SSC GD 11 Feb 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 11th Feb 2019 Shift-II 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Identify the correct option to complete the following series. 

5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ………, 53, 68, 85 

(A) 40 

(B) 39 

(C) 35 

(D) 36 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 2 Identify the number that is different from the rest. 

(A) 625 

(B) 115 

(C) 125 

(D) 25 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. Languages, Hindi, Malayalam 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 A medical representative plans to visit each of six hospitals — A, B, C, D, E and F — exactly once during the course of one day. He is setting up his schedule for the day according to the following conditions: 

i. He must visit A before B and E. 

ii. He must visit B before D. 

iii. The third hospital he visits must be C. 

Which of the following could be the order in which the medical representative visits the six hospitals? 

(A) A, F, C, D, E, B 

(B) C, E, A, B, D, F 

(C) C, F, A, E, D, B 

(D) A, B, C, D, E, F 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements beyond reasonable doubt. 

Statements: 

No cat is a monkey. 

No monkey is a cow. 

Conclusions: 

I. No cat is a cow. 

II. Some cows are monkeys. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

ACE : EIM :: DFH : ? 

(A) PLH 

(B) HPL 

(C) PHL 

(D) HLP 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 Identify the correct option to complete the following series. 

50, 49, 47, 44, 40, 35, …….., 22 

(A) 30 

(B) 27 

(C) 29 

(D) 25 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side.

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 If KITCHEN is coded as LKWGMKU,then SHAMPOO will be coded as ………… 

(A) TIDQUUV 

(B) TIDQTUU 

(C) TIDQTUV 

(D) TJEQUUV 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Identify the odd pair from the following. 

(A) Eagle : Swoop 

(B) Pig : Sty 

(C) King : Palace 

(D) Bird : Nest 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 13 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

3, 9, (27), 81, (243), 729, 2187 

(A) The first bracketed number (from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

(B) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

(D) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 15 ‘Athletics’ is related to ‘Stadium’ in the same way as ‘Skating’ is related to …….. 

(A) Ground 

(B) Track 

(C) Rink 

(D) Court 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 16 Seven employees, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z, reach their factory in a particular sequence. Y reaches immediately before T but does not immediately follow W. V is the last one to reach. X immediately follows T and is subsequently followed by Z. W reaches before T. Who is the second to reach the factory? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 If B = 3 and H = 9, then SCHOOL = ………. 

(A) 78 

(B) 76 

(C) 69 

(D) 96 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) Volume 

(B) Small 

(C) Height 

(D) Weight 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) EV 

(B) KP 

(C) DX 

(D) HS 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 21 Six students are sitting in a row. Akbar is to the left of the person sitting in the middle, but to the right of Sekar. Prakash is to the right of Deva, and Ram is to the right of Prakash. Ram is second from the person sitting in the middle. Who is the person sitting in the middle? 

(A) Sekar 

(B) Akbar 

(C) Deva 

(D) Ram 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All papers are books. 

All books are papaya. 

Conclusion 

I. All papers are papaya. 

II. Some papayas are papers. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 23 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

20 ÷ 20 + 20 − 20 × 20 = 20 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) + and − 

(C) ÷ and × 

(D) + and × 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

a, cd, fgh, jklm, opqrs, …….. 

(A) uvwxyz 

(B) vwxyza 

(C) ouvwsy 

(D) tuvwxy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

5/6 : 121 :: 8/9 : ………. 

(A) 145 

(B) 300 

(C) 289 

(D) 356 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The directional growth movement in plants due to touch is called ………. 

(A) thigmonasty 

(B) geotropism 

(C) phototropism 

(D) chemotropism 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 The deltas of the Mahanadi and the Godavari are rich in …….. soil. 

(A) black 

(B) arid 

(C) forest 

(D) alluvial 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 A person with the blood group ……… is considered to be a universal donor. 

(A) O negative 

(B) A(B) positive 

(C) A(B) negative 

(D) O positive 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 When was the Planning Commission set up? 

(A) 2019 

(B) 2000 

(C) 1947 

(D) 1950 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 The three-tier system of local government does NOT include the ……… 

(A) Panchayat Samiti 

(B) Village Committee 

(C) Gram Panchayat 

(D) Zila Parishad 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 The United States of America adopted a democratic constitution in ……… 

(A) 1932 

(B) 1787 

(C) 1877 

(D) 2000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 In which battle Napoleon was defeated? 

(A) Ligny 

(B) Jena 

(C) Waterloo 

(D) Arcole 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following is the hardest substance? 

(A) Coal 

(B) Diamond 

(C) Siver 

(D) Iron 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 The Statue of Unity in India is the world’s tallest statue of ………. 

(A) M.K Gandhi 

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) Vinoba Bhave 

(D) Dr B.R Ambedkar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 Begum Hazrat Mahal is associated to which of the following revolts of India? 

(A) Moplah Revolt 1921 

(B) Paik Revolt 1817 

(C) Gond Revolt 1941 

(D) Sepoy Mutiny 1857 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was passed in ………. 

(A) 2005 

(B) 1900 

(C) 2019 

(D) 2000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 Name the famous Indian cricketer who wrote the book ‘A Century Is Not Enough’. 

(A) Virender Sehwag 

(B) Virat Kohli 

(C) Sachin Tendulkar 

(D) Sourav Ganguly 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 ………… won the Miss World 2017 pageant. 

(A) Lara Dutta 

(B) Anukreethy 

(C) Manushi Chillar 

(D) Yukta Mukhi 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 ……….. is a dance form which represents a unique synthesis of Hindu and Muslim geniusin art. 

(A) Kathak 

(B) Manipuri 

(C) Odissi 

(D) Kathkali 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 The smallest living bird is the ……….. 

(A) hummingbird 

(B) canary 

(C) house sparrow 

(D) dove 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 The largest backwater lake in Odisha is …………… 

(A) Dal lake 

(B) Wular lake 

(C) Chilika lake 

(D) Pulicat lake 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 In India, currency notes of ₹ 500 and ₹ 1,000 were declared invalid in the year? 

(A) 1998 

(B) 2019 

(C) 2016 

(D) 2001 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The first lady Indian Air Force officer to fly MIG 21 is …………. 

(A) Khusboo Mehta 

(B) Bhavna Sharma 

(C) Anjali Gupta 

(D) Avani Chaturvedi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Which of the following is NOT a multicellular animal? 

(A) Amoeba 

(B) Cat 

(C) Human 

(D) Horse 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated at the hands of ………, in the battle of Tarain, 1192. 

(A) Mohammad Ghori 

(B) Harun Al Rashid 

(C) Abu Bakr 

(D) Umar IT 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Which state has the largest coast line? 

(A) Karnataka 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Gujarat 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 The All-India War Memorial, built in the memory of the Indian soldiers who laid down their lives in the First World War, is known today as …………. 

(A) Char Minar 

(B) Lal Qila 

(C) Jama Masjid 

(D) India Gate 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 Which Hindi movie is based on the Indian hockey team on their first Olympic gold since India became independent? 

(A) Lagaan 

(B) MS Dhoni 

(C) Gold 

(D) Chak De 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 Who is the author of the book “Straight from the heart” 

(A) Sachin Tendulkar 

(B) Kapil Dev 

(C) M.S. Dhoni 

(D) Saurav Ganguly 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 Which country gave universal suffrage since the 19th century? 

(A) Sri Lanka 

(B) India 

(C) Pakistan 

(D) New Zealand 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A person purchased 12 bags of sugar at the rate of ₹ 1200 per bag, 8 bags at the rate of ₹ 1500 per bag and 10 bags at the rate of ₹ 2100 per bags. What will be the average cost of all the bags together? 

(A) ₹ 1420 

(B) ₹ 1680 

(C) ₹ 1580 

(D) ₹ 1640 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 The line chart given below shows the profit percentage of a company on 5 different products P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5.

The expenditure of product P5 is ₹ 46000. What is revenue of product P5? 

(A) ₹52780 

(B) ₹49680 

(C) ₹47360 

(D) ₹46000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 A bowler has taken 0, 3, 2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 5, 5, 2, 2, 0, 0, 1 and 2 wickets in 15 consecutive matches. What is the median of the given data? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Median is the middle most number after arranging in ascending order. 

Arranging the given series in ascending order, 

0,0,0,1,1,2,2,2,2,3,3,4,5,5,5 

In the above series, 2 is the middle most number. 

Hence, 2 is the median in the given series. 

 

Q. 54 A sum of ₹ 9800 gives simple interest of ₹ 4704 in 6 years. What will be the rate of interest per annum? 

(A) 9% 

(B) 8.5% 

(C) 8% 

(D) 7.5% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 55 What is the value of 7¼ + [6 + (5 − 8 ÷ 4) − 1] ? 

(A) 61/4

(B) 29/2

(C) 23/2

(D) 57/4

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 If Rohit can cover a distance of 1188 km in 22 hours, then what is the speed of Rohit? 

(A) 54 m/s 

(B) 25 m/s 

(C) 15 m/s 

(D) 48 m/s 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 The average weight of a group of 24 students increases by 2 kg when the weight of teacher is also included. If the initial average weight of the group of 24 students was 30 kg, then what is the weight of teacher? 

(A) 32 kg 

(B) 82 kg 

(C) 80 kg 

(D) 92 kg 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 Selling price and cost price of an article are ₹ 1333 and ₹ 2150. What will be the loss percentage? 

(A) 38% 

(B) 61.30% 

(C) 48% 

(D) 54.4% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 If the diameter of a circle increases by 15%, then what will be the percentage increase in its area? 

(A) 35.75% 

(B) 30.3% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 32.25% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 Mohit goes to his office at the speed of 10 m/s and returns to his home at the speed of x km/hr. If average speed of Mohit for the whole journey is 12 m/s, then what is the value of x? 

(A) 25 km/hr 

(B) 15 km/hr 

(C) 36 km/hr 

(D) 54 km/hr 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 If A : B = 7 : 8 and B : C = 7 : 9, then what is the ratio of A : B : C ? 

(A) 56 : 49 : 72 

(B) 49 : 56 : 72 

(C) 56 : 72 : 49 

(D) 72 : 56 : 49 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, A : B = 7 : 8 — (1) 

B : C = 7 : 9 — (2) 

Multiplying (1) by 7 and (2) by 8 

A : B = 49 : 56 

B : C = 56 : 72 

Therefore, A : B : C = 49 : 56 : 72. 

 

Q. 62 Rohit multiplies a number by 2 instead of dividing the number by 2. Resultant number is what percentage of the correct value? 

(A) 200% 

(B) 300% 

(C) 50% 

(D) 400% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 The perimeter of a square and a circle are same. If the area of the circle is 1386 cm2 , then what will be the area of the square? 

(A) 1089 cm2 

(B) 841 cm2 

(C) 1024 cm2 

(D) 1225 cm2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 Rohan purchased tables at the rate of ₹ 275 per table. If he sells 16 tables for ₹ 5060, then what will be the profit percentage? 

(A) 13.04% 

(B) 16% 

(C) 15% 

(D) 12.5% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 If Highest common Factor of two numbers is 8, then which of the following cannot be their Least Common Multiple? 

(A) 72 

(B) 24 

(C) 68 

(D) 48 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

LCM is divisible by HCF. 

Hence, In the given options, 72, 24 and 48 can be the LCM of the two numbers. 

68 is not divisible by 8. 

Therefore, 68 cannot be their LCM. 

 

Q. 66 P and Q together can complete a work in 105 days. Q and R together can complete the same work in 90 days, P and R together can complete the same work in 126 days. In how many days P, Q and R together can complete the same work? 

(A) 70 days 

(B) 74 days 

(C) 76 days 

(D) 72 days 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 67 A alone can complete a work in 14 days and B alone can complete the same work in 21 days. A and B start the work together but A leaves the work after 4 days of the starting of work. In how many days B will complete the remaining work? 

(A) 9 days 

(B) 16 days 

(C) 12 days 

(D) 11 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 The bar chart given below shows the amount of sugar used in making 7 different varieties of sweets S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 and S7 has been shown as a percentage of total weight of the sweet. 

The combined weight of sweet S5 and S3 is 300 kg. What is the total amount of sugar used in these two sweets together? 

(A) Cannot be determined 

(B) 54 kg 

(C) 57 kg 

(D) 60 kg 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Since the individual weights of S3 and S5 is not given, individual amount of sugar used in S3 and S5 cannot be determined. Hence, Total amount of sugar used in S3 and S5 cannot be determined. 

 

Q. 69 The marked price of a chair and a table are in the ratio 2:3 respectively. The shopkeeper gives 20% discount on the chair. If the combined discount on both the chair and the table is 26%, then what will be the discount given on the table? 

(A) 34% 

(B) 32% 

(C) 30% 

(D) 28% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 In a Company, number of engineers doubles itself in every 2 years. In how much time will the number of engineers become 1024 times of its original number? 

(A) 12 years 

(B) 20 years 

(C) 15 years 

(D) 24 years 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 A : B = 5 : 8 and B : C = 11 : 13. If A = 110, then what is the value of C? 

(A) 176 

(B) 104 

(C) 208 

(D) 88 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, A : B = 5 : 8 — (1) 

B : C = 11 : 13 — (2) 

Multiplying (1) by 11 and (2) by 8 

A : B = 55 : 88 

B : C = 88 : 104 

Then, A : B : C = 55 : 88 : 104 

Let A, B and C be 55x, 88x and 104x 

Given, 55x = 110 => x = 2 

Then, C = 104x = 104×2 = 208 

 

Q. 72 The bar chart given below shows the ratio of expenditure to revenue for seven consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, Y5, Y6 and Y7.

In which year is the profit highest? 

(A) Y5 

(B) Y6 

(C) Cannot be determined 

(D) Y2 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Profit = Revenue – Expenditure. 

Since the value of expenditure and revenue is not given, profit cannot be determined. 

 

Q. 73 If the side of a square increases by 20%, then what will be percent increase in its perimeter? 

(A) 44% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 80% 

(D) 40% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 74 If P : Q : R = 5 : 3 : 6, then what will be the ratio of (P/Q) : (Q/R) : (R/P)? 

(A) 50 : 15 : 36 

(B) 50 : 45 : 36 

(C) 75 : 15 : 36 

(D) 40 : 12 : 27 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 What is the value of (5/2 of 5 ÷ 4 – 2 of 1/7 ÷ 1/7) ? 

(A) 13/8

(B) 23/18

(C) 17/16

(D) 9/8

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A disease that is prevalent in a particular area 

(A) Genetic 

(B) Contagious 

(C) Endemic 

(D) Viral 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Changeble 

(B) Changable 

(C) Chageable 

(D) Changeable 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who studies and cares about environment 

(A) Archeologist 

(B) Ecologist 

(C) Anthropologist 

(D) Biologist 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The Prime Minister was as good as his …………. 

(A) word 

(B) office 

(C) sword 

(D) dress 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

While in Rome we must do as Romans …….. 

(A) is doing 

(B) was doing 

(C) had done 

(D) do 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

They never ………… those who have done wrong. 

(A) condemn 

(B) outcast 

(C) blame 

(D) forgive 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Every day for a whole year, all kinds of holy men, hermits, scholars and nobles came, and related to the priests their deeds of(1)……… , and the priests in solemn council heard their claims. At last, they decided that the one who seemed to be the greatest lover of (2)……… was a rich man who had that very year given all his (3)………… to the poor. So they gave him the plate of gold, but when he took it in his hand, it turned into (4)………… lead: though, when he dropped it on the floor, to his (5)………… , it became gold again. 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) charity 

(B) kindness 

(C) happiness 

(D) sympathy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) destitute 

(B) money less 

(C) mankind 

(D) women 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) wealth 

(B) energy 

(C) time 

(D) life 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) gold 

(B) worthy 

(C) worthless 

(D) valuable 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) confusion 

(B) happiness 

(C) admiration 

(D) amazement 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 87 Select the antonym of the given word. 

HORIZONTAL 

(A) Parallel 

(B) Financial 

(C) Official 

(D) Vertical 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Does he like to go for sight seeing when he is in holiday? 

(A) when he is 

(B) Does he like 

(C) in holiday? 

(D) to go for sightseeing 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 89 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

In a nutshell 

(A) In discussion 

(B) In writing 

(C) In detail 

(D) In brief 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

I make friends …………. I go. 

(A) moreover 

(B) wherever 

(C) however 

(D) whenever 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the synonym of the given word. 

APPARENT 

(A) Considerable 

(B) Doubtful 

(C) Obvious 

(D) Questionable 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. She was known for her skills in dance and music; she is equal proficient in the allied art of painting. 

(A) skills in dance 

(B) allied art of painting 

(C) was known 

(D) is equal proficient 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Select the antonym of the given word. 

ABOLISH 

(A) Build 

(B) Affirm 

(C) Cancel 

(D) Finish 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The population of Sri Lanka are less than that of India. 

(A) than that 

(B) Sri Lanka are 

(C) of India 

(D) The population 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Milennium 

(B) Millenium 

(C) Millenniumm 

(D) Millennium 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

The football coach urged the team were give its best to the final match. 

(A) No Improvement. 

(B) That it give its best 

(C) Try to give it best 

(D) To give its best 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the synonym of the given word. 

CURATIVE 

(A) Tembling 

(B) Damaging 

(C) Feeding 

(D) Healing 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

She give me everything I asked for. 

(A) Is giving me everything 

(B) gave me everything 

(C) No Improvement 

(D) gave myself everything 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

A Study has shown that the use of mobile data in India have increased 50 times over the last three years 

(A) No improvement 

(B) has increased 50 times 

(C) Has been increased to 50 times 

(D) Is increasing 50 times 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To keep an eye on 

(A) To keep a watch 

(B) To be cautious 

(C) To follow 

(D) To stare 

Answer: (A) 

SSC GD 11 Feb 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 11th Feb 2019 Shift-1 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Bull : Cow :: Lion : 

(A) Lioness 

(B) Cub 

(C) Mare 

(D) Doe 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All scientists working in Japan are talented. 

Some Chinese scientists are working in Japan. 

Conclusions: 

I. No Chinese scientist is talented. 

II. Some talented Chinese scientists are working in Japan. 

III. All talented scientists are Japanese. 

IV. Some Chinese scientists are talented. 

(A) Only conclusion III and IV follow. 

(B) Only conclusion II and IV follow. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at XY line. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 Which of the four changes given in the options would make the following equation correct? 

30 × 3 − 3 = 13 

(A) × Interchanged with − 

(B) × changed to ÷ ; − changed to + 

(C) × changed to + ; − changed to ÷ 

(D) × Interchanged with − ; 3 interchanged with 30 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 5 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

11 : 169 :: 18 : ……. 

(A) 396 

(B) 256 

(C) 361 

(D) 400 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 In the following number series, two numbers have been put with in brackets. Study the series carefully andselect the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

4, 6, 10, 12, 16, 14, 22 

(A) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(B) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

(D) The first bracketed number (from theleft) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 Select the letter that will come next in the following series. 

O, R, U, X, A, ….. 

(A) (D) 

(B) (C) 

(C) (B) 

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) LKJI 

(B) ZYXW 

(C) DCBA 

(D) QRSP 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true. even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some dolls are flowers. 

No trees are dolls. 

Conclusions: 

I. No dolls are trees. 

II. Some flowers are trees. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Select from among the four alternatives how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 If D = 4 and G = 7 then GARDEN = ……….. 

(A) 47 

(B) 49 

(C) 40 

(D) 50 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 If CHILDREN is coded as LIHCNERD, then MOVEMENT will be coded as …………. 

(A) TNEMEVOM 

(B) EVOMMENT 

(C) EVOMTMEN 

(D) EVOMTNEM 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Select the option figure which when placed in the blank space of the problem figure would complete the pattern. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Five students took part in a cycling competition. Robert finished before Monish but behind Gunjan. Anil finished before Sunil but behind Monish. Who won the competition? 

(A) Robert 

(B) Gunjan 

(C) Monish 

(D) Anil 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. 

School, Teacher, Student 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that is analogous to the given pair. 

CD : HI 

(A) PQ : UV 

(B) IJ : MN 

(C) KL : NO 

(D) AB : XY 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Identify the odd pair from the following. 

(A) Egypt : Cairo 

(B) Iraq : Dinar 

(C) Greece : Athens 

(D) Italy : Rome 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 Five students are standing in a line. Suman is standing next to Pranav but not next to Deena. Kumar is standing next to Raju. who is standing on the extreme left, and Deena is not standing next to Kumar. Who is standing in the middle? 

(A) Deena 

(B) Raju 

(C) Kumar 

(D) Suman 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) Down 

(B) Large 

(C) Above 

(D) Up 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Identify the number that is different from the rest. 

(A) 196 

(B) 256 

(C) 252 

(D) 121 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 23 Identify the correct option to complete the following series. 

1, 3, 5, 11, 21, 43, 85, 171, …………. 

(A) 354 

(B) 247 

(C) 341 

(D) 342 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Identify the number that DOES NOT belong to the following series. 

2, 9, 28, 64, 126, 217, 344, 513 

(A) 28 

(B) 513 

(C) 344 

(D) 64 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Six offices on a floor are allotted to A, B, C, D, E and F, respectively. The offices are arranged in two rows, one facing the north and the other facing the south. B got a north-facing office and is not next to D. D and F got diagonally opposite offices. C, whose office is next to F, got a south-facing office, and E got a north-facing office. 

Which of the following combinations got south-facing offices? 

(A) ABC 

(B) FCA 

(C) BED

(D) FAE 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 ……….. is also known as ‘The Light of Asia’. 

(A) Rumi 

(B) Buddha 

(C) Gandhi 

(D) Swami Vivekananda 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 Which of the following is NOT a part of the endocrine system? 

(A) Pineal gland 

(B) Salivary gland 

(C) Thymus 

(D) Adrenal gland 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 The book ‘India 2020’is written by ………… 

(A) Dr A.P.J Abdul Kalam 

(B) Pranab Mukherjee 

(C) Prasoon Joshi 

(D) Ram Nath Kovind 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 When did the civil war in Sri Lanka end? 

(A) 2009 

(B) 2001 

(C) 1800 

(D) 1909 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 The famous classical dance style of Tamil Nadu is: 

(A) Bharatanatyam 

(B) Mohiniyattam 

(C) Kuchipudi 

(D) Kathak 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 On the basis of nominal GDP,India is the world’s ……… largest economy in 2018. 

(A) tenth 

(B) third 

(C) fifth 

(D) seventh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 GST stands for ………. 

(A) Goods and Services Tax 

(B) Growth and Service Tax 

(C) Growth and Sale Tax 

(D) Goods and Sales Tax 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 33 The full form of DNA is: 

(A) deoxyribeneutral acid 

(B) deltanucleic acid 

(C) deoxyribonucleic acid 

(D) dyoxyenucleic acid 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 Which if the following statements is correct in the context of Indian Democracy? 

(A) allows people to choose their representatives. 

(B) allows people to take over the country in cases of financial emergency. 

(C) commands people to pay taxes for pilgrimage. 

(D) allows the military to rule the country. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 In which of following locations did the 1920 Indian National congress take place? 

(A) Thiruvananthapuram 

(B) Mumbai 

(C) Tripura 

(D) Nagpur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 ……….. is the smallest state of India. 

(A) Punjab 

(B) Goa 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Tripura 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 Pietra Dura, the inlay technique of architecture can be found in which of the following monuments? 

(A) Taj Mahal 

(B) India Gate 

(C) Char Minar 

(D) Gateway of India 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 The ………….. is a bird which symbolises peace. 

(A) dove 

(B) peacock 

(C) owl 

(D) crow 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 The …….. is a major iron ore belt in India. 

(A) Tamil Nadu-Chhattisgarh belt 

(B) Gujarat-Rajasthan belt 

(C) Uttar Pradesh-Bihar belt 

(D) Odisha-Jharkhand belt 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 ………. is the primary sector of the Indian economy. 

(A) Banking 

(B) Information and Technology 

(C) Agriculture 

(D) Judiciary 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 Jean Jacques Rousseau was a famous ………… 

(A) Philosopher 

(B) Painter 

(C) Doctor 

(D) Monarch 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 The chemical name of table salt is ………. 

(A) hydrogen chloride 

(B) sodium chloride 

(C) sodium hydrogen carbonate 

(D) sodium carbonate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 Which is the longest bone in the human body? 

(A) Ulna 

(B) Radius 

(C) Tibia 

(D) Femur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 The Soviet Union broke down in the year ……….. 

(A) 1991 

(B) 1880 

(C) 2000 

(D) 1900 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 ………. is the first Indian woman to swim across the English Channel. 

(A) Shivani Kataria 

(B) Shikha Tandon 

(C) Sania Mirza 

(D) Aarti Saha 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Lavani is a folk dance form of: 

(A) Maharashtra 

(B) Rajasthan 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Bihar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 The green pigment present in leaves is called ………. 

(A) phloem 

(B) xylem 

(C) chlorophyll 

(D) tissue 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 The attack by the third estate on the Bastille prison sparked the …………. 

(A) Russian Revolution 

(B) French Revolution 

(C) Break up of Soviet Union 

(D) The fall of Tsar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 ……. is the first Indian female to win a silver in the Olympics. 

(A) P.V. Sindhu 

(B) Tanvi Lad 

(C) Arundhati Pantwane 

(D) Saina Nehwal 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 The river Narmada rises in Madhya Pradesh from the …………. 

(A) Amarkantak hills 

(B) Aravalli hills 

(C) Nilgiri hills 

(D) Satpura range 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If the average of five observations a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 is N, then what is the average of five new observations a1 − 100, a2 − 100, a3 − 100, a4 − 100, and a5 − 100 ? 

(A) N – 20 

(B) N – 100 

(C) N – 40 

(D) N – 150 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 If the length of the diagonal of a square is 102 cm, then what will be area of the square? 

(A) 200 cm2 

(B) 100 cm2 

(C) 1002 cm2 

(D) 50 cm2 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 Rajesh goes to his office at the speed of 25 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of 20 km/hr. If he takes total 9 hours, then what is the distance between his office and home? 

(A) 120km 

(B) 90km 

(C) 140km 

(D) 100km 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 A sum becomes ₹ 10650 in 5 years and ₹ 11076 in 6 years at simple interest. What is the sum? 

(A) ₹ 8946 

(B) ₹ 8740 

(C) ₹ 8520 

(D) ₹ 8800 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, Amount for 5 years = Rs.10650 

Amount for 6 years = Rs.11076 

Then, Simple Interest for 1 year = Rs.11076 – Rs.10650 = Rs.426 

Simple Interest for 5 years = Rs.426*5 = Rs.2130 

Then, Principal = Rs.10650 – Rs.2130 = Rs.8520 

 

Q. 55 If cost price of an article is ₹220 and profit is 20%, then what will be the selling price of the article? 

(A) ₹264 

(B) ₹216 

(C) ₹176 

(D) ₹256 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 The height of a cone is 16 cm and radius of its base is 30 cm.If the rate of painting it is ₹14/cm , then what will be the total cost in painting the curved surface of cone from outside? 

(A) ₹42220 

(B) ₹44880 

(C) ₹36820 

(D) ₹46540 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 A sum becomes 5 times of itself in 3 years at compound interest (interest is compounded annually). In how many years will the sum becomes 125 times of itself? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 12 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 What is the Highest Common Factor of 23 × 35 and 33 × 52

(A) 23 × 35 × 52 

(B) 33 

(C) 21 × 33 × 51 

(D) 35 × 52 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

23 × 35 and 33 × 52 

HCF of is the common number between the two terms with lowest power. 

Here, 3 is common in both the terms. Lowest power of 3 is 3. 

23 × 35 and 33 × 52 33 

Hence, HCF of is 

 

Q. 59 A alone can complete a work in 6 days and B alone can complete the same work in 8 days. In how many days both A and B together can complete the same work? 

(A) 48/13 days 

(B) 35/13 days 

(C) 26/7 days 

(D) 24/7 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 The length, breadth and height of a room is 21 metres, 12 metres and 16 metres. What will be the length of the largest rod that can be placed in that room? 

(A) 32 metres 

(B) 25 metres 

(C) 31 metres 

(D) 29 metres 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 The line chart given below shows the profit percentage of a company on 5 different products P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5.

The revenue of product P3 is 38100. What is expenditure of product P3 ? 

(A) ₹30000 

(B) ₹32000 

(C) ₹35000 

(D) ₹29000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 Find the value of 5½ – [3¼ + 6 – 4 ÷ 2]

(A) -5/4

(B) 5/4

(C) 7/4

(D) -7/4

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 If Sonu is driving a car at a speed of 20 m/s, then in how much time Sonu will cover a distance of 936 km? 

(A) 18hr 

(B) 46.8 hr 

(C) 21 hr 

(D) 13 hr 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 Anil, Deepak and Dinesh together can complete a work in 35 days. Anil and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 60 days. In how many days Deepak alone can complete the same work? 

(A) 105 days 

(B) 84 days 

(C) 96 days 

(D) 110 days 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 420 units (LCM of 35 and 60). 

Efficiency of Anil, Dinesh and Deepak together = 420/35 = 12 units per day 

Efficiency of Anil and Dinesh together = 420/60 = 7 units per day 

Then, Efficiency of Deepak = 12-7 = 5 units per day 

Therefore, Deepak can do 420 units of work in 420/5 = 84 days. 

 

Q. 65 The bar chart given below shows the amount of sugar used in making 7 different varieties of sweets S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 and S7 has been shown as a percentage of total weight of the sweet. 

The total weight of sweet S4 is 150 kg. What is the amount of sugar used in sweet S4? 

(A) 35 kg 

(B) 27 kg 

(C) 25 kg 

(D) 31 kg 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 A bag has ₹420 in the denomination of ₹1, ₹2 and ₹5 coins. The number ₹1, ₹2 and ₹5 coins are in the ratio of 8:1:5. How many coins of ₹5 are in the bag? 

(A) 12 

(B) 24 

(C) 48 

(D) 60 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 67 The average weight of a group of 22 students increases by 1 kg when the weight of the teacher is also included. If the initial average weight of the group of 22 students was 31 kg, then what is the weight of the teacher? 

(A) 54 kg 

(B) 57 kg 

(C) 48 kg 

(D) 53 kg 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 u : v = 4 : 7 and v : w = 9 : 7. If u = 72, then what is the value of w? 

(A) 98 

(B) 77 

(C) 63 

(D) 49 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 If P is 40% less than Q, then Q is how much percentage more than P? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 66.66% 

(C) 60% 

(D) 33.33% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 The line chart given below shows the ratio of imports to exports for a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5.

If the exports for year Y3 is ₹35000 crore, then what will be imports (in crores) for the year Y3? 

(A) ₹35500 

(B) ₹38500 

(C) ₹43500 

(D) ₹41500 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 An article is sold for ₹4777 after giving discount of 15%. What is the marked price of article? 

(A) ₹5620 

(B) ₹5494 

(C) ₹5348 

(D) ₹5525 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 What is the value of [10⅓ ÷ 5/3 (10 + 14 ÷ 3 − 1)] ? 

(A) 93/205

(B) 33/50

(C) 29/88

(D) 31/85

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 The price of two articles are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The price of first article is increased by 40% and the price of second article is decreased by x%. If the new ratio of the price of the two articles is 7 : 3 respectively, then what is the value of x? 

(A) 20 

(B) 15 

(C) 30 

(D) 10 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 A bowler has taken 0, 3, 2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 5, 5, 2, 2, 0, 0, 1 and 2 wickets in 15 consecutive matches. What is the mode of the given data? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Mode is the most repeated number of the series. 

In the given series, 

0 is repeated 3 times. 

1 is repeated 2 times 

2 is repeated 4 times. 

3 is repeated 2 times. 

4 is repeated 1 time. 

5 is repeated 3 times. 

Therefore, Mode of the given series = 2. 

 

Q. 75 Manish purchased books at the rate of ₹225 per book and sold them at the rate of ₹162 per book. What will be the loss on selling 7 books? 

(A) ₹441 

(B) ₹63 

(C) ₹315 

(D) ₹28 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Business 

(B) Bussiness 

(C) Buisness 

(D) Businnes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who talks a lot 

(A) glutton 

(B) tacitumn 

(C) loquacious 

(D) gullible 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Let’s go out now. Itisn’t ………. anymore. 

(A) rained 

(B) rains 

(C) rain 

(D) raining 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. He will not be able to attend the school function tomorrow, will you? 

(A) will not be 

(B) the school function 

(C) will you? 

(D) to attend 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Many students thought that this year’s Q. paper was very tough as compared to last year. 

(A) was very tough 

(B) Many students thought 

(C) compared to last year 

(D) that this year’s 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

A young taxi driver has claimed that a monster attacked him while he drove along a lonely road. 

(A) while he is driving 

(B) as long as he drove 

(C) while he was driving 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To pay through the nose 

(A) To pay willingly 

(B) To pay excessively 

(C) To pay easily 

(D) To pay reluctantly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the antonym of the given word. 

EMANCIPATION 

(A) freedom 

(B) bondage 

(C) liberty 

(D) riddance 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To jump on the bandwagon 

(A) To follow popular trends 

(B) To fall into misfortune 

(C) To take a calculated risk 

(D) To run after the unachievable 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The judge found him ………. of murder. 

(A) criminal 

(B) innocent 

(C) guilty 

(D) honest 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

1950 is year in which India became a republic. 

(A) the 

(B)

(C) one 

(D) an 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the antonym of the given word. 

AFFLICTION 

(A) agony 

(B) discomfort 

(C) anguish 

(D) pleasure 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word. 

SUITABLE 

(A) ideal 

(B) awkward 

(C) friendly 

(D) appropriate 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Generations of women in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu have been diving to …….(1) seaweed to help support their families ………(2) women head to the sea on ………(3) unique quest. Clad in traditional saris and goggles, they ……….(4) into the ocean to collect coral and seaweed ………(5) grow on underwater rocks. Seaweed is used in food and to make various drugs and chemicals. 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) grow 

(B) collect 

(C) build 

(D) assemble 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) That 

(B) This 

(C) Those 

(D) These 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A)

(B) the 

(C) any 

(D) an 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) float 

(B) dive 

(C) swim 

(D) fall 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) which 

(B) what 

(C) who 

(D) whom 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

The torch fall from his trembling hand and he ran wildly towards the school building. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) felled from his trembling hand 

(C) falling from his trembling hand 

(D) fell from his trembling hand 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Shall we ……… his invitation to dinner. 

(A) except 

(B) accept 

(C) agree 

(D) expect 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 96 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The TV anchor insisted on me to participate in the debate. 

(A) The TV anchor 

(B) in the debate 

(C) to participate 

(D) insisted on me 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 Select the synonym of the given word. 

MAGNIFICENT 

(A) expensive 

(B) modest 

(C) grand 

(D) huge 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Mumbai has a lot of heritage structures which badly need restoration. 

(A) lot of 

(B) No improvement 

(C) many of 

(D) few of 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Recipt 

(B) Reseipt 

(C) Receipt 

(D) Receit 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the option that means the same as the following phrase. 

One who is outgoing 

(A) vagabond 

(B) explorer 

(C) extrovert 

(D) introvert 

Answer: (A) 

Latest Current Affairs 01 October 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

I’m leaving Congress but not joining BJP, says Amarinder

Former Punjab Chief Minister Amarinder Singh on Thursday made it clear that he would be leaving the Congress party as he felt ‘humiliated’ by the leadership that had replaced him with Charanjeet Singh Channi. He more or less ruled out joining the BJP as well, despite his much-talked about meeting with Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Wednesday evening. I will resign will not stay in the party, he said in a statement released by his team, and clarified that he was still thinking through his options in the interest of Punjab and its security. I will not be treated in this humiliating manner…I will not take such insults, his statement quoted him as saying, adding that his principles and beliefs do not allow him to stay in the Congress. Singh met National Security Advisor Ajit Doval on Thursday morning, where he said he talked about the security situation in the sensitive border State. My experience showed that the people of Punjab tend to vote for a single party/fora, irrespective of the number of parties in the fray. Misgovernance in Punjab would give Pakistan the opportunity to create trouble in the State and in the country, he said, adding that his meeting with Doval was centred on this theme. The long-running farmers’ protest against the three contentious farm laws were issues that he discussed with Shah and tangentially with Doval, as the agitation with no end to the confrontation was inimical to the security of the State. Singh said those undermining the growing Pakistani threat in Punjab were playing into the hands of anti-India forces by being in denial mode, a direct hit at Congress leader Navjyot Singh Sidhu. They [Pak-backed elements] are killing our soldiers every day. They are pushing weapons into the State through drones. How can we overlook such dangers? In his visit to Delhi, which he had said was to just collect his things from Kapurthala House (the official home for the Punjab Chief Minister in Delhi) and hand it over to his successor, Singh managed to delineate his political plans quite clearly. The prospects of Singh floating his own party and even walking away with some Congress MLAs who owe him loyalty seem open. His rhetoric and campaign will rest on not just a narrative of being humiliated by the Congress, but also high nationalism and concern for issues regarding farmers, and most of all, the need to have a stable government that can guarantee security at the borders. The BJP, on its part keen to end its confrontation with farmers’ groups, especially in Haryana and Punjab where its party workers are facing hostility, is eager to press Singh into finding a solution out of the maze of this issue. Singh’s anti-Pakistan, nationalistic credentials also make him a good fit in the BJP’s ideological calculus. For his own party, the Congress, which he is set to exit, Singh had some home truths: Senior Congressmen are the thinkers but they are being sidelined. He condemned the attack on former Union Minister Kapil Sibal’s residence by Youth Congress workers for what he termed choosing to express views that were not palatable to the party leadership. AICC Treasurer Pawan Bansal said, Capt. Amarinder Singh’s assertion that he had been humiliated is not correct. The fact is that most of the 74 Congress MLAs did not want him as CM, yet the party continued with him and only repeatedly requested that he should respect party MLAs’ sentiments regarding Bargari sacrilege, electricity costs, and sand mafia. He failed to act. It was only then that he was asked to resign.

SC asks govt to ensure farmers’ groups are made parties in case The Supreme Court on Thursday said the government had to take the initiative to ensure that organisations of farmers, who are blocking the Capital’s arterial border roads with Uttar Pradesh and Haryana against the Central agricultural laws, were made parties in efforts to resolve the nearly year-old impasse. A Bench led by Justice S.K. Kaul stated that the issue could be resolved either through Parliament debates or in the judicial forum, but the blocking of highways and inconveniencing of commuters cannot go on perpetually. The court was hearing a petition filed by Noida resident Monica Agarwal, who highlighted that the blocks caused by the protests had turned her daily commute between Noida and Delhi a nightmare. Solicitor General Tushar Mehta noted that farmers were refusing to participate in talks before a high-level committee. Sections of highways have become inaccessible due to their protests. He suggested that farmers’ organisations be made parties in the current petition. The court urged the government to take the initiative to make them parties rather than depend on Agarwal and other private citizens. Justice Kaul observed, How will they know which organisations have to be made parties? The Bench asked the government to file an application seeking permission to implead farmers’ bodies in the case. The court listed the case on Monday. The court had consistently taken a nuanced stand on the issue, saying farmers have the right to protest but their agitation should not hinder traffic or public movement. It had pointed out that the solution to end the farmer-government impasse over the three agriculture laws lay with the government. Protesting farmers have been camping on the outskirts of the Capital for over a year. Recently, U.P. and Haryana filed affidavits in the court that said despite sincere efforts, farmers were not relenting.


Supreme Court adjourns Jayalalithaa death inquiry case 

The Supreme Court on Thursday scheduled for October 20 a case concerning the Justice (retired) A. Arumughaswamy Commission of Inquiry into the death of former Tamil Nadu Chief Minister J. Jayalalithaa in 2016. A Bench of Justices S. Abdul Nazeer and Krishna Murari adjourned the hearing after senior advocate Aryama Sundaram, who appears for Apollo Hospitals where Jayalalithaa died, cited a personal difficulty. Senior advocate Dushyant Dave, for the Tamil Nadu government, raised strong objection to the adjournment. However, the court agreed to hear the case after the Dussera holidays. In the previous hearing, the Inquiry Commission had said that only four witnesses remain to be examined and the panel should be allowed to complete its work and place its fact-finding report before the State Legislative Assembly. In 2019, the court had stayed the inquiry into the death of J. Jayalalithaa after Apollo Hospitals alleged that the Commission, instead of conducting an impartial inquiry, had transformed itself into an adversary. The proceedings before the Commission were stayed by the Supreme Court in April 2019 on the basis of a plea by Apollo Hospitals that the inquiry panel’s functioning was replete with bias. Only four witnesses are left to examine. A fact-finding inquiry report should be presented in the House. The House will then decide… 155 witnesses have been examined… only four more. The inquiry has been pending since 2017, the panel had submitted. In 2019, the court had stayed the inquiry after Apollo Hospitals alleged that the Commission, instead of conducting an impartial inquiry, had transformed itself into an adversary. Sundaram had argued for the hospital that the proceedings before the inquiry panel was causing grave prejudice to the hospital’s reputation. Tamil Nadu had, in 2019, urged the court to not stay the Commission proceedings. However, the Bench had refused to oblige the State and proceeded to freeze the inquiry. The State had appointed the inquiry commission headed by Justice Arumughaswamy, a retired Madras High Court judge, on September 25, 2017. The Commission’s reference was to examine the circumstances which led to the hospitalisation of Jayalalithaa on September 22, 2016 and the nature of treatment given in order to determine the cause of hospitalisation.

Tamil prisoners file Fundamental Rights petition in Sri Lanka’s Supreme Court 

As many as eight Tamil prisoners in Sri Lanka’s Anuradhapura prison on Thursday petitioned the country’s Supreme Court, seeking relief after a ‘gun-wielding’ Prisons Minister allegedly threatened them a fortnight ago. The prisoners stated that they fear for their lives, asking to be transferred to a prison in the Tamil-majority Northern Province. Jaffna parliamentarian and senior lawyer M.A. Sumanthiran will appear for them in the case, media reports said. On September 15, Lohan Ratwatte, who was State Minister of Prison Management and Prisoners’ Rehabilitation, stepped down from the portfolio amid enormous pressure, after allegations of him asking Tamil prisoners to kneel, threatening them at gunpoint, surfaced. Ratwatte is still a junior Minister in the Rajapaksa administration, overseeing the Gem and Jewellery portfolio, although government critics have demanded that he be sacked from all positions, citing the reported incident that sparked much public outrage. In their petition, the prisoners accused the Minister of asking the detainees to stand in a semi-circle and ordered them to kneel before him. He then started to abuse them in Sinhala saying that His Excellency the President had given him all the power in relation to PTA prisoners and that he could either release them or shoot them dead. He had a pistol in his hand and appeared to be intoxicated, the petition stated. The Minister’s office earlier denied any wrongdoing on his part. The eight Tamil men — who have sought relief from the Supreme Court through Colombo-based lawyer Moahan Balendra — are in remand following their arrest under Sri Lanka’s infamous Prevention of Terrorism Act (PTA). Rights activists and Tamil political leaders have for long demanded repeal of the PTA, pointing to different governments’ tendency to use the law to target dissidents or arbitrarily detain terrorism suspects for long periods without trial. Soon after the violent incident in the prison complex — allegedly involving the Prisons Minister — was reported in the media, the country’s Human Rights Commission started a suo motu investigation. International human rights watchdogs were swift to condemn the Minister’s actions. Human Rights Watch said the incident reflected the disregard for human rights that prevails under the administration of President Gotabaya Rajapaksa, and in particular the vulnerable position of people held under the PTA.

Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments 

The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 3,37,62,154 with the death toll at 4,48,294. Around 69% of the country’s adult population has received at least one dose of COVID-19 vaccine and 25% has taken both doses, the government said on Thursday. It also said that increased population density raises chances of COVID-19 spread and it will be prudent to avoid non-essential travel and observe festivity at low key. The government said that 64.1% doses of COVID-19 vaccine has been administered in vaccination centres in rural areas and 35% in urban areas. A total of 67.4 lakh doses (approximately 0.88%) have been administered at vaccination centres not tagged as rural or urban, it said. It said that 59.66% of the total COVID-19 cases last week were reported from Kerala and the state has over one lakh active cases. The government also stressed that the number of COVID-19 tests has not reduced and 15 to 16 lakh tests are being done every day in the country.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

India, Australia agree to conclude free trade agreement by 2022-end. 

India and Australia on Thursday agreed to conclude the long-pending free trade agreement by the end of 2022 and an early harvest trade deal by as early as December. The decision to expedite negotiations for India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) between the two countries was taken at a meeting between Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal and Australian Minister for Trade, Tourism and Investment Dan Tehan. We have agreed on aggressive timelines (for concluding the trade pact), Goyal told reporters at a press conference held jointly with Tehan. India and Australia have decided to conclude an interim agreement or early harvest trade deal by December end. Under the early harvest agreement duties on certain selected items will be reduced. The two sides have decided to have an exchange of offers regarding the proposed CECA agreement by October. The final trade deal, which has been pending for the past several years, will, however, be concluded by 2022-end. This is like a T-20 match, that is why such aggressive timelines. The spirit of this partnership is that both India and Australia work in the same team for a win-win for each other, said Goyal. India-Australia bilateral trade has exceeded AUD 24 billion last year. The proposed trade agreement would cover trade in goods and services, and investment, among others. What we have agreed today is to make sure that we will conclude a free trade agreement between Australia and India by the end of 2022. Now, this Free Trade Agreement will include an interim agreement, which we will seek to finalise by Christmas. It will be consistent with Article 24 of the WTO, and it will cover goods, services, investment, we will begin discussing government procurement energy and resources, logistics and transport, standards, rules of origin and we have agreed to exchange offers by the end of October. Now, this is extraordinarily ambitious, Tehan said. Goyal said that both India and Australia have a very positive interest in expanding trade, which could be kick-started or which could be implemented in the interim, while the contours of the final agreement may take a little longer period of time. The interim agreement or the early harvest deal, he said, will cover areas of immediate interest, you could call them the low hanging fruits. On a question whether past discussions will be taken into account while finalising the CEPA, Goyal said, What has been discussed in the past will always be there before us and help us speed up our negotiations. We will, however, bring in a fresh perspective to the talks. The visiting minister said the current trade between the two countries does not reflect the true extent of the economic partnership. He said that if the trade agreement is reached by 2022, then you would see over the years to come that trading relationship double, and it will double in all areas because the complementarity between our economies is so great.

N Korea Test-Fires Newly Developed Anti-Aircraft Missile

North Korea said Friday it had test-fired a newly developed anti-aircraft missile in the fourth round of weapons firings in recent weeks, even as it pushes to reopen dormant communication channels with South Korea in a small reconciliation step. In September, North Korea resumed its first missile tests in six months but still offered conditional talks with Seoul in what some experts say is an attempt to extract concessions in its nuclear diplomacy with the U.S. Earlier this week, North Korea leader Kim Jong Un expressed his willingness to restore communication hotlines with South Korea in coming days to promote peace on the Korean Peninsula. The Korean Central News Agency said the anti-aircraft missile test is of very practical significance in studying and developing various prospective anti-aircraft missile system. It said the test was aimed at confirming the practicality of operation of the launcher, radar and battle command vehicle as well as the combat performance of the missile. South Korea, Japan and the United States typically publicly confirm North Korean missile launches soon after they occur, but did not do so for Thursday’s test, indicating it may not have been a major weapons test. While Kim said he intended to reopen inter-Korean hotlines during his speech at parliament, he also shrugged off U.S. offers for dialogue as a cunning concealment of its hostility against the North. He also reiterated the North’s demands that South Korea abandon a double-dealing attitude over the North’s missile tests if Seoul wants to see the resumption of talks and major cooperation steps. South Korea has said it would prepare for the restoration of the hotlines, which it called necessary to discuss and resolve many pending issues. The cross-border phone and fax lines have been largely dormant for more than a year. Some experts say North Korea wants South Korea to persuade the United States to ease punishing economic international sanctions on it. Other say North Korea is pressuring South Korea not to criticize its ballistic missile tests, which are banned by U.N. Security Council resolutions, as part of its quest to be recognized internationally as a nuclear power. North Korea also recently has test-fired a new hypersonic missile, a newly developed cruise missile and a ballistic missile launched from a train. South Korea’s military assessed the hypersonic missile to be at an early stage of development, but experts say the two previous missile tests displayed the North’s ability to attack targets in South Korea and Japan, both key U.S. allies that host U.S. troops. The North’s recent tests were in line with Kim Jong Un’s earlier vows to introduce sophisticated weapons and enlarge his nuclear arsenal to defend itself against U.S. hostility — a reference to U.S.-led sanctions on the North and regular military drills between Washington and Seoul that North Korea believes are an invasion rehearsal.

Latest Current Affairs 30 September 2021

NATIONAL NEWS

Former Punjab CM Amarinder Singh meets Union Home Minister Amit Shah

Former Punjab chief minister Amarinder Singh met Union Home Minister Amit Shah at his residence in New Delhi on Wednesday, raising speculation over his future in politics. Singh arrived in the national capital on Tuesday, days after he quit as the chief minister of Punjab. The meeting assumes significance as Singh had not opened his cards but had claimed that he had not quit politics and would fight till the end. The veteran Congress leader had also launched a scathing attack on his bete noire, Navjot Singh Sidhu, who was appointed as the party’s Punjab unit president. Sidhu quit as the Punjab Congress chief on Tuesday. As regards his political future, Singh had said there were several options before him. Captain Amarinder Singh arrived in New Delhi on Tuesday, days after he quit as the chief minister of Punjab. Meanwhile, a day after he resigned as president of the Punjab Congress, Navjot Singh Sidhu on Wednesday hardened his stand, saying he will stick to his principles and continue his fight even if it means losing everything. Sidhu said that during his 17 years of political life, he had been working with a purpose to improve the life of people in Punjab and make a difference. Taking a principled stand on issue-based politics and sticking to it has been the core of his political journey, he added. Raising the Behbal Kalan police firing case of 2015, related to the Bargari sacrilege issue, which has been a political flash point in the State politics, Sidhu said people who had given a clean chit to the Badals and people who had fought for ‘blanket bail’ for the accused were today appointed to key posts such as Advocate-General. The people who were earlier talking about issues… where are they now and where are the resources through which we would have achieved our objective? asked Sidhu. The Congress party’s crisis in Punjab spiralled further on September 28, with Sidhu resigning from his post, Minister Razia Sultana quitting her post in support of him, and some other leaders too coming out in his support. Sidhu announced his resignation hours after portfolios were allocated by Channi. His suggestions on ‘choices of bureaucrats and ministers’ are believed to have been overruled by the party leadership. Also, the appointment of senior advocate A. P. S. Deol as Advocate-General was another reason for Sidhu’s decision, the close aide stated. Deol was counsel for former Director General of Police Sumedh Singh Saini, an accused in the Behbal Kalan police firing case of 2015.

 

Court’s power of contempt can’t be taken away even by legislatures, Supreme Court observes

Observing that the court’s power of contempt can’t be taken away even by a legislative enactment, the Supreme Court on September 29 held the chairperson of an NGO guilty of contempt for not depositing ₹25 lakh for scandalising and browbeating the court. We are of the view that the contemnor is clearly guilty of contempt of court and his action to scandalise the court cannot be countenanced, the top court said. A bench of Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and M.M. Sundresh said the chairperson of NGO, Suraz India Trust, Rajiv Daiya has been throwing mud at all and sundry, including the court, administrative staff and the State government. The power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power vested with this court which cannot be taken away even by a legislative enactment, the court said. The top court issued notice to Daiya and directed him to be present on October 7 for hearing of the sentence. With regard to recovery of money, the bench said it can take place as arrears of land revenue. The top court had issued contempt notice to Daiya as to why he should not be proceeded against and sentenced for his endeavour to scandalise the court. Daiya had told the bench that he did not have the resources to pay the costs imposed by the apex court and would approach the President of India with a mercy plea. The apex court was hearing an application filed by Daiya seeking recall of the apex court’s 2017 judgement by which it had imposed costs of ₹25 lakh on it for filing 64 PILs over the years without any success and repeatedly misusing the jurisdiction of the top court.


CBI probe shows violation of court ban on toxic material use in crackers: Supreme Court 

The Supreme Court on Wednesday said a preliminary enquiry by the CBI into the firecracker industry, including in Tamil Nadu, revealed rampant violation of its ban on use of toxic ingredients like Barium and its salts. In an order in March 2020, the court ordered the CBI Joint Director in Chennai to conduct a detailed probe. The CBI was directed to examine the allegations of violation of the court ban in 2018. The CBI had filed a report in a sealed cover in the court. A Bench led by Justice M.R. Shah, referring to the contents of the report, observed that a chemical analysis of the samples of finished and semi-finished firecrackers and raw materials taken from the manufacturers showed Barium content. The court stated that loose quantities of Barium were purchased from the market. Firecracker covers did not show the manufacture or expiry dates. The court discussed why the manufacturers should not be asked to show cause why contempt action should not be taken against them. Everyday there is a celebration, but you should also be mindful of the people living around you… People who have asthma, Justice Shah remarked. The court posted the case for further hearing on October 6. On Tuesday, the Supreme Court prima facie brushed aside the manufacturers’ contention that thousands of employees earned their livelihood in the industry. Justice Shah retorted that we have to balance between employment, unemployment and the right to life and health of citizens. We cannot sacrifice the lives of many for a few. Our prime focus is the right to life of innocent people. The case gained significance with the onset of the wedding season and festivals like Dussehra and Deepawali. Everyday, there is a violation in this regard… in religious processions, political rallies, Justice Shah, accompanied by Justice A.S. Bopanna on the Bench, pointed out.

 

Locked up again, this is real picture of Kashmir: Mehbooba 

Former Chief Minister and Peoples Democratic Party (PDP) president Mehbooba Mufti on Wednesday accused the security forces of barring her from visiting a village in south Kashmir’s Tral. Locked up in my house today yet again for attempting to visit the village in Tral allegedly ransacked by army. This is the real picture of Kashmir that visiting dignitaries must be shown instead of GOIs (Government of India) sanitised and guided picnic tours, Mufti said. A PDP spokesman said policemen from the Ram Munshibagh Police Station locked up the main gate of Mufti’s residence and placed a mobile bunker to block it. Mufti had earlier alleged that the Army from Yagwani camp in Tral ransacked homes and ruthlessly thrashed a family on September 27. The daughter owing to her serious injuries was admitted to hospital. Not the first time that civilians from this village have been beaten up by army in this area, Mufti said. The police have not issued any statement on the move to restrict Mufti’s movement.

 

Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments 

The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 3,37,20,974 with the death toll at 4,47,855. Available evidence suggests that children aged 12 and above are at a high risk of contracting COVID-19 infection and must be prioritised for vaccination compared with younger children, said experts at the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). They said schools should be reopened in a phased manner (beginning with primary schools) and allowed to function safely with appropriate implementation of multi-layered mitigation measures where children’s participation was essential. An opinion piece titled Reopening of schools during COVID-19 pandemic: a persistent dilemma published in the Indian Journal of Medical Research stated that there was ample evidence to suggest that children aged between one and 17 had similar susceptibility to a mild form of SARS-CoV-2 infection as in adults. However, the risk of severe disease and mortality in children was less. Meanwhile, the Delhi Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) decided on September 29 that schools for all classes, except those currently allowed (Class 9 to 12), will remain shut for the moment and will be allowed to open after conclusion of upcoming festive season. According to sources present in the meeting, the DDMA concluded that the situation related to COVID-19 was good, but the guard cannot be let down. In view of the upcoming festive season, Delhi Police and district administration directed to ensure enforcement of COVID-19 protocol and take care that gatherings taking place during the festive season are strictly in compliance with the laid down standard operating procedures (SOPs).

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Taliban write to DGCA for resumption of flights by Afghan carriers 

The Taliban have written to India’s DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) requesting that Afghan carriers be allowed to resume commercial flights to the country, according to a senior government official. The letter from the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan was addressed to DGCA Director General on September 7, 2021. The matter is being reviewed by the Ministry of Civil Aviation, the official said. Air connectivity between the two countries came to a halt after the Taliban closed the airspace over Afghanistan on August 16.

 

India, Australia sign ‘Terms of Reference’ for navy to navy talks

The Indian Navy and the Australian Navy on Wednesday signed the ‘Terms of Reference’ (ToR) for the conduct of the navy to navy talks under the framework of the ‘Joint Guidance for the India – Australia Navy to Navy Relationship’ document, signed by the two Navy Chiefs in August. This is the first such document signed by the Indian Navy with any country. The document set the navy to navy talks as the principal medium for guiding the bilateral cooperation, the Indian Navy said in a statement. The document would be pivotal in consolidating the shared commitment to promoting peace, security, stability and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region, it stated. The ToR detailed the modalities for engagement at various levels between the two navies and streamlined the process, an official source said. More such documents could be signed with countries in future, a second official source said. The document provided flexibility for the implementation of separate agreements based on the specific outcomes of the talks. The broad scope of the guidance was focused on developing mutual understanding, cooperating for regional security, collaborating in mutually beneficial activities and developing interoperability, the statement noted. The highlights of the document included close cooperation in regional and multilateral fora, including Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), Western Pacific Naval Symposium (WPNS), Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) and expert working groups subordinate to the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting Plus framework. The document was aligned to the ‘2020 Comprehensive Strategic Partnership’ agreed by the Prime Ministers and aimed to ensure shared approaches to regional and global security challenges. The inaugural navy to navy talk with Australia was held in 2005. Bilateral defence relations between India and Australia have significantly expanded over the years and they have also concluded a Mutual Logistics Support Agreement. Australia is also part of the Malabar naval exercise, which also includes Japan and the U.S. Australia has deployed a Liaison Officer at the Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre for Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) as part of efforts to expand cooperation in maritime domain awareness.

SSC GD 9 March 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 9th March 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

R, U, X, A, …… 

(A) D

(B)

(C)

(D) C

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

R, U, X, A,…?.. 

R + 3 = U 

U + 3 = X 

X + 3 = (A) 

Hence, A + 3 = D 

 

Q. 2 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All bangles are rings. 

Some rings are toys. 

Some toys are dolls. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some rings are bangles. 

II. Some dolls are rings. 

(A) Either conclusion I or II follows 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Conclusions: 

I. Some rings are bangles- True . Rings contains some part of bangle circle. Hence this condition is True.

II. Some dolls are rings- False. As doll circle is not intersecting Ring circle hence this condition does not follow. 

Only Conclusion I follows. 

 

Q. 3 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

12, 14, 17, 15, 22, 16, ….. 

(A) 18 

(B) 27 

(C) 17 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The Logic is of Alternate number series. 

Answer is Option B. 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

EER : RFE :: DJT : ? 

(A) TKD

(B) DTJ 

(C) TDJ 

(D) JT(D) 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Correct Answer should be TK(D) 

 

Q. 5 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Option (D) is correct Option. 

 

Q. 6 In a certain code, MISSION is coded as MISS JPN,then how is LIBRARY coded in the same way? 

(A) LJBRYRB)

(B) LBKRBRZ 

(C) LKBRBRZ 

(D) LJBRBRY 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

MISSION is coded as MISSJPN (First Four Alphabet MISS are written same, ‘IO’ is written as next alphabet in series, I+1=J, O+1=P and last alphabet is written same. 

Similarly same pattern we will follow for LIBRARY only AR will be replaced with A+1=B, R+1=S… remaining alphabet will be copied 

same. LIBRBSY. 

Correct Option is D. 

 

Q. 7 If GLOBALLY is written as 61374118 and CITY as 2958, how will BOAT be written? 

(A) 7365 

(B) 7345 

(C) 7354 

(D) 7321 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Each Alphabet is denoted with a number. 

GLOBALLY is written as 61374118 (Hence G=6, L=1, O=3 ,B=7 ,A=4 ,L=1 ,Y=8) 

CITY is written as 2958 (Hence C=2 , I=9 , T=5 , Y=8) 

Hence we denote alphabets will be same numbering as above alphabets BOAT be written (B=7 , O=3, A=4, T=5) BOAT=7345- Option (B) is correct Option. 

 

Q. 8 Choose the option which completes the given figure series 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Roger Federer : Tennis :: ……. : …….. 

(A) Pullela Gopichand : Badminton 

(B) Prakash Padukone : Tennis 

(C) Ricky Ponting : Football 

(D) Cristiano Ronaldo : Cricket 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the Third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

20 : 25 :: 8 : ? 

(A)

(B) 10 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Mona, Kanak, John, Honey, Isha and Lara are watching a movie in a theater which has screen in the north. They are sitting in certain way. 

(i) Only Kanak is sitting between Honey and John. 

(ii) Lara is to the right of Mona whoissitting at extremeleft. 

(iii) Isha is to the immediate right of John. 

Who is sitting between Kanak and Lara? 

(A) Honey 

(B) John 

(C) Isha 

(D) Mona 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 In the given Venn diagram which number shows players who are neither Teachers nor Singers? 

(A)

(B) 17 

(C)

(D) 12 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A) 1071 

(B) 1324 

(C) 1096 

(D) 1051 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 If ‘L’ means ‘ × ’, ‘N’ means ‘ + ’, ‘O’ means ‘ ÷ ’, and ‘M’ means ‘ ’, then: 

1000 O 5 N 66 M 33 = ? 

(A) 433 

(B) 333 

(C) 483 

(D) 233 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 16-81 

(B) 49-64 

(C) 4-9 

(D) 25-36 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 A piece of paper is folded in the manner shown in the question figure(s). Select the figure out of the answer choices showing the unfolded pattern after the punches (cut). 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Book : Pages :: ……. : ……. 

(A) Hand : Finger 

(B) Neck : Collar 

(C) Tie : Shirt 

(D) Socks : Feet 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 19 Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) EAfg 

(B) eaWT 

(C) AUrs 

(D) vwO(A) 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

EAfg – ‘fg’ – Correct f and g are continuous alphabets. 

eaWT – ‘ea’ is not a continuous alphabet. Incorrect 

AUrs – ‘rs’ – Correct r and s are continuous alphabets. 

vwO(A) – ‘vw’ Correct v and w are continuous alphabets. 

Hence eaWT is odd option. 

 

Q. 20 Some children are sitting in a row facing north. Among those, Sameer is 17th from the left and second to the right of Jay, who is 15th from the right of the row, then how many children are there is the row? 

(A) 31 

(B) 29 

(C) 24 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Four words have been given ,out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Parents 

(B) Siblings 

(C) Guardian 

(D) Ancestor 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some players are singers. 

2. All singers are tall. 

3. Some players are strong. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some players are tall. 

II. All players are strong. 

(A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

(B) Only conclusion I follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Either conclusion I or II follows 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

8, 13, 21, 38, 62, 99, ……… 

(A) 126 

(B) 136 

(C) 147 

(D) 116 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

8, 13, 21, 38, 62, 99, ……… 

8-13 = 5 (2*2 +1) 

21-38 = 8 (3*3 -1) 

38-21= 15 (4*4 +1) 

62-38 =24(5*5 -1) 

99-62= 37(6-6+1) 

Hence Next Sequence will be (7*7-1)+99 =147 

 

Q. 24 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is third to the left of A who is second to the left of F. E is not a neighbour of either F or D.C is third to left of B. 

Who is sitting between G and B? 

(A) D only 

(B) F only 

(C) Both F and D

(D) Data inadequate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure? 

Answer: (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Sikkim was associated with the Union of India by the ………. amendment in 1975. 

(A) 36th 

(B) 1st 

(C) 24th 

(D) 12th 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 Muga silk is the product of the silkworm, endemic to which state? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B) Rajasthan 

(C) Uttar Pradesh 

(D) Assam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 Who is the first Indian female amputee to climb Mt. Everest? 

(A) Malavath Poorna 

(B) Arati Saha 

(C) Arunima Sinha 

(D) Santosh Yadav 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 The place where Dandi Salt March happened lies in the present-day state of: 

(A) Delhi 

(B) Gujarat 

(C) Kashmir 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 Colonial rulers struggled with educating the people in the colonies because: 

(A) too much education could lead to higher obedience 

(B) too much education could lead to revolt 

(C) too little education could lead to higher disobedience 

(D) too little education could lead to revolt 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 Who founded the Holkar dynasty, one of the regional Maratha dynasties? 

(A) Malhar Rao 

(B) Raghuji 

(C) Ramoji 

(D) Damaji I 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 As part of the fundamental rights, the Constitution of India guarantees the right to: 

(A) divorce 

(B) travel 

(C) equality 

(D) marriage 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Terylene is a type of: 

(A) Polyester 

(B) Acrylic 

(C) Rayon 

(D) Nylon 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Gregor Johann Mendel came up with the theory of inheritance by studying: 

(A) animals 

(B) people 

(C) peas 

(D) carrots 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 The Ganges is approximately ……….. km long. 

(A) 5000 

(B) 2500 

(C) 1000 

(D) 2000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 In general, resistivity of an alloy ……….. its constituent metals. 

(A) has no correlation to 

(B) is higher than 

(C) is lower than 

(D) is same as 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 People expect democracies to: 

(A) have differential weight in electing representatives 

(B) increase inequality 

(C) result in a poorer country 

(D) have equal weightin electing representatives 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 The Chand Minar is located in: 

(A) Maharashtra 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Uttar Pradesh 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Limestone, chalk and marble are different forms of: 

(A) calcium carbonate 

(B) soda ash 

(C) sodium chloride 

(D) sugar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q.40 The festival ‘Me-Dam-Me-Phi’ is celebrated by Tai-Ahom communities of which state? 

(A) Tripura 

(B) Mizoram 

(C) Manipur 

(D) Assam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Who was the first Indian lady scientist who worked with organic chemistry and medicinal plant? 

(A) Asima Chatterjee 

(B) Arati Saha 

(C) Aruna Asaf Ali 

(D) Anusuya Sarabhai 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in: 

(A) Uttar Pradesh 

(B) Kerala 

(C) West Bengal 

(D) Andhra Pradesh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The Sahitya Academy award in Hindi for 2017 was won by: 

(A) Rana Ayub 

(B) Ramesh Shah 

(C) Nasira Sharma 

(D) Ramesh Megh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 ………. won the 2018 Football World Cup. 

(A) Germany 

(B) Brazil 

(C) France 

(D) Croatia 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 In the 2018 Wimbledon, …………. was the winner in the women’s finals. 

(A) Martina Hingis 

(B) Venus Williams 

(C) rena Williams 

(D) Angelique Kerber 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 India’s GDP growth in 2017 was: 

(A) 4.5% 

(B) 6.6% 

(C) 11.1% 

(D) 8.8% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 Red algae are generally found in: 

(A) mountains 

(B) cities 

(C) water bodies 

(D) deserts 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 In Economic terms, Globalization is the process of rapid ………. between countries. 

(A) Integration 

(B) Competition 

(C) Investment 

(D) Change 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 Belief in the primary importance of the self, the virtues of self-reliance and personal independence is referred to as ………… in Economics. 

(A) Federalism 

(B) Frugalism 

(C) Capitalism 

(D) Individualism 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 In India, district roads are maintained by: 

(A) Zilla parishad 

(B) state government 

(C) central government 

(D) panchayat 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Study the chart and answer the question based, on the pie chart. 

The pie chart given below shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items and savings in a month. Savings of the family is ₹ 8,000 in a month. 

What is the total expenditure of the family for the month? 

(A) ₹45,000 

(B) ₹48,000 

(C) ₹50,000 

(D) ₹40,000 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given 60 degrees=Rs 8000 

360 degrees=Rs 48000 

Total expenditure=Rs 48000 

 

Q. 52 Nitin’s money becomes double in 4 years at compound interest. In how many years will it become sixteen times at compound Interest? 

(A) 20 

(B) 24 

(C) 16 

(D) 28 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 Study the chart and answer the question based, on the pie chart. 

The pie chart given below shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items and savings in a month. Savings of the family is ₹ 8,000 in a month. 

How much more amount is spent on food than on housing? 

(A) ₹2,000 

(B) ₹3,000 

(C) ₹1,000 

(D) ₹2,500 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

let x be total income 

Given (60/360)*x=8000 

x=48000 

difference between food and housing is 120-105=15 degrees 

60 degrees=8000 

15 degrees=2000 

 

Q. 54 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 

21 + 68 ÷ 17 =? 

(A) 25 

(B) 35 

(C) 40 

(D) 10 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

By applying BODMAS we have 

= 21 + (68 ÷ 17) 

=21+4 

=25 

 

Q. 55 Study the chart and answer the question based, on the pie chart. 

The pie chart given below shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items and savings in a month. Savings of the family is ₹ 8,000 in a month. 

The ratio of the expenditure on food to the savings is: 

(A) 2:1 

(B) 3:4 

(C) 3:2 

(D) 4:3 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 If 10 persons can do a job in 20 days. Then 20 persons with the twice efficiency can do the same job in: 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C)

(D) 20 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given total work=20*10=200 workdays 

twice efficient means they can do work in 10 days but the total number of people also doubled and so hey can complete the work in 10/2 = 5 days 

 

Q. 57 25% of a number is 300. The number is: 

(A) 1000 

(B) 800 

(C) 1200 

(D) 900 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given x/4 =300 

x=1200 

 

Q. 58 The average of numbers 2,4, 6,……… , 100 is: 

(A) 51 

(B) 50 

(C) 49.5 

(D) 50.5 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sum=2+4+6+8…..100 

=2(1+2+3…50) 

=2*50*51/2 

=2550 

Average=2550/50 

=51 

 

Q. 59 If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 3 : 4 and C : D = 3 : 5 then value of A : B : C : D is: 

(A) 6 : 9 : 15 : 20 

(B) 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 

(C) 2 : 3 : 5 : 12 

(D) 6 : 9 : 12 : 20 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

A:B=2:3 ,B:C=3:4 ,C:D=3:5 

A:B:C=2:3:4 C:D=3:5 

A:B:C=6:9:12 C:D=12:20 

A:B:C:D=6:9:12:20 

 

Q. 60 The average of 20, 25, 35, 15, a, 30 is 22.5. The value of a is: 

(A) 13 

(B) 12.5 

(C) 10 

(D) 15 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 The marked price of an item for sale is ₹ 240. If two successive discount of 10% and 5% are given on the marked price, then the selling price of the item (in ₹) will be: 

(A) ₹34.80 

(B) ₹205.20 

(C) ₹36 

(D) ₹204 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 Two trains 85 m and 155 m long, run at the speeds of 62 km/h and 82 km/h respectively, in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time which they take to cross each other is: 

(A) 4 seconds 

(B) 5 seconds 

(C) 6 seconds 

(D) 8 seconds 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 63 The length, breadth and height of a room are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. The cost of carpeting the floor at ₹ 10 per square meter is ₹ 480. The height of the room is: 

(A) 10 m 

(B) 2 m 

(C) 6 m 

(D) 4 m 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 112 + 114 ÷ 113of11 − 11 = ? 

(A) 111 

(B) 121 

(C) 131 

(D) 101 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

By simplifying we get 121+1-11 

=122-11 

=111 

 

Q. 65 The speed of the ‘Train 18’ is 180 km/hr. The distance covered by it in 10 seconds is: 

(A) 100 metres 

(B) 500 metres 

(C) 700 metres 

(D) 648 metres 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

180 *1000/3600 =50 m/s 

Distance=speed*time 

=50*10 

=500 meters 

 

Q. 66 A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle of area 4√3cm2. If the same wire is bent into the form of a square, the area of the square will be: 

(A) 16 sq.cm 

(B) 9 sq. cm 

(C) 144 sq. cm 

(D) 64 sq.cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 The total area of a circle and a square is equal to 2611 sq. cm. The diameter of the circle is 42 cm. What is the sum of the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the square?(Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 280 cm 

(B) 272 cm 

(C) 380 cm 

(D) Cannot be determined 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 The amount of profit earned by selling an object for ₹ 524 is equal to the amount of loss suffered by selling it for ₹ 452. What is the cost price of the object? 

(A) ₹480 

(B) ₹488 

(C) ₹485 

(D) ₹500 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given that 524-CP=CP-452 

2CP=976 

CP=Rs 488 

 

Q. 69 A circle, with radius 8 cm, which has the area equal to the area of a triangle with base 8 cm. Then the length of the corresponding altitude of triangle is: 

(A) 38π cm 

(B) 16π cm 

(C) 18π cm 

(D) 8π cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 The simple interest for the second year on a certain sum at a certain rate of interest is ₹ 1000. What is the sum of the interest  accrued on it for the 6th, 7th and 8th years? 

(A) ₹3200 

(B) ₹3300 

(C) ₹3000 

(D) ₹3630 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Simple interest on every year is same and so for any one year it will be 1000 as given 

So for the three years given it will be 3*1000=3000 

 

Q. 71 If the ratio between two numbers is 3:4. If the first number and second number are increased by 40 % and 50% respectively. Then the new ratio of the numbers is: 

(A) 9 : 10 

(B) 11 : 10 

(C) 3 : 4 

(D) 7 : 10 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the numbers be 3x and 4x 

New ratio will be 3x*1.4:4x*1.5 

=7:10 

 

Q. 72 The difference between the Mode and the Median of a data is 25. What is the difference between the Median and the Mean? 

(A) 10.5 

(B) 16 

(C) 12.5 

(D) 14 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

We now that 3 median -2 mean=mode 

Given mode-median=25 

mode=median+25 

therefore 3 median-2 mean=median+25 

2 median-2 mean=25 

median-mean=12.5 

 

Q. 73 Which is the least four-digit number which when divided by 5, 6 and 8 leaves remainder 2 in each case? 

(A) 1032 

(B) 1062 

(C) 1042 

(D) 1082 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

LCM of 5,6 and 8 is 120 

Required number will be in the form of 120x+2 as all leave same remainder 2 

We require least 4 digit number and so for x=9 we have 120*9+2=1080+2 

=1082 

 

Q. 74 The ratio of spirit and water is 2 : 5. If the volume of solution is increased by 50% by adding spirit only. What is the resultant ratio of spirit and water? 

(A) 9 : 10 

(B) 12 : 15 

(C) 11 : 10 

(D) 3 : 4 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the spirit and water content be 2x and 5x 

Total quantity =7x 

Half of 7x=3.5x 

So 3.5x of spirit is added to it. 

Total spirit=2x+3.5x 

Total water=5x 

Ratio=10:11 

 

Q. 75 A trader sold an item at a loss of 20%. Had he sold it for ₹100 more, he would have gained a profit of 5%. What is the cost price of the item? 

(A) ₹ 250 

(B) ₹ 200 

(C) ₹ 25 

(D) ₹ 400 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the Cost Price be Rs.100x 

Loss = 20% 

Selling Price = 80% of 100x = Rs.80x 

Profit = 5% 

Selling Price = 105% of 100x = Rs.105x 

Given, Rs.105x – Rs.80x = Rs.100 

Rs.25x = Rs.100 

=> x = 4 

Therefore, Cost Price = Rs.100x = Rs.100*4 = Rs.400 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Stainless steel pans are usually provided ………… copper bottoms. 

(A) from 

(B) by 

(C) with 

(D) under 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the synonym of the given word. 

JUSTICE 

(A) Equality 

(B) Liberty 

(C) Fraternity 

(D) Fairness 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The rearing of silkworms for obtained silk is called sericulture. 

(A) for obtained 

(B) silk is 

(C) called sericulture 

(D) The rearing 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

Ourstomach contains hydrochloric acid. It (1)………… us to digest food, but too much acid (2)……….. the stomach cause indigestion. (3)…………. indigestion is painful. To (4)………. indigestion, we take (5)……….. antacid such as milk of magnesia. 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) benefits 

(B) helps 

(C) cures 

(D) utilizes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) at 

(B) in 

(C) from 

(D) of 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) Whenever 

(B) Finally 

(C) Always 

(D) Sometimes 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) soften 

(B) better 

(C) correct 

(D) relieve 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) one 

(B)

(C) the 

(D) an 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Some Regions of our country still remain ………… to the average man. 

(A) explored 

(B) accessible 

(C) inaccessible 

(D) impossible 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Possession 

(B) Particuler 

(C) Permanent 

(D) Personal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The science of the causes and effects of diseases 

(A) Pathology 

(B) Cardiology 

(C) Physiology 

(D) Zoology 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the synonym of the given word. 

LETHARGIC

(A) Industrious 

(B) Active 

(C) DILIGENT 

(D) Lazy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Hindrance 

(B) Humorous 

(C) Hypocrisy 

(D) Harrassment 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Cast the first stone 

(A) To be deeply involved 

(B) To be the first to find fault 

(C) To start a fight 

(D) To praisefirst of all 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required 

A clinical thermometer consists of a long, narrow, uniform glass tube. 

(A) No substitution required 

(B) is containing the 

(C) composed of 

(D) consisted in a 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Mootpoint 

(A) Controversial issue 

(B) Common Belief 

(C) Basic idea 

(D) Improper thought 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. In winter, sheeps are kept indoors and fed on leaves, grain and dry fodder. 

(A) sheeps are 

(B) In winter 

(C) kept indoors 

(D) fed on 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Rumours spread that he ……….. soon order the army to open fire. 

(A) would be 

(B) will be 

(C) would have 

(D) would 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required 

The people living in the coastal areas experience a interested phenomenon. 

(A) No substitution required 

(B) the interested phenomenon 

(C) interestingly phenomenon 

(D) an interesting phenomenon 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

ELEGANT 

(A) Unmatched 

(B) Undignified 

(C) Graceful 

(D) Refined 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The study of human societies and cultures and their development 

(A) Choreography 

(B) Calligraphy 

(C) Physiotherapy 

(D) Anthropology 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the antonym of the given word. 

CURSORY 

(A) Thorough 

(B) Temporary 

(C) Superficial 

(D) Casual 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The larvae, also called caterpillars eat day and night and increase enormous in size. 

(A) enormousin size 

(B) and increase 

(C) also called 

(D) eat day and night 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

The eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatching from eggs. 

(A) to hatch from eggs. 

(B) hatched from eggs. 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) hatch from eggs. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

People like to work for organizations that take interest in their personal and ………… growth. 

(A) professional 

(B) physical 

(C) social 

(D) financial 

Answer: (A) 

SSC GD 9 March 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 9th March 2019 Shift-II 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All houses are rivers. 

All rivers are forest. 

No forest is flower. 

Conclusions: 

I. No houses is flower. 

II. No flower is houses. 

(A) Either conclusion I or II follows 

(B) Only conclusion II follows 

(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow 

(D) Only conclusion I follows 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 2 If RAYMOND is written as 2795431 and OLD as 461, how will DALMO be written? 

(A) 15764 

(B) 15476 

(C) 17654 

(D) 17653 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 3 Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one 

(A) RYZ 

(B) UBC 

(C) FGM 

(D) IPQ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Entomology : Insects :: ………. : ………… 

(A) Physiology : Plants 

(B) Virology : Fungi 

(C) Phycology : Algae 

(D) Oology : Shells 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 5 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A)

(B)

(C) 16 

(D) 25 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some beds are chairs. 

All chairs are desks. 

All desks are tables. 

Conclusions: 

I. Sometables are beds. 

II. Some desks are beds. 

(A) Either conclusion I or II follows 

(B) Only conclusion I follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Both Conclusions I and II follow 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 If ‘ ÷ ‘ means ‘ + ‘, ‘ − ‘ means ‘ × ‘, ‘ × ‘ means ‘ − ‘, and ‘ + ‘ means ‘ ÷ ‘, then: 

664 + 4 ÷ 34 × 28 =? 

(A) 165 

(B) 162 

(C) 172 

(D) 185 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes.

Planet, Earth, Sun 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 10 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while oneis different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 14-13 

(B) 13-12 

(C) 11-14 

(D) 08-17 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

J, N, R, V, ……… 

(A) (D) 

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Anil is taller than Sunny who is shorter than Baby. Anil is taller than Bose who is shorter than Sunny. Babyis shorter than Anil. Whois the shortest? 

(A) Bose 

(B) Baby 

(C) Anil 

(D) Sunny 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Service 

(B) Proprietorship 

(C) Partnership 

(D) Corporation 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, how will it appear when opened? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option thatis related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

mmnnrstt : nnoostuu :: eefghhij : ? 

(A) ffhgiijk 

(B) ffghiijk 

(C) fgghiijk 

(D) higfiijk 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Eiffel Tower : France :: ……. : ……… 

(A) Alhambra : Brazil 

(B) Opera House: China 

(C) Taj Mahal: India 

(D) Statue Of Liberty : Australia 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 A,B,C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is third to the left of A whois secondto the left of F. E is not a neighbourof either F or D. is third to left of B. 

What is E’s position with respect to F? 

(A) Third to the left 

(B) Data inadequate 

(C) Second to the left 

(D) Fourth to the left 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 19 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

14, 21, 42, 105, 315, ? 

(A) 1202.5 

(B) 1302.5 

(C) 1002.5 

(D) 1102.5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Select the option that is related to the Third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

12 : 62 : 14 : ……. 

(A) 70 

(B) 72 

(C) 80 

(D) 75 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

25, 100, 200, 800, 1600, ? 

(A) 6400 

(B) 7400 

(C) 6600 

(D) 8400 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Mona, Kanak, John, Honey, Isha and Lara are watching a movie in a theater which has screen in the north. They are sitting in certain way. 

(i) Only Kanak is sitting between Honey and John. 

(ii) Lara is to the right of Mona who’s sitting at extreme left. 

(iii) Isha is to the immediate right of John. 

Who is sitting at extreme right? 

(A) Honey 

(B) Isha 

(C) Kanak 

(D) John 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 In a certain code, FORMAT is coded as CLOJXQ, then how is FONT coded in the same way? 

(A) CKLQ 

(B) CKLO 

(C) CLOQ 

(D) CLKQ 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Choose the option which completes the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 ………. was known as a unit of measurement of land before the British rule, the size of the land varied, in Bengal the British standardised it to about one-third of an acre. 

(A) Pace 

(B) Fathom 

(C) lick 

(D) Bigha 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 The power of Satyagraha emphasized the power of what: 

(A) poverty 

(B) strength 

(C) truth 

(D) weakness 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 Kedarnath Bhattacharya, a popular singer, is better known by the name ………. 

(A) Kishore kumar 

(B) Arijit Singh 

(C) Bappi Lahiri 

(D) Kumar Sanu 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 As per the Constitution, India is also known as: 

(A) Bharat 

(B) Hindustan 

(C) South Asia 

(D) Aryavarta 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 The inbuilt variation in reproduction occurs due to sexual reproduction and errors due to: 

(A) DNA dividing 

(B) DNA copying 

(C) DNA matching 

(D) DNA multiplying 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 The Sahitya Academy Award in English for 2017 was won by: 

(A) Chetan Bhagat 

(B) Shashi Tharoor 

(C) Rana Ayub 

(D) Mamang Dai 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 Indian policy analyst Sanjaya Baru published “The Accidental Prime Minister”, a memoir, based on his experiences as a media advisor to ………. 

(A) Rahul Gandhi 

(B) Indira Gandhi 

(C) Narendra Modi 

(D) Manmohan Singh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 A statue of DMK leader ………… was unveiled in Chennai recently. 

(A) MK Stalin 

(B) J Jayalalitha 

(C) MG Ramachandran 

(D) M Karunanidhi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 To test whether something is acidic or alkaline, we can use either a litmus paper or ……… 

(A) soda ash 

(B) turmeric 

(C) sugar 

(D) salt 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 Nettle plants which grow in the wild protect themselves using: 

(A) hair 

(B) thorns 

(C) smell 

(D) Spray 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 Olympic Council of Asia (OCA)has chosen Japanese woman swimmer …….. as winner of Most Valuable Player (MVP)Trophy Award in 2018 Jakarta and Palembang Asian Games. 

(A) Zhang Lin 

(B) Katsumi Nakamura 

(C) Ryosuke Ire 

(D) Rikako Ikee 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 The 2019 Kumbh Melais held on the site of confluence of the rivers Ganga, Yamuna and ……… 

(A) Saraswati 

(B) Cauvery 

(C) Brahmaputra 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Right to Freedom is guaranteed in the article ………. 

(A) 11 

(B) 21 

(C) 19 

(D) 15 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 ‘Ottamthullal’ is a dance associated with the state of: 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Andhra Pradesh 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 A recent bank merger that has been announced includes Vijaya Bank, Dena Bank, and ……….. 

(A) State Bank of India 

(B) Indian Overseas Bank 

(C) State Bank of Mysore 

(D) Bank of Baroda 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Name the new chief coach of the Indian cricket team till ICC World Cup 2019. 

(A) Kapil Dev 

(B) Anil Kumble 

(C) Sunil Gavaskar 

(D) Ravi Shastri 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 The 3 R’s to save the environment are: 

(A) repair, recycle, reuse 

(B) reduce, recycle, repair 

(C) reduce, recycle, reuse 

(D) reduce, repair, reuse 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The cheapest means of transport is: 

(A) waterways 

(B) road 

(C) air 

(D) railways 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 44 The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about ………. of the energy of sunlight. 

(A) 4% 

(B) 2% 

(C) 1% 

(D) 3% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 What is the objective of the Constitutional Right to Freedom of Religion in India? 

(A) To sustain the principle of capitalism 

(B) To sustain the principle of secularism 

(C) To sustain the principle of federalism 

(D) To sustain the principle of frugalism 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 The primary purpose of the RBI monetary policy is to maintain: 

(A) wealth 

(B) exchange rate 

(C) growth 

(D) price stability 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 We can compare electric current in a conductor to: 

(A) a bus ride in a city 

(B) people walking in street 

(C) an inter-city train ride 

(D) water currentin rivers 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 How are Fiscal Policy and the Federal Reserve similar? 

(A) They always must have Congressional approval before passing 

(B) They both try to promote economic stability 

(C) They both have a Board of Governors 

(D) They both use the same tools to fix economic problems 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 Algae are useful for humankind because they: 

(A) help to fix the ozone layer 

(B) help to clean dirty places 

(C) help to create more oxygen 

(D) help to create more carbon dioxide 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 50 The Jallianwalla Bagh incident happened in: 

(A) Punjab 

(B) Delhi 

(C) Kashmir 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A shopkeeper organizes sale on Friday, offering a discount of 23% on all items. Still, he makes a profit of 10% only. By how much percentage CP was lower than MP? 

(A) 20% 

(B) 10% 

(C) 15% 

(D) 30% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 Train A took 30 minute to cover a distance of 50 km.If the speed of train B is 40% faster than train A, then the ratio of the respective speed of the both train is: 

(A) 5 : 3 

(B) 3 : 5 

(C) 7 : 5 

(D) 5 : 7 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 The LCM of 779, 943 and 123 is: 

(A) 71668 

(B) 53751 

(C) 35834 

(D) 17917 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Prime factors of 779 are 19 and 41. Prime factors of 943 are 23 and 41. Prime factors of 123 are 3 and 41. 

Therefore, LCM of 779, 943 and 123 is 

41 × 19 × 23 × 3 = 53751 

 

Q. 54 Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions given below. 

Percentage of sale of units with respect to its production is between 40% and 43%, in case of company: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) B and C both 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 X is twice as good as workman as Y. Together, they finish the work in 18 days. In how many days can it be done by each separately? 

(A) X = 21 days, Y = 42 days 

(B) X = 9 days, Y = 18 days 

(C) X = 19 days, Y = 38 days 

(D) X = 27 days, Y = 54 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions given below. 

What is the average number of Units of laptop sold by all the Companies together? 

(A) 410⅔  

(B) 391⅔  

(C) 366⅓ 

(D) 366⅔ 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 57 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 6 : 4 : 3 and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side (in cm)is: 

(A) 48 

(B) 44 

(C) 56 

(D) 120 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 ₹ 500 was invested at 12% per annum simple interest and a certain sum of money at 10% per annum simple interest. If the sum of the interests on both the sum after 4 years is ₹ 480, the other sum of money is: 

(A) ₹550 

(B) ₹450 

(C) ₹600 

(D) ₹750 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 If a sum of ₹ 2000 is lent at 10% p.a. compound interest, what is the interest for the second year? 

(A) ₹225 

(B) ₹200 

(C) ₹220 

(D) ₹440 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 60 ⅘ ÷ ⅘ of 1/10 × 1/10 = ?

(A) 1/10

(B) 1/15

(C) 1

(D) ⅕ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 In a family of 4 adults and some minors, the average consumption of rice per head per month is 8.5 kg, while the average consumption for adults is 10 kg per head and for minor it is 5.5 kg per head. The number of minors in the family is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 In a circular garden of radius 15 m, a path of 2 m wide has to be made inside the garden at the rate of ₹ 24 per sq. m. The cost of making the path is: (Take π = 22/7) 

(A) ₹4100 

(B) ₹3864 

(C) ₹4224 

(D) ₹4355 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 63 A, B and C contract a work for ₹ 550 together. A and B are supposed to do 7/11 of the work. The amount that C gets is:  

(A) ₹200 

(B) ₹210 

(C) ₹100 

(D) ₹150 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 A hollow cylinder with outer radius 4 cm and height 2 cm is made up of 1 cm thick metal sheet. What is the volume of metal used? (Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 40 cm3 

(B) 56 cm3 

(C) 44 cm3 

(D) 65 cm3 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 A person wants to sell an item at a profit of 20% but he sold it for ₹ 480 at a loss of 20%. At what price should have he sold it to get the required profit? 

(A) ₹840 

(B) ₹600 

(C) ₹750 

(D) ₹720 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 

(1/9 ÷ 1/9 of ⅓) of ⅙ = ?

(A) ⅙  

(B) ½  

(C) 1/9  

(D) ⅓  

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 The ratio of time taken by A and B to cover a certain distance is 7 : 9. The ratio of their respective speed will be: 

(A) 7:9 

(B) 7:3 

(C) 3:7 

(D) 9:7 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 The average of 2 numbers is ab. If one of the number is a, the other is: 

(A) 2ab – b 

(B) 2a – b 

(C) 2ab – a 

(D) 2b – a 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions given below. 

What is the average number of Units produced by all the Companies together? 

(A) 625 ⅓  

(B) 633 ⅓  

(C) 633 ⅔ 

(D) 623 ⅓ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 The mode of a distribution is 24 and the mean is 60. What is its median? 

(A) 48 

(B) 50 

(C) 45 

(D) 51 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 If 20% of A = 35% of B, then A : B= 

(A) 5 : 7 

(B) 2 : 3 

(C) 7 : 4 

(D) 1 : 2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 72 The ratio of the present age of Mahesh and Ajay is 3 : 2 respectively. After 8 years. Ratio of their age will be 11: 8. What will be the present age of Mahesh’s son if his age is half of the present age of Ajay? 

(A) 15 years 

(B) 16 years 

(C) 12 years 

(D) 18 years 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 12 cm and 9 cm and one of the angle is 30. Find the area of parallelogram. 

(A) 27 sq. cm 

(B) 54 sq. cm 

(C) 108 sq. cm 

(D) 96 sq. cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 74 If 50% of a certain number is equal to ¾th of another number, what is the ratio between the numbers? 

(A) 5 : 2 

(B) 2 : 5 

(C) 3 : 4 

(D) 3 : 2 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 When the price of a cycle is decreased by 20%,then the selling price is increased by 20%. What is the impact on the receipt of the revenue? 

(A) 4% loss 

(B) 5% profit 

(C) No profit no loss 

(D) 4% profit 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

The merchant distributes work among the weavers based on the orders received. 

(A) among all of the weavers 

(B) between weaver 

(C) among weaver 

(D) No substitution required 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

By her ……….. manner, she made herself liked by everyone who mether. 

(A) sublime 

(B) curious 

(C) winsome 

(D) victorious 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Guarantee 

(B) Grateful 

(C) Goverment 

(D) Grandeur 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ATTAIN 

(A) Prosper 

(B) Abandon 

(C) Achieve 

(D) Lose 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A person of unconventional and slightly strange views or behaviour 

(A) Conventional 

(B) Eccentric 

(C) Wholesome 

(D) Traditional 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The wages of daily workersare fixed according ………… their skills. 

(A) to 

(B) from 

(C) with 

(D) of 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

People in urban areas could have enter markets without stepping out of their homes via the Internet. 

(A) No substitution required 

(B) can entered markets 

(C) could entered markets 

(D) can enter markets 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

A dam is built across a river at sites where one can (1)……….. a lot of water. This forms (2)………….. reservoir and as the watercollects, it (3)………….. vast areas of land. This is (4)………… the wall of the dam across the river is high and the (5)………… spreads over a large area. 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) collect 

(B) dispose 

(C) flow 

(D) assemble 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A)

(B) the 

(C) one 

(D) an 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) separates 

(B) divides 

(C) ruins 

(D) submerges 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) though 

(B) yet 

(C) because 

(D) so 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) dam 

(B) land 

(C) river 

(D) water 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

(A) solution or remedy for all difficulties or diseases. 

(A) Riddle 

(B) Panacea 

(C) Ailment 

(D) Dilemma 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

To take heart 

(A) To take matter seriously 

(B) To be emotional 

(C) To gain confidence 

(D) To love everyone 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Glamourous 

(B) Gauge 

(C) Grandure 

(D) Grievous 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. One of the advantages of weekly markets is that much things are available at one place. 

(A) weekly markets 

(B) much things 

(C) one place 

(D) One of the 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

To beat about the bush 

(A) To punish an innocent person 

(B) To be aggressive 

(C) To talk too much 

(D) To avoid coming to the point 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

All attempts to ……… our late leader have failed. People still love him and cherish his memory. 

(A) damage 

(B) demolish 

(C) distress 

(D) defame 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the antonym of the given word. 

MOURNFUL 

(A) Sorrowful 

(B) Melancholy 

(C) Depressed 

(D) Joyous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

EVIDENT 

(A) Apparent 

(B) Conspicuous 

(C) Obscure 

(D) Noticeable 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

When dams are built, thousands of people ………… 

(A) is displaced 

(B) were displaced 

(C) was displaced 

(D) are displaced 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ANNOY 

(A) Please 

(B) Satisfy 

(C) irritate 

(D) Gratify 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Sujata and Kavita were sent to buy groceries for their neighborhood shop. 

(A) were sent 

(B) for their 

(C) to buy 

(D) Sujata and Kavita 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. In clinics, you may have noticed sales representatives waiting with doctors. 

(A) may have noticed 

(B) waiting with 

(C) In clinics 

(D) sales representatives 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

Very often, the small farmers needed to borrowed money to meet high expenses. 

(A) needs to borrow 

(B) need to borrow 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) needing to borrow 

Answer: (B) 

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