsidized stock 

(D) Buffer stock 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 In which year did the French traveller Francois Bernier arrive in India? 

(A) 1656 

(B) 1658 

(C) 1678 

(D) 1662 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 What does the 103rd constitutional amendment deal with? 

(A) Women’s reservation 

(B) Economic reservation 

(C) Right to education 

(D) Right against exploitation 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 In which year did Emperor Akbar build the Buland Darwaja? 

(A) 1502 

(B) 1526 

(C) 1534 

(D) 1601 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is the longest river in Europe? 

(A) Mekong 

(B) Zambezi 

(C) Sepik 

(D) Volga 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 40 and 80 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day? 

(A) 7 days 

(B) 15.25 days 

(C) 18.25 days 

(D) 16.25 days 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

(A) can do a work in 20 days 

(B) can do a work in 40 days 

(C) can do a work in 80 days 

LCM of 80,40 and 20 is 80 units 

Each day (A) does 80/20 =4 units of work 

Each day (B) does 80/40 =2 units of work 

Each day (C) does 80/80 =1 unit of work 

In first three days total wok=4+4+4+2+1=15 units 

For 15 days total work=15*5=75 units of work is one 

On 16th day 4 units is done and on 17th day (1/4)th day 

So total 16.25 days 

 

Q. 52 Case A. In a certain store, the profit is 340% of the cost. 

Case B. If the cost increases by 32% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit in case A? 

(A) 100% 

(B) 32% 

(C) 70% 

(D) 320% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 A circle, with radius 8 cm, which has the area equal to the area of a triangle with base 8 cm. Then the length of the corresponding altitude of triangle is: 

(A) 38 π cm 

(B) 16 π cm 

(C) 8 π cm 

(D) 18 π cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 28 years old and the wicket keeper is 4 years older than him. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is two years less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team? 

(A) 15 years 

(B) 22 years 

(C) 21 years 

(D) 29 years 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Age of the captain=28 years 

Age of the wicket keeper=32 years 

let the sum of other 9 players =s 

Therefore s/9 =((s+28+32)/11)-2 

(s/9)=((s+60)/11) -2 

s/9 =(s+38)/11 

11s=9s+342 

2s=342 

s=171 

Total sum of ages of team=171+60=231 

Average=231/11 

=21 

 

Q. 55 Two numbers are respectively 25% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the first number to second number is: 

(A) 1 : 2 

(B) 2 : 1 

(C) 6 : 5 

(D) 5 : 6 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the third number be x 

then the first number will be 1.25x 

and second number will be 1.50x 

Ratio=1.25x/1.50x 

=5/6 

 

Q. 56 (42+4) / 5 + 5 X 2 – 3 x 4 is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 57 A hollow iron pipe is 28 cm long and its external diameter is 10 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 2 cm and iron weighs 5 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is: 

(A) 70.4 kg 

(B) 7.04 kg 

(C) 74 kg 

(D) 7.40 kg 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 58 A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, 60 km away from point A, at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 min while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is: 

(A) 130 km/h 

(B) 100 km/h 

(C) 110 km/h 

(D) 96 km/h 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the speed of the car =S 

Then speed of the train =3S/2 

They travel same distance and reach at the same point but due to stoppages train looses 12.5 minutes time taken for car to travel 60 km=60/S 

Therefore (60/(3S/2))+12.5/60=(60/S) 

40/S + 12.5/60=60/S 

20/S=5/24 

S=24*4 

S=96 km/hr 

 

Q. 59 The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it. 

Royalty on the book is less than the paper cost by: 

(A) 25% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 50% 

(D) 40% 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given expenditure on royalty=15% 

Expenditure on paper cost=25% 

Required percentage=((25-15)/25)*100 

=10*100/25 

=40% 

 

Q. 60 If the mean of the observations x, x + 4, x + 5, x + 7, x + 9 is 9, then the mean of the last three observations is: 

(A)

(B) 10 

(C) 11 

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Sum =x+ x + 4+ x + 5+ x + 7+ x + 9 

=5x+25 

Mean =(5x+25)/5 

x+5=9 

x=4 

Last three observations are 9,11 and 13 

mean=33/3 

=11 

 

Q. 61 The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it. 

What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on binding? 

(A) 72 

(B) 90 

(C) 48 

(D) 70 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Percent of expenditure on binding is given as 20% in the pie diagram Therefore 100%=360 

20%=360*20/100 

=72 degrees 

 

Q. 62 A family consists of two grandparents, three parents and four grandchildren. The average age of the grand parents is 65 years, that of the parents is 32 years and that of the grand children is 8 years. What is the average age of the family? 

(A) None of These 

(B) 28⅔ Years

(C) 28 Years

(D) 28⅓ Years

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given 2 grandparents average as 65 so sum of their ages=65*2=130 years 

Also given 3 parents average as 32 so sum of their ages=32*3=96 years 

Also given 4 grandchildren average as 8 so sum of their ages=8*4=32 years 

Total sum of ages=130+96+32=258 years 

Average=258/9 

=86/3 years 

 

Q. 63 A person has planned to sell his old type writer for ₹4500, he would lose 10%. To gain 20% of profit, he should sell it for: 

(A) ₹6000 

(B) ₹7000 

(C) ₹7200 

(D) ₹8500 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given selling price=Rs 4500 

loss percent=10% 

SP=0.9 CP 

4500=0.9CP 

CP=4500/0.9 

CP=Rs 5000 

Given he wants to get 20% profit 

Therefore SP=1.2 CP 

SP=1.2*5000 

SP=Rs 6000 

 

Q. 64 Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2:3. If the salary of each is increased by ₹3000, the new ratio becomes 35:50. What is Sumit’s new salary? 

(A) ₹18,000 

(B) ₹21,000 

(C) ₹27,000 

(D) ₹30,000 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the salaries of ravi and sumit be 2x and 3x 

salaries increased by 3000 

new salaries are 2x+3000 an 3x+3000 

ratio =7:10 

(2x+3000)/(3x+3000)=7/10 

20x+30000=21x+21000 

x=9000 

Sumit’s new salary=3(9000)+3000 

=30000 

 

Q. 65 The compound interest on ₹40,000 at 6% per annum is ₹4,944. What is the period (in years) for which the amount is invested? 

(A) 5 years 

(B) 4 years 

(C) 3 years 

(D) 2 years 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad.If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, m3 the volume(in ) of the hall is: 

(A) 1600 

(B) 900 

(C) 1200 

(D) 720 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Area of the floor and ceiling will be same and it is equal 

i.e l*b=15*12=180 sq m 

Area of four walls will be 2*l*h+2*b*h=2h(l+b) 

2h(l+b)=360 

h(12+15)=180 

h=180/27 

h=20/3 

Volume=l*b*h=12*15*20/3 

=1200 cubic meters 

 

Q. 67 If a person had walked at the speed of 15 km/h instead of 10 km/h, he would have walked 25 km more. The actual distance travelled by him was: 

(A) 70 km 

(B) 56 km 

(C) 50 km 

(D) 80 km 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

In both the cases time taken ‘t’ is same. 

Therefore 10t=15t-25 

15t-10t=25 

5t=25 

t=5 hours 

Initial speed was 10 km/hr 

and so distance traveled=10*5 

=50 km 

 

Q. 68 Raman paid ₹13,300 as simple interest after 9 years. He had borrowed some money at the rate of 6% for first two years, same money at 9% for next three years and at 14% for rest of the period. How much money(in ₹) did he borrow? 

(A) 10,000 

(B) 14,000 

(C) 12,500 

(D) 12,000 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

We know I=PTR/100 

let the money borrowed be ‘x’ 

then for first two years it is 6% so interest=0.12x 

for next 3 years it is 9% so interest=0.27x 

for next four years it is 14% so interest =0.56x 

Total interest=0.12x+0.27x+0.56 

=0.95x 

therefore 0.95x=13300 

x=13300/0.95 

x=14000 

 

Q. 69 If 15 workers can earn ₹1,800 in 10 days. Find the earning (in ₹) of 5 workers in 8 days. 

(A) 400 

(B) 360 

(C) 540 

(D) 480 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given 15 workers 10 days earn Rs 1800 

150 workdays=Rs 1800 

40 workdays=1800*40/150 

=40*12 

=Rs 480 

 

Q. 70 The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions based on it. 

If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay ₹30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of paper cost to be paid for these books? 

(A) ₹28,250 

(B) ₹38,250 

(C) ₹38,000 

(D) ₹30,2503 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given in the pie diagram printing cost=20% of total expenses 

paper cost=25% of total expenses 

Therefore 20%=30600 

25%=25*30600/20 

=7650*5 

=38250 

 

Q. 71 Find the greatest number that will divide 47, 95 and 187 so as to leave the same remainder in each case. 

(A)

(B) 13 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In each case they leave the same remainder and so the HCF of differences between the numbers has to be taken Difference 1=95-47=48 

Difference 2=187-47=140 

Difference 1=187-95=92 

HCF of 48,140 and 92 

48=2*2*2*2*3 

140=2*2*5*7 

92=2*2*23 

HCF=4 

 

Q. 72 Raj got a new chair at 35% discount. Had Raj got no discount, Raj would have had to pay ₹238 more. How much did Raj pay for the chair? 

(A) ₹452 

(B) ₹442 

(C) ₹416 

(D) ₹424 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the cost price be x 

He got 35% discount and so he paid 0.55x but given if no discount then he would have paid 238 more and so 0.35x=238 

x=680 

So Raj paid 680-238 

=Rs 442 

 

Q. 73 In a mixture of 60 L, the ratio of milk and water is 2:3, then the quantity of water in the mixture is: 

(A) 20 L 

(B) 45 L 

(C) 36 L 

(D) 16 L 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 What percentage of numbers from 1 to 80 have 1 or 9 in the units digit? 

(A) 1% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 21% 

(D) 14% 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

From 1 to 9 each of 1 and 9 comes once at the units digit i.e 2 times(1 or 9) From 10 to 19 each of 1 and 9 comes once at the units digit i.e 2 times Similarly till 80 they come once for every ten numbers and so Total=8*2=16 times 

Total numbers =80 

Percentage=((16)/(80))*100 

=20% 

 

Q. 75 Simplify: 

8.65 − [4 + 0.5 of (8.8 − 2.3 × 3.5)] 

(A) 4.725 

(B) 4.275 

(C) 3.275 

(D) 4.527 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

8.65 − [4 + 0.5 of (8.8 − 2.3 × 3.5)] 

= 8.65 − [4 + 0.5 of (8.8 − 8.05)] 

= 8.65 − [4 + 0.5 of (0.75)] 

= 8.65 − [35/8] 

= =8.65-4.375 

= 4.275 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Someone in love with himself. 

(A) Philologist 

(B) Humanist 

(C) Narcissist 

(D) Philanthropist 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The book provide ample guidance and practice in learning English conversations effectively for all age groups. 

(A) The book provide 

(B) for all age groups 

(C) ample guidance and practice 

(D) in learning English conversations 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Sometimes a person’s intelligence is not fully appreciated ………….. he/she gets an opportunity. 

(A) upto 

(B) later 

(C) until 

(D) unless 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Passengers are requested to go for security check before they proceed to board the flight. 

(A) are request to go for 

(B) are requests to go for 

(C) are requesting to go for 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

My neighbour along with his children is going tonight to watch a movie based over the life of martyrs . 

(A) a movie based on the life of martyrs 

(B) No improvement 

(C) a movie basing on life of martyrs 

(D) a movie base on the life of martyrs 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Passage: 

Obesity can be (1)………. by eating healthy food and increasing physical activity. There is no need to alter the quantity of the food but the quality of the food must be (2)………….. and improvised. Avoiding red meat, oily food, extra fats in form of ghee, butter etc. can dramatically help to reduce the weight. Moreover, if the right eating is accompanied(3)………….. physical work out, it becomes the perfect way to lose weight and stay healthy. In some patients (4)…………. is also carried out. The choice of the treatment(5)…………. on various factors and the decision is taken by the physician by thoroughly examining the patient. 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) magnified 

(B) destroyed 

(C) tolerated 

(D) managed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) checked 

(B) decreased 

(C) distinguished 

(D) satisfied 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) with 

(B) of 

(C) at 

(D) for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) amputation 

(B) surgery 

(C) segmentation 

(D) dissection 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) avoids 

(B) depends 

(C) ignores 

(D) loathes 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 86 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To pull oneself together 

(A) To hide important facts and reasons 

(B) To put necessary matters on the table 

(C) To keep working constantly with attention 

(D) To calm oneself and begin to think or act 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Rehearsal 

(B) Rehersal 

(C) Reehersal 

(D) Rehearsel 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To be fair and square 

(A) To be fair in colour 

(B) To be honest 

(C) To be good at drawing 

(D) To be in a good physique 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

No sooner he has returned to home than his boss called him for an urgent meeting. 

(A) No sooner had he returned home 

(B) No sooner he returned to home 

(C) No sooner he have returned to home 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the antonym of the given word. 

EXTRAVAGANT 

(A) Economical 

(B) Factual 

(C) Untrue 

(D) Wonderful 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

A person’s individual risk for many diseases most often ……… from a combination of genes, environment and lifestyle. 

(A) stems 

(B) checks 

(C) diagnoses 

(D) stops 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

People can only form new habits when they ………. particular patterns of behaviour. 

(A) has adopted 

(B) having adopted 

(C) had adopted 

(D) have adopted 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Taking the help of people with rich experience of life will saves you much time and effort. 

(A) Taking the help of 

(B) much time and effort 

(C) people with rich experience 

(D) will saves you 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word. 

STRAY 

(A) Slight 

(B) Wander 

(C) Steady 

(D) Gruesome 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Just because you are learning a language does not mean you need to limiting your thinking. 

(A) does not mean 

(B) need to limiting your thinking 

(C) Just because 

(D) you are learning a language 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

This is a good time for all of us to a new year’s party. 

(A) collect 

(B) initiate 

(C) invite 

(D) organize 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

(A) large number of fish swimming together. 

(A) Herd 

(B) Pack 

(C) Mob 

(D) Shoal 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ADULTERATE(D) 

(A) Combined 

(B) Fused 

(C) Contaminated 

(D) Concentrated 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Quantetative 

(B) Quantitativ 

(C) Quantitetive 

(D) Quantitative 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 Select the antonym of the given word. 

BENIGN 

(A) Hostile 

(B) Amiable 

(C) Mild 

(D) Genial 

Answer: (A) 

SSC GD 1 March 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 1st March 2019 Shift-1 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Where : Place :: When : ……… 

(A) There 

(B) Then 

(C) Why 

(D) Time 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 2 Six friends, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre such that each one is facing another one. P is facing S. R is between P and Q. U is between P and T who is sitting right of S. Who is sitting to the immediate right of R? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Six friends, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre such that each one is facing another one. P is facing S. U is between P and T who is sitting right of S. R is between P and Q. 

Q is sitting to the immediate right of R. 

Option (C) is correct. 

 

Q. 3 Read the given statements and conclusion carefully and decide which of the following options is true with respect to the given conclusion. 

Statements: 

The Gateway of India is in Mumbai. 

Mumbai is in India. 

Conclusion: 

The Gateway of India is in India. 

(A) Probably false 

(B) True 

(C) False 

(D) Probably true 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 4 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Select from among the four alternatives how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: If the transparent sheet with the following pattern is folded along the dotted lines, 

the following pattern appears, 

Option (B) is correct. 

 

Q. 5 Select the fraction that will next in the following series. 

(A) 14/15

(B) 14/16

(C) 13/15

(D) 13/14

Answer: A 

 

Q. 6 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. 

Flowers, Red, Clothes 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 7 U,V, W, X, Y and Z are seated in a circle facing the centre such that each one is facing another one. X is between Z and V. U is second to the left of X and second to the right of Y. Who is facing X? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

U,V, W, X, Y and Z are seated in a circle facing the centre such that each one is facing another one. 

X is between Z and V. U is second to the left of X and second to the right of Y. 

W is facing X. 

 

Q. 8 Select the term that will come in the following series. 

PC, RF, TI, VL, XO, ……… 

(A) ZQ 

(B) ZR 

(C) YQ 

(D) YR 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 9 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

1, 1, 2, 6, 24, (121), 720, (5040), 40320 

(A) The first bracketed number (from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

(B) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are in correct. 

(D) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

1 × 1 = 1 

1 × 2 = 2 

2 × 3 = 6 

6 × 4 = 24 

24 × 5 = 120 

120 × 6 = 720 

720 × 7 = 5040 

5040 × 8 = 40320 

Option (B) is correct. 

 

Q. 10 If D = 3, G = 6, and FUN = 38, then PRESIDENT = ………. 

(A) 119 

(B) 110 

(C) 100 

(D) 101 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 11 If SQUARE is coded as TSXEWK, then TRIANGLE will be coded as ………. 

(A) UTLFSMSM 

(B) UTLESNSM 

(C) UTLESMSM 

(D) UTLESMSN 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 12 Select the word-pair that is analogous to the given word-pair. 

France : Paris 

(A) Iran: Rial 

(B) India : Mumbai 

(C) Cuba : Havana 

(D) China : Yuan 

Answer: C 

Q. 13 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 14 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group. 

3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 28, 30 

(A) 28 

(B) 30 

(C) 18 

(D) 15 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 15 Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 7-345 

(B) 5-125 

(C) 9-729 

(D) 3-27 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 16 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

AIM 

(A) AIM 

(B) MIA

(C) AIW 

(D) WIA 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 17 Four pairs of words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one. 

(A) Brother : Sister 

(B) Lion : Lioness 

(C) Bear : Cub 

(D) Cock : Hen 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 18 The statements below are followed by three conclusions labeled I, II and III. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements . 

Statements: 

All balls are boats. 

All boats are cars. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some cars are balls. 

II. All balls are cars. 

III. All cars are balls. 

(A) All the conclusions follow. 

(B) Only conclusion III follows. 

(C) Only conclusions II and III follow. 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 19 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 20 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

20 ÷ 10 × 100 − 10 + 100 = 110 

(A) + and÷ 

(B) × and − 

(C) ÷ and × 

(D) + and − 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 21 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 22 Diya have five subjects in her academics namely A, B, C, D and E. She studies them from Monday to Friday of a week. On each day, only one subject will be studied. D or E should not be either the first or last to be studied. E should be immediately followed by C. B should be studied immediately after D. One subject will be studied between A and B. 

Then which subject she immediately reads after Monday? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: C 

 

Q. 23 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Volume 

(B) Force 

(C) Volt 

(D) Power 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second numberis related to the first number. 

9 : 100 :: 13 : …….. 

(A) 130 

(B) 144 

(C) 196 

(D) 169 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

9 : (9 + 1)2 :: 13 : (13 + 1)2 

9 : 100 :: 13 : 196 

Option (C) is correct 

 

Q. 25 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) PRT 

(B) VXZ 

(C) HJL 

(D) CFG 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

1st alphabet → (+2)2nd alphabet → (+2)3rd alphabet. 

Option (D) don’t follow the above pattern and is the odd one out 

Option (D) is correct. 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 ‘Tulsidas’, a poet who lived during the medieval times of Indian history, wrote “Ramcharitmanas’ in which of the following languages? 

(A) Pali 

(B) Prakrit 

(C) Awadhi 

(D) Sanskrit 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 27 What was the capital of the French colony in India? 

(A) Pondicherry 

(B) Calicut 

(C) Cochin 

(D) Goa 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 28 Which famous Indian personality is the founder of ‘Paani Foundation’? 

(A) Shah Rukh Khan 

(B) Salman Khan 

(C) Amir Khan 

(D) Ranveer Singh 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 29 With the commencement of the 7th century, who ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj? 

(A) Krishnadeva 

(B) Harshavardhana 

(C) Rajendra Chola I 

(D) ChandraGupta II 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 30 Who Is the cofounder of IndiGo Airlines? 

(A) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 

(B) Pawan Munjal 

(C) Y C Deveshwar 

(D) Rahul Bhatia 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 31 ‘Vijay Amvitraj’ was a legendary Indian player associated with which of the following sports? 

(A) Lawn tennis 

(B) Swimming 

(C) Rifle shooting 

(D) Badminton 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 32 What is India’s rank in the World Bank’s Human Capital Index (HCI) rankings as of Feb 2019? 

(A) 124 

(B) 115 

(C) 126 

(D) 104 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 33 ‘Talatal Ghar’ is a historical monument situated in which of the following Indian states? 

(A) Assam 

(B) West Bengal 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Odisha 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 34 “Which among the following is the longest river in South India? 

(A) Narmada 

(B) Tungabhadra 

(C) Godavari 

(D) Krishna 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 35 Which disease among the given options spreads via pigs? 

(A) Nipah 

(B) Swine flu 

(C) Zika 

(D) Plague 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 36 Riboflavin present in fish is also known as: 

(A) Vitamin C

(B) Vitamin K 

(C) Vitamin B12 

(D) Vitamin B2 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 37 Which mountain pass in the world has the highest motorable road in the world? 

(A) Jelep-La 

(B) Nathu-La 

(C) Shipki-La 

(D) Dhungria-La 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 38 The production of a commodity through natural process is an activity associated to which sector of the Indian Economy? 

(A) Tertiary 

(B) Secondary 

(C) Quaternary 

(D) Primary 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 39 As on 2018, which is the world’s largest political party in terms of primary membership? 

(A) The Bharatiya Janata Party 

(B) The Conservative Party of UK 

(C) The Democratic Party of the US 

(D) National republican Party US 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 40 Fiscal policy is based on the economic theory given by which of the following economist? 

(A) John Maynard Keynes 

(B) Adam Smith 

(C) Milton Friedman 

(D) John Nash 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 41 ‘Theyyam’ is a popular dance form of which of the following states? 

(A) Karnataka 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 42 The National Food Security Act was passed in which of the following years? 

(A) 2011 

(B) 2013 

(C) 2014 

(D) 2012 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 43 The movement of a horse drawn carriage is an example of which principle of physics? 

(A) Newton’s third law of motion 

(B) Ohm’s law 

(C) Archimedes principle 

(D) Avogadro’s law 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 44 Which city will host the upcoming Winter Olympic Games scheduled in 2022? 

(A) Los Angeles 

(B) Paris 

(C) Tokyo 

(D) Beijing 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 45 The festival of ‘Hareli’ is celebrated in which of the following Indian states? 

(A) Odisha 

(B) Chhattisgarh 

(C) Punjab 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 46 The Consumer Protection Bill, 2018 has replaced the Consumer Protection Act of which of the given years? 

(A) 1981 

(B) 1986 

(C) 1991 

(D) 1978 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 47 ‘Azadirachta indica’ is the botanical name of which evergreentree foundin the Indian sub-continent? 

(A) Curry tree 

(B) Pine tree 

(C) Hibiscus tree 

(D) Margosa tree 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 48 ‘The Legend of Laxmi Prasad’ was the title of a book written by which one of the following authors? 

(A) Arundhati Roy 

(B) Twinkle Khanna 

(C) Jhumpa Lahiri 

(D) Shobha De 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 49 In which layer of the earth’s atmosphere is the ozone layer found? 

(A) Troposphere 

(B) Mesosphere 

(C) Exosphere 

(D) Stratosphere 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 50 As of January 2019, what is the number of articles in the Indian constitution? 

(A) 431 

(B) 402 

(C) 448 

(D) 395 

Answer: C 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The Area of a rectangle is 27m2 and its length is 3 times of its breadth. The perimeter of the rectangle is: 

(A) 24cm 

(B) 12cm 

(C) 42cm 

(D) 28cm 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 52 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data. 

The table shows the percentage population of five districts in a state below poverty line and the proportion of males and females.

The total population in D1, is 30,000. The number of female under below poverty line in the district D1, is: 

(A) 2500 

(B) 3500 

(C) 2700 

(D) 1800 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 53 The value of 30 ÷ 6 × 5 of (2 + 3) − 12(3 × 2) is equal to: 

(A) 28 

(B) 35 

(C) 82 

(D) 53 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 54 Two numbers are less than a third number by 25 and 36 respectively. The percentage of first number less than second number is: 

(A) 61% 

(B) 11% 

(C) 18% 

(D) 52% 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 55 The value of 25 of 4 − 30 + (22 + 18) is: 

(A) 23 

(B) 84 

(C) 92 

(D) 37 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 56 A wheel makes 4000 revolution is covering a distance of 60km. The radius of the wheel is: 

(A) 8m 

(B) 8.25m 

(C) 4.68m 

(D) 2.39m 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 57 In class IX, the average of marks in science for six students was 48. After result declared, it was found in case of one student, the marks 45 were misread as 54. The correct average is : 

(A) 46.40 

(B) 46.50 

(C) 76.50 

(D) 64.39 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 58 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data 

The table shows the percentage population of five districts in a state below poverty line and the proportion of males and females.

If the total population of district D4, is 35000, then what is the number of females above the poverty line in the district D4? 

(A) 10,500 

(B) 14,240 

(C) 11,250 

(D) 12,450 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 59 In a class, the average age of 40 students is 12 years when teacher’s age is included to it, the average increases by 1. The age of teacher is : 

(A) 53 years 

(B) 51 years 

(C) 48 years 

(D) 68 years 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 60 Shopkeeper selling on article for ₹46 loses 8%. In order to gain of 6%, what should be the selling price of the article? 

(A) ₹65 

(B) ₹56 

(C) ₹53 

(D) ₹85 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 61 The areas of two squares are 16:9. The ratio of their perimeter is: 

(A) 9:16 

(B) 9:12 

(C) 12:16 

(D) 16:12 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 62 The difference between upper limit and lower limit of the class interval is called as: 

(A) Range 

(B) Mode 

(C) Frequency distribution 

(D) Class size 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 63 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data 

The table shows the percentage population of five districts in a state below poverty line and the proportion of males and females.

If the total population in the district D3 is 40,000, then what is the population of below poverty line in the district D3, ? 

(A) 10,000 

(B) 5,000 

(C) 8,000 

(D) 12,000 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 64 In how many years, a sum will be thrice of it at the rate of interest 5% per annum? 

(A) 25 years 

(B) 40 years 

(C) 30 years 

(D) 20 years 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 65 If (x + y) : (x − y) = 3 : 2 , then (x2 + y )2 : (x2 − y2) is in the ratio of: 

(A) 12:13 

(B) 5:12 

(C) 13:12 

(D) 24:5 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 66 In a university, the number of students studying science, mathematics and language are in the ratio of 2:4:9. If the number of students in Science, Mathematics and Language be increased 10%, 20% and 40% respectively. What will be the new ratio? 

(A) 12:23:63 

(B) 11:24:63 

(C) 24:11:63 

(D) 63:11:24 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 67 By Selling a TV for ₹8500 a person loses 15%. In order to gain of 5%, Selling price of TV should be: 

(A) ₹10,500 

(B) ₹10,000 

(C) ₹9,500 

(D) ₹9,000 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

By Selling a TV for ₹8500 a person loses 15%. 

Therefore, CP = SP ÷ 0.85 = 8500 ÷ 0.85 = ₹10, 000 

In order to gain of 5%, Selling price of TV should be= 

SP = 1.05 × 10, 000 = ₹10, 500 

Option (A) is correct. 

 

Q. 68 ‘A’ pipe can empty a tank in 20 minutes. The second pipe ‘B’ has a diameter twice as that of ‘A’. If both A & B pipe are attached to the tank how much time will be required to empty the tank? 

(A) 10½ minutes 

(B) 25 minutes 

(C) 15 minutes 

(D) 6⅔ minutes 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 69 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 240 respectively. If one of the number is 24, what is the another number 

(A) 120 

(B) 228 

(C) 264 

(D) 144 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 70 Rama and Hari can together finish a piece of work in 15 day. Rama works twice as fast as Hari, then Hari alone can finish work in : 

(A) 45 days 

(B) 30 days 

(C) 25 days 

(D) 20 days 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 71 Two numbers are 20% and 40% more than the third number respectively. The ratio of the first and second number is: 

(A) 7:6 

(B) 7:5 

(C) 6:7 

(D) 5:7 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 72 The compound interest on an amount for 2 years at 5% per annum compounded annually is ₹205. The simple interest is: 

(A) ₹250 

(B) ₹220 

(C) ₹200 

(D) ₹210 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 73 The distance between two stations is 500 km. (A) train starts from station ‘A’ at 9 am and travels towards station ‘B’ at 60 km/hrs. Another Train starts from station ‘B’ at 10 am and travels towards ‘A’ at 40 km/hrs. At what time both the train meet to each other. 

(A) 12.45 PM 

(B) 1.36 PM 

(C) 3.36 PM 

(D) 2.24 PM 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 74 (A) trader allows two successive discounts of 5% each on the marked price of a sofa set for ₹24,500. The selling price of the sofa set is: 

(A) ₹23,274.75 

(B) ₹23,275 

(C) ₹1,163.75 

(D) ₹22,111.25 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 75 A train is moving at 72 km/hrs. The distance covers in 15 minutes by the train is: 

(A) 18 km 

(B) 27 km 

(C) 36 km 

(D) 28 km 

Answer: A 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who does a thing for pleasure and not as a profession 

(A) Sportsperson 

(B) Amateur 

(C) Volunteer 

(D) Athlete 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 77 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To hang together 

(A) To be over telephone with a friend 

(B) To keep holding on to something 

(C) to take a swing in a garden 

(D) To be connected with each other 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 78 Select the antonym of the given word. 

CONVENE 

(A) Disperse 

(B) Summon 

(C) Request 

(D) Gather 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

You can master anything by the usual process of learning and practicing it ………….. 

(A) temporarily 

(B) occasionally 

(C) regularly 

(D) annually 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 80 Select the antonym of the given word. 

CONCUR 

(A) Contribute 

(B) Lead 

(C) Disagree 

(D) Distribute 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 81 Select the synonym of the given word. 

AFFINITY 

(A) Monotony 

(B) Beauty 

(C) Empathy 

(D) Decency 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Your parents may get …………… With your lifestyle and demand a change init. 

(A) fulfilled 

(B) pleased 

(C) satisfied 

(D) annoyed 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 83 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Suplementary 

(B) Supplementary 

(C) Suppllementary 

(D) Supplementery 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. While we would like all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they does not. 

(A) why they does not 

(B) While we would like 

(C) Indian children to go to school 

(D) we need to ponder 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

My forefinger is still ………… where I caught it in the door this morning. 

(A) burnt 

(B) scorched 

(C) bruised 

(D) damaged 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 86 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A person who is indifferent to the pains and pleasures of life. 

(A) Introvert 

(B) Social 

(C) Stoic 

(D) Solitary 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

On the academic front you are likely to outshine others and take up a better career. 

(A) you were likely to outshine others 

(B) you should likely to outshine others 

(C) you are likely for outshine other 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word. 

CUMBERSOME 

(A) Wonderful 

(B) Heavy 

(C) Graceful 

(D) Virtuous 

Answer: B 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Passage: 

“Success begins in the mind.” This is a wonderful quote to explain the power of having (1)………. in yourself. Since (2)………. wants success, they all try their best. Sometimes they will (3)……….. failure, but that’s what life is. Ups and downs are a part of it. All you need is to take that failure in your (4)…………. learn from it and never forget it. It doesn’t matter how or where you come from, success happens to those who (5)……….. hands with difficulties. 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) doubt 

(B) disgust 

(C) faith 

(D) discard 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) everyone 

(B) each 

(C) someone 

(D) anyone 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) clash 

(B) encounter 

(C) see 

(D) oppose 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) run 

(B) stride 

(C) walk 

(D) wing 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) shake 

(B) see 

(C) move 

(D) avoid 

Answer: A 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Those who are travelling today by train may have delayed in reaching their destinations. 

(A) travelling today in train may get delayed 

(B) No improvement 

(C) travel today by train may get delayed 

(D) travelling today by train may get delayed 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Statistical measure which track the money-saving behaviour haven’t improved much. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) measure which tracks money-saving behaviours 

(C) measures what track the money-saving behaviour 

(D) measures which track the money-saving behaviour 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 96 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Badjet 

(B) Budget 

(C) Budjet 

(D) Bugett 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. In India, the various practices and norms from bank’s transactions are laid down by the RBI only. 

(A) are laid down 

(B) norms from bank’s transactions 

(C) the various practices 

(D) by the RBI only 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 98 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Call it a day 

(A) Decide or agree to stop doing something 

(B) Attempting to do an impossible task 

(C) Disagreeing on everything someone is saying 

(D) Agreeing to reveal some secret information 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 99 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. You are invite to build a better community by planting a seed of peace within and tree outside. 

(A) build a better community 

(B) within and a tree outside 

(C) You are invite to 

(D) by planting a seed of peace 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Whenever he refers to his friends he is pleased but when he talks of his foes he is ……….. 

(A) unhappy 

(B) possessed 

(C) serene 

(D) interested 

Answer: A 

SSC CHSL Tier-I 20 October 2020 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 20th October 2020 Shift-2 

English Language (Basic Knowledge) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Identify the segment in the given sentence which contains the grammatical error. Soni take her daughter to the park in the evening in a stroller. 

(A) to the park 

(B) in a stroller 

(C) Soni take her daughter 

(D) in the evening 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Unpretensious 

(B) Recurrent 

(C) Dilemma 

(D) Excellence 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 3 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A type of magic in which spirits, especially evil ones, are used to make things happen 

(A) Chemistry 

(B) Sorcery 

(C) Mimicry 

(D) Alchemy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence. 

We must not take the future for granted; rather, we should enjoy the ______ joys of our humdrum lives. 

(A) habitual 

(B) average 

(C) everyday 

(D) future 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

One of the reasons we fail to talk convincingly about climate change is that we present it as something “out there”. We (1)______ to make it clear (2)______ it’s linked to (3)______ daily decisions, such as walking (4)______ driving, and not talk about it in (5)______ of abstractions. 

 

Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

(A) keep 

(B) use 

(C) need 

(D) know 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. 

(A) that 

(B) so 

(C) if 

(D) then 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. 

(A) our 

(B) much 

(C) their 

(D) those 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. 

(A) never 

(B) before 

(C) or 

(D) also 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. 

(A) voices 

(B) words 

(C) terms 

(D) things 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 10 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The book’s page seem to have been torn by someone. 

(A) The book’s page seems 

(B) The page of the book has seem 

(C) The page of the book was seems 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Ashutosh kept a stiff upper lip even when he was reprimanded in the presence of clients. 

(A) behaved insolently 

(B) kept shouting 

(C) remained expressionless 

(D) started sniggering 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

APEX 

(A) Base 

(B) Pinnacle 

(C) Asset 

(D) Force 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

MOTIF 

(A) Purpose 

(B) Reason 

(C) Creation 

(D) Design 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. Have you heard the news that Hema is looking for greener pastures? 

(A) was feeling rejected 

(B) has been fired 

(C) exploring new opportunities 

(D) has been transferred 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 15 Select the option that is the direct form of the given sentence. 

Explaining her work she said that she made films for posterity to remember. 

(A) Explaining her work, she said, “She makes films for posterity to remember.” 

(B) Explaining her work, she said, “I will make the films that will remember posterity.” 

(C) Explaining her work, she said, “She made films for posterity to remember.” 

(D) Explaining her work, she said, “I make films for posterity to remember.” 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

(A) The father then wanted his son to pick him up at four in the afternoon so that they could go home together. 

(B) A teenager had just passed his driving test and was eager to drive his father’s car. 

(C) He asked his son to drop him at a place that was some 18 miles from home before he took the car for servicing. 

(D) His father agreed. 

(A) BCAD

(B) ADBC

(C) CBAD 

(D) BDCA 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Identify the segment in the given sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

The wedding reception will be hosted in Mumbai at a late date. 

(A) will be hosted 

(B) at a late date 

(C) The wedding reception 

(D) in Mumbai 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 18 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A deep fissure in the earth’s surface 

(A) Chasm 

(B) Tremor 

(C) Earthquake 

(D) Volcano 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

ACCRUE 

(A) Spread 

(B) Collect 

(C) Range 

(D) Variety 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

(A) In reality, however, we exist in compartments, separated by walls of caste, religion, and geography. 

(B) But we find that ignorance levels are growing as well because the rate at which we are accumulating information is not commensurate with the rate at which our awareness is growing. 

(C)Technologically we live in a borderless world. 

(D) Another paradox is that we take pride in describing ourselves as a knowledge-based society. 

(A) ABDC 

(B) CBAD 

(C) CADB 

(D) BADC 

Answer:

 

Q. 21 Select the option that is the passive form of the given sentence. 

This book explores the secret of leading a long and meaningful life. 

(A) The secret of leading a long and meaningful life is explored in this book. 

(B) The secret of leading a long and meaningful life was being explored by this book. 

(C) The secret of leading a long and meaningful life have been explored by this book. 

(D) The secret of leading a long and meaningful life had been explored by this book. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Have you got confirmation of the receipt of the donation? 

(A) Did you got confirmation 

(B) No improvement 

(C) Have you get confirmation 

(D) Has you got confirmations 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

EXPUNGE 

(A) Deplete 

(B) Remove 

(C) Insert 

(D) Exhaust 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence. 

A literature festival on the beach: With waves crashing on the beach, the Kerala Literature Festival got ______ in Kozhikode with a range of panel discussions in English and Malayalam. 

(A) apart 

(B) underway 

(C) away 

(D) wayward 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Squirrell 

(B) Exquiste 

(C) Recquirement 

(D) Acquaintance 

Answer: (D) 

General Intelligence 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes. 

Physics, Science, Biology, Zoology 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Physics, Biology comes under Science and Zoology comes under Biology. 

∴ The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 27 In a certain code language, DEAF is written as ‘HJGM’. How will CALM be written as in that language? 

(A) E B X Y 

(B) F B X Y 

(C) G F R T 

(D) G C Y Z 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, DEAF is written as HJGM in the code language 

The logic here is 

Similarly, 

∴ CALM is written as GFRT in code language 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 28 G is the grandfather of S. B has only two sons E and F. A and B are the only sons of G. Who is the father of S? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

According to the problem, the family tree is 

∴ (A) is the father of S 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 29 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. 

Distance : Kilometers 

(A) Volume : Liters 

(B) Bushel : Corn 

(C) Fame : Television 

(D) Weight : Scale 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Distance is measured in Kilometers. Similarly, Volume is measured in Liters. 

∴ Volume and Liters share the same relationship as Distance and Kilometers. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 30 Four number-sets have been given below, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-set that is different from the rest. 

(A) (84, 116, 181) 

(B) (44, 89, 179) 

(C) (71, 108, 182) 

(D) (35, 81, 173) 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

(84, 116, 181) ⟶ 116 – 84 = 32 and 181 – 116 = 65 

(44, 89, 179) ⟶ 89 – 44 = 45 and 179 – 89 = 90 

(71, 108, 182) ⟶ 108 – 71 = 37 and 182 – 108 = 74 

(35, 81, 173) ⟶ 81 – 35 = 46 and 173 – 81 = 92 

The difference between third and second number is twice the difference between second and first number except in (84, 116, 181). 

∴ (84, 116, 181) is the different one among the given number number-sets. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 31 What will be the value of ‘a + b’ in the following equation? 

[4 (3 + {9 × 6 ÷ 3 + {12 ÷ (1 ÷ 1 × 3)}})] = 5a × 2b 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

[4 (3 + {9 × 6 ÷ 3 + {12 ÷ (1 ÷ 1 × 3)}})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + {9 × 6 ÷ 3 + {12 ÷ (1 × 3)}})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + {9 × 6 ÷ 3 + {12 ÷ 3}})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + {9 × 6 ÷ 3 + 4})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + {9 × 2 + 4})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + {18 + 4})] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (3 + 22)] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ [4 (25)] = 5a × 2b 

⇒ 100 = 5a × 2b 

⇒ 25 × 4 = 5a × 2b 

⇒ 52 × 22 = 5a × 2b 

Comparing both sides, a = 2 and b = 2 

∴ a + b = 2 + 2 = 4 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 32 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

When the paper is unfolded first to the right, a dark semi circle will form on the top of the top left quadrant and circles are placed similarly in the right part of the top left quadrant. 

When the paper is unfolded further, the pattern of cutting will be similar in the remaining three quadrants as shown below 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 33 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

132 : 156 : : 462 : ? 

(A) 505 

(B) 484 

(C) 503 

(D) 506 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

11 × 12 = 132 

12 × 13 = 156 

Similarly, 

21 × 22 = 462 

Fourth number = 22 × 23 = 506 

∴ 506 is related to 462 in the same way 156 is related to 132. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 34 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) Nuclear Fuel 

(B) Coal 

(C) Natural Gas 

(D) Biomass 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Coal, Natural Gas, Biomass are natural fuels whereas Nuclear fuels are not natural fuels. 

∴ Nuclear fuels is the different one among the given words. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 35 Read the given statements carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, decide which of the given conclusions is correct based on the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Ram goes to mathematics class on Monday. 

2. He attends literature classes on Friday. 

3. He goes to guitar classes the day before he goes to history classes. 

4. He attends history classes 2 days before literature classes. 

(A) Ram goes to guitar classes on Tuesday. 

(B) Ram goes to guitar classes on Sunday. 

(C) Ram goes to guitar classes on Saturday. 

(D) Ram attends history classes on Saturday. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Ram attends literature classes on Friday. 

He attends history classes 2 days before literature classes. 

⇒ Ram attends history classes on Wednesday. 

He goes to guitar classes the day before he goes to history classes. 

⇒ Ram goes to guitar classes on Tuesday. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 36 Find the number of squares in the following figure. 

(A) 12 

(B) 17 

(C) 13 

(D) 16 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The different squares in the given figure is ACTZ, ABMJ, CBMP, TYMJ, ZYMP, DFWU, DEMK, FEMO, UZMK, WZMO, IGVQ, IHML, GHMN, VSMN, QSML, JBPY, KEOZ 

∴ The number of squares in the given figure = 17 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 37 Select the option figure that can replace the question mark in the following series. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 Select the correct sequence of the following words (based on inside to outside of the reproductive system of a flower). 

1. Ovary 

2. Stigma 

3. Ovule 

4. Petal 

(A) 3, 2, 1, 4 

(B) 4, 3, 2, 1 

(C) 3, 1, 2, 4 

(D) 2, 1, 3, 4 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Ovule is the inner part of the flower which is inside Ovary. Stigma will be above the Ovary in the flower. Petal is the outside part of the flower. 

∴ The sequence of the words based on inside to outside of the reproductive system of a flower is Ovule, Ovary, Stigma, Petal Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 39 A person is employed to a company on salary of ₹ 6,000 per month. Through out the year, he remained absent from work for 15 days. If ₹ 200 gets deducted for every single holiday, then how much money will he earn at the end of the year ? 

(A) ₹ 72,000 

(B) ₹ 70,000 

(C) ₹ 69,000 

(D) ₹ 75,000 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Salary of the person per month = ₹ 6,000 

6000 × 12 

Salary of the person per year = = ₹ 72,000 

Deduction for 1 holiday = ₹ 200 

15 × 200 

Deduction for 15 holidays = = ₹ 3,000 

∴ Money earned by the person at the end of the year = 72000 – 3000 = ₹ 69,000 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 40 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

 Longest day : June :: Shortest day : ? 

(A) December 

(B) February 

(C) January 

(D) November 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Longest day will be in the month of June and Shortest day will be in the month of December. 

∴ December is related to Shortest day in the same way June is related to Longest day. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 41 In certain code language, BOOK is coded as 139 and PEN is coded as 302. How will COPY be coded as in that language? 

(A) 2547 

(B) 167 

(C) 2822 

(D) 279 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, BOOK is coded as 139 and PEN is coded as 302 in the code language 

K + (B) = 13 and K – (B) = 9 

P + N = 30 and P – N = 2 

The code for word is the combination of sum and difference of values of first and last letters of the word. Similarly, for COPY 

Y + (C) = 28 and Y – (C) = 22 

∴ COPY is coded as 2822 in the code language 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 42 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 In a certain code language, MENTION is written as NEITNOM. How will PATTERN be written as in that language? 

(A) LSOIANN 

(B) RESWNDU 

(C) DOEECTS 

(D) NAETTRP 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Select the box (figures 1 to 4) that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines. 

(A) Only figures 3 and 4 

(B) Only figures 1 and 2 

(C) Only figures 1, 3 and 4 

(D) Only figure 2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

When the mirror is placed on the right side of the figure, 

The facing of the figure to the left and right direction changes to the opposite direction in the mirror image(left facing changes to right and vice versa). There won’t be change in shape of the figure. 

The black part at the top right of the figure will be at the top left in the mirror image. 

The black part at the bottom left of the figure will be at the bottom right in the mirror image. 

∴ The mirror image of the given figure is 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 46 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

14 : 182 :: 22 : ? 

(A) 244 

(B) 482 

(C) 462 

(D) 444 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) DCEBF 

(B) TUSVR 

(C) HGIFJ 

(D) RQSPT 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In DCEBF, HGIFJ, RQSPT, the fourth letter, second letter, first letter, third letter, fifth letter are in alphabetical order respectively. In TUSVR, the fourth letter, second letter, first letter, third letter, fifth letter are in not alphabetical order. 

∴ TUSVR is the odd one among the given letter-clusters 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 48 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

2, 3, 6, 15, ?, 157.5, 630 

(A) 54 

(B) 49 

(C) 48 

(D) 45 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given series is 2, 3, 6, 15, ?, 157.5, 630 

The logic here is 

2 × 1.5 = 3 

3 × 2 = 6 

6 × 2.5 = 15 

Similarly, the next number = 15 × 3 = 45 

45 × 3.5 = 157.5 

157.5 × 4 = 630 

∴ The required number = 45 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 49 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. 

a b b _ b_ _ b a b _ _ b a b b b b_ _ 

(A) b a b b a a b 

(B) a b b a a b b 

(C) a b b a b a b 

(D) a b b a a a b 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

a b b b b | a b b a b | b a b a b | b b b a b 

The above letters do not form a series. Hence option (A) is incorrect. 

Option (B) 

a b b a b | b b b a b | a a b a b | b b b b b 

The above letters do not form a series. Hence option (B) is incorrect. 

Option (C) 

a b b a b | b b b a b | a b b a b | b b b a b 

The above letters form a series. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 50 Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series. 

81, 54, 36, 27, 22 

(A) 27 

(B) 36 

(C) 22 

(D) 54 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

81 – 54 = 27 

54 – 36 = 18 

36 – 27 = 9 

The difference of consecutive numbers is the decreasing multiple of 9. The next difference should be 0. Similarly, the next number in the series = 27 + 0 = 27 

The required series should be 81, 54, 36, 27, 27 

∴ 22 do not belong to the series. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

Quantitative Aptitude(Basic Arithmetic Skill) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A study was made for the number of persons of different age group visited in a library in a week which is shown in the histogram. Study the histogram and answer the question given below. 

The ratio of the number of persons in the age groups 15-20 years and 20-25 years together, to the number of persons in the age groups 30-35 years and 35-40 years together, is: 

(A) 14 : 9 

(B) 13 : 9 

(C) 14 : 17 

(D) 15 : 19 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

From the histogram, 

Number of persons in the age groups 15-20 years and 20-25 years together = 300 + 400 = 700 

Number of persons in the age groups 30-35 years and 35-40 years together = 350 + 100 = 450 

∴ Required ratio = 700 : 450 = 14 : 9 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 52 If x = 3 + 22, then the value of x2 + 1/x2 is 

(A) 36 

(B) 32 

(C) 30 

(D) 34 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 If x+1/x = 5,x=5≠0 then the value of( x4+1/x2 ) / (x2-3x+1) is equal to :

(A) 50 

(B) 65 

(C) 60 

(D) 55 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 A man travelled a distance of 35 km in 5 hours. He travelled partly on foot at the rate of 4 km/h and the rest on bicycle at the rate of 9 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is: 

(A) 8 km 

(B) 10 km 

(C) 15 km 

(D) 12 km 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 If x + x/4 – 4 = 0, then the value of x2 – 4 is equal to: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 A, B and C are three points on the circle. If AB = AC = 7√2 cm and ∠BAC = 90 , then the radius is equal to: 

(A) 7√2cm 

(B) 7 cm 

(C) 14 cm 

(D) 6 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 Two concentric circles form a ring. The inner and outer circumferences of the ring are 22 cm and 44 cm, respectively. The width of  the ring is: (take π = 22/7) 

(A) 1.5 cm 

(B) 2.5 cm 

(C) 3 cm 

(D) 3.5 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 Study the following pie-chart and answer the given question. 

The pie-chart shows Budget Expenditure of a company in the year 2018 (percentage distribution) on different heads A, B, C, D & E. 

If ₹ 165 crore were spent in year 2018 on A, what would have been the total expenditure for that year (in ₹ crores)? 

(A) ₹ 400 

(B) ₹ 320 

(C) ₹ 350 

(D) ₹ 300 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 Study the following pie-chart and answer the given question. 

The pie-chart shows the Budget Expenditure of a company in the year 2018 (percentage distribution) on different heads A, B, C, D & E. 

The central angle of the sector representing expenditure on head (D) is: 

(A) 52 

(B) 45 

(C) 56 

(D) 54 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 Study the following histogram and answer the given question. 

A study was made for the number of persons of different age group visited in a library in a week which is shown in given in the histogram. Study the histogram and answer the question given below. 

What percent of the total number of persons visiting library in the week was the number of persons of age group 25-30 years? 

(A) 15% 

(B) 12% 

(C) 12.5% 

(D) 10.5% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 If PA and PB are tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre O such that APB = 70 , then OAB is equal to: 

(A) 35 

(B) 40 

(C) 30 

(D) 25 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 In ABC, E and D are points on sides AB and AC, respectively, such that ABC = ADE. If AE = 6 cm, AD = 4 cm and EB = 4 cm, then the length of DC is: 

(A) 8 cm 

(B) 9.5 cm 

(C) 10 cm 

(D) 11 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 The value of 45314 of 813151815 + 18515+56 of is 

(A) 7/30

(B) 2/15

(C) 1/30

(D) 1/15

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 If the 8-digit number 43A5325B is divisible by 8 and 9, then the sum of A and B is equal to: 

(A) 15 

(B) 14 

(C) 12 

(D) 18 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, 8-digit number 43A5325(B) is divisible by 8 and 9 

If the number is divisible by 8, then the last three digits should be divisible by 8 

⇒ 25(B) is divisible by 8 

⇒ (B) = 6 

If the number is divisible by 9, then the sum of the digits of the number should be divisible by 9 

⇒ 4 + 3 + (A) + 5 + 3 + 2 + 5 + (B) = multiple of 9 

⇒ 22 + (A) + (B) = multiple of 9 

⇒ 22 + (A) + 6 = multiple of 9 

⇒ 28 + (A) = multiple of 9 

The only possible value of (A) is 8 

∴ Sum of (A) and (B) = 8 + 6 = 14 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 65 There is a 60% increase in an amount in 5 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest on ₹ 6,250 for two years at the same rate of interest, when the interest is compounded yearly? 

(A) ₹ 1,480 

(B) ₹ 1,560 

(C) ₹ 1,500 

(D) ₹ 1,590 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 If cot θ = 3/√5, 00 < θ < 900 then the value of , is equal to 

(A) ⅓  

(B)

(C) ½ 

(D) ⅔ 

Answer: B

 

Q. 67 Amit sold an article for ₹ 7,000 and incurred a loss. Had he sold it for ₹ 8,750, his gain would have been three-fourth of the amount of loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to get 10% profit? 

(A) ₹ 8,800 

(B) ₹ 8,400 

(C) ₹ 8,000 

(D) ₹ 7,800 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 A trader marks his goods in such a way that even after allowing 15% discount on marked price he still gains 27.5%. If the cost price of the goods is ₹ 200, then its marked price is: 

(A) ₹ 300 

(B) ₹ 250 

(C) ₹ 350 

(D) ₹ 400 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 In ABC, D is a point on BC. If AB/AC = BD/DC, B = 75and C = 45then BAD is equal to: 

(A) 50 

(B) 45 

(C) 30 

(D) 60 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 Ravinder invests ₹ 3,750 which is equal to 15% of his monthly salary in a medical insurance policy. Later he invests 25% and 8% of his monthly salary on a child education policy, and mutual funds, respectively. The total amount left with him is: 

(A) ₹ 15,000 

(B) ₹ 8,000 

(C) ₹ 12,000 

(D) ₹ 13,000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 If θ is a positive acute angle and tan 2θ tan 3θ = 1 , then the value of θ is: 

(A) 18 

(B) 45 

(C) 60 

(D) 36 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 The average of four consecutive odd natural numbers is eight less than the average of three consecutive even natural numbers. If the sum of these three even numbers is equal to the sum of above four odd numbers, then the average of four original odd numbers is: 

(A) 32 

(B) 24 

(C) 18 

(D) 36 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 73 If sin(A + B) = cos(A – B) = √3/2 and A and B are acute angles. The measures of angles A and B (in degrees)will be:  

(A) A = 15 and B = 45 

(B) A = 45 and B = 15 

(C) A = 45 and B = 45 

(D) A = 60 and B = 30 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 74 When 50% of a number A is added to B, the second number B increases by 25%. The ratio between the numbers A and B is: 

(A) 1 : 2 

(B) 2 : 3 

(C) 3 : 4 

(D) 3 : 2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 A and B working together can do 30% of the work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 25 days. How long will A alone take to complete the same work? 

(A) 100 days 

(B) 60 days 

(C) 75 days 

(D) 80 days 

Answer: (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Which country honoured Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi with its highest civilian honour ‘Zayed Medal’ in 2019? 

(A) Portugal 

(B) Bhutan 

(C) UAE 

(D) Israel 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 ‘Wings India’, Asia’s largest civil aviation event, will be held at Begumpet airport, Hyderabad in March 2020. What will be the theme of this event? 

(A) Born to Fly 

(B) Women to Fly 

(C) Flying Everyone 

(D) Flying for All 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Which of the following dance forms is also known as the ‘Royal Dance of Ladakh’? 

(A) Shondol dance 

(B) Yak dance 

(C) Koshan dance 

(D) Jabro dance 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 ‘A Shot At History: My Obsessive Journey to Olympic Gold’ is the autobiography of which Indian shooter? 

(A) Abhinav Bindra 

(B) Jitu Rai 

(C) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore 

(D) Gagan Narang 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 In the context of the contribution of scientists for which they were awarded Nobel Prize, which of the following pairs is INCORRECT? 

(A) Zeeman Effect – Hendrik Lorentz 

(B) Quantum mechanics – Galileo Galilei 

(C) Light scattering – CV Raman 

(D) Diffraction of X-rays – Max Von Laue 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 In November 2019, which Indian athlete was listed in ‘Time 100 Next’ that spotlights 100 rising stars who are shaping the future of business, entertainment, sports, politics, etc.? 

(A) Hima Das 

(B) Anju Bobby George 

(C) Dutee Chand 

(D) PV Sindhu 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 In the context of computers, WORM is an acronym of: 

(A) Write Once, Read Many 

(B) Wireless Operating, Read Module 

(C) Word On, RAM Memory 

(D) Word Optical, Recognition Malware 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Which former cricketer and captain of the Indian team was formally elected as the President of BCCI in October 2019? 

(A) Kapil Dev 

(B) Sourav Ganguly 

(C) Ravi Shastri 

(D) Sunil Gavaskar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Which of the following rivers is the fifth largest river and the largest west flowing river? 

(A) Arvari river 

(B) Subarnarekha river 

(C) Godavari river 

(D) Narmada river 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Which of the following passes is located between Nilgiri Hills to the north and Anaimalai Hills to the south? 

(A) Karakoram Pass 

(B) Aghil Pass 

(C) Rohtang Pass 

(D) Palghat Pass 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Where did the Chief Minister of Odisha, Naveen Patnaik, inaugurate the National Tribal Craft Mela-2019? 

(A) Cuttack 

(B) Puri 

(C) Bhubaneswar 

(D) Konark 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Which of the following movements was started in the year 1930 by Mahatma Gandhi? 

(A) Civil Disobedience Movement 

(B) Quit India Movement 

(C) Non-Cooperation Movement 

(D) Khilafat Movement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 The famous cultural site Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell) is situated on the banks of which river? 

(A) Yamuna River 

(B) Saraswati River 

(C) Hooghly River 

(D) Mahanadi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Who created history by securing Gold in the women’s Singles SL3 event at the ‘BWF Para-Badminton World Championships’ in 2019? 

(A) Parul Dalsukhbhai Parmar 

(B) Manasi Joshi 

(C) Sarina Satomi 

(D) Sujirat Pookkham 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 The definition of ‘money bills’ is given in which article of the Constitution of India? 

(A) Article 110 

(B) Article 93 

(C) Article 44 

(D) Article 33 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Which of the following mountains is situated near the Siachen region of Ladakh in India? 

(A) Kangchenjunga Mountain 

(B) Kirat Chuli Mountain 

(C) K12 Mountain 

(D) Kabru Mountain 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Which of the following books was translated as ‘The Razmnama’ (Book of Wars) during the reign of Akbar? 

(A) Mahabharata 

(B) Ramayana 

(C) Babur Nama 

(D) Akbar Nama 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Which of the following is the chemical formula for Nitre (saltpeter)? 

(A) KNO3 

(B) KCl 

(C) KAl2O3

(D) KCl.MgCl2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Which scientist won the Nobel prize in Physics in 1918 for the discovery of ‘Energy Quanta’? 

(A) Louis de Broglie 

(B) James Chadwick 

(C) Werner Heisenberg 

(D) Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 According to the Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP) annual report that was released in January 2020, what was India’s rank in corporate commitments to science-based targets? 

(A) Sixth 

(B) Tenth 

(C) Eight 

(D) Fifth 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 As per a World Gold Council (WGC) report that was released in January 2020, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was ranked ______ in terms of buying gold abroad among central banks of the world. 

(A) Tenth 

(B) Sixth 

(C) Seventh 

(D) Fifth 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Who is India’s youngest IAS officer to be appointed to the Chief Minister’s Office of Telangana? She/he is also known as ‘The People’s Officer’. 

(A) Amrutesh Aurangabadkar 

(B) Smita Sabharwal 

(C) Swati Meena Naik 

(D) Ansar Ahmad Shaikh 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 The 5th edition of ‘Indian International Science Festival (IISF) 2019’ was held in which city? 

(A) Hyderabad 

(B) Delhi 

(C) Chandigarh 

(D) Kolkata 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Which wildlife sanctuary is a tri-state protected area in northern India? It is also famous for the Critically Endangered gharial, the red crowned roofed turtle and the Endangered Ganges river dolphin? 

(A) Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary 

(B) Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary 

(C) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary 

(D) National Chambal Sanctuary 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 As of January 2020, what was the upper limit of fund transfer using Unified Payments Interface (UPI)? 

(A) ₹ 50,000 

(B) ₹ 90,000 

(C) ₹ 2 lakh 

(D) ₹ 1 lakh 

Answer: (D) 

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