SSC GD 11 March 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 11th March 2019 Shift-I

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 J, A, G, E, V and F are sitting around a round table facing the center. F is to the left of G, who is opposite A, V is between A and J. Who is to the left of E? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let’s plot all details on Circle with 6 Places. 

1) F is to the left of G, who is opposite A 

2) V is between A and J 

3) Final Figure will be 

Hence A is Sitting Left of E. 

 

Q. 2 Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is placed om the line MN? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statement: 

1. All cans are jars. 

2. No tins are cans. 

Conclusion 

I. Some jars are tins. 

II. All tins are jars. 

(A) Both I and II follow 

(B) Neither I nor II follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Only conclusion I follows 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 In a certain code, ADMIT is coded as BFPMY, then how is CAD coded in the same way? 

(A) DUCH 

(B) DCHU 

(C) DCUH 

(D) UCDH 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 5 G, H, I, J and K are sitting in a row.J is neither next to H nor K. J is NOT at the end. isto the left of G. Whois to the left of K? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Kangaroo : Hopping :: snake : …….. 

(A) Bite 

(B) Walking 

(C) Crawling 

(D) Scrolling 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

0.25, 1, ….., 4, 6.25, 9 

(A) 2.25 

(B)

(C) 2.75 

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Crime : Criminology :: ……. : ………. 

(A) Heart : Hematology 

(B) Flower : Floriculture 

(C) Human behavior : Meteoricists 

(D) Universe : Cosmology 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 If GREAT is written as 62149 and FINAL as 53047, how will REGAL be written? 

(A) 26147 

(B) 21647 

(C) 22471 

(D) 22674 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 10 A figure marked on transparent sheet is given and followed by four answer figures, one out of these four options resembles the figure, which is obtained by folding transparent sheet along the dotted line. This option is your answer. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 12 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 2321 

(B) 825 

(C) 1521 

(D) 968 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 13 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

AA, BD, CI, DP, …… 

(A) EY 

(B) FR 

(C) ER 

(D) FY 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Sonu is taller than Yatendra, Amitis taller than Sonu. Subhash is taller than Amit. Sattu is tallest ofall. If they stand according to their height whowill be exactly in the middle? 

(A) Sonu 

(B) Subhash 

(C) Yatendra 

(D) Amit 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 15 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A) 176 

(B) 154 

(C) 179 

(D) 183 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 In the Q. two statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statement: 

1. Some hills are dunes. 

2. No dunes are mountains. 

Conclusion 

I. Some dunes are hills. 

II. Some mountains are hills. 

III. All hills are mountains. 

(A) Only conclusion III follows 

(B) Only conclusion I follows 

(C) Only conclusion I and II follows 

(D) All conclusions I, II and III follow 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 18 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation: 

44 * 6 * 12 * 3 * 20 

(A) − + × = 

(B) × ÷ + = 

(C) ÷ × + = 

(D) − × ÷ = 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) GCE 

(B) PLN 

(C) SJL 

(D) JFH 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Choose the option which completes the given figure series 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. 

Bachelor, Married, Person 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Quill 

(B) Esophagus 

(C) Cranium 

(D) Nasal bone 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

32, 144, ____, 2916, 13122, 59049 

(A) 846 

(B) 684 

(C) 648 

(D) 864 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

GHI : LKJ :: STU : ? 

(A) ZXY 

(B) XWV 

(C) WVX 

(D) UTV 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the Third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

22 : 333 :: 4444 : ……. 

(A) 5555 

(B) 55555 

(C) 555 

(D) 55 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The Chauri Chaura incident happened in the modern state of: 

(A) Uttar Pradesh 

(B) Delhi 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 Extrusive rocks are a type of: 

(A) Sedimentary rocks 

(B) Fossil rocks 

(C) Metamorphic rocks 

(D) Igneous rocks 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 Which of the following suggestions to the Government about commercial lawsuits is indicated within the 2017-18 economic survey of India? 

(A) Should not make any changes in the number of lawsuits 

(B) Should increase the number of lawsuits 

(C) Should reduce the pendeney of lawsuits 

(D) Should appoint a committee to examine the numberof lawsuits they file 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 All living organisms are classified into …….. kingdoms under the system proposed by Whittaker (1969), 

(A) Seven 

(B) Five 

(C) One 

(D) Three 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 The 2017 Sahitya Academy award for Malayalam was won by: 

(A) K.P Ramanunni 

(B) K.R Meera 

(C) Prabha Varma 

(D) Oomen Chandy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 The Finance Commission in India is constituted by the ……. under article 280 of the Constitution. 

(A) Supreme Court 

(B) Parliament 

(C) Prime Minister 

(D) President 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 The only Indian Prime Minister to die outside India is: 

(A) Indira Gandhi 

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri 

(C) Morarji Desai 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 In the central government budget, the annual financial statement shows: 

(A) The estimated money that has been earned by State Government of India 

(B) The estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India 

(C) The estimated moneythat has been spent by the Zilla Parishad 

(D) The estimated receipts and expenditures ofthe individual states 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 An instrument called the ……….. measures the electric current in a circuit. 

(A) Ammeter 

(B) Ohmmeter 

(C) Thermometer 

(D) Gyroscope 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 ………. is the mark of quality for all industrial products in India. 

(A) Agmark 

(B) ISI 

(C) FPO 

(D) Ecomark 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 In the 2016 Olympics, ………. won the men’s 100-meter sprint gold. 

(A) Jesse De Grasse 

(B) Usain Bolt 

(C) William Blake 

(D) Justin Gatlin 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 In India, the growth of anti-colonial movement led to: 

(A) Sectarianism 

(B) Conflict 

(C) Diversity 

(D) Unity 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 The Ajodhya Hills is located in: 

(A) Uttar Pradesh 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Madhya Pradesh 

(D) West Bengal 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Kud is a form of dance from the state of ………. 

(A) Jammu and Kashmir 

(B) Gujarat 

(C) West Bengal 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 ………. won the women’stitle in the 2018 US Open Tennis Championship finals. 

(A) Martina Hingis 

(B) Naomi Osaka 

(C) Serena Williams 

(D) Venus Williams 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 The property of Catenation is most readily predominant in: 

(A) Silicon 

(B) Nitrogen 

(C) Carbon 

(D) Sulphur 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 The precursor to the famous Odissi dance is: 

(A) Kuchipudi 

(B) Bhangra 

(C) Bharatanatyam 

(D) Gotipua 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 An ecosystem consists of: 

(A) Only living organisms 

(B) Living organisms and physical factors 

(C) Only insects 

(D) Only physical factors 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 Sour tasting food is ………. in nature. 

(A) Acidic 

(B) Neutral 

(C) Basic 

(D) Alkaline 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 The Dual System of Government in Bengal was the brainchild of ………. 

(A) Lord Hastings 

(B) Lord Ripon 

(C) Lord Clive 

(D) Lord Cornwallis 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution includes ………. languages. 

(A) 22 

(B) 25 

(C)

(D) 100 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 Humans normally have …….. number of pairs of autosomes, 

(A) 10 

(B) 21 

(C) 20 

(D) 22 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 A good measure of biodiversity of an area is: 

(A) The number of animals found there 

(B) The number of trees found there 

(C) The number of people found there 

(D) The number of species found there 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 The union territories of India have been created because they are: 

(A) Too small to be a state 

(B) Have too many people to be a state 

(C) Extremely large 

(D) Too big to be a state 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 What was the time period of the most recent term served by the former Chief Economic Advisor, Arvind Subramanian? 

(A) 2014-2018 

(B) 2014-2017 

(C) 2009-2014 

(D) 2014-2016 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The ratio between the speeds of two cars is 6 : 5. If the second car runs 600 km in 6 hours, then the speed of the first car is: 

(A) 100 km/hr 

(B) 120 km/hr 

(C) 110 km/hr 

(D) 90 km/hr 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 The mean of 23, 45, 64, 81 and 77 is: 

(A) 56 

(B) 58 

(C) 54 

(D) 52 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 The listed price of a product is ₹ 500. What shall be the sale price after successive discounts of 10% and 10%? 

(A) ₹450 

(B) ₹425 

(C) ₹400 

(D) ₹405 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 A and C, B and C and A, B and C can complete a work in 20, 12 and 8 days respectively. In how many days A and B together can complete that work? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 55 A batsman scored 120 runs which included 15 fours and 2 sixes. What percent of runs scored by him running between the wickets? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 35% 

(C) 37.50% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 The line graph shows the scores of a batsman in 6 matches. In how many matches was his performance better than the previous match? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Score in 1st match = 10 

Score in 2nd match = 17 

Score in 3rd match = 51 

Score in 4th match = 45 

Score in 5th match = 63 

Score in 6th match = 39 

Hence, In 2nd match, 3rd match and 5th match, his performance was better than 1st match, 2nd match and 4th match respectively. 

 

Q. 57 If a : b = 2 : 3, b : c = 5 : 6 and c : d = 8 : 9, then a : d = ? 

(A) 42:81 

(B) 44:81 

(C) 37:81 

(D) 40:81 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

a : b = 2 : 3 

c : d = 5 : 6 

Multiplying a : b by 5 and c : d by 3 

=> a : b = 10 : 15 and c : d = 15 : 18 

a : b : c = 10 : 15 : 18 

c : d = 8 : 9 

Multiplying a : b : c by 4 and c : d by 9 

=> a : b : c = 40 : 60 : 72 and c : d = 72 : 81 

Then, a : b : c : d = 40 : 60 : 72 : 81 

Therefore, a : d = 40 : 81 

 

Q. 58 The value of: 

4 ÷ 2 + 3 × 6 − 7 is: 

(A) 13 

(B) 14 

(C) 11 

(D) 12 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

4 ÷ 2 + 3 × 6 − 7 = 2 + 18 − 7 = 13 

 

Q. 59 The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually, on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 6% pa is ₹ 3.6. What is the sum? 

(A) ₹800 

(B) ₹750 

(C) ₹1,000 

(D) ₹1,250 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 60 The pie charts shows the percentage market share of different companies in the market for the year 2017 and 2018. The total sale increased from 150 crores to 225 crores during 2017 to 2018. What is the ratio of sales of Company D in the year 2018 to its sales in the year 2017? 

(A) 16 : 21 

(B) 21 : 16 

(C) 27 : 20 

(D) 20 : 27 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 An article was bought for ₹ 400 and a repairing charge of ₹ 50 was paid on it. It is sold at a profit of 20%,after a discount of 10% on its marked price. The marked price is: 

(A) ₹540 

(B) ₹640 

(C) ₹580 

(D) ₹600 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 5 and the sum of their cubes is 1512. The square of their difference is: 

(A) 2.25 

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 A right triangle contains the right angle between the sides 5 cm and 7 cm. A cone is generated by revolving about the side 5 cm. The volume of this cone is: 

(A) 51⅔ πcm3 

(B) 71⅔ πcm3 

(C) 81⅔ πcm3 

(D) 61⅔ πcm3 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 A can complete a task in 8 days and B in 16 days respectively. If they work together for 3 days, then the remaining part of the work left is: 

(A) 5/16

(B) 9/16

(C) 7/16

(D) 11/16

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 A and B together have ₹ 1800. If 4/3 of A’s amount is equal to ⅔ of B’s amount, how much does B have? 

(A) ₹1200 

(B) ₹900 

(C) ₹750 

(D) ₹600 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 The bar graph shows the number of cars sold by a distributor in each month from January to June. How many more cars did he sell in the second quarter as compared to the first? 

(A) 20 

(B) 25 

©   10 

(D) 30 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Number of cars sold in first quarter = 100+85+60 = 245 

Number of cars sold in second quarter = 95+110+70 = 275 

Therefore, 30 more cars sold in second quarter than first quarter. 

 

Q. 67 A hollow iron pipe is 10 cm long and its external diameter is 18 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 2 cm and iron weighs 8.5 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe from the following is closest to: 

(A) 8.54 kg 

(B) 9.54 kg 

(C) 7.54 kg 

(D) 5.54 kg 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 In the first 20 overs of a cricket game, the average run rate was 5.50, what should be the required average run rate in the remaining 30 overs to achieve a target of 290 runs? 

(A) 5.75 

(B) 6.5 

(C)

(D) 6.25 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Score made in first 20 overs = 20*5.5 = 110 runs 

Target = 290 runs 

Remaining score = 290-110 = 180 runs 

Required run rate per over = 180/30 = 6 

 

Q. 69 A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹ 400 in 4 years and ₹ 420 in 5 years. What is the sum? 

(A) ₹340 

(B) ₹220 

(C) ₹320 

(D) ₹200 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, Amount for 4 years = Rs.400 

Amount for 5 years = Rs.420 

Then, Simple Interest for 1 year = 420-400 = Rs.20 

Simple Interest for 4 years = Rs.20*4 = Rs.80 

Then, Principal = Rs.400-Rs.80 = Rs.320 

 

Q. 70 220 articles dropped in a water tank which is 52 m long and 47 m broad. If the average displacement of water by an article is 4.5 m3, then the approximate rise in the water level will be: 

(A) 40.5 cm 

(B) 20.5 cm 

(C) 12.5 cm 

(D) 30.5 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 x buys a scooter for ₹ 40,000 and spends ₹ 5,000 on its repair. He sells it for ₹ 54,000. What is the gain percent? 

(A) 12.50% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 15% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 72 The average age of husband, wife and their child 4 years ago was 26 years and that of wife and child 3 years ago was 22 years. What is the present age of the husband? 

(A) 44 years 

(B) 46 years 

(C) 42 years 

(D) 40 years 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 73 What is the value of: 

8 × 3 ÷ 6 + 7 − 4 × 2 ÷ 4 + 8 − 10 =? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 The HCF and LCM of 2 numbers are 2 and 60 respectively. If one of the numbers is 14 more than the other, then the smaller number is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 Two stations P and Q are 570 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from P at 5 a.m. and travels towards Q at 90 km/h. Another train starts from Q at 6 a.m. and travels towards P at a speed of 70 km/h. At what time will they meet? 

(A) 11 a.m. 

(B) 9 a.m. 

(C) 1 p.m. 

(D) 3 p.m. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Distance between P and Q = 570 km 

Speed of first train = 90 km/hr 

Speed of second train = 70 km/hr 

Second train starts after 1 hour of start of first train. 

Then, First train travels 90 km in that 1 hour. 

Remaining distance = 570 km – 90 km = 480 km 

Relative speed = 90+70 = 160 km/hr 

Time taken to meet = 480/160 = 3 hours. 

Hence, They will meet 3 hours after 6am = 9am 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Hit a bad patch 

(A) Cameacross stormy weather 

(B) Hada bumpycar ride 

(C) Went through manyillnesses 

(D) Experienced difficulty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

These medicines are ………. for curing cold. 

(A) natural 

(B) effective 

(C) powerful 

(D) proper 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Ships are madeofiron and a parts of them remains under water. 

(A) under water 

(B) Ships are 

(C) made of iron 

(D) a parts of 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 Select the antonym of the given word. 

DISTANT 

(A) Beyond 

(B) Close 

(C) Remote 

(D) Far 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Man of straw 

(A) Weak 

(B) Selfish 

(C) Useless 

(D) Stubborn 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 81 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Inevitable 

(B) Intelligence 

(C) Idiosyncracy 

(D) Incredible 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

 

Q. 82 A well-known animal living in Antarctica are a penguins. 

(A) is a penguin 

(B) No substitution required 

(C) is the penguin 

(D) are penguin 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 The weather reports is prepared by the Meteorological Department of the Government. 

(A) prepared 

(B) is prepare 

(C) are prepared 

(D) No substitution required 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

I will write a letter to you ……….. the dates of the programme. 

(A) urging 

(B) indicating 

(C) involving 

(D) propagating 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

Orissa was hit by a cyclone with a wind speed of 200 km/h on 18 October 1999. The cyclone (1)…… 45,000 houses making 7,00,000 people homeless. (2)………. 29 October the same year, a second cyclone (3)………….. a wind speed of 260 km/h hit Orissa again. It was (4)…………. by water waves about 9 metre high. Thousands of people (5)……………. their lives. Property worth crores of rupees was destroyed. 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) smashed 

(B) burst 

(C) exploded 

(D) crashed 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) In 

(B) From 

(C) By 

(D) On 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) in 

(B) from 

(C) of 

(D) with 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) accompanied 

(B) increased 

(C) started 

(D) furnished 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) gave 

(B) left 

(C) finished 

(D) lost 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 90 Select the antonym of the given word. 

FLOOD 

(A) Overflow 

(B) Drought 

(C) Outpouring 

(D) Abundance 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

Animals adapt themselves for survive in the conditions in which they live. 

(A) to survive in 

(B) by surviving in 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) for survival on 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Emperors need more resources ………… kings because empiresare larger than kingdoms. 

(A) than 

(B) of 

(C) as 

(D) for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. When food gets spoil, it produces a foul smell. 

(A) When food 

(B) a foul smell 

(C) it produces 

(D) get spoil 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The Qutub Minar in Delhi, the world heritage site, is more than 1600 years old. 

(A) the world heritagesite 

(B) The Qutub Minar 

(C) is more than 

(D) 1600 years old 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

 

Q. 95 A person who is blamed for something that someone else has done. 

(A) Volunteer 

(B) Scapegoat 

(C) Athlete 

(D) Culprit 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 A person who knows and is able to use several languages. 

(A) Polygamist 

(B) Bilingual 

(C) Agnostic 

(D) Polyglot 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The blue whale has the largest tongue which can weigh ……….. an elephant. 

(A) Many more as 

(B) as much as 

(C) much 

(D) more as 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Inevitable 

(B) Irresistible 

(C) Incredible 

(D) Incidently 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the synonym of the given word. 

RELISH 

(A) Enjoy 

(B) Hate 

(C) Detest 

(D) Dislike 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the synonym of the given word. 

STUBBORN 

(A) Obstinate 

(B) Adaptable 

(C) Cooperative 

(D) Obedient 

Answer: (A) 

Latest Current Affairs 05 October 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

Lakhimpur Kheri incident: SKM writes to President seeking action, Congress seeks dismissal of MoS Ajay Mishra, arrest of his son

The Samyukt Kisan Morcha (SKM) has written to President Ram Nath Kovind demanding action against the killing of farmers at Lakhmipur Kheri in Uttar Pradesh on Sunday afternoon, allegedly by being run over by vehicles in a Union Minister’s convoy. Farm unions protesting in front of district collectors’ offices in various parts of the country on Monday, between 10 a.m. and 1 p.m., were expected to submit copies of this letter to the President via district officials. The SKM’s demands were outlined in the letter, calling for Minister of State for Home Affairs Ajay Kumar Mishra to be immediately dismissed from his post and a case filed against him for inciting violence and spreading communal hatred. It urged that Mishra’s son and others associated with the attack be booked under Section 302 (murder) and arrested immediately, and that the investigation be carried out by a Special Investigation Team under the supervision of the Supreme Court. The letter alleged that the involvement of Mishra’s son and his associates in the murderous attack showed a deep conspiracy of Uttar Pradesh and Central governments. It pointed to earlier inflammatory and derogatory speeches against farmers by Mishra, as well as statements by Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar inciting party workers to take up lathis against farmers, and claimed that this was the context in which the Lakhimpur Kheri incident took place. The SKM has also called for Khattar to be sacked. It is clear from these incidents that these persons sitting in constitutional posts are using their positions for planned violence against ‘annadatas’ doing peaceful agitation. This is a crime as per the laws of the country, against the Constitution and the country, said the letter. In a related development, the Uttar Pradesh government on Monday announced that a retired High Court judge will probe the Lakhimpur Kheri violence and that it will give ₹45 lakh compensation to the families of the four farmers killed in the incident. The government will also give ₹10 lakh to those injured in the violence, said Additional Chief Secretary, Home, Awanish Awasthi. An agreement has been reached with the farmers. The government will give ₹45 lakh to the family members of the four farmers who were killed in the violence on Sunday. Besides, one member from their families will be given a government job at the local level, he said. The government will give ₹10 lakh to the injured and get the incident probed by a retired High Court judge, he said. Meanwhile, the Congress on Monday demanded the immediate dismissal of Union Minister of State for Home Ajay Mishra and the arrest of his son, who has been named in an FIR by the Uttar Pradesh Police. The party also demanded enhanced compensation of ₹1 crore for each of the farmers killed and sought immediate release of Priyanka Gandhi Vadra, who the leaders alleged has been illegally detained by the Uttar Pradesh Police. The Congress said it would hold protests outside the offices of all district magistrates across the country on Tuesday to protest against the incident. The Congress leaders protested outside UP Bhawan in the national capital and staged agitations elsewhere in the nation.

 

SC to decide whether the right to protest is an ‘absolute right’

The Supreme Court on Monday lashed out at farmers’ organisations for continuing with the protests against the Centre’s agricultural laws, saying that when the agitation snowballed into violence as in Uttar Pradesh’s Lakhimpur Kheri, where eight people were killed, nobody takes rresponsibility When such incidents happen, causing deaths, loss to property and damage, nobody takes responsibility, Justice A.M. Khanwilkar observed. Attorney General K.K. Venugopal described the Lakhimpur Kheri violence on Sunday an unfortunate incident. The top law officer for the government said the court should make it very clear that protests should not continue when the challenge against the farm laws were in the highest court of the country. No more unfortunate incidents like this should take place… The protests must stop, Venugopal, supported by Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, submitted. But how can there be protests when the matter is sub judice here? Why are there protests when the laws have been kept in abeyance? It is intriguing, there is no Act in place at the moment. The Act is stayed. The government has assured it will not give effect to it… So what is this protest for, Justice Khanwilkar, flanked by Justice C.T. Ravikumar on the Bench, asked Kisan Mahapanchayat, a farmers’ organisation. The farmers’ body wanted to sit on a ‘satyagraha’ at the Jantar Mantar in protest. Justice Khanwilkar said the farm laws were passed by the Parliament. The government is also bound by the laws passed by the Parliament… We are on principle here, once you go to court, how can the same party say that matter is before court, nevertheless I will still protest, the judge observed. The court, in its order, decided to frame legal questions in the issue. The Bench said it would first decide whether the right to protest was an absolute right. The court said it would decide whether farmers’ bodies could resort to protests on a subject — the legality of three farm laws — which was already sub judice. First we will decide these legal questions and then we will examine your question [whether permission can be granted to sit on ‘satyagraha’ at the Jantar Mantar], Justice Khanwilkar addressed Kisan Mahapanchayat. The Supreme Court fixed the case for final hearing on the two legal questions on October 21. It ordered the transfer of a case filed by Kisan Mahapanchayat in Rajasthan High Court on the same issue to itself. The Bench asked the Centre to file a consolidated counter-affidavit.

 

Government promises probe into ‘Pandora Papers’ leak

The government has promised an investigation into the revelations in the ‘Pandora Papers’ and assured appropriate action in such cases as per law, the Finance Ministry said in a statement on Monday evening. Stating that only ‘a few Indians’ have been named in the papers so far, the Ministry said investigations in cases of Pandora Papers leaks appearing in the media will be monitored through a multi-agency group. Anil Ambani, Vinod Adani, Jackie Shroff, Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, Niira Radia, Sachin Tendulkar and Satish Sharma, are among the 300 Indians mentioned in the list so far. The government will also proactively engage with foreign jurisdictions for obtaining information in respect of relevant taxpayers and entities, the Ministry said, adding that India is part of an Inter-Governmental Group that ensures ‘collaboration and experience sharing to effectively address tax risks associated with such leaks’. The multi-agency group headed by the Central Board of Direct Taxes chairman, with representatives from the Enforcement Directorate, the Financial Intelligence Unit and the Reserve Bank of India, will keep a tab of the phased disclosures from the Pandora Papers indicated by the International Consortium of Investigative Journalists (ICIJ) website, the Ministry said. The website of ICIJ suggests that information will be released in phases and structured data connected to the Pandora Papers investigation will be released only in the days to come on its Offshore Leaks Database. It may be noted that following earlier similar such leaks in the form of ICIJ, HSBC, Panama Papers and Paradise Papers, the Government has already enacted the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 with an aim to curb black money, or undisclosed foreign assets and income by imposing suitable tax and penalty on such income, the Ministry said. Undisclosed credits of approximately ₹20,352 crore have been detected in the investigations carried out in the Panama and Paradise Papers by September 15. Rights group Oxfam India has called for immediate action by authorities and abolishing tax havens following the expose of the Pandora Papers. Tax havens cost governments around the world $427 billion each year. Developing countries are being hardest hit, proportionately. Corporations and the wealthiest individuals that use tax havens are out-competing those who don’t. Tax havens also help crime and corruption to flourish, Oxfam India CEO Amitabh Behar said. Abolishing tax havens can go a long way towards ensuring that governments actually have the access to tax revenue they need to fund quality public expenditure, he added. Many of the people whose names figure on the list have rejected financial misdoings. Among others, Biocon chief Mazumdar-Shaw on Monday said her hubsand’s offshore trust was bonafide and legitimate.

 

Stalin writes to 12 CMs to join hands against NEET, restore primacy of state govts in administering education

Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin on Monday wrote to his counterparts of 12 States — Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana, West Bengal and Goa — on the need to put up a united effort to restore the primacy of State governments in administering the education sector, as envisaged in the Constitution. He recalled a resolution adopted against the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) in the Assembly. Our considered position has always been that the move by the Union Government to introduce NEET goes against the spirit of federalism and violates the constitutional balance of power by curbing the rights of the State governments to decide on the method of admission in the medical institutions founded, established, and run by them, the letter said. Stalin enclosed the report submitted by Justice AK Rajan Committee, which was appointed by the State government to study whether the NEET-based admission process has affected the socially backward students in the past few years. The Committee was also requested to suggest alternative admission procedures which would benefit all students, the feasibility of implementing such alternatives, and the legal steps to be undertaken to implement such fair and equitable methods. Based on the recommendation of the Committee, the Tamil Nadu State Assembly recently passed an Act called Tamil Nadu Admission to Undergraduate Medical Degree Courses Act, 2021. We consider that the State governments need to assert their constitutional right and position in deciding the method of admission to their higher educational institutions he said. Stalin urged his counterparts to extend their support to ensure that the students of the respective States, especially those hailing from rural areas and marginalised sections of the society are not put to hardship in obtaining admissions to higher educational institutions. We need to put up a united effort to restore the primacy of State Governments in administering the education sector, as envisaged in our Constitution, the letter said.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

U.S. scientists David Julius, Ardem Patapoutian get Medicine Nobel for discovery of temperature, touch receptors

Two U.S.-based scientists were awarded the Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine on October 4 for their discovery of the receptors that allow humans to feel temperature and touch. David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian focused their work on the field of somatosensation, that is, the ability of specialised organs such as eyes, ears and skin to see, hear and feel. This really unlocks one of the secrets of nature, said Thomas Perlmann, secretary-general of the Nobel Committee, in announcing the winners. It’s actually something that is crucial for our survival, so it’s a very important and profound discovery. The committee said Julius, 65, used capsaicin, the active component in chilli peppers, to identify the nerve sensors that allow the skin to respond to heat. Patapoutian found separate pressure-sensitive sensors in cells that respond to mechanical stimulation, it said. The pair shared the prestigious Kavli Award for Neuroscience last year. Imagine that you’re walking barefoot across a field on this summer’s morning, said Patrik Ernfors of the Nobel Committee. You can feel the warmth of the sun, the coolness of the morning dew, a caressing summer breeze, and the fine texture of blades of grass underneath your feet. These impressions of temperature, touch and movement are feelings relying on somatosensation. Such information continuously flows from the skin and other deep tissues and connects us with the external and internal world. It is also essential for tasks that we perform effortlessly and without much thought, said Ernfors. Perlmann said he managed to get hold of both of the winners before the announcement. I only had a few minutes to talk to them, but they were incredibly happy, he said. And as far as I could tell they were very surprised and a little bit shocked, maybe. Last year’s prize went to three scientists who discovered the liver-ravaging hepatitis C virus, a breakthrough that led to cures for the deadly disease and tests to keep the scourge from spreading though blood banks. The prestigious award comes with a gold medal and 10 million Swedish kronor (over $1.14 million). The prize is the first to be awarded this year. The other prizes are for outstanding work in the fields of physics, chemistry, literature, peace and economics.

 

Australia won’t welcome international tourists until 2022

The Australian Tourism Export Council, which represents a sector that made $33 billion a year from international tourists before the pandemic, wants international visitors to return by March. International tourists won’t be welcomed back to Australia until next year, with the return of skilled migrants and students given higher priority, the Prime Minister said on October 5. Prime Minister Scott Morrison said Australia was expected to reach the vaccination benchmark on October 5 at which the country could begin to open up — 80% of the population aged 16 and older having a second shot. Last week, he outlined plans to allow vaccinated citizens and permanent residents to fly overseas from November for the first time since an extraordinarily tough travel ban took effect in March last year. But Mr. Morrison on October 5 said that after Australians, the next priority would be skilled migrants and international students entering Australia before tourists. Australian immigration has been at its lowest since World War II because of pandemic restrictions. The pandemic has also had a disastrous effect on Australian universities that rely heavily on fees paid by international students. The education sector fears that students will enroll in other countries unless Australia opens its border to them soon. The next priorities are skilled migrants that are very important for the country and who are double vaccinated, as well as students who are coming and returning to Australia for their studies, Mr. Morrison told Seven Network television. The Australian Tourism Export Council, which represents a sector that made $33 billion a year from international tourists before the pandemic, wants international visitors to return by March. Australia is racing to inoculate its population as an outbreak of the more contagious delta variant that began in Sydney in June continues to spread. Victoria State on October 5 reported a national record 1,763 new local infections. Australia’s second-most populous State also reported four COVID-19 deaths. The previous national record of 1,599 infections in 24 hours was set by New South Wales when its outbreak peaked on September 10. Hospitalizations peaked in Australia’s most populous State in mid-September. New South Wales leads the other States in vaccination rates and Sydney’s airport is expected to be the first to reopen to vaccinated travelers.

 

Latest Current Affairs 04 October 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

Two protesting farmers killed after being run over by car driven by Union Minister’s son, allege farmer bodies

Farmer bodies on Sunday claimed that two farmers protesting against BJP leaders were killed and several others were injured after they were run over by a car that allegedly was part of a convoy of Union minister of state for home affairs and BJP MP Ajay Kumar Mishra in Uttar Pradesh’s Lakhimpur Kheri district. Farmers in Tikonia area of Kheri had lined up on the roads with black flags to protest against the visit of Deputy Chief Minister Keshav Prasad Maurya to the district. The Samyukta Kisan Morcha, a body of farmers protesting against the three new farm laws, said a third farmer died after being shot and the car was driven by the MP’s son Ashish. The claims could not be independently verified yet and UP police are yet to comment on the incident or casualties. Following the incident, angry farmers set on fire and vandalised vehicles of the BJP leader and staged further protests as the area remained tense. Senior officials from Lucknow as well as farmer leaders rushed to the spot. Official statements from the police and the BJP leaders accused by the farmers for the incident are still awaited. Mishra told a Hindi news channel in a phone interview that the driver of his car, which was going to receive Maurya at the helipad, was injured and died after being struck by a stone. The driver then lost control of the car, causing the accident, he told News1 India channel. Mishra, also known as Teni, said he had invited Maurya as the chief guest at the annual wrestling event held in his village in the district, the Ambika Prasad Mishra Smriti Kushti Pratiyogita. The car was going to receive the Deputy CM from the helipad, said Mishra. Someone pelted a stone at the driver, he lost consciousness and died. He lost control of the car which caused an accident…some people were injured in the incident and some lost their lives, the minister and two-time MP said. The SKM said three farmers were killed and around 10, including SKM leader Tajinder Singh Virk, were seriously injured in the incident. SKM leader Darshan Pal said farmers had planned to gherao a helipad to prevent UP Deputy CM Keshav Prasad Maurya from landing. After the protests, the farmers were going back when three cars in the convoy of Mishra ran over the farmers, he alleged.

Mamata Banerjee wins Bhabanipur bypoll with record margin of over 58,000 votes 

West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee won the Bhabanipur Assembly bypoll on Sunday by a record margin of 58,832 votes against her nearest rival Priyanka Tibrewal of the BJP. This victory makes Banerjee a member of the West Bengal Legislative Assembly and will allow her to continue as Chief Minister of West Bengal. She had contested the Assembly poll from Nandigram and lost to BJP’s Suvendu Adhikari by a margin of 1,956 votes. She was unanimously elected Chief Minister by the Trinamool Congress legislature party in May 2021. The numbers of voters at Bhabanipur are relatively less and about 1.15 lakh votes were polled this time. This time we have won by a margin of 58,832 votes, Banerjee told media persons outside her residence. The Chief Minister said the results would provide her encouragement to work more for the people of the State. Banerjee had represented Bhabanipur seat in 2011 and 2016. In the 2021 Assembly poll, Trinamool Congress candidate Sobhandeb Chattopadhyay had defeated BJP Rudranil Ghosh by a margin of 28,790 votes. In 2011, the TMC chairperson had won Bhabanipur with a margin of over 54,000 votes. Highlighting that the margin of victory had surpassed all previous records, the Chief Minister said that in every ward of the constituency she had won on this occasion. She said that about 46 % of the electorate of the constituency were non-Bengali, and they also overwhelmingly voted for her. The BJP fielded Tibrewal, who secured about 25,000 votes. Elections to Bhabanipur and two other constituencies, Jangipur and Samserganj, were held on September 30. TMC candidate Amirul Islam won Samserganj by a margin of 26,379 votes by defeating his nearest rival, a Congress candidate from the seat. At  Jangipur Assembly polls, TMC’s Jakir Hussain defeated the BJP candidate by a margin over 92,480 votes. With these victories, the TMC has increased its tally in the West Bengal Assembly to 219.  TMC had won 213 seats in the Assembly polls but its MLA from Bhabanipur had resigned. Four legislators of the BJP had defected to TMC and three won the by polls on Sunday, taking the tally to 219. The Trinamool Congress chairperson also announced candidates for bypolls for three of the four seats that are scheduled in the first week of October. Chattopadhyay, who had resigned from Bhabanipur to allow the Chief Minister to contest the bypolls, will contest from Khardah seat in North 24 Parganas, and Udayan Guha will contest from Dinhata in Cooch Behar district. The TMC has nominated Braj Kishor Goswami from Sanntipur. The BJP has won Dinhata and Santipur in the 2021 Assembly polls, but two sitting MPs, Nisith Pramanik and Jaganath Sarkar, did not take oath as MLAs from the respective constituencies.

New DGP after consulting Sidhu: Channi 

Punjab Chief Minister Charanjit Singh Channi on Sunday said that a new Director General of Police (DGP) would be appointed soon in consultation with the Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chief Navjot Singh Sidhu and other ministers. His comments came hours after Sidhu had tweeted that DGP Iqbal Preet Singh Sahota and Advocate General (AG) Amar Preet Singh Deol must be replaced as their appointments are like rubbing salt on the wounds of the victims of the sacrilege issue. Sidhu’s latest tweet comes just days after Chief Minister Charanjit Singh Channi reached out to him for a compromise after he sprang a surprise by resigning as the Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chief to protest against these appointments. Speaking to reporters on the sidelines of a government programme to announce debt waiver for farm labourers and landless farmers, the Chief Minister said, as mandated by law, the State government has already forwarded the names of all senior police officers with 30 years of experience to the Centre. Now, it is awaiting the Centre’s clearance to a panel of three names from which the new DGP would be appointed, a statement from the Chief Minister’s Office (CMO) said. The name would be finalised after consultation with Sidhu, and all the ministers and MLAs, the CMO statement added. Channi also told reporters that a coordination committee has been constituted for better coordination between the government and the PCC. Earlier, in the day, Sidhu had tweeted that not replacing the DGP and the Advocate General would leave the Congress with no face. Demand for Justice in sacrilege cases and for arrest of main culprits behind the drug trade brought our Govt in 2017 & Due to his failure, People removed the last CM. Now, AG/DG appointments rub salt on wounds of victims, they must be replaced or we will have No face, Sidhu tweeted. In an attempt to placate him, the Channi government appointed R.S. Bains as Special Public Prosecutor to handle all the sacrilege-related cases. However, Sidhu, whose status as the PCC chief is still not clear as he has not formally withdrawn his resignation, seemed to harden his stance a day after his tweet that he would stand by the Gandhis, post or no post. Will uphold principles of Gandhi Ji & Shastri Ji … Post or No Post will stand by @RahulGandhi & @priyankagandhi ! Let all negative forces try to defeat me, but with every ounce of positive energy will make Punjab win, Punjabiyat (Universal Brotherhood) win & every punjabi win !! he had tweeted on Saturday. The cricketer-turned-politician, who has made the Bargari sacrilege issue the main poll plank ahead of next year’s Assembly polls, wants the DGP and AG changed for their roles, respectively, in the sacrilege issue. His objection to Deol is that he defended the former Punjab police chief Sumedh Singh Saini, an accused in the Behbal Kalan police firing case of 2015. Sahota has earned Sidhu’s ire as the head of a Special Investigation Team on the sacrilege issue that reportedly gave the Badals a clean chit.

Cruise ship drugs party: NCB arrests Shah Rukh Khan’s son Aryan Khan 

The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) on Sunday arrested Aryan Khan, son of Bollywood superstar Shah Rukh Khan, in connection with the seizure of banned drugs onboard a cruise ship off the Mumbai coast. Aryan Khan would be produced before a metropolitan magistrate’s court shortly. Advocate Satish Maneshinde would be representing Aryan Khan in court. Aryan Khan has been booked under various sections of the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPS) for possession and consumption of banned substances. He and seven others were detained late Saturday night by NCB sleuths after they raided the cruise ship on its way from Mumbai to Goa.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

Google removes 93,550 content pieces in August in India, shows compliance report 

Google received 35,191 complaints from users and removed 93,550 pieces of content based on those complaints in the month of August, the tech giant said in its monthly transparency report. In addition to reports from users, Google also removed 651,933 pieces of content in August as a result of automated detection. Google had received 36,934 complaints from users and removed 95,680 pieces of content based on those complaints in July. It had removed 5,76,892 pieces of content in July as a result of automated detection. The U.S.-based company has made these disclosures as part of compliance with India’s IT rules that came into force on May 26. Google, in its latest report, said it had received 35,191 complaints in August from individual users located in India via designated mechanisms, and the number of removal actions as a result of user complaints stood at 93,550. These complaints relate to third-party content that is believed to violate local laws or personal rights on Google’s significant social media intermediaries (SSMI) platforms, the report said. Some requests may allege infringement of intellectual property rights, while others claim violation of local laws prohibiting types of content on grounds such as defamation. When we receive complaints regarding content on our platforms, we assess them carefully, it added. The content removal was done under several categories, including copyright (92,750), trademark (721), counterfeit (32), circumvention (19), court order (12), graphic sexual content (12) and other legal requests (4). Google explained that a single complaint may specify multiple items that potentially relate to the same or different pieces of content, and each unique URL in a specific complaint is considered an individual item that is removed. Google said in addition to reports from users, the company invests heavily in fighting harmful content online and using technology to detect and remove it from its platforms. This includes using automated detection processes for some of our products to prevent the dissemination of harmful content such as child sexual abuse material and violent extremist content. Under the new IT rules, large digital platforms with over 5 million users will have to publish periodic compliance reports every month, mentioning the details of complaints received and action taken thereon. The report needs to also include the number of specific communication links or parts of the information that the intermediary has removed or disabled access to in pursuance of any proactive monitoring conducted using automated tools. Recently, Facebook and WhatsApp also released their compliance reports for the month of August. Facebook said it had actioned about 31.7 million content pieces across 10 violation categories proactively during August in the country, while its photo-sharing platform Instagram took action against about 2.2 million pieces across nine categories during the same period proactively. In its report, WhatsApp said it had banned over two million accounts in India, while 420 grievance reports were received by the messaging platform in the month of August.

 

Shringla visits Trincomalee oil tank farm, key India-Sri Lanka economic partnership link.

Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla on Sunday visited the World War II-era oil storage facility in the strategically advantaged port district of Trincomalee in Sri Lanka’s east coast, which has been a key bilateral economic partnership link for decades. The Trincomalee Harbour, one of the deepest natural harbours in the world, was developed by the British during the World War II. Since 2003, the Lanka IOC, (LIOC) the Sri Lankan subsidiary of India’s oil major Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), has the leasing rights to 99 tanks at the facility for a period of 35 years for an annual payment of $100,000. According to the Indian High Commission, the LIOC briefed Foreign Secretary Shringla about the developments undertaken at the tank farm and the possibilities for further strengthening India and Sri Lanka energy partnership to enhance Sri Lanka’s energy security. The Indian mission also tweeted pictures of Shringla at the Trincomalee oil tank farm. Foreign Secretary @harshvshringla was happy to be with LIOC for the launch of LIOC’s new product – ‘Servo Pride ALT 15W-40’ during the visit, it said in a tweet. His visit to the site assumes significance as oil sector trade unions in Sri Lanka have demanded that tanks be brought under the control of the state fuel entity Ceylon Petroleum Corporation (CPC). As per the agreement, the IOC was also given one-third share of the Sri Lankan government entity, Petroleum Storage Limited. However, the CPC trade unions had been pressing for the takeover of the tanks. Initially, the CPC wanted to develop 25 of the tanks by investing USD 25-30 million. The CPC maintains that it will allow them to strengthen their oil storage and distribution in the north and eastern provinces while allowing stock maintenance to suffice 2-3 months. Shringla arrived in Sri Lanka on Saturday on a four-day visit during which he will meet the top leadership, including President Gotabaya Rajapaksa and Prime Minister Mahinda Rajapaksa, and review the bilateral ties between India and the island nation

Latest Current Affairs 03 October 2021

 NATIONAL NEWS 

Prices of petrol, diesel and cooking gas soar again

The price of petrol in Delhi rose to its highest ever level of ₹102.14 a litre and to ₹108.19 in Mumbai, according to a price notification of state-owned fuel retailers, making it the fourth time the government has effected a price hike, which is sure to have a cascading effect on the prices of other essential commodities. Petrol and diesel prices soared high across the country on Saturday after rates were hiked again by 25 paise and 30 paise a litre, respectively. The CNG price too was hiked by Rs 2.28 per kg and that of cooking gas by Rs 2.10 in Delhi. Along with petrol price hike, Diesel rates touched a record high of ₹90.47 in Delhi and ₹98.16 a litre in Mumbai. The price hike follows international oil prices soaring to near three-year high as global output disruptions forced energy companies to draw more crude oil out of their stockpiles. The fourth increase in its rates this week has sent petrol prices above ₹100 in most major cities of the country. Similarly, the seventh increase in prices in nine days has shot up diesel rates above ₹100 mark in several cities in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. State-owned Indian Oil Corp (IOC), Bharat Petroleum Corp Ltd (BPCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corp Ltd (HPCL) resumed daily price revisions on September 24 after international oil prices neared a three-year high. Global benchmark Brent crude is trading above $78 per barrel. India is dependent on imports to meet nearly 85% of its oil needs and so benchmarks local fuel rates to international oil prices.

Uncle and nephew cannot use the same party symbol, says EC

The Election Commission stepped into the uncle and nephew feud of the Lok Janshakti Party by passing an order that both factions of the Lok Janshakti Party (LJP), led by Union Minister Pashupati Kumar Paras and Lok Sabha MP Chirag Paswan, would not be allowed to use the party’s name or symbol for the upcoming Bihar Assembly by-polls. The interim order would cover the period of the by-elections to Kusheshwar Asthan and Tarapur Assembly constituencies and continue till the EC makes a final determination of the dispute, the order said. The two sides had staked claim to the LJP name and symbol, but with the last date for nominations of candidates for the by-polls being October 8, the EC said that the time available is not adequate to ensure the due process. Paswan had in his oral submission on October 1 sought a decision before October 8, the order said. The elections were announced on September 28 and polling is scheduled for October 30.  The EC said …in order to place both the rival groups on even keel and to protect their rights and interests, and going by the past precedence, both groups would not be permitted to use the LJP name and bungalow symbol, which is reserved for the party in Bihar. The two groups could choose names of their own and pick symbols from the list of available symbols notified by the EC, the EC said. The groups were asked to submit the names and three choices of symbols by Monday afternoon. In addition, they were asked to submit documents supporting their claim to represent the party by November 5. After the death of LJP founder Ram Vilas Paswan last year, his son, Chirag Paswan, and his brother, Paras, both staked claim to the party leadership.  Paras wrote to the EC on June 14 claiming to be the LJP leader in Parliament, the order stated. Chirag Paswan informed the EC in a series of letters about the party suspending five MPs, including Paras. Chirag Paswan reiterated his claim of being the party president on September 10, the EC said.  

Government clears seven names as HC judges

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Saturday said the government has so far cleared seven of the 106 names recommended as High Court judges by the Supreme Court Collegium since May. Of the nine new Chief Justices of various High Courts suggested by the Collegium to the government from May, the latter has cleared one. Since May, my team so far has recommended appointment of 106 Judges and nine new Chief Justices to various High Courts. The government has cleared seven names out of the 106 judges and one out of the nine Chief Justices, so far. I expect that the government will clear the rest of the names very soon, Chief Justice Ramana said. The CJI, however, remarked that Law Minister Kiren Rijiju has agreed to process the rest of the names in a short while. Chief Justice Ramana was speaking at the inaugural function of the six-week ‘The Pan India Legal Awareness and Outreach Campaign’ organised by the National Legal Services Authority. The CJI’s speech was made in the presence of President Ram Nath Kovind,  Rijiju and Supreme Court judges and Collegium members Justices U.U. Lalit and A.M. Khanwilkar. The CJI said the appointments, as they come through from the government side, would take care of the issues of pendency in the High Courts to some extent. I seek the cooperation and support of the government to enable access to justice and to strengthen democracy, Chief Justice Ramana said. The CJI said the endeavour of the nation should be to carry the flag of justice to its remotest corner and to the weakest person. Chief Justice Ramana said inclusive growth can only be attained through equal and inclusive access to justice. Unequal access to justice leads to greater gaps in social fabric. Apart from pendency, vacancies and piling up of thousands of cases, the pandemic has exposed some deep-rooted problems in society. Lack of health care, eviction from home and uncertainty about one’s next meal — all these overflow from absence of justice, Chief Justice Ramana said. President Kovind commended the legal service authorities for reaching out to the poorest in the country. He emphasised the need to have more women lawyers participating in legal aid services to bring legal relief to more women. As a country, our aim is to graduate from ‘women development’ to ‘women-led development’. Therefore, increasing the number of women in National Legal Services Institutions is as important as reaching out to the largest possible number of women beneficiaries, the President said. The CJI said socio-economic growth would be impossible to achieve without equal access to justice.

Baghel firmly in saddle

Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel was appointed as senior observer for Congress ahead of the Assembly elections in Uttar Pradesh, settling once for all the question of  Baghel’s continuation in the Chief Minister’s chair.  State Health Minister TS Singh Deo had staked claim for the CM’s post invoking a promise made in 2018 by then party president Rahul Gandhi agreeing to a rotational tenure between him and Baghel. As per the arrangement, the Chief Minister’s post was supposed to go to him on June 18, the halfway mark of five-year tenure of the government. That is unlikely to happen any time now. The appointment of Baghel as senior observer is not entirely unexpected for the CM had played an active role as a senior observer ahead of the Assam Assembly elections. His close associate Rajesh Tiwari was appointed as the AICC secretary in the State assisting general secretary in-charge Priyanka Gandhi Vadra. Baghel’s political advisor Vinod Verma has also been stationed in U.P. for more than one month now.  The Congress needs an OBC face, specifically a Kurmi leader. Baghel fits in that role. His appointment sends a clear message that the party values him, a senior leader close to Baghel said.  The timing of the appointment is equally significant for Team Baghel. On August 27, at the end of a four-hour long meeting with former party president Rahul Gandhi, Baghel had announced that Mr. Gandhi would be visiting Chhattisgarh. His impending visit had started to be seen as a stock taking exercise to weigh in on the question of Baghel vs Mr. Singh Deo. The fact that the appointment comes before his visit clearly shows the trust he and the leadership bestows on the Chief Minister, the leader said.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

India, China militaries may hold talks next week, says Naravane

India and China may be having their 13th round of senior military commander level talks next week to resolve the boundary stand-off at eastern Ladakh, Chief of the Army Staff Gen M M Naravane said on Saturday, after asserting that China enhanced their troop presence along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). We’re hopeful of having the 13th round of (Corps Commander level) talks in the second week of October and reaching a consensus on how disengagement will take place, Gen Naravane said in an interview to news agnecy ANI after taking stock of the Army’s operational preparedness on the ground. The Army Chief noted an increase in the People’s Liberation Army’s presence along the disputed boundary but observed that India matched them in equal strength. Chinese (troops) have been deployed in considerable numbers all across eastern Ladakh and northern front right up to our Eastern Command. Definitely there has been an increase in their deployment in the forward areas, which remains a matter of concern for us, he said. But we are monitoring all their developments. Based on whatever inputs we get we are carrying out matching developments in terms of infrastructure. At the moment, we are quite well poised to meet any eventuality. Each side has currently deployed 50,000-60,000 troops in areas close to the LAC. Since April 2020, the Indian and PLA troops have engaged in a sensitive face off at several locations at eastern Ladakh including the Galwan valley that witnessed a brutal hand-to-hand combat between the two sides leading to the death of 20 Indian soldiers and a large number of Chinese troops. After long negotiations over months, the two sides mutually withdrew front line troops from the northern and the southern banks of Pangong Tso as well as from the face-off point at Gogra Post. But the stand-off remained unresolved in other locations along the LAC. Asked about the disengagement through bilateral talks, Gen Naravane said: By and by, all friction points will get resolved. I am of the firm opinion that we can resolve our differences through dialogue. I am hopeful we will be able to achieve results. Meanwhile, to improve its firepower, the Indian Army deployed the K-9 Vajra made-in-India howitzers in eastern Ladakh. More than 100 such guns have been inducted in the Army and there are plans to buy more. We have inducted an entire regiment and it adds to our firepower, Gen Naravane said. The Army also deployed light weight M-777 howitzers in the eastern sector of the LAC. The Army Chief also attended an event in which India’s largest flag, covering an area of 33,750 sq ft and weighing 1,400 kg, was unfurled atop a high mountain overlooking the Leh valley to commemorate Gandhi Jayanti and the 75th anniversary of India’s independence.

 

Gandhi Museum inaugurated at Noakhali in Bangladesh

On the occasion of the 152 birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, the renovated Gandhi Museum was inaugurated at the historic Gandhi Ashram Trust at Noakhali in Bangladesh. The inauguration was done by the Foreign Minister of Bangladesh Dr A K Abdul Momen, Law Minister Advocate Anisul Huq and High Commissioner of India to Bangladesh Vikram Doraiswami. The renovation of the Museum housed inside the Gandhi Ashram campus has been supported by India. The guests visited the Gandhi Memorial Museum and appreciated the unique display of memorabilia and artefacts related to Mahatma Gandhi. A seminar on the theme of Ahimsa, Satyagraha and the Mahatma – Revisited was also organised to commemorate the International Day of Non-Violence and the 152nd Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi at Gandhi Ashram, Noakhali as part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations. The event was also attended by former Minister for Cultural Affairs, Asaduzzaman Noor, MP, Aroma Dutta, MP, Tuomo Poutiainen, interim UN Resident Coordinator and ILO Country Director among other dignitaries. A large number of common people from the nearby areas participated enthusiastically in the programme. Speaking at the occasion, High Commissioner Vikram Doraiswami said that Gandhiji’s life and his message holds relevance even today. He recalled the remarks made by Prime Minister of Bangladesh, Sheikh Hasina during a UN event organized to commemorate 150 years of Mahatma Gandhi in 2019. She had said that Gandhiji’s love for common people and ideals of non-violence contributed to shaping Bangabandhu’s vision of struggle against oppression and tyranny perpetrated by the then regime of Pakistan. Foreign Minister Dr. A K Abdul Momen recalled the influence of Mahatma Gandhi on Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. He highlighted the continuing relevance of Gandhi’s principles of truth, non-violence, communal harmony and his deep environmental concern. A dance drama based on Rabindranath Tagore’s Chandalika was specially presented by Spandan Cultural Center from Dhaka on the occasion. Mahatma Gandhi had visited Noakhali in 1946-47. He toured hundreds of villages during his four month stay in Noakhali to establish peace in the area which was suffering communal violence in those days. Gandhi Ashram Trust was established to propagate the Gandhian ideals of peace, non-violence and communal harmony.

Latest Current Affairs 02 October 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

CJI for forming special panels led by HC CJs to probe plaints against ‘atrocities’ by police, bureaucracy

Chief Justice of India (CJI) N.V. Ramana said he was in favour of forming standing committees headed by the Chief Justices of the High Courts to investigate complaints received from the common man of atrocities committed by the bureaucracy, especially police officers, in the country. The CJI’s oral observation comes even as police officers are in the spotlight for committing serious crimes. Recently, police officers in Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh have been accused of causing the death of a businessman during a raid in a hotel. In Tamil Nadu, the CBI had charge-sheeted nine policemen for the custodial deaths of the father-son duo, P. Jayaraj and J. Benicks. There have been instances in which district administration officers were recorded on video physically manhandling citizens during the lockdown. We are very disturbed by what the bureaucracy, particularly police officers, are doing… I was in favour of forming standing committees led by Chief Justices of High Courts to look into complaints of atrocities committed by bureaucrats, especially police officers, in this country, Chief Justice Ramana said in court. The observation came when the court was reserving judgment on petitions filed by suspended Additional Director General of Police Gurjinder Pal Singh in Chhattisgarh. He had sought protection from arrest in various criminal cases, including sedition, extortion and criminal intimidation, arraigned against him by the current government. The court recently made oral observations in the case about how police officers act with impunity with one government but have to pay back with interest when there is a regime change. It had, in an earlier instance, wondered at the plight of police officers caught between rival political parties who come to power one after the other. The Bench had highlighted how police officers become targets of political vendetta, stating that it was a sad state of affairs. The CJI said orally, When a political party is in power, police officers side with a particular party. Then when a new party comes into power, the government initiates action against those officials. The court stated that this new trend needed to be checked in its tracks. The court had granted Singh protection from arrest in the sedition case. Senior lawyers F.S. Nariman and Vikas Singh appeared for him and the State government was represented by senior advocates Mukul Rohatgi and Rakesh Dwivedi. Cases of sedition and other offences were lodged against Singh by the Congress-led Chhattisgarh government.

Farmers strangulating New Delhi with protests against farm laws, says Supreme Court 

The Supreme Court on Friday accused farmers of strangulating the city [New Delhi] with their protest against farm laws. A Bench led by Justice A.M. Khanwilkar was hearing a petition filed by Kisan Mahapanchayat, a farmers’ body, for a direction to the Delhi Police to permit them to go on ‘satyagraha’ at the iconic Jantar Mantar in the heart of the national capital. On one hand, you have been strangulating the entire city and blocking highways… now you want to enter the city and protest here? Justice Khanwilkar lashed out at the farmers’ body. The Bench asked why the farmers’ organisations continued with protests even after the laws were under challenge or sub judice in the Supreme Court. Are you then protesting against the judiciary? Once you have approached the court, let the law take its own course… But, instead, you continue with the protests and block the national highways… You have to trust us, Justice Khanwilkar, flanked by Justice C.T. Ravikumar, chided the farmers’ organisation. Justice Khanwilkar asked the farmers whether they had taken the permission of citizens who live near the protest sites on the national highways and public roads. Have you taken permission of the citizens living nearby? There is a right to protest, but there is a right to use public roads and free movement… You are even obstructing defence personnel’s movement. You block trains and then say you are protesting peacefully. There is no point in continuing to protest once you have come to the court, Justice Khanwilkar said. The Mahapanchayat’s counsel, advocate Ajay Choudhary, said the police had blocked the highways and not the farmers. The farmers only stressed on their right to protest peacefully. The Bench directed the petitioner to serve an advance copy of their petition to the Attorney-General and listed the case for Monday. The court also ordered the organisation to file an affidavit declaring they are not part of the protest being carried out, blocking the highways. Kisan Mahapanchayat has argued that the patently discriminatory, arbitrary and unreasonable action of the Delhi Police in preventing it from holding peaceful, unarmed and non-violent Satyagraha at a designated place in Jantar Mantar is in violation of basic democratic rights enunciated as fundamental rights under the Constitution.

Amarinder Singh, Harish Rawat in war of words as Congress crisis continues 

Amid the ongoing crises in the Congress party’s Punjab unit, the party’s State affairs in-charge Harish Rawat and former Punjab Chief Minister Amarinder Singh on Friday were embroiled in a war of words. After Rawat accused Capt. (retd.) Amarinder of failing to keep his promises on important issues and insisted that the latter was never humiliated in the Congress, the former chief minister rejected the claims, saying they were clearly prompted by the pathetic situation the party now found itself in Punjab after being on a winning spree for four and a half years. Three weeks before stepping down as CM, I had offered my resignation to Sonia Gandhi but she had asked me to continue, said Capt. Amarinder, adding that the humiliating manner in which he was pushed into resigning just hours before the CLP meeting that was clearly convened to oust him, was a matter of public record. The world saw the humiliation and the insult heaped on me, and yet Rawat is making claims to the contrary, he said, adding If this was not humiliation then what was it? The ex-CM of Punjab recalled that Rawat himself had publicly stated after meeting him that he was satisfied by his government’s track record on the 2017 poll promises. In fact, the Congress in-charge of Punjab had categorically stated, as recently as September 1, that the 2022 elections would be fought under his (Captain Amarinder’s) leadership and the high command had no intention of replacing him, he pointed out. So how can he now claim that the party leadership was dissatisfied with me, and if they were, then why did he deliberately keep me in the dark all this time? he said. On Rawat’s remarks that he [Capt. Amarinder] seemed to be under pressure, the former Chief Minister said the only pressure he had been under for the past few months was that of his own loyalty to the Congress, because of which he continued to tolerate insult after insult.

GoM to decide on winning bidder for Air India 

A Group of Ministers (GoM) led by Union Home Minister Amit Shah will meet soon to take a decision on the winning bidder for Air India, a top government official said. Air India Specific Alternative Mechanism [AISAM] will meet soon to decide, the official told The Hindu. AISAM is the name given to the GoM headed by Shah. It includes Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal and Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia. The statement means that while a decision has been taken on who has bagged Air India by the Committee of Secretaries, it is yet to be approved by the GoM. Earlier this month, Tata Sons and a grouping led by SpiceJet’s Ajay Singh placed their financial bids for Air India. The government will divest its 100% stake in Air India, Air India Express, and a 50% stake in ground handling company AISATS. The bids for the national carrier are being sought at enterprise value instead of equity value as the government had changed the bidding parameter for Air India. As per the plan, 15% of the total enterprise value will have to be paid upfront in cash to the government and the rest will be used to reduce the debt burden on the airline.

Process of renunciation of Indian citizenship simplified 

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has simplified the process for Indians who want to renounce their citizenship. Provisions have been made for applicants to upload documents online, with an upper limit of 60 days for the renunciation process to be completed. Over 6.7 lakh Indians renounced their citizenship between 2015-19, the Lok Sabha was informed in February. In 2018, the MHA revised the Form XXII under the Citizenship Rules for declaration of renunciation of citizenship, which for the first time included a column on circumstances/reasons due to which applicant intends to acquire foreign citizenship and renounce Indian citizenship. An official familiar with the subject said there was no sudden surge in the number of applications to renounce citizenship but the online process has been initiated to check fraudulent documents and reduce the compliance burden. As many as 1,41,656 Indians renounced their citizenship in the year 2015, while in the years 2016, 2017, 2018 and 2019, the numbers stood at 1,44,942, 1,27,905, 1,25,130 and 1,36,441, respectively. The Ministry issued new guidelines on September 16 stating that the form, after being filled online, has to be downloaded, signed and submitted at the District Magistrate’s office, if the applicant is in India, or at the nearest Indian mission, if she or he is in a foreign country. The applicant will also be interviewed by the DM before the certificate is issued, the Ministry said. Other than the passport, the applicant also needs to submit proof of address and proof of payment of fee. The Ministry stated that once a copy of the form had been received, the entire process for issuance of renunciation certificate would take 60 days after verification of documents. According to the 2009 Citizenship Rules, the fee to renounce citizenship for an applicant in India is ₹5,000, and for someone applying through an Indian mission in a foreign country is ₹7,000. The guidelines said that when a person ceases to be a citizen of India under Section 8(1) of Citizenship Act, 1955, every minor child of that person shall thereupon ceases to be a citizen of India. The minor child may, however, within one year of attaining full age apply to resume Indian citizenship. The guidelines are not clear if minors would also lose citizenship if only one of the parents gives up her/his Indian citizenship.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

India slaps tit-for-tat travel curbs on U.K. nationals 

India on Friday imposed reciprocal quarantine measures on citizens of the United Kingdom. Sources said the new regulations will enforce a 10-day quarantine on all British nationals in the way that the UK currently enforces similar quarantine measures on fully vaccinated Indian nationals. The new measures will come into effect from October 4, indicating that India-UK negotiations over the latter’s 10-day mandatory quarantine requirement have broken down. Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla had first mentioned the possibility of imposing reciprocal measures on September 21 as the UK had not relaxed the quarantine requirement till then. According to the new regulations, all British nationals arriving in India from the UK, irrespective of their vaccination status, will have to undertake pre-departure COVID-19 RT-PCR test within 72 hours before travel, followed by similar tests upon arrival at the Indian airport which is to be followed by another RTPCR test on the 8th day after arrival in India. That apart, the British travellers to India will have to be in mandatory quarantine at home or in the destination address for 10 days after arrival in India. The deepening dispute regarding vaccination certificates and the quarantine period has cast a shadow on expected high level visits from London to India. Sources explained that the move will not affect the Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) staying in the UK with permits but is likely to affect PIOs and OCI-card holders as they may be citizens of the UK. The new measures have been imposed though there is no tourist traffic from the UK to India at the moment as New Delhi has not resumed issuing tourist visas. However, it is understood that the Indian move is being perceived as unexpected by the British side which had witnessed some positive progress in the dialogue over relaxing the UK’s quarantine requirement for Indian citizens. Informed Indian sources have, however, told The Hindu that the UK can make the necessary adjustments in its policy by October 4. The Indian announcement comes days after the UK recognised Covishield vaccine produced by the Serum Institute of India but retained the 10-day quarantine period for fully vaccinated travellers from India, which intensified the rift between the two sides. The UK had moved India from the ‘Red List’ to the ‘Amber List’ on August 8, reopening tourist visas for Indian travellers but maintained that the 10-day quarantine period would remain in place. British sources had earlier said that there were no issues related to the Covishield vaccine but there are technical difficulties that were preventing the UK from connecting with the Indian side, which is a requirement for verifying vaccination certificates.

 

India, US to set up joint working group on defence industrial security

As Chinese and Russian cyber-spies increase snooping via the internet to pick up American defence secrets, including stealth and long-range unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) technology, the US and Indian defence industrial establishments are developing joint protocols to block any leakage of classified information from their communications. To formalise and refine their joint security protocols, Washington and New Delhi held a five-day Industrial Security Agreement (ISA) summit that began on Monday and ended on Friday in the national capital. The summit was led by Designated Security Authorities (DSAs) from both sides. The Indian DSA is Anurag Bajpai from the Ministry of Defense (MoD), while the American DSA is David Paul Bagnati. The two sides reached an In principle agreement to establish an Indo-US Industrial Security Joint Working Group, said an Indian MoD statement on Friday. The Group is to meet regularly to align policies for defence industries to collaborate on critical defence technologies, it said. The US-India framework for industrial technology security began with an agreement termed General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA), which was signed on January 17, 2002 between the Indian and US defence ministers of that time, George Fernandes and Donald Rumsfeld. GSOMIA 2002 prescribes security standards and protocols for safeguarding information shared by the Pentagon with India’s defence ministry; and by US defence firms with Indian defence public sector undertakings (DPSUs). However, GSOMIA does not cover the exchange of classified information with Indian private industry. Washington wanted this covered too, given New Delhi’s emphasis on the proposed strategic partnership (SP) model of procurement. The SP model involves the manufacture of defence equipment by Indian private firms, using technology supplied by American original equipment manufacturers (OEMs). For this, Washington asked New Delhi to sign an annexure to GSOMIA 2000, which would cover the Indian private sector. That agreement, called the Industrial Security Agreement (ISA), was signed in December 2019. Now that is being taken further. During the summit, both sides agreed in principle to establish the Indo-US Industrial Security Joint Working Group. This group will meet periodically to align the policies and procedures expeditiously that will allow the (two countries’) defence industries to collaborate on cutting edge defence technologies, stated the Indian MoD on Friday. The DSAs also visited selected Indian defence industries to prepare for setting up a roadmap. GSOMIA 2000 is not a public document. It is one of four agreements – initially termed foundational agreements by Washington, but subsequently toned down to enabling agreements – that US legislation requires for facilitating deeper defence cooperation with India. A second agreement, the Logistic Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) that facilitates mutual logistical inter-dependence, was signed in 2016 and the Communications Compatibility and Security Arrangement (COMCASA) in 2018. The last of the four — the so-called Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) for Geospatial Intelligence – was signed last October. This allows India’s military to access a range of US topographical, nautical and aeronautical data that enables more accurate missile and long-range unmanned airborne vehicle guidance and targeting.

SSC GD 11 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 11th Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Find the next number in the given series. 

101, 123, 147, 173, ? 

(A) 236 

(B) 201 

(C) 214 

(D) 223 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that will replace the question mark and complete the given pattern. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some cats are goats. 

2) All goats are cows. 

Conclusion: 

I. All cows are goats. 

II. Some cats are cows. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow 

(B) Either conclusion I or II follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Only conclusion I follows 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 68 

(B) 72 

(C) 48 

(D) 96 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 A, B, C, D, E and are six friends seating in a long bench. E and areat the center while A and B areat the two extreme ends.C is sitting to the immediate left of A. Can you identify who is sitting to the immediate right of B? 

(A) (C) 

(B) (D) 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

144 : 12 :: 576 : ? 

(A) 28 

(B) 26 

(C) 21 

(D) 24 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that is analogous to the given pair. 

Heart : Cardiology 

(A) Plants : Zoology 

(B) Phycology : Fungi 

(C) Disease : Hospital 

(D) Virus : Virology 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 If in a certain code language the word POLITICAL is written as QNMHUHDZM, then in the same code language how will you write the word SOCIAL? 

(A) DBKNTH 

(B) NTHDBK 

(C) DHBKIN 

(D) TNDHBK 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and are sitting at a circular table facing the centre.S is sitting third to the left of T. R is not sitting between T and U.S is not the immediate neighbor of R. Q is seated second to the right of T. Who is sitting between U and Q? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All women are girls. 

2) Some girls are painters. 

Conclusion: 

I. All girls are women. 

II. Some women are painters. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows 

(B) Both conclusions I and II follow 

(C) Neither conclusion I norII follows 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 11 What will be the value of the following equation if ‘ ÷ ’ means ‘addition’, ‘ + ’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘ − ’ means ‘multiplication’ and ‘ × ’ means ‘division’? 

49 × 7 − 3 ÷ 9 + 4 =? 

(A) 31 

(B) 26 

(C) 35 

(D) 39 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the secondterm is related to the first term. 

PURSE : UPRES :: RAZOR : ? 

(A) AROZR 

(B) AZROR 

(C) ARZRO 

(D) ARRZO 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 13 Select the pair of letters that will follow next in the given series. 

AB, GH, MN, ST, ? 

(A) YZ 

(B) VW 

(C) UV 

(D) XY 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship among the given set of classes: 

Metals, Silver, Gold 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 15 Find the next number in the given series. 

2, 10, 84, ? 

(A) 1028 

(B) 1229 

(C) 1124 

(D) 1032 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 16 Identify the mirror image of the following word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 If in a certain code language TERRACE is written as 70, then in the same code language how will you write the word BALCONY? 

(A) 74 

(B) 73 

(C) 72 

(D) 71 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 Pick the odd one out. 

(A) FGH 

(B) AEI 

(C) IOU 

(D) OUA 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 19 Pick the odd one out. 

(A) Detect 

(B) Perceive 

(C) Ignorance 

(D) Observe 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Five men P,Q, R, S and T are reading a newspaper. The one who reads it first, gives it to T. The one who reads it last, had taken it from R.Q is not the first or last one to read it. There were two readers between P and R. Who is the third one to have read the newspaper? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 Complete the number triad: 

(A)

(B) 17 

(C) 12 

(D) 15 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Identify the odd pair from the following. 

(A) Grapes : Bunch 

(B) Flowers : Bouquet 

(C) Bees : Swarm 

(D) Man : Class 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 24 Identify the figure from the options that has the given figure embedded in it. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Which option will replace the question mark and complete the given figure series? 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Who is the acting President of the BCCI as on Feb 2019? 

(A) Shashank Manohar 

(B) CK Khanna 

CVinod Rai 

(D) Anurag Thakur 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 The Pakistani General ………….. imposed military rule in his country in the year 1999. 

(A) Ziauddin Butt 

(B) Qamar Javed 

(C) Raheel Sharif 

(D) Parvez Musharraf 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 The Banaras Hindu University was founded by: 

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(C) Sir Syed Mohammad 

(D) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Ag is the chemical symbol of an expensive, soft, white and lustrous metal which commonly known as ………… 

(A) aluminium 

(B) nickel 

(C) mercury 

(D) silver 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 Who among the following is a famous singer of Hindustani classical music? 

(A) Shubha Mudgal 

(B) Poornima Sharma 

(C) Rita Ganguli 

(D) Naina Devi 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 The right of a person, party or nation to stop a certain decision or lawis called …….. 

(A) authority 

(B) vote 

(C) veto 

(D) power of attorney 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 Sodium hydroxide is NOT used for ……….. 

(A) making soap 

(B) making newspapers 

(C) degreasing metals 

(D) preserving pickle 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 ……….. took a hat-trick (three wickets) in the first over of the match against Pakistan in 2006, becoming the first and, to date, only bowler to do so. 

(A) Parthiv Patel 

(B) Rohit Sharma 

(C) Irfan Pathan 

(D) Sachin Tendulkar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 ………… was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India. 

(A) Pratibha Devi 

(B) Meira Kumar 

(C) Rama Devi 

(D) Nirmala Sitaraman 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Which of the following Steel plants of India does NOT come under the Public Sector? 

(A) TISCO 

(B) Rourkela Steel Plant 

(C) Bhilai Steel Plant 

(D) Durgapur Steel Plant 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 The book ‘The Origin of Species’ was written by ……….. 

(A) Louis Pasteur 

(B) James Watson 

(C) Charles Robert Darwin 

(D) Jane Good will 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Kathakali has its roots in the state of ………….. 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Karnataka 

(C) Andhra Pradesh 

(D) Tamil Nadu 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Who was Governor of the Reserve Bank of India who submitted his resignation in Dec 2018? 

(A) Urjit Patel 

(B) P Chidambaram 

(C) Narendra Modi 

(D) Dr. Manmohan Singh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Where is the Charminar located? 

(A) Sikandrabad 

(B) Mumbai 

(C) Panaji 

(D) Hyderabad 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 India and Srilanka are divided by ……….. 

(A) Gibraltar Strait 

(B) Bering Strait 

(C) Hormuz Strait 

(D) Palk Strait 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Which of the following are NOT a part of the circulatory system? 

(A) Capillaries 

(B) Villi 

(C) Veins 

(D) Arteries 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 42 Kharif crops can be described as the crops which are sown with the beginning of the …………. season. 

(A) Winter 

(B) Summer 

(C) Spring 

(D) Rainy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 Majuli, the largest riverine Island is found in which of the following rivers? 

(A) Narmada 

(B) Kaveri 

(C) Brahmaputra 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 In August 1858, the British parliament passed an act that set an endto the rule of the company, It was called ……….. 

(A) Government of India Act 

(B) Indian Trusts Act 

(C) Kazis Act 

(D) Fort William Act 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 The 2018 National Film Award for Best Actress was won by ………. 

(A) Deepika Padukone 

(B) Katrina Kaif 

(C) Sridevi 

(D) Alia Bhatt 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 The 2020 Olympic Games will be held in ……….. 

(A) Tokyo 

(B) Rio de Janeiro 

(C) Paris 

(D) Beijing 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 M.K Gandhi attended highly official meeting with …………. on the behalf of the Indian National Congress on negotiating terms of Constitutional reforms on 5 March 1931 

(A) Lord Curzon 

(B) Lord Ripon 

(C) Lord Irwin 

(D) Lord Clive 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 The Blue Revolution in India is related to ………….. 

(A) jute production 

(B) indigo production 

(C) agriculture 

(D) fish production 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 The Indian desert lies towards the western margins of the …………. 

(A) Kaimur Hills 

(B) Himadri 

(C) Nilgiri Hills 

(D) Aravalli Hills 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 ……….. is the smallest bone in the human body. 

(A) Carpals 

(B) Ulna 

(C) Radius 

(D) Stapes 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If x : y = 6 : 5 and z : y = 9 : 25, then what is the ratio of x : z ? 

(A) 50 : 33 

(B) 54 : 125 

(C) 10 : 3 

(D) 48 : 25 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, x : y = 6 : 5 and z : y = 9 : 25 

Multiplying x : y by 5 

x : y = 30 : 25 

y : z = 25 : 9 

Then, x : z = 30 : 9 = 10 : 3. 

 

Q. 52 If Manoj purchases 324 toffees for ₹ 486, then how many toffees should he sell for ₹ 90 to earn 50% profit? 

(A) 40 

(B) 60 

(C) 55 

(D) 45 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 53 If the length of the diagonal of a square is 14 cm, then what will be area of the square? 

(A) 156 cm2 

(B) 196 cm2 

(C) 98 cm2 

(D) 40 cm2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 54 Ravi, Manish and Naveen alone can complete a work in 30 days, 15 days and 10 days respectively. They start the work together but Ravi leaves the work after 2 days of the starting of the work and Manish leaves the work after 3 days more. In how many days Naveen will complete the remaining work? 

(A) 3 days 

(B) 4 days 

(C) 1 day 

(D) 2 days 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 30 units (LCM of 30, 15 and 10) 

Efficiency of Ravi = 30/30 = 1 unit per day 

Efficiency of Manish = 30/15 = 2 units per day 

Efficiency of Naveen = 30/10 = 3 units per day 

They worked together for 2 days. 

Work done in 2 days = 6*2 = 12 units 

Remaining work = 18 units 

Manish and Naveen worked for 3 days. 

Work done in 3 days = 5*3 = 15 units 

Remaining work = 3 units. 

3 units will be completed by Naveen in 1 day. 

 

Q. 55 A sum of ₹ 10640 gives interest of ₹ 3724 in x years at 5% simple interest. What will be the value of x ? 

(A) 8 years 

(B) 6 years 

(C) 7 years 

(D) 9 years 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 56 The Least Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of two numbers are 60 and 4 respectively. If their sum is 32, then what will be the difference of these two numbers? 

(A)

(B)

(C) 12 

(D) 20 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 After giving a discount of 20%, a shopkeeper earns 36% profit. Marked price is what percent more than the cost price? 

(A) 60% 

(B) 76% 

(C) 68% 

(D) 70% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 The bar chart given below shows the amount of sugar used in making 7 different varieties of sweets S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 and S7 has been shown as a percentage of total weight of the sweet. 

The total weight of sweet S3 is 450 kg. What is the amount of sugar used in sweet S3? 

(A) 72 kg 

(B) 35 kg 

(C) 25 kg 

(D) 31 kg 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 The perimeter of a square and a circle are same. If the area of the circle is 2464 cm2 , then what will be the area of the square? 

(A) 1936 cm2 

(B) 2116 cm2 

(C) 1296 cm2 

(D) 1764 cm2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 60 Piyush is running at the speed of 8 km/hr and he stops for 5 minutes to take rest at the end of every third km. What will be the time taken by Piyush to cover a distance of 56 km? 

(A) 7 hr 

(B) 8 hr 20 minutes 

(C) 8 hr 

(D) 8 hr 30 minutes 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 If cost price of an article is 30% less than the selling price of that article, then what will be the profit percentage? 

(A) 37.5% 

(B) 33.33% 

(C) 30% 

(D) 42.84% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 Height of right circular cylinder is 16 cm. If the diameter of its base is 3.5 cm, then what will be the volume of the cylinder? 

(A) 308 cm3 

(B) 616 cm3 

(C) 176 cm3 

(D) 154 cm3 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 Puneet goes to his office at the speed of 60 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of 90 km/hr. What will be the average speed of Puneet for the whole journey? 

(A) 20m/s 

(B) 25m/s 

(C) 72m/s 

(D) 30m/s 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 If (A) is 25% less than B, then what will be the value of (2B—A) / A ? 

(A) 5/4

(B) 3/2 

(C) ¾ 

(D) 5/3 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 A and B starts a business with investment of ₹ 28000 and ₹ 42000 respectively. A invests for 8 months and B invests for one year.If the total profit at the end of year is ₹ 21125, then what is the share of B? 

(A) ₹ 14625 

(B) ₹ 12625 

(C) ₹ 13575 

(D) ₹ 14285 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 The line chart given below shows the ratio of imports to exports for a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5.

If the imports for year Y5 is ₹ 76000 crore, then what will be exports (in crores) for the year Y5? 

(A) ₹ 82000 

(B) ₹ 80000 

(C) ₹ 84000 

(D) ₹ 78000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 What is the value of 4 2 + 2 – 12 148 – 3 14 + 6

(A) 15/16

(B) 31/16

(C) 19/16

(D) 17/16

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 Sumit, Ravi and Puneet invest ₹ 45000, ₹ 81000 and ₹ 90000 respectively to start a business. At the end of the year the total profit is ₹ 4800. 30% of the total profit gives in charity and rest is divided among them. What will be the share of Sumit? 

(A) ₹700 

(B) ₹1260 

(C) ₹1310 

(D) ₹1400 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 A sum becomes 6 times of itself in 4 years at compound interest (interest is compounded annually). In how many years will the sum becomes 216 times of itself? 

(A) 12 

(B) 20 

(C) 16 

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 A alone can make a chair in 40 days and B alone can make the same chair in 24 days. If A and B are working on alternate days and A work on the first day, then in how many days the chair will be completed? 

(A) 34 days 

(B) 32 days 

(C) 28 days 

(D) 30 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 The average of 35, 39, 41, 46, 27 and x is 38. What is the value of x? 

(A) 44 

(B) 40 

(C) 38 

(D) 42 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 72 The data given below shows the number of people who have saved a certain amount of money. 

What is the median of the given data? 

(A) ₹ 17.5 

(B) ₹ 25 

(C) ₹ 22.5 

(D) ₹ 20 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 73 The average of six numbers is N1, N2, N3, N4, N5 and N6 is A. 5 is subtracted from each number. What is the new average? 

(A) (A) – 30 

(B) (A) – 10 

(C) (A) – 6 

(D) (A) – 5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 The line chart given below shows the ratio of imports to exports for a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5.

Which of the following statement is true? 

(A) Exports for year Y3 are more than the exports for year Y2. 

(B) Imports for year Y3 are maximum for the given 5 years. 

(C) Data is Insufficient. 

(D) Imports for year Y1 are least for the given 5 years. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 What is the value of 6½ + 80 ÷ 40 − 30/7 of ( 5 – ⅓ )? 

(A) −21/2 

(B) −17/2 

(C) −23/2 

(D) −13/19 

Answer: (C) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The road was blocked since it was in repair. 

(A) since it was 

(B) in repair 

(C) was blocked 

(D) The road 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

FOYER 

(A) Kitchen 

(B) Verandah 

(C) Bedroom 

(D) Lobby 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

(A) short speech at the end of a play 

(A) Eulogy 

(B) Prologue 

(C) Epilogue 

(D) Chorus 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Embarrasment 

(B) Embarrassmment 

(C) Embarrassment 

(D) Embarassment 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

There is some truth in the common saying that while dogs become attached to persons, cats are generally (1)………… to places. (A) dog will follow his master anywhere, but a cat keeps to the (2)………… it is used to; and even (3)………… the house changes hand, the cat will remain there, so long as it is treated (4)………… by the new 

owners. (A) cat does not seem to be capable of (5)……….. often shown by a dog.It thinks most of its own comfort. 

 

Q. 80 Fill in blank (1) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) fond 

(B) attached 

(C) held 

(D) stuck 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Fill in blank (2) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) owner 

(B) lady 

(C) master 

(D) house 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Fill in blank (3) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) when 

(B) whenever 

(C) then 

(D) where 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Fill in blank (4) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) badly 

(B) kindly 

(C) softly 

(D) harshly 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Fill in blank (5) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) loyalty 

(B) keenness 

(C) kindness 

(D) hatred 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 85 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. They visited the Qutub Minar, which is most attractive spot in Delhi. 

(A) attractive spot 

(B) which is most 

(C) They visited 

(D) in Delhi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The …………. of the museum showed us some ancient coins. 

(A) controller 

(B) conservator 

(C) collector 

(D) curator 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Hiearchy 

(B) Hierarky 

(C) Hierarchy 

(D) Hirarchy 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The movie Uri tells the story of a surgical strike by the Indian army towards militants in POK. 

(A) for militants in POK 

(B) No improvement. 

(C) against militants in POK 

(D) over militants at POK 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 89 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

……………. taught you such lessons as these? 

(A) What 

(B) Which 

(C) Whom 

(D) Who 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

They showed her the greatest ………… 

(A) spraise 

(B) tribute 

(C) honour 

(D) respect 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Cutting corners 

(A) Spending too much money 

(B) Saving money 

(C) Making money 

(D) Lending money 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The questions are so simple that a child can understand it. 

(A) can understand them 

(B) No improvement. 

(C) is understanding them 

(D) can understand this 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

FRUITFUL 

(A) Useless 

(B) Productive 

(C) Barren 

(D) Juicy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

LENIENT 

(A) Generous 

(B) Helpful 

(C) Strict 

(D) Defensive 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. She complained about her weak eyes and lamented about the necessity from spectacles. 

(A) lamented about 

(B) from spectacles 

(C) She complained 

(D) her weak eyes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

A blessing in disguise 

(A) (A) hidden misfortune 

(B) An apparent fortune 

(C) An apparent blessing 

(D) (A) hidden favour 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

CONVEX 

(A) Opaque 

(B) Dense 

(C) Concave 

(D) Transparent 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A song written in the praise of God 

(A) Hymn 

(B) Elegy 

(C) Ode 

(D) Epic 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

Shakespeare ……….. this play. 

(A) write 

(B) is writing 

(C) has been writing 

(D) wrote 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The furniture in this room are old and need to be replaced. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) is old and needs 

(C) is old and need 

(D) are old and needing 

Answer: (B) 

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