SSC GD 12th Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Larva : Insect :: Lamb : ? 

(A) Sheep 

(B) Deer 

(C) Lion 

(D) Child 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 2 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is NOT allowed). 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Myanmar : Kyat :: Pakistan : ? 

(A) Rial 

(B) Dirham 

(C) Rupee 

(D) Dinar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) LHE 

(B) JPC 

(C) BFQ 

(D) DEP 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 5 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D.H is to the left of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting third to the right of C? 

(A) (D) 

(B) G 

(C) H 

(D) (A) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 In a certain code, UNHAPPY is written as PPYAHNU. How will FALLACY be written in that code? 

(A) ACYLAAF 

(B) ACYLLAF 

(C) YCALLAF 

(D) ACYLALF 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 7 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Owl 

(B) Crow 

(C) Ostrich 

(D) Eagle 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) Some guns are spiders. 

2.) Some spiders are peasants. 

Conclusion 

I. Some guns are peasants. 

II. Some peasants are guns. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 10 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

22 + 11 × 22 − 2 ÷ 3 = 45 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) − and × 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

8, 9, 17, 44, ? 

(A) 103 

(B) 105 

(C) 108 

(D) 100 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

ACG: DFD :: CIU : ? 

(A) LFR 

(B) FLR 

(C) RLL 

(D) EGF 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

NIX. LKV, JMT, HOR, …….. 

(A) FOP 

(B) FQP 

(C) FQQ 

(D) FQO 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 J, K L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, NOT necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Mondayto Saturday. NOT necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Who teaches Social Science? 

(A) J 

(B) M 

(C) N 

(D) O 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 15 In a certain code, SPADE is written as 45. How will ABODE be written in that code? 

(A) 59 

(B) 39 

(C) 29 

(D) 27 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 545 

(B) 314 

(C) 718 

(D) 415 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 9 

(B) 11 

(C) 13 

(D) 6 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

3, 16, 29, 42, ? 

(A) 57 

(B) 55 

(C) 54 

(D) 61 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

22 : 625 :: 13 : ? 

(A) 144 

(B) 221 

(C) 256 

(D) 169 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 21 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q. U is NOTsitting at any extreme end. is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting at the extreme left end? 

(A) S 

(B) Q 

(C) R 

(D) P 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) All pupils are crows. 

2.) All cats are crows. 

Conclusion 

I. Some cats are pupils. 

II. No cat is pupil. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 24 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Nepal, Asia, Kathmandu 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. 

Answer: (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following is NOT a classical dance form? 

(A) Kalbeliya 

(B) Kathakali 

(C) Odissi 

(D) Kathak 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 Saikhom Mirabai Chanu received the Padma Shri award in 2018, for ……….. 

(A) athletics 

(B) weight lifting 

(C) wrestling 

(D) cricket 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 In India, states with ………. of population get more representatives. 

(A) Lower Income 

(B) Small Size 

(C) Higher Income 

(D) Larger size 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 The pen name of Sampooran Singh Kalra, an Indian poet, lyricist and film director is …… 

(A) Arzu 

(B) Daagh 

(C) Gulzar 

(D) Taalib 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 ………. is the harvest festival of Kerala. 

(A) Baisakhi 

(B) Pongal 

(C) Lohri 

(D) Onam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 ……… is the highest military decoration awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valour during war. 

(A) Mahavir Chakra 

(B) Sena Medal 

(C) Param Vir Chakra 

(D) Shaurya Chakra 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 Among the following options, …….. is the highest mountain peak of the Himalayasin India. 

(A) Nanda Devi 

(B) Namcha Barwa 

(C) Mount Everest 

(D) Kanchenjunga 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 ……… is the best conductor of heat. 

(A) Lead 

(B) Mercury 

(C) Silver 

(D) Stainless steel 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 What is the name of the first mammal clone (sheep)? 

(A) Polly 

(B) Dolly 

(C) Shan 

(D) Sheep 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 Who was the only Pakistani national who was awarded the Bharat Ratna? 

(A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 

(B) Nawaz Sharif 

(C) Benazir Bhutto 

(D) Imran Khan 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 After Independence, ………. became India’s first Deputy Prime Minister. 

(A) Sardar Vallabhai Patel 

(B) Charan Singh 

(C) Jagjivan Ram 

(D) Morarji Desai 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 The green revolution did NOT include: 

(A) use of well-developed system of irrigation. 

(B) upgradation of the roads of the village. 

(C) use of advanced technology in farming. 

(D) high yielding varieties of seeds. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 The vast meadows in the high elevation ranges of the Himalayas are called ………. 

(A) Bhabar 

(B) Maru 

(C) Bugyal 

(D) Green meadows 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 Garba is a folk dance which originated in ………. 

(A) Gujarat 

(B) Maharashtra 

(C) Rajasthan 

(D) Bihar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 Zamindari System was introduced by ……….. in 1793. 

(A) Clint 

(B) Curzon 

(C) Cornwallis 

(D) Clive 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 The brainisapartofthe …………. system. 

(A) circulatory 

(B) digestive 

(C) endocrine 

(D) nervous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 ………. river is the only natural water source that drains inside a lake in the desert. 

(A) Teesta 

(B) Ganga 

(C) Kali 

(D) Luni 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 The Bharatiya Janata Party’s (BJP) origins lie in the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, founded by ……….. 

^(A) Syama Prasad Mukherjee 

(B) Lal Krishna Advani 

(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

(D) Murli Manohar Joshi 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 44 ‘Deuce’ is a term associated with ………. 

(A) baseball 

(B) cricket 

(C) hockey 

(D) lawn tennis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Which of the following are NOT Trade Barriers? 

(A) Subsidies 

(B) Embargo 

(C) Export Security 

(D) Tariff Barriers 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 ……….. is called ‘the power house of the cell’. 

(A) Cell membrane 

(B) Nucleus 

(C) Mitochondria 

(D) Golgi bodies 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 ……… is the largest democracy the world. 

(A) Sweden 

(B) Iceland 

(C) India 

(D) Norway 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 What does PMGY stands for? 

(A) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana 

(B) Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Yojana 

(C) Pradhan Mantri Gurukul Yojana 

(D) Pradhan Mantri Gram Yojana 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 ………. is responsible for oxygen transportation in humans. 

(A) Mucus 

(B) Melanin 

(C) Lymph 

(D) Haemoglobin 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 The swampy belt of the northern Indian plains is known as ………….. 

(A) Terai 

(B) Doab 

(C) Bhangra 

(D) Khadar 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The average of numbers N1 and N2 is 17. The average of numbers N2 and N3 is 44. What is the difference between N3 and N1? 

(A) 54 

(B) 35 

(C) 27 

(D) 36 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Average of N1 and N2 = 17 

Then, N1 + N2 = 34 — (1) 

Average of N2 and N3 = 44 

Then, N2+N3 = 88 — (2) 

Subtracting (1) from (2) 

N2 + N3 – N1 – N2 = 88-34 

N3 – N1 = 54. 

 

Q. 52 An article is sold for Rs.5845 after giving discount of 12.5%. What is the marked price of article? 

(A) ₹6800 

(B) ₹6700 

(C) ₹6600 

(D) ₹6680 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 A sum becomes 8 times of itself in 7 years at the rate of compound interest (interest is compounded annually). In how many years will the sum becomes 4096 times of itself? 

(A) 28 

(B) 24 

(C) 56 

(D) 16 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 54 If cost price of an article is ₹ 1240 and loss is 32%, then what will be the selling price of the article? 

(A) ₹820.62 

(B) ₹843.20 

(C) ₹780.72 

(D) ₹759.60 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 If s : u : v : w = 2 : 9 : 6 : 7 and s + u + v + w = 864, then what is the value of s + u + w ? 

(A) 612 

(B) 648 

(C) 734 

(D) 722 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let s = 2x, u = 9x, v = 6x and w = 7x 

Given, s+u+v+w = 864 

2x+9x+6x+7x = 864 => 24x = 864 => x = 36 

Then, s+u+w = 2x+9x+7x = 18x = 18*36 = 648 

 

Q. 56 16 workers working 8 hours per day can demolish a building in 32 days. In how many days 24 workers working 12 hours per day can demolish the same building? 

(A) 128/3 days 

(B) 56/3 days 

(C) 128/9 days 

(D) 56/9 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 The bar chart given below shows the ratio of expenditure to revenue for seven consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, Y5, Y6 and Y7.Revenue for year Y4 is ₹ 22500. What is the profit for year Y4? 

(A) ₹2750 

(B) ₹2250 

(C) Cannot be determined 

(D) ₹2500 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Ratio of Expenditure to Revenue = 0.9 = 9 : 10 

Let expenditure be Rs.9x and Revenue be Rs.10x 

Given 10x = 22500 => x = 2250 

Then, Profit = Revenue – Expenditure = Rs.10x – Rs.9x = Rs.x = Rs.2250 

 

Q. 58 The data below shows the number of students in class A having secured different marks. 

What is the mean marks of class A? 

(A) 2 

(B) 3.8 

(C) 2.8 

(D) 1.6 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 59 The Least Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of two numbers are 75 and 5 respectively. If their difference is 10, then what will be the sum of these two numbers? 

(A) 20 

(B) 25 

(C) 30 

(D) 40 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 What is the value of (5 ÷ ⅕ of 25/4 + 20/3 ÷ 100/9)? 

(A) 31/5

(B) 27/5

(C) 23/5

(D) 18/5 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 Height of a right circular cone is 28 cm. If diameter of its base is 42 cm, then what will be the curved surface area of the cone? 

(A) 4620 cm² 

(B) 2310 cm² 

(C) 1540 cm² 

(D) 170 cm² 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 What is the value of 4558–75+215 of 3245? 

(A) 21/100

(B) 13/100

(C) 15/29

(D) 17/80

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 A train is moving with a uniform speed. Train crosses a bridge of length 340 meters in 35 seconds and a bridge of length 460 meters in 38 seconds. What is the speed of the train? 

(A) 72 km/hr 

(B) 80 km/hr 

(C) 40 km/hr 

(D) 144 km/hr 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 2 : 1. If the perimeter of the triangle is 88 cm, then what will be the length of the largest side? 

(A) 38 cm 

(B) 40 cm 

(C) 44 cm 

(D) 55 cm 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the sides of the triangle be 5x cm, 2x cm, x cm. 

Perimeter of the triangle = 5x+2x+x = 8x cm 

Given, 8x = 88 cm 

=> x = 11 cm 

Then, Length of the largest side = 5x = 5*11 = 55 cm. 

 

Q. 65 If Rohit alone can complete one-fourth of a work in 32 days, then in how many days Rohit alone can complete the whole work? 

(A) 96 days 

(B) 128 days 

(C) 64 days 

(D) 118 days 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

One-fourth of the work can be completed in 32 days 

32 × 4 = 128 

Then, Complete work will be completed in days 

 

Q. 66 The pie chart given below shows the time taken in 7 different procedures J1, J2, J3, J4, J5, J6 and J7 in making a car as a percentage of total time taken. The total time taken in making one car is 1200 hours. 

What is the average time taken in procedures J3, J6 and J7? 

(A) 180 hours 

(B) 192 hours 

(C) 168 hours 

(D) 204 hours 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total time taken in making one car = 1200 hours 

Time taken in J3 = 20% of 1200 

Time taken in J6 = 16% of 1200 

Time taken in J7 = 12% of 1200 

Total time taken in J3, J6, J7 = (20+16+12)% of 1200 = 48% of 1200 = 576 hours 

Average = 576/3 = 192 hours. 

 

Q. 67 If cost price of 80 articles is equal to the selling price of 50 articles, then what will be the profit percentage? 

(A) 25% 

(B) 40% 

(C) 60% 

(D) 37.5% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The volume of a right circular cone is equal to the volume of that right circular cylinder whose height is 48 cm and diameter of its base is 20 cm.If the height of the cone is 16 cm, then what will be the diameter of its base? 

(A) 25 cm 

(B) 45 cm 

(C) 60 cm 

(D) 130 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 A sum of ₹ 12500 gives interest of ₹ 5625 in T years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is 7.5%, then what will be the value of T? 

(A) 5 years 

(B) 6 years 

(C) 7 years 

(D) 8 years 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 Speed of Deepak and Vinod are in the ratio of 19 : 12 respectively. If speed of Vinod is 84 km/hr, then what will be the speed of Deepak? 

(A) 114 km/hr 

(B) 117 km/hr 

(C) 126 knv/hr 

(D) 133 km/hr 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the speeds of Deepak and Vinod be 19x km/hr and 12x km/hr 

Given, 12x = 84 => x = 7 

Therefore, Speed of Deepak = 19x = 19*7 = 133 km/hr 

 

Q. 71 The pie chart given below shows the annual snowfall received by 7 states of a country. The snowfall is shown as a percentage of total annual snowfall of the country. 

If the annual snowfall received by the country is 700 cm, then what is the monthly snowfall received by S5? 

(A) 7 cm 

(B) 5 cm 

(C) 21 cm 

(D) 12 cm 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Annual snowfall = 700 cm 

Annual Snowfall received by S5 = 12% of 700 = 84 cm 

Monthly snowfall received by S5 = 84/12 = 7 cm 

 

Q. 72 If X is 30% less than Y and Z is 50% less than Y, then Z is how much percentage less than Y? 

(A) 80% 

(B) 95% 

(C) 65% 

(D) 75% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 If Dheeraj can cross a 100 metres wide road in 25 seconds, then what is the speed of Dheeraj? 

(A) 12 m/s 

(B) 6 m/s 

(C) 14 m/s 

(D) 4 m/s 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 If 2A = 3B = 7C, then what is the ratio of A: B: C? 

(A) 21 : 14 : 6 

(B) 14 : 10 : 21 

(C) 21 : 10 : 6 

(D) 2 : 3 : 7 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 The average daily rainfall of town A is 105 for first 2 days of the week, 84 for next 3 days and 49 for the last 2 days of the week. The total weekly rainfall for town B is 455. What will be the average daily rainfall of both the towns together? 

(A) 138 

(B) 152 

(C) 159 

(D) 145 

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

He spent all which he has in order to perfect his invention. 

(A) which he has 

(B) what he is having 

(C) that he had 

(D) No Improvement 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement The Finance Minister has announce big schemes for farmers, women and unorganized workers in his Budget speech. 

(A) No Improvement 

(B) has announced 

(C) has been announcing 

(D) have announced 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The life history of a person written by himself 

(A) Fiction 

(B) Biography 

(C) Novel 

(D) Autobiography 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

SEMBLANCE 

(A) Simile 

(B) Guise 

(C) Alikeness 

(D) Difference 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom. 

To burn all bridges 

(A) To chase all enemies 

(B) To light a fire 

(C) To damage a path 

(D) To destroy all relations 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Subhash Palekar a farmer received the Padma Shri award this year in his campaign for zero budget natural farming. 

(A) at his campaign with zero budget 

(B) for his campaign for zero budget 

(C) for his campaign to zero budget 

(D) No Improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Something never done or known before 

(A) Unprecedented 

(B) Unanimous 

(C) Unconditioned 

(D) Uncanny 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

A house to house survey was ………. conducted to register more than seventeen crore voters. 

(A) wearily 

(B) punctually 

(C) meticulously 

(D) firmly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. This bottle must not be make to stand closeto the fire. 

(A) must not be 

(B) close to the fire 

(C) This bottle 

(D) make to stand 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help ofthe alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Science has made an (1)…………… contribution to the relief of humansuffering, and humanity (2)………… a deep (3)……………… of gratitude to scientists whose (4)……………. and sacrifices have led to many (5)……………. discoveries and inventions. 

 

Q. 85 Fill in the blank (1) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) excessive 

(B) intensive 

(C) enterprising 

(D) enormous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Fill in the blank (2) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) offers 

(B) feels 

(C) thinks 

(D) owes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Fill in the blank (3) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) feeling 

(B) sense 

(C) amount 

(D) fund 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Fill in the blank (4) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) discoveries 

(B) labour 

(C) success 

(D) achievements 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Fill in the blank (5) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) unusual 

(B) dynamic 

(C) useful 

(D) curious 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 90 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. When he returned to the dining-room the guests left and the servants were clearing the tables. 

(A) to the dining-room 

(B) When he 

(C) the guests left 

(D) were clearing 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

RAMBLING 

(A) Deceptive 

(B) Coherent 

(C) Irregular 

(D) Confused 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. 

Miserly people find it difficult to part ……… any of their money for charitable purposes. 

^(A) with 

(B) from 

(C) about 

(D) for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Storm in a teacup 

(A) (A) grand get-together 

(B) (A) big fuss over a small issue 

(C) (A) highly risky business 

(D) (A) stormy tea party 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. 

Reason is the highest faculty …………. on man by his creator. 

(A) donated 

(B) given 

(C) bestowed 

(D) endowed 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. He was deprived from the benefits of college education owing to the death of his father. 

(A) college education 

(B) He was deprived from 

(C) the benefits of 

(D) owing to 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the synonym of the given word. 

IMITATION 

(A) Genuine 

(B) Real 

(C) Artificial 

(D) Different 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

I would rather serve ……….. 

(A) but to beg 

(B) than to beg 

(C) but beg 

(D) than beg 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

FACADE 

(A) Elevation 

(B) Interior 

(C) Frontage 

(D) Ceiling 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the correctly spelt word 

(A) Discrepancy 

(B) Descrepancy 

(C) Discrepency 

(D) Discripancy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Liesure 

(B) Leisure 

(C) Leisour 

(D) Lisure 

Answer: (B) 

SSC GD 12th Feb 2019 Shift-II 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

CGK : XTP :: GIM : ? 

(A) TSN 

(B) TPN 

(C) TQN 

(D) TRN 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 J, K, L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subject is taught by L? 

(A) Hindi 

(B) Maths 

(C) Science 

(D) Arts 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 In a certain code, TOUCH is written as 68. How will ERROR be written in that code? 

(A) 61 

(B) 54 

(C) 59 

(D) 55 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

3, 18, 48, 93, ? 

(A) 247 

(B) 147 

(C) 153 

(D) 202 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 6 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row.S is sitting at one extreme end. is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end.R is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting at the extreme right end? 

(A) R 

(B) T 

(C) P 

(D) Q 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Lamb : Frisk :: Mouse : ? 

(A) Strut 

(B) Leap 

(C) Scamper 

(D) Swoop 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 Which one of the following letter clusters does NOT belong to the group? 

(A) EG 

(B) AK 

(C) CI 

(D) FH 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some monks are convicts. 

2) Some convicts are soldiers. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some convicts are monks. 

II. Some soldiers are convicts. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 11 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

14 + 16 × 14 − 7 ÷ 3 = 43 

(A) − and ÷

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) + and − 

(D) − and × 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 17 

(B) 45 

(C) 38 

(D) 19 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

15 : 270 :: 13 : ? 

(A) 208 

(B) 169 

(C) 144 

(D) 275 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Austria, Denmark, Countries 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 78 

(B) 91 

(C) 24 

(D) 65 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 16 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

7, 8, 16, 43, ? 

(A) 109 

(B) 107 

(C) 113 

(D) 111 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word if mirror is placed at the right side. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 In a certain code, ASSUME is written as EMUASS. How will NEEDLE be written in that code? 

(A) ELDEEN 

(B) EJDNEE 

(C) EDLNEE 

(D) ELDNEE 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 21 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All butterflies are reptiles. 

2) All reptiles are mammals. 

Conclusion: 

I. All mammals are butterflies. 

II. All butterflies are mammals. 

(A) Both conclusions follow. 

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Fox 

(B) Tiger 

(C) Crocodile 

(D) Lion 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 23 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. H is to the left of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting second to the left of C? 

(A) D 

(B) F 

(C) B

(D) A 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

MHW, KJU, ILS, GNQ, ……… ? 

(A) EPQ 

(B) EPO 

(C) FPO 

(D) EOP 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Iran : Rial :: Iraq : ? 

(A) War 

(B) Dirham 

(C) Dinar 

(D) Rial 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 ……….. is the outermost range of the Himalayas. 

(A) Himadri 

(B) Pir Panjal 

(C) Kailash 

(D) Shivalik 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Which of the following is NOT a digital transaction in India? 

(A) Cash transaction 

(B) Credit card transaction 

(C) PayTM 

(D) ATM transaction 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 28 Who is called the “The iron man of India’’. 

(A) Vallabhai Patel 

(B) M.K Gandhi 

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 ……… was an Indian film entry for 90^th Oscar Award in 2018. 

(A) Raazi 

(B) Zero 

(C) Newton 

(D) Sanju 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 In a democracy, the ruling party is accountable to ……….. 

(A) the judiciary 

(B) its leaders 

(C) the opposition 

(D) the people 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 The process by which similar genetically identical individuals can be produced is called ……….. 

(A) reproduction 

(B) cloning 

(C) scanning 

(D) photosynthesis 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 Whose greatest achievement was the setting up of the Brahmo Samaj? 

(A) B.R Ambedkar 

(B) Aurobindo Gosh 

(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 

(D) Vivekanandha 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following is NOT an amalgam? 

(A) Solder 

(B) Silver 

(C) Bronze 

(D) Brass 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 The resources obtained from biosphere and have life such as human beings,flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock etc. are called ………… 

(A) biotic resources 

(B) potential resources 

(C) abiotic resources 

(D) renewable resources 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 Rabi crops are sown in ………. 

(A) April-May 

(B) October-November 

(C) May-June 

(D) January-February 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 ………… aim(s) at creating self-empolyment opportunity in rural areas. 

(A) The Rural Employment Generation Programme 

(B) Anti-Poverty Programmes 

(C) The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana 

(D) The Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 The battle of Plassey was fought in the year ……….. 

(A) 1957 

(B) 1900 

(C) 1857 

(D) 1757 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 Shankar’s International Dolls Museum is situated in ………. 

(A) Pune 

(B) Kolkata 

(C) Mumbai 

(D) NewDelhi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Who discovered the solar system ? 

(A) Murphy 

(B) Newton 

(C) Copernicus 

(D) Vasco Da Gama 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 40 ……….. is/are responsible for water transportation in plants. 

(A) Chloroplast 

(B) Phloem 

(C) Veins 

(D) Xylem 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 ………. was the captain of the 1948 Indian national field hockey team that won the first gold in Olympics. 

(A) Akashdeep Singh 

(B) Sardar Singh 

(C) Kishan Lal 

(D) Manpreet Singh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 The Chief of Election Commission is appointed by the ………… 

(A) Central Government 

(B) Centrel Government 

(C) Chief Justice of India 

(D) President of India 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 The book ‘The Paradoxical Prime Minister’ is written by ……… 

(A) Ashok Gehlot 

(B) Dr Man Mohan Singh 

(C) Jyotiraditya Scindia 

(D) Shashi Tharoor 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 What is NOT one of the main duties of the Election Commission? 

(A) Control and conduct elections 

(B) Supervise elections 

(C) Direct elections 

(D) Don’t Conduct local elections 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 The famous shehnai player of India is ………… 

(A) Bismillah Khan 

(B) Ravi Shankar 

(C) Latif Khan 

(D) Hari Prasad 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 46 Which is NOT a part of the urinary system? 

(A) Urinary bladder 

(B) Ureter 

(C) Bronchi 

(D) Urethra 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 The Indian musician ………. has won an Academy Award. 

(A) R(D) Barman 

(B) AR Rahman 

(C) Sonu Nigam 

(D) Anu Malik 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 The ………… is the highest battle field in the world. 

(A) Gangotri Glacier 

(B) Hari Parbat Glacier 

(C) Nubra Glacier 

(D) Siachin Glacier 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 ……….. was the first Indian gymnast to win a gold medal at a global event. 

(A) Hima Das 

(B) Sakshi Malik 

(C) Seema Punia 

(D) Deepa Karmakar 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Molecular formula of gold is …………. 

(A) Au 

(B) Ag 

(C) G 

(D) Al 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A car covers a certain distance at a speed of 48 km/hr in 14 hours. How much time it will take to cover the same distance at the speed of 84 km/hr? 

(A) 6 hr 

(B) 8 hr 

(C) 9 hr 

(D) 12 hr 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, Speed = 48 km/hr 

Time = 14 hours 

Then, Distance = 48 × 14 = 672km 

New speed = 84 km/hr 

Then, Time taken = 672/84 = 8 hours 

 

Q. 52 Marked price of an article is 60% more than its cost price. If the article is sold at a profit of 20%, then what will be the discount percentage? 

(A) 37.5% 

(B) 17.5% 

(C) 15% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 12 persons can complete half of a work in 9 days. How many persons can complete the same work (whole) in 6 days? 

(A) 36 

(B) 45 

(C) 48 

(D) 42 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 54 If A is 20% less than B, then what will be the value of (2B—A) / (A) ? 

(A) ¾ 

(B) 3/2 

(C) ⅗ 

(D) 4/3 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 What is the value of 10 − [6 − 4 − (2 ÷ 1 − 2)] ? 

(A) 10 

(B) 12 

(C) 14 

(D) 8 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 What is the value of [22¾ ÷ 14/3 of (8 – ⅕ + 4 – 2 ÷ ½)]? 

(A) 3/7

(B) 91/213

(C) 5/8

(D) 91/199

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 After giving a discount of 25%, a shopkeeper earns 40% profit. Marked price is what percent more than the cost price? 

(A) 80% 

(B) 75% 

(C) 86.67% 

(D) 85% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 Mohit starts moving from a place A and reaches the place B in 12 hours. He ⅕^th covers part of the total distance at the speed of 6 km/hr and covers the remaining distance at the speed of 8 km/hr. What is the distance between A and B? 

(A) 90 km 

(B) 95 km 

(C) 60 km 

(D) 75 km 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 A sum of ₹ 4200 becomes ₹ 5082 in 3 years rate simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum? 

(A) 8% 

(B) 9% 

(C) 5% 

(D) 7% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 The bar chart given below shows the ratio of expenditure to revenue for seven consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, Y5, Y6 and Y7.

The profit percentage is lowest for which year? 

(A) Y4 

(B) Y7 

(C) Cannot be determined 

(D) Y3 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 A sum of money amounts to Rs.6000 in 4 years and to Rs.6750 in 5 years (interest is compounded annually). What is the rate of interest? 

(A) 25% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 12.5% 

(D) 15% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 62 What will be the ratio of Highest common Factor and Least Common Multiple of two numbers 16 and 20? 

(A) 1 : 25 

(B) 4 : 63 

(C) 1 : 20 

(D) 1 : 10 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

HCF of 16 and 20 = 4 

LCM of 16 and 20 = 80 

Therefore, Required Ratio = 4 : 80 = 1 : 20 

 

Q. 63 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2. If the perimeter of the triangle is 63 cm, then what will be the length of the largest side? 

(A) 28 cm 

(B) 35 cm 

(C) 21 cm 

(D) 42 cm 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the sides of the triangle be 4x cm, 3x cm, 2x cm. 

Perimeter of the triangle = 4x+3x+2x = 9x cm 

Given, 9x = 63 => x = 7 

Therefore, Length of the largest side = 4x = 4*7 = 28 cm 

 

Q. 64 A and C together can complete a work in 120 days, C and E together can complete the same work in 80 days and A and E together can complete the same work in 160 days. In how many days A, C and E together can complete the same work? 

(A) 120/13 days 

(B) 480/13 days 

(C) 240/13 days 

(D) 960/13 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 Ramesh purchases 75 articles for ₹ 10800 and sells them at a loss equal to the selling price of 5 articles. What will be the selling price of one article? 

(A) ₹156 

(B) ₹135 

(C) ₹144 

(D) ₹132 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given that the Cost Price of 75 articles = Rs.10800 

Let the Selling Price of each article = Rs.x 

Then, Selling Price of 75 articles = Rs.75x 

Selling Price of 5 articles = Rs.5x 

=> 10800 – 75x = 5x 

=> 80x = 10800 

=> x = 135 

Therefore, Selling Price of each article = Rs.135 

 

Q. 66 The length, breadth and height of room is 16 metres, 12 metres and 15 metres. What will be the length of the largest rod that can be placed in that room? 

(A) 20 metres 

(B) 18 metres 

(C) 25 metres 

(D) 24 metres 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 The volume of a right circular cone is 2464 cm³ . If the height of cone is 12 cm, then what will be the radius of its base? 

(A) 12 cm 

(B) 8 cm 

(C) 14 cm 

(D) 10 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The volume of a right circular cone is 1232 cm³. If the height of cone is 24 cm, then what will be the radius of its base? 

(A) 9 cm 

(B) 7 cm 

(C) 8 cm 

(D) 5 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 69 If a 12 year old boy is replaced by a new boy, then the average age of 18 boys increases by 1.5 years. What is the age of the new boy? 

(A) 35 years 

(B) 37.5 years 

(C) 43 years 

(D) 39 years 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 70 The average of 8 numbers is 44. If a constant ‘Y’ is added to each number,then average becomes 47. What is the value of ‘Y’? 

(A) 21 

(B) 3 

(C) 8 

(D) 24 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given that the average of 8 numbers = 44 

Let the total sum of 8 numbers be (A) 

Then, (A) = 44*8 = 352 

Given, Y is added to all the numbers. 

Then, A+8Y = 47*8 = 376 

Substituting (A) = 352 in above equation. 

8Y = 376-352 = 24 

=> Y = 24/8 = 3 

 

Q. 71 If X : Y = 7 : 5 and Y : Z = 7 : 11, then what is the ratio of X : Y : Z? 

(A) 30 : 35 : 49 

(B) 49 : 35 : 55 

(C) 7 : 5 : 1 

(D) 49 : 30 : 55 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, X : Y = 7 : 5 and Y : Z = 7 : 11 

Multiplying X : Y by 7 and Y : Z by 5 

Then, X : Y : Z = 49 : 35 : 55 

 

Q. 72 If P : Q = 5 : 6 and R : Q = 25 : 9, then what is the ratio of P : R? 

(A) 10 : 13 

(B) 10 : 3 

(C) 3 : 10 

(D) 13 : 10 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given P : Q = 5 : 6 and Q : R = 9 : 25 

Multiplying P : Q with 3 and Q : R with 2 

Then, P : Q = 15 : 18 and Q : R = 18 : 50 

Hence, P : R = 15 : 50 = 3 : 10 

 

Q. 73 The pie chart given below shows the time taken in 7 different procedures J1, J2, J3, J4, J5, J6 and J7 in making a car as a percentage of total time taken. The total time taken in making one car is 1200 hours. 

What is the difference between the time taken in processes J1 and J4? 

(A) 96 hours 

(B) 72 hours 

(C) 60 hours 

(D) 84 hours 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Percentage of time required for J1 = 14% 

Percentage of time required for J4 = 8% 

Required difference = 14-8 = 6% of 1200 = 72 hours 

 

Q. 74 The data given below shows the number of people who have saved a certain amount of money. 

What is the mean saving per person? 

(A) ₹28.89 

(B) ₹21.57 

(C) ₹23.21 

(D) ₹25.54 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 The pie chart given below shows the time taken in 7 different procedures J1, J2, J3, J4, J5, J6 and J7 in making a car as a percentage of total time taken. The total time taken in making one car is 1200 hours. 

What will be the total taken in procedures J2 and J5? 

(A) 396 hours 

(B) 240 hours 

(C) 312 hours 

(D) 360 hours 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Percentage of time taken in J2 = 18% 

Percentage of time taken in J5 = 12% 

Total time taken = 12+18 = 30% of 1200 = 360 hours 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The telephone was ……….. by Alexander Graham Bell. 

(A) discovered 

(B) invented 

(C) researched 

(D) found 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Acommodate 

(B) Accomodate 

(C) Akommodate 

(D) Accommodate 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Like a cakewalk 

(A) Not too easy 

(B) Quite difficult 

(C) Extremely difficult 

(D) Extremely easy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. On the eleventh hour, she retired from the contest, leaving the field open to her opponent. 

(A) retired from 

(B) to her opponent 

(C) On the eleventh hour 

(D) leaving the field 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To be under the weather 

(A) To feel very cold 

(B) To not feel well 

(C) To feel very hot 

(D) To get very wet 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Hanckerchief 

(B) Hangerchief 

(C) Hankerchief 

(D) Handkerchief 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the antonym of the given word. 

SAVAGE 

(A) Civilized 

(B) Tribal 

(C) Rustic 

(D) Stern 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

This question will be discussed at the meeting ………… 

(A) yesterday 

(B) tomorrow 

(C) last year 

(D) last week 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

A city court ordered the immediate release of a professor described his arrest as illegal. 

(A) describing his arrest 

(B) No improvement 

(C) describing their arrest 

(D) describing an arrest 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Australia recorded its hot month in January with sweltering conditions expected to persist through April. 

(A) its hotter month 

(B) its hottest month 

(C) No improvement 

(D) its more hotter month 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

A woman’s real character will always be more visible in his household than any where else. 

(A) real character 

(B) than any where else 

(C) in his household 

(D) will always be 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

I have just …………(1) that it is your birthday on Saturday and so I send you my best wishes. I hope the day itself will be ………..(2) and happy for you. May you be showered ………..(3) health and happiness for all the years to come.I take this opportunity of …………..(4) you from the bottom of my heart for all you have done for ……….(5). 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) remembered 

(B) remember 

(C) remembering 

(D) remembers 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) suitable 

(B) excited 

(C) plentiful 

(D) peaceful 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) by 

(B) with 

(C) from 

(D) of 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) greeting 

(B) thanking 

(C) Congratulating 

(D) wishing 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) me 

(B) them 

(C) him 

(D) her 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 92 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. A great fortune in the hands of a fool are a great misfortune. 

(A) (A) great fortune 

(B) of a fool 

(C) in the hands 

(D) are a great 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

As you make your way in the interior of Red Fort, lush green gardens greet you. 

(A) into the interior of 

(B) No improvement 

(C) along the interior of 

(D) on the interior of 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The flight of birds ………… a pretty sight to watch. 

(A) have 

(B) are 

(C) is 

(D) has 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who repairs leaking water pipes. 

(A) Blacksmith 

(B) Carpenter 

(C) Mason 

(D) Plumber 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the synonym of the given word 

EVERLASTING 

(A) Equal 

(B) Eternal 

(C) Especial 

(D) Essential 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who treats skin diseases 

(A) Cardiologist 

(B) Dermatologist 

(C) Radiologist 

(D) Gynecologist 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 Select the antonym of the given word. 

COMPULSORY 

(A) Optional 

(B) Essential 

(C) Important 

(D) Choice 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Select the synonym of the given word. 

FANATIC

(A) Enthusiast 

(B) Fantastic 

(C) Famed 

(D) Great 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Mother cuts vegetables ……….. a knife. 

(A) by 

(B) from 

(C) with 

(D) off 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 12th Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. All pupils are crows. 

2. All crows are cats. 

Conclusion 

I. All cats are crows. 

II. Some crows are pupils. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusion 

I. All cats are crows = false 

II. Some crows are pupils = true 

Thus, only conclusion II follows. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Lethargy : Alertness :: Peace : ? 

(A) Cheer 

(B) Chaos 

(C) Chat 

(D) Choose 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

22 : 441 :: 13 : ? 

(A) 221 

(B) 144 

(C) 275 

(D) 169 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

RTN, SRO, TPP, UNQ, ? 

(A) VJR 

(B) VLP 

(C) VLR 

(D) VIP 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression : RTN, SRO, TPP, UNQ, ? 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : R (+1) = S (+1) = T (+1) = U (+1) = V 

2nd letter : T (-2) = R (-2) = P (-2) = N (-2) = L 

3rd letter : N (+1) = O (+1) = P (+1) = Q (+1) = R 

Thus, missing term = VLR 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 5 There is only one runway which will be used by seven flights one by one. P and Q will use the runway neither first nor last. S will use it second after R. M will use it second before O. N will use it after O and before R. Q will use it just before S. Who will use the runway third after O? 

(A) N 

(B) P 

(C) R 

(D) Q 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Identify the decimal number that will come next in the following series. 

10, 9.9, 9.89, 9.889, 9.8889, ……… 

(A) 9.88999 

(B) 9.88888 

(C) 9.98889 

(D) 9.88889 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

( 10 )¹ n 

The pattern followed is that numbers of the form are subtracted. 

0.1 

10 – = 9.9 

0.01 

9.9 – = 9.89 

0.001 

9.89 – = 9.889 

0.0001 

9.889 – = 9.8889 

0.00001 

9.8889 – = 9.88889 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 7 

(B) 11 

(C) 13 

(D) 5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 In a certain code, VIRUS is written as 46. How will CRUST be written in that code? 

(A) 59 

(B) 57 

(C) 54 

(D) 55 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 325 

(B) 577 

(C) 215 

(D) 442 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

(A) : (B) : (C) : (D) : 

325 = (18)² + 1 577 = (24)² + 1 215 = (6)³ − 1 442 = (21)² + 1 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 10 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 11 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed at the right side. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If the mirror is placed on the right side, then the letter at left will appear at right side and vice versa, but in reverse. 

The letter ‘W’ when reversed will not turn upside down, hence first two options are eliminated, similarly in the last option ‘P’ is inversed, hence third is the correct image. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option in which the figure marked “x” is embedded. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H and G are sitting around circular table facing each other for a group discussion. A is opposite F and second to the right of E. G is between C and A. H is to the left of E. Who is sitting second to the left of C ? 

(A) C 

(B) A 

(C) F 

(D) D 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 In a certain code. LIGHT is written as. How will GYPSY be written in that code? 

(A) BHOBT 

(B) BHJBT 

(C) BHKBT 

(D) BHHBT 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the odd word out of the options. 

(A) KENYA 

(B) LONDON 

(C) LISBON 

(D) BANGKOK 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

London, Lisbon and Thailand are capital cities of UK, Portugal and Bangkok while Kenya is a country, hence the odd one. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 16 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between Q and U, and R is sitting to the immediate right of S and immediate left of Q. U is sitting second to the left of P. Who is sitting second to the left of T? 

(A) P 

(B) U 

(C) R 

(D) Q 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 17 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

25 + 26 × 2 − 7 ÷ 3 = 17 

(A) ÷ and × 

(B) − and ÷ 

(C) × and − 

(D) + and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

2, 37, 82, 137, ? 

(A) 202 

(B) 247 

(C) 147 

(D) 182 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The pattern here followed is : 

2 + 35 = 37 

37 + 45 = 82 

82 + 55 = 137 

137 + 65 = 202

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 19 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some joules are energies. 

2. Some energies are radiuses. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some radiuses are energies. 

II. Some energies are joules. 

(A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Fierce : Violent :: Fallacy: ? 

(A) Ego 

(B) War 

(C) Fall 

(D) Illusion 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that fierce and violent have similar meanings, similarly synonym of fallacy is illusion, a mistaken belief. => Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

BFI : AGK :: DGJ : ? 

(A) HCL 

(B) HCI 

(C) CHL 

(D) CH(C) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group? 

(A) JKN 

(B) GMP 

(C) DPN 

(D) AIO 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 23 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that the circle in the first figure is pointing at top and is moving in anti clockwise direction, i.e. in the second figure is pointing at top left side, then left and then at bottom left, thus in the missing figure, it will face bottom as shown in third figure. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 24 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Squirrels, Parrots, Mammals 

Answer: (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 26 ………. is a form of sufi devotional music which originated in the Indian subcontinent. 

(A) Qawwali 

(B) Teej Geet 

(C) Basant Geet 

(D) Kajri 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 ‘The Story Of My Experiments With Truth’ is the autobiography of …….. 

(A) Mahatma Gandhi 

(B) APJ Abdul Kalam 

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(D) Narendra Modi 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 28 In the Indian constitution the section on Citizenship draws inspiration from which country’s constitution? 

(A) France 

(B) US(A) 

(C) Australia 

(D) UK 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 ……….. is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. 

(A) Alluvial soil 

(B) Black soil 

(C) Laterite soil 

(D) Arid soil 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 ……… are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable. 

(A) Tax receipts 

(B) Direct receipts 

(C) Revenue receipts 

(D) Indirect receipts 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 Who is the Cabinet Minister currently responsible for Youth Affairs And Sports in the Government of India? 

(A) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore 

(B) Sushma Swaraj 

(C) Nitin Gadkari 

(D) Vijay Goel 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 The Lakshadweep islands are located in the ……….. 

(A) Indian Ocean 

(B) Pacific Ocean 

(C) Arabian Sea 

(D) Bay of Bengal 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 The Indian football player ………. became the second highest scorer in the world as on June 2018. 

(A) Gurpreet Singh 

(B) Sunil Chhetri 

(C) Bhaichung Bhutia 

(D) IM Vijayan 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 ………. capital refers to the variety of raw material and money in hand during the production. 

(A) Fixed 

(B) Working 

(C) Human 

(D) Physical 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 The study of viruses is called ……….. 

(A) biology 

(B) pathology 

(C) paedology 

(D) virology 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 The Gandhi — Irwin Pact was associated to which of the following movements of India? 

(A) Rowlatt 

(B) Civil Disobedience 

(C) Non co-operation 

(D) Quit India 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 The procedure to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys stop working properly is called ………… 

(A) circulation 

(B) filtration 

(C) purification 

(D) dialysis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article ………… 

(A) 370 

(B) 100 

(C) 111 

(D) 12 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 The small pores on the lower surface of the leaf are called ………. 

(A) pore 

(B) opening 

(C) cilia 

(D) stomata 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 The economist ……….. received the Noble prize in 1998. 

(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh 

(B) Raghuram Rajan 

(C) Amartya Sen 

(D) Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 ……… are the nomads of the Jammu and Kashmir. 

(A) Bhotiyas 

(B) Gaddi Shepherds 

(C) Sherpas 

(D) Gujjar Bakarwals 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 ……… is the most ductile metal from the following. 

(A) Iron 

(B) Aluminium 

(C) Copper 

(D) Gold 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 The Hawa Mahal is located in which city ……….. 

(A) Delhi 

(B) Jaipur 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Agra 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 The Judicial system in India contains a hierarchy of courts where …….. is the Highest. 

(A) Supreme court 

(B) Village Panchayat 

(C) High Court 

(D) District Court 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 45 Who among the following was inspired by the ideals of the French Revolution? 

(A) Tipu Sultan 

(B) Aurobindo Gosh 

(C) Annie Besant 

(D) Badruddin Tyabji 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the river Indus? 

(A) Ravi 

(B) Jhelum 

(C) Chenab 

(D) Ganges 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 ……… is the youngest recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award. 

(A) Geet Sethi 

(B) Virat Kohli 

(C) Vishwanathan Anand 

(D) Abhinav Bindra 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following reacts with water? 

(A) Silver 

(B) Copper 

(C) Lead 

(D) Calcium 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Lathmaar Holi is celebrated in ……….. 

(A) Varanasi 

(B) Ayodhaya 

(C) Dwarka 

(D) Barsana and Nandgaon 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 ……… is India’s first wicket keeper to have taken 300 catches. 

(A) MS Dhoni 

(B) Virender Sehwag 

(C) Suresh Raina 

(D) Sourav Ganguly 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 What is the value of [6 ⅕ × ⅚ of (⅖ – 16/62 + 11/62)]? 

(A) 47/108

(B) 33/20

(C) 47/62

(D) 43/108

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 The data given below shows the number of people who have saved a certain amount of money. 

What is the mode of the given data? 

(A) ₹20 

(B) ₹30 

(C) ₹25 

(D) ₹15 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 53 What will be the average of the first four positive multiples of 8? 

(A) 16 

(B) 20 

(C) 32 

(D) 24 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The average age of 50 teachers of a school is 66 years and the average age of 60 teachers of another school is 55 years. What will be average age of teachers of both the schools together? 

(A) 60 years 

(B) 57.5 years 

(C) 65 years 

(D) 62.5 years 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 The height of a cone is 24 cm and radius of its base 10 cm.If the rate of painting it is ₹ 28/ cm² , then what will be the total cost in painting the cone from outside? 

(A) ₹18880 

(B) ₹20820 

(C) ₹17660 

(D) ₹22880 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 Anil goes to his office at the speed of 35 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of 30 km/hr. If he takes total 39 hours, then what is the distance between his office and home? 

(A) 420 km 

(B) 525 km 

(C) 630 km 

(D) 210 km 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 The price of two articles are in the ratio of 4 : 3 respectively. The price of first article is increased by 50% and the price of second article is decreased by 10%. If the new price of second article is ₹54, then what was the original price of first article? 

(A) ₹120 

(B) ₹80 

(C) ₹100 

(D) ₹90 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 58 Selling price and cost price of a book are in the ratio of 3 : 4. What will be the profit/loss percentage? 

(A) 25% loss 

(B) 33.33% profit 

(C) 66.66% loss 

(D) 20% profit 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 C alone can complete a work in 20 days and D alone can complete the same workin 30 days. In how many days C and D together can complete the same work? 

(A) 6 days 

(B) 12 days 

(C) 15 days 

(D) 8 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 What will be the difference between the compound interest (interest is compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of ₹ 3200 at the rate of 20% per annum for 2 years? 

(A) ₹128 

(B) ₹148 

(C) ₹132 

(D) ₹96 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 What will be the Highest Common Factor of 2³ × 3⁵ × 5⁵ and 3¹ × 5² × 7¹ ?

(A) 2¹ × 3¹ × 5² 

(B) 2¹ × 3¹ × 5² × 7¹ 

(C) 2³ × 3⁵ × 5⁷ × 7¹ 

(D) 3¹ × 5² 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 What is the value of [4 + 200 ÷ 50 + 3/2 of (⅕ – ¼)]? 

(A) 317/40 

(B) 323/40 

(C) 337/40 

(D) 329/40 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 A sum becomes 14 times of itself in 15 years at the rate of simple interest per annum. In how many years will the sum becomes 92 times of itself? 

(A) 91 years 

(B) 195 years 

(C) 105 years 

(D) 210 years 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 B is 20% more than A and C is 25% more than B. If C = 330, then what will be the value of A? 

(A) 198 

(B) 214 

(C) 250 

(D) 220 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

The table given below shows the runs scored by 4 different batsmen B1, B2, B3 and B4 in 5 different matches of a series. 

 

Q. 65 What is the per match average number of run scored by batsman B3? 

(A) 36 

(B) 35 

(C) 28 

(D) 30 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 What is the difference in the total number of runs scored by B1 and B4 in these 5 matches? 

(A) 98 

(B) 111 

(C) 87 

(D) 124 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 67 The length and breadth of a rectangular garden is 12 cm and 9 cm. What will be the area of the rectangular garden? 

(A) 96 cm² 

(B) 112 cm² 

(C) 84 cm² 

D108 cm² 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 If A : B : C = 4 : 5 : 6, then what is the ratio of (1/A) : (1/B) : (1/C)? 

(A) 15 : 10 : 12 

(B) 10 : 12 : 15 

(C) 15 : 12 : 10 

(D) 12 : 10 : 15 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 The perimeter of a rectangular table is 48 cm. If the area of the rectangular table is 128 cm² , then what will be the length of the table? 

(A) 10 cm 

(B) 18 cm 

(C) 16 cm 

(D) 12 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 Rahul purchased 80 items from the market. 25% items of the total items were defective and the remaining items were sold at 50% profit. What will be the overall profit percentage? 

(A) 10% 

(B) 12.5% 

(C) 11.11% 

(D) 9.09% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 If a : b = 4 : 5 , then what will be the ratio of (a/b) : (b/a)? 

(A) 4 : 5 

(B) 5 : 4 

(C) 16 : 25 

(D) 1 : 1 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

The table given below shows the runs scored by 4 different batsmen B1, B2, B3 and B4 in 5 different matches of a series. 

Q. 72 What is the per batsman average runs scored by these batsmen in M5? 

(A) 38.50 

(B) 39.25 

(C) 35.25 

(D) 32.75 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 73 Vivek, Dev and Lalit alone can complete a work in 10 days, 15 days and 20 days respectively. In how many days Vivek and Dev together can complete half of the same work? 

(A) 9 days 

(B) 5 days 

(C) 3 days 

(D) 6 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 An article is sold for ₹5360 after giving discount of 20%. What is the marked price of article? 

(A) ₹6800 

(B) ₹6700 

(C) ₹6620 

(D) ₹7000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 75 If a person is driving a car at a speed of 30 m/s, then in how much time person will cover a distance of 1620 km? 

(A) 54 hr 

(B) 15 hr 

(C) 13 hr 

(D) 12 hr 

Answer: (B) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

ENORMOUS 

(A) Keen 

(B) Grand 

(C) Huge 

(D) Puny 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

Rohit taught you such tricks as these, ……….. ? 

(A) didn’t he 

(B) hasn’t he 

(C) has he 

(D) did he 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

 

Q. 78 A person with odd personality 

(A) Eccentric 

(B) Egoist 

(C) Entomologist 

(D) Ecologist 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Handwriting that cannot be read 

(A) Legible 

(B) Corrigible 

(C) Negligible 

(D) Illegible 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. 

 

Q. 80 Buses run from this bus stand every few minutes because you shall not have to wait. 

(A) Buses run from 

(B) every few minutes 

(C) have to wait 

(D) because you shall 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 She gave a loud shout, which heard across the village. 

(A) She gave 

(B) loud shout 

(C) which heard 

(D) across the village 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The forest officers ………. a leopard cub trapped in a pit. 

(A) discovered 

(B) founded 

(C) invented 

(D) searched 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Get out of hand 

(A) Appreciable 

(B) Uncontrollable 

(C) Manageable 

(D) Controllable 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

DUBIOUS 

(A) Delicate 

(B) Dutiful 

(C) Duplicate 

(D) Doubtful 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Rishi cleared the IIT entrance examination but do not pursue engineering due to personal reasons. 

(A) did not pursue 

(B) was not pursuing 

(C) No improvement 

(D) has not pursue 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

ORDINARY 

(A) Unique 

(B) Common 

(C) Normal 

(D) Regular 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

They did it as you ……… them to. 

(A) are telling 

(B) had told 

(C) tell 

(D) will tell 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Playwright 

(B) Playwrite 

(C) Playwriter 

(D) Playright 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

To hold your horses 

(A) To control horses 

(B) To have patience 

(C) To be too quick 

(D) To be excited 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Suppose you have to make a payment of Rs. 100, you can do so in coins; but it would be ……….(1) to pay in nickel or copper coins, because it takes much time to ……….(2) them. The government ………(3) permits you to make the payment in ……….(4) What Are these notes really? They are a kind of money although they are made of ………..(5) instead of metal. 

Q. 90 Fill in blank (1) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) cumbersome 

(B) feasible 

(C) practical 

(D) easy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Fill in blank (2) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) count 

(B) pay 

(C) hold 

(D) carry 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Fill in blank (3) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) although 

(B) so 

(C) then 

(D) therefore 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 Fill in blank (4) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) notes 

(B) coins 

(C) card 

(D) currency 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Fill in blank (5) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) paper 

(B) plastic 

(C) wood 

(D) cloth 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

 

Q. 95 Don’t talk as soon as she is dancing. 

(A) how 

(B) as long as 

(C) but 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 India expressed concern at the arrest of 130 Indian students enrolling at a fake university in Detroit. 

(A) enrolling in a fake university 

(B) No improvement 

(C) enrolled at a fake university 

(D) enroll by a fake university 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 97 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Succesfully 

(B) Successfuly 

(C) Sucessfully 

(D) Successfully 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The work is too much for any man to do single-hand. 

(A) too much 

(B) The work is 

(C) any man to 

(D) single-hand 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

VIGOROUS 

(A) Feeble 

(B) Curious 

(C) Trivial 

(D) Strong 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Is hall be glad if you …….. my proposal. 

(A) except 

(B) expect 

(C) intercept 

(D) accept 

Answer: (D) 

SSC GD 11th March 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Study the diagram below and identify the region representing girls who are employed but unmarried. 

(A) 2 

(B)  4 

(C) 1 

(D) 5 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The shaded portion in image is Unmarried girls but Employed is 2. 

 

Q. 2 A, B , C, D and E are sitting in a row. C is between D and A,E is neither at the end, nor next to D and is to the left of B  who is last. Who is to the right of D? 

(A) B  

(B)  E 

(C) A 

(D) C 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Right of (D) is (C) sitting. 

 

Q. 3 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statement 1 : All shells are skins. 

Statement 2 : No skins are cats. 

Conclusion I : No shells are cats. 

Conclusion II : Some skins are shells. 

(A) Neither I nor II follows 

(B)  Only conclusion I follows 

(C) (B) oth I and II follow 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Both Conculsion I and II Follows 

1. Shells cannot be Cats= True 

2. Some Skins are Shells= True 

 

Q. 4 Choose the option which completes the given figure series 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If See carefully, the triangle inside the image in first image it is in North, then in Second Image it is in South, in third Image it is in North again.. Hence in fourth image it should be in South. 

Hence correct Answer is C. 

 

Q. 5 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Scarf 

(B)  Sweater 

(C) Sunglass 

(D) Gloves 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Scarf,Sweater & Gloves we wear in Winter season. 

But Sunglasses we wear in Sunlight. 

Hence Correct Ans. is C. 

 

Q. 6 Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while oneis different. Choose the odd one 

(A) RSU 

(B)  YAC 

(C) LNP 

(D) CEG 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If we add +2 alphabets in below series we will get 

YAC = Y+2 = A+2 = C 

LNP = L+2 = N+2 = P 

CEG = C+2 = E+2 = G 

B ut in RSU we are not getting same sequence. Hence RSU is odd one. 

RSU = r+2 = T(but here instead of T they had given S) 

 

Q. 7 A, O, M, H, K and U are sitting in a circle facing the centre. A is NOT sitting next to M or U, U is to the right of H, K is to the left of M, who is opposite O. Who is to the right of O? 

(A) H 

(B)  A 

(C) K 

(D) U 

Answer: (B)  

Explanation: 

(A) is sitting Right of O. Correct Answer is (A) 

 

Q. 8 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

1024, ?, 1600, 2000, 2500, 3125 

(A) 1350 

(B)  1440 

(C) 1280 

(D) 1125 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 10 In the following questions a piece of paper is folded in the manner shown in the question figure(s). Select the figure out of the answer choices showing the unfolded pattern after the punches (cut). 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 11 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Some boys are sitting in a row facing north. Ganesh is 7th on the left of Akshit. Vinay, who is 20th in the row from left, is 7th on the right of Akshit. If Kamal, who is third on the right of Ganesh,Kamal is 20th in the row from right, how many boys are there in the row? 

(A) 26 

(B)  28 

(C) 31 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. Pen : Write :: Knife : ………. 

(A) Cut 

(B)  Shoot 

(C) (B) lood 

(D) Vegetable 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

TSQ : JHG :: LTM  

(A) FB C 

(B)  ACD 

(C) UVO 

(D) NGO 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

LM, QR, VW, ……. 

(A) UK 

(B)  A(B)  

(C) A(D) 

(D) SM 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 17 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation: 

96 * 2 * 20 * 2 * 174 

(A) × − + = 

(B)  ÷ × + = 

(C) − + × = 

(D) + + ÷ = 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

96 * 2 * 20 * 2 * 174 

Let try to input Option (A) Symbol’s 

96 × 2 − 20 + 2 = 174 

192 − 20 + 2 = 174 

172 + 2 = 174 

174 = 174 

Hence Option (A) is right Answer. 

 

Q. 18 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

4896 : 3785 :: 7852 : ? 

(A) 4519 

(B)  6741 

(C) 5630 

(D) 3438 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 19 If MUNREB  is written as 628146 and IESRES as 345145, how will SERB ER be written? 

(A) 541641 

(B)  541164 

(C) 451146 

(D) 541146 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 20 Four options have been given out of which threeare alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 97 

(B)  135 

(C) 167 

(D) 199 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 21 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the secondterm is related to the first term. Telephone : Communication :: Radio : ………. 

(A) Broadcast 

(B)  Story 

(C) Art 

(D) Character 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

As, Telephone is a medium of Communication 

Same way Radio is medium of B roadcasting. 

 

Q. 22 In the question two statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statement 1 : All tigers are cats. 

Statement 2 : All cats are felines. 

Conclusion I : Some felines are tigers. 

Conclusion II : All tigers are felines. 

Conclusion III : Some felines are cats. 

(A) Only conclusion III follows 

(B)  All conclusions I, II and III follows 

(C) Only conclusion I and III follows 

(D) Only conclusion I follows 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 23 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A) 225 

(B)  144 

(C) 256 

(D) 169 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 24 In a certain code, COLD is coded as GSPH, then how is NOT coded in the same way? 

(A) RSX 

(B)  XRS 

(C) RSY 

(D) XSR 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 25 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

-1, 2,7, ?, 23, 34 

(A) 13 

(B)  19 

(C) 14 

(D) 15 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Correct Answer is 14. 

The difference between-1 and 2 is 1. 

The difference between 2 and 7 is 5. 

The difference between 7 and 14 is 7. 

The difference between 14 and 23 is 9. 

The difference between 23 and 34 is 11. 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following was the first Law Minister of Independent India? 

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B)  Abul Kalam Azad 

(C) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar 

(D) Asaf Ali 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 27 Photosynthesis in plants converts light energy to ……… energy. 

(A) thermal 

(B)  chemical 

(C) kinetic 

(D) physical 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 28 The major gap in the Western Ghats is at: 

(A) Palghat 

(B)  Mangalore 

(C) Madurai 

(D) Manipal 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 The ‘Ghumura’ dance is from the state of: 

(A) Punjab 

(B)  Odisha 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 30 ‘Matki’ is a form of dance from the state of: 

(A) Kerala 

(B)  Gujarat 

(C) Madhya Pradesh 

(D) West (B) engal 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 The Chola Empire of the South emerged in the: 

(A) 9^th century BC

(B)  19^th century AD 

(C) 9^th century AD

(D) 17^th century AD 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 In the 2016 Olympics men’s singles badminton title was won by: 

(A) Lee Chong Wei 

(B)  Kidambi Srikanth 

(C) Chen Long 

(D) Lin Dan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 The B ritish ruled India for nearly: 

(A) 50 years 

(B)  200 years 

(C) 100 years 

(D) 500 years 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 34 Where did the Chipko movement first start in India? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B)  Maharashtra 

(C) Karnataka 

(D) Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 A person who advocates separation of the state from religious institutions is called a ………… 

(A) Communalist 

(B)  Secularist 

(C) Socialist 

(D) Feminist 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 36 The Prime Minister who led India during the 1965 war with Pakistan is: 

(A) Morarji Desai 

(B)  Indira Gandhi 

(C) Lal (B) ahadur Shastri 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Which is one of the factors of subsistence used to measure the Poverty Line in India? 

(A) Equality 

(B)  Education 

(C) Internet 

(D) Transportation 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 38 The men’s title of the 2018 Australian Open Tennis Championship, …….. was won by. 

(A) Rafael Nadal 

(B)  Roger Federer 

(C) Stan Warwinka 

(D) Andy Murray 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 39 The 2017 Sahitya Academy award for Bengali was won by: 

(A) Himanshu Bose 

(B)  Afsar Ahmed 

(C) Ramesh Megh 

(D) David Bhattacharya 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 40 The Goods and Services Tax allowed India to become: 

(A) An East and a West market 

(B)  A common market 

(C) A set of separate markets 

(D) A South and a North market 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 41 Which of the following is not a Metamorphic rock? 

(A) Gnesis 

(B)  Marble 

(C) Slate 

(D) Limestone 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 The Aga Khan palace is located in the state of: 

(A) Maharashtra 

(B)  Uttar Pradesh 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 A stain of curry on a white cloth become reddish brown when soap is used because the soapis: 

(A) Neutral in nature 

(B)  Acidic in nature 

(C) Alkaline in nature 

(D) (B) asic in nature 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Which is the deepest lake in the world? 

(A) Lake Tanganyika 

(B)  Lake Vostok 

(C) Lake Baikal 

(D) Lake Superior 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 An ecosystem consists of: 

(A) Chemical and physical components 

(B)  Biotic and abiotic components 

(C) Physical and social components 

(D) Biotic and antibiotic components 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 46 Leguminous plants replenish the soil by the presence of ………. 

(A) Firmicutes 

(B)  Spirochaete 

(C) Rhizobium 

(D) Aquificae 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 The process of ………. is used to increase shelf life of milk by destroying disease causing microorganisms. 

(A) pasteurisation 

(B)  evaporation 

(C) condensation 

(D) hydrogenation 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 48 The railway budget is: 

(A) Part of the Central budget 

(B)  Part of the States budget 

(C) Separate from the Central as well as State budget 

(D) Separate from the Central budget 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 The reign of the ……… dynasty has been described as the golden ageofIndian civilization. 

(A) Porus 

(B)  Harsha 

(C) (B) uddha 

(D) Gupta 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 In which year was The Reserve Bank of India was established? 

(A) 1926 

(B)  1947 

(C) 1950 

(D) 1952 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The cost price of 27 articles is same as the selling price of 18 articles. What is the profit percent? 

(A) 40% 

(B)  50% 

(C) 30% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 52 A train 400 m long passes a pole in 20 seconds. What is the speed of the train? 

(A) 70 km/hr 

(B)  72 km/hr 

(C) 68 km/hr 

(D) 64 km/hr 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 53 A discount of 20% in the price of rice enables X to buy 5 kg more rice for ₹100. What is the reduced price of rice per kg? 

(A) ₹3 

(B)  ₹2 

(C) ₹1 

(D) ₹4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 A and B can together complete a task 40 days. They worked together for 30 days and then left. A finished the remaining task in next 22 days. In how many days A alone can finish the task? 

(A) 48 days 

(B)  88 days 

(C) 30 days 

(D) 40 days 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 55 A hollow copper pipe is 22 cm long and its external diameter is 28 cm.If the thickness of the pipe is 3 cm and iron weighs 8.5 g/cm³, then the weight of the pipe is closest to: 

(A) 34 kg 

(B)  44 kg 

(C) 14 kg 

(D) 24 kg 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 56 The least number that should be added to 2,397 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 6 ? 

(A) 6 

(B)  4 

(C) 5 

(D) 3 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Numbers ending with 0 and 5 are exactly divisible by 5. 

Hence adding 3 to the given number: 2397+3 = 2400 

Then, 2400 is divisible by 3 as the sum of the digits 2+4+0+0 = 6 is divisible by 3. 2400 is divisible by 4 as last two digits 00 is divisible by 4. 

2400 is divisible by 5 as the last digit ends with 0. 

2400 is divisible by 6 as it is divisible by 3 and 2. 

Therefore, The least number that should be added = 3. 

 

Q. 57 The median of 31, 25, 17, 23, 45 and 59 is: 

(A) 23 

(B)  25 

(C) 31 

(D) 28 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 70 kmph and including stoppages, it is 56 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? 

(A) 10 min 

(B)  8 min 

(C) 15 min 

(D) 12 min 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 A and B  can complete a task in 40 days and 16 days respectively. A started the task alone and then after 12 days B  joined him till the completion of the task. How long did the task last after B  joined the task? 

(A) 8 days 

(B)  6 days 

(C) 14 days 

(D) 12 days 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 80 units (LCM of 40 and 16) 

Efficiency of A = 80/40 = 2 units/day 

Efficiency of B  = 80/16 = 5 units/day 

A alone worked for 12 days. 

Work completed by A = 2*12 = 24 units 

Remaining work = 80-24 = 56 units 

56 units will be completed by A and B  together in 56/7 = 8 days. 

 

Q. 60 A sum of money amounted to ₹ 720 in 2 years and ₹ 792 in 3 years when interest is compounded annually. The annual rate of interest, (in %) is: 

(A) 5% 

(B)  7.50% 

(C) 7% 

(D) 10% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 In X’s opinion, his weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 68 kg, Y doesn’t agree with him and says that X’s weight is more than 62 kg but less than 70 kg. The mother of X believes that the weight of X is greater than 64 kg.If all of them are correct in their estimation, then what is the average of different probable weights of X if the weight is an integer? 

(A) 68 kg 

(B)  67 kg 

(C) 66 kg 

(D) 65 kg 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 62 The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 6 : 7. If the percentage increase in the number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio? 

(A) 72 : 77 

(B)  35 : 36 

(C) 36 : 35 

(D) 77 : 72 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the number of boys and girls in the college be 600 and 700 respectively. 

Boys increased by 20% => 120% of 600 = 720 

Girls increased by 10% => 110% of 700 = 770 

Therefore, Required ratio = 720 : 770 = 72 : 77 

 

Q. 63 A right triangle with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is rotated about the side 12 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is: 

(A) 81π cm³ 

(B)  100π cm³ 

(C) 91π cm³ 

(D) 110π cm³ 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 64 The value of 64 ÷ 2 × (9 ÷ 3) × 3 ÷ 9 − 32 is: 

(A) 1 

(B)  0 

(C) -1 

(D) 2 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 65 The average weight of 8 people increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 75 kg. What is the weight of the new person? 

(A) 95 kg 

(B)  75 kg 

(C) 85 kg 

(D) 65 kg 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 How much time will it take for an amount of ₹360 to yield ₹72 as interest at 5% p.a. of simple interest? 

(A) 3 years 

(B)  4 years 

(C) 2.5 years 

(D) 3.5 years 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 67 The pie charts show the market share of companies in the rice market in 2017 and 2018. The value of sales of Company A in 2017 was ₹40 lakhs. If its sales grew by 25% in 2018, what was approximate value of sales of company B  in 2018? 

(A) ₹12.56 lakhs 

(B)  ₹13.96 lakhs 

(C) ₹12.96 lakhs 

(D) ₹13.56 lakhs 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The value of 24 ÷ 4 × (3 + 3) ÷ 2 is: 

(A) 22 

(B)  24 

(C) 20 

(D) 18 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 69 120 men consume 720 kg of rice in 30 days. In how many days can 90 men consume 270 kg? 

(A) 18 

(B)  12 

(C) 9 

(D) 15 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 70 Two students appeared for an examination. One student who scored 20 marks more than the other, his score was 60% of the sum of their marks. What was his score? 

(A) 80 

(B)  20 

(C) 40 

(D) 60 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 The line graph shows the scores of a batsman in 6 consecutive matches. What is the range of his scores? 

(A) 53 

(B)  43 

(C) 41 

(D) 51 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Highest score of all 6 matches = 63 runs in 5th match 

Lowest score of all 6 matches = 10 runs in 1st match 

Range = Highest score – Lowest score = 63-10 = 53 

 

Q. 72 An article was sold for ₹4,000. Had a discount of 10% was being offered, the profit would have been 20%. The cost price of the article was: 

(A) ₹3,200 

(B)  ₹3,310 

(C) ₹3,000 

(D) ₹3,600 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 The slant height of a right circular cone is 15 m and its height is 9 m. The area of its curved surface, is: 

(A) 169π m² 

(B)  172π m² 

(C) 165π m² 

(D) 180π m² 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 The bar graph shows the number of paintings sold by an art gallery in each month from January to June. How many paintings does it need to sell in July for the 7 month average to be 90? 

(A) 115 

(B)  85 

(C) 90 

(D) 110 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 In bag there are coins of 25 paisa, 50 paisa and 1 rupee in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. If there are in all ₹31, then how many 1 rupee coins are there in the bag? 

(A) 12 

(B)  16 

(C) 24 

(D) 20 

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

When the vegetation is altered, the animal life also changed. 

(A) No substitution required 

(B)  also changes 

(C) changed 

(D) is changing 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

The greed of human beings leads to over utilization of natural resources. 

(A) leads for 

(B)  No substitution required 

(C) lead to 

(D) leading to 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 78 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Piece of cake 

(A) Something very difficult 

(B)  Something very tasty 

(C) Something very easy 

(D) Something very soft 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

The term flora is use for denote plants of a particular region or period. 

(A) used denoting 

(B)  denoting 

(C) used to denote 

(D) No substitution required 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

A snake in the grass 

(A) Cowardly and brutal 

(B)  Lowand mean 

(C) An unreliable person 

(D) A hidden enemy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

We should take ……… measures to prevent recurrence of such incidents. 

(A) substitute 

(B)  effective 

(C) casual 

(D) properly 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 82 Select the antonym of the given word. 

ILLICIT 

(A) Illegal 

(B)  Unlawful 

(C) Lawful 

(D) Illegitimate 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A sentimental longing or wistful affection for a period in the past 

(A) Harmony 

(B)  Affliction 

(C) Nostalgia 

(D) Paradise 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Select the antonym of the given word. 

AB UNDANT 

(A) Ample 

(B)  Plentiful 

(C) Copious 

(D) Scarce 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Dense mangroves are common varieties with roots submerged ………. water. 

(A) beside 

(B)  over 

(C) under 

(D) behind 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

Can you (1)………… a world without human beings? Who but humans (2)…………. have utilized the resources and created a (3)………… and cultural environment? The people living in a country are imp ortant to (4)………… the economy and the society. They (5)……… are the greatest resource. 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) realize 

(B)  figure 

(C) devise 

(D) imagine 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) would 

(B)  could 

(C) can 

(D) will 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) social 

(B)  communal 

(C) general 

(D) familiar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) evolve 

(B)  develop 

(C) mature 

(D) establish 

Answer: (B)  

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) itself 

(B)  themselves 

(C) yourselves 

(D) ourselves 

Answer: (B)  

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Violation of something holy or sacred 

(A) Ritual 

(B)  Ceremony 

(C) Sacrilege 

(D) Pious 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ISOLATION 

(A) Association 

(B)  Communication 

(C) Separation 

(D) Integration 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Concern aboverising pollution led to the launch of various action plans. 

(A) Concern above 

(B)  launch of 

(C) led to 

(D) action plans 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Ninety 

(B)  Neither 

(C) Noticeable 

(D) Neccessary 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The house remained ………. for a long time. 

(A) evicted 

(B)  empty 

(C) vacant 

(D) blank 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 96 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Sacrifice 

(B)  Sanctity 

(C) Schedule 

(D) Salry 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Most of the freshwaterlake in India are in the Himalayan region. 

(A) Most of the 

(B)  in India 

(C) are in 

(D) freshwater lake 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The elephants are the most majestic animals ……….. the mammals. 

(A) as 

(B)  between 

(C) among 

(D) over 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the synonym of the given word. 

INTEGRATION 

(A) Division 

(B)  Separation 

(C) Unification 

(D) Segregation 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Rivers has been of primary importance for human settlements since ancient times. 

(A) of primary importance 

(B)  Rivers has been 

(C) since ancient times. 

(D) for human settlements 

Answer: (B)  

SSC GD 11th March 2019 Shift-II

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 In a certain code, EMTWX is coded as XWTME, then how is PYSCI coded in the same way? 

(A) CIPSY 

(B) CYSIP 

(C) CISPY 

(D) ICSYP 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In this EMTWX Alphabet Places are exchanged. 

Similary, For PYSCI we will interchange their places. 

Option (D) is correct Answer. 

 

Q. 2 Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) GAT 

(B) DAT 

(C) EAV 

(D) WAD

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Middle alphabet of all question is (A) is common. 

First and Last letter of Word is Opposite in the below series. 

Hence in DAT (D) should follow W instead of T. Hence DAT is Wrong term. 

 

Q. 3 Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju. Rahul scored more than Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest? 

(A) Lokita 

(B) Rahul 

(C) Manju 

(D) Yamuna 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The correct Sequence of score will be Priti > Rahul > Yamuna > Divya > Manju > Lokita. 

Hence Lokita score was lowest. 

 

Q. 4 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Holi : Colours :: …….. : ……… 

(A) Diwali : Light 

(B) Muharram : Muslim 

(C) Hemis : Folk 

(D) Lodhi : Punjabi 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Holi is celebrated as Festival of Colours. Similarly Diwali is celebrated as Festival of Lights. Hence Option (A) is correct Option. All Other options other than (A) does not follow. 

1) We will eliminate Option B. Muharram : Muslim – Muharam is celebrated by Islamic but purpose of muhram is not explained. 

2) We will eliminate Option C. Hemis : Folk – Here Hemis is celebrated main Buddhist but main theme is not explained. 

3) We will eliminate Option (D) Lodhi : Punjabi – Here also logic is Festival main theme for what festival is celebrated it is not explained. 

 

Q. 5 Choose the option which completes the given figure series. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If u see, Image One and Image two both has middle arrow in same direction, Similarly Image Three and Four has middle arrow in Same 

direction. 

Hence if we match Image 5 with Image 6. Our Correct Answer is Option A. 

 

Q. 6 In hall there are seven children (including girls and boys) P, Q. R. S, T, U and V. They sit on three benches I, II and III. Such that at least two children on each bench and at least one girl on each bench. R who is a girl child, does not sit with P. T and S. U the boy child sit with only Q. P sits on the bench I with his best friends. V sits on the bench III.T is the brother of R. Who sits with R? 

(A) S 

(B) U 

(C) Q 

(D) V 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

V sits with R. 

 

Q. 7 Find the missing term. 

119, 109, 89, 59, ……. 

(A) 19 

(B) 39 

(C) 49 

(D) 29 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If See the Pattern in above Number Series. 

Subtract 119 – 109 = 10 

Subtract 109 – 89 = 20 

Subtract 89 – 59 = 30 

Hence Let’s Subtract 59-40= 19 

 

Q. 8 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 9 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each. 

E is not at the end of any row. D is second to the left of F. C, the neighbor of E is sitting diagonally opposite to D. B is the neighbor of F. 

Who is facing B? 

(A) A 

(B) E 

(C) D 

(D) C 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 10 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 135 

(B) 54 

(C) 72 

(D) 83 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

All the number 135,54,72 are divisible by 3. But 83 is not divisible by 3. Hence Odd number is 83. 

 

Q. 11 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

All flowers are fruits. 

All fruits are Plants. 

Conclusions: 

I. All Plants are flowers. 

II. Some fruits are flowers. 

(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only Conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only Conclusion II follows. 

(D) Either Conclusion I or II follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Which number is common to all the geometrical figures in the diagram below? 

(A) 7 

(B) 4 

(C) 2 

(D) 5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Find the missing number from the below options. 

(A) 28 

(B) 36 

(C) 48 

(D) 64 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 A figure marked on transparent sheet is given and followed by four answer figures, one out of these four options resembles the figure, which is obtained by folding transparent sheet along the dotted line. This option is your answer. 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 15 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 

47 : 15 :: ? : 19 

(A) 57 

(B) 36 

(C) 40 

(D) 59 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

47 : 15 :: ? : 19 

15 * 3 + 2 = 47 

19 * 3 + 2 = 59 

Hence 59 is correct Answer. 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

AEI, EIO, IOU, …….. 

(A) OAU 

(B) OU(A) 

(C) IO(A) 

(D) MIL 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

AEI, EIO, IOU, …….. 

In above series we can see a logic getting carry forward of the last two alphabet from first series. 

AEI -> EIO 

EIO -> IOU 

Hence IOU -> OUA. Answer is B. 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

AE : IM :: HL : ? 

(A) PT 

(B) TP 

(C) DS 

(D) FU 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 If ‘ + ’ means ‘ − ’, ‘ − ’ means ‘ × ’, ‘ × ’ means ‘ ÷ ’ and ‘ ÷ ’ means ‘ + ’, then: 

43 − 2 × 2 + 8 =? 

(A) 42 

(B) 35 

(C) 25 

(D) 40 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while oneis different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Chennai 

(B) Mumbai 

(C) Dispur 

(D) Jharkhand 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Jharkhand is a State. But other options Chennai,Mumbai,Dispur are Capital of States. 

 

Q. 20 In a certain code, GYM is coded as 2275, then how is KIT coded in the same way? 

(A) 1980 

(B) 1950 

(C) 1970 

(D) 1960 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Note down the alphabetic number series number and then multiply with eachother. GYM (G=7,Y=25,M=13) = 7 * 25 * 13 = 2275 

KIT (K=11,I=9,T=20) = 11 * 9 * 20 = 1980 

Hence, Option A=1980. 

 

Q. 21 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

43, 55, 79, 115, ….. 

(A) 163 

(B) 127 

(C) 172 

(D) 139 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives. 

Andhra Pradesh : Telugu :: ……… : ……… 

(A) Goa : Hindi 

(B) Assam : Maithili 

(C) Tripura : Telugu 

(D) Kerala : Malayalam 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Regional Language of Andhra Pradesh is Telugu. Similarly, Kerela has regional Language as Malayalam. 

 

Q. 23 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 24 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

Some potatoes are tomatoes. 

All tomatoes are onions. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some tomatoes are potatoes. 

II. All onions are potatoes. 

(A) Either Conclusion I or II follows. 

(B) Only Conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only Conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both Conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 A satyagrahi could win the battle with non-violence by: 

(A) Appealing to the common people of the oppressors 

(B) Appealing to the charity of the oppressors 

(C) Appealing to the conscience of the oppressors 

(D) Appealing to the leaders of the oppressors 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 27 The …….. system of Government divides the legislature into two separate assemblies, chambers or houses. 

(A) Unicameral 

(B) Bicameral 

(C) Quadracameral 

(D) Tricameral 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 Jiziya Tax, during the Mughal Empire wasa tax levied on: 

(A) Muslim citizens 

(B) All the citizens 

(C) Noble citizens 

(D) Non-Muslim citizens 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 In the 2018 Australian Open, ……….. was the winner in the Women’s singles event. 

(A) Caroline Wozniacki 

(B) Martina Hingis 

(C) Serena Williams 

(D) Venus Williams 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 The 2017 Sahitya Academy award for Gujarati was won by: 

(A) Ramesh Megh 

(B) Himanshu Patel 

(C) Urmi Desai 

(D) David Shah 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 All the things we use or consume, except ……. are obtained from resources on this earth. 

(A) energy from water 

(B) energy from wind 

(C) energy from friction 

(D) energy from the sun 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 During the first world war (1914-1918): 

(A) Prices went down 

(B) Prices increased by less than 10% 

(C) Prices remained unchanged 

(D) Prices almost doubled 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 Bitter tasting food is ……….. in nature. 

(A) Alkaline 

(B) Acidic 

(C) Neutral 

(D) Bases 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 Democracy is considered to be better than dictatorship as it: 

(A) Allowsspecial provisions for mistakes 

(B) Enhancesthe dignity of people 

(C) Reduces equality amongcitizens 

(D) Encourages conflicts among people 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 The first Indian Prime Minister to have been assassinated is: 

(A) Indira Gandhi 

(B) Morarji Desai 

(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 Which of the following destroys ozone? 

(A) Sulphur 

(B) Carbon 

(C) Chlorine 

(D) Silicon 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Consumers have a right to seek ………. against unfair trade practices and exploitation. 

(A) Penalty 

(B) Sympathy 

(C) Injury 

(D) Redressal 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 Sugam Tax is related to: 

(A) Income Tax 

(B) Custom Duty 

(C) Excise Duty 

(D) Commercial Tax 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Substances said to be biodegradable: 

(A) Can be broken down byphysical process 

(B) Can be broken down by chemical process 

(C) Can be broken downbybiological processes 

(D) Cannot be broken down atall 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 40 The Kulik bird sanctuary is located in: 

(A) West Bengal 

(B) Uttar Pradesh 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 In the 2016 Olympics, ……….. won the gold in women’s 100-metres sprint. 

(A) Elaine Thompson 

(B) Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce 

(C) Gail Devers 

(D) Wyomia Tyus 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 The ‘Ranappa’ danceis from the state of: 

(A) Odisha 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Punjab 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 Dumhal is a form of dance from the state of: 

(A) Gujarat 

(B) Kerala 

(C) West Bengal 

(D) Jammu and Kashmir 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 The first Bharat Ratna award of independent India was given to: 

(A) C.N.R Rao 

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(C) C.V Raman 

(D) Sardar Patel 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 Green algae are green because of: 

(A) phycoerythrin 

(B) chlorophyll 

(C) xanthophylls 

(D) phycobilin 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 Who amongst the following is the Minister for Rural Development in India as on Feb 2019? 

(A) Narendra Singh Tomar 

(B) Anant Geete 

(C) Dharmendra Pradhan 

(D) Santosh Kumar Gangwar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 The Southernmost port in India is located in the state of: 

(A) Andhra Pradesh 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Telangana 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 The human sex chromosomes determine the gender of the child, with XX being: 

(A) Transgender 

(B) Female 

(C) Could be either female or male 

(D) Male 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 Harappa and ………. were the two ancient, excavated cities that were part of the Indus Valley Civilization. 

(A) Varanasi 

(B) Hastinapura 

(C) Surat 

(D) Mohenjo-Daro 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 An instrument called ……… measures‘electric potential difference’ in a circuit. 

(A) Gyroscope 

(B) Ohmmeter 

(C) Voltmeter 

(D) Thermometer 

Answer: (C) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A solid metallic sphere of radius 4 cm is melted and recast into ‘4’ identical cubes. What is the side of the cube? π 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 The bar graph shows the number of cycles sold by a distributor in each month from January to June. What is the increase in the number of cycles sold in April as compared to March? 

(A) 75% 

(B) 78% 

(C) 68% 

(D) 70% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 53 The ratio between the perimeter and the breadth of a rectangle is 3 : 1. If the area of the rectangle is 310 sq. cm, the length of the rectangle is nearly: 

(A) 11.45 cm 

(B) 10.45 cm 

(C) 12.45 cm 

(D) 13.45 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 54 The volume of a solid sphere is 4851 m³ . What is the surface area of the sphere?(Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 1386 m² 

(B) 1364 cm² 

(C) 1260 cm² 

(D) 1408 cm² 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 Find the value of: 

(7 × 6 + 5 − 15) ÷ 4 + 6 ÷ 3 − 4 + 18 ÷ 3 

(A) 12 

(B) 14 

(C) 16 

(D) 18 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 What is the reciprocal ratio of 4 : 5 : 8? 

(A) 8 : 5 : 4 

(B) 5 : 4 : 3 

(C) 3 : 4 : 5 

(D) 10 : 8 : 5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 57 The list price of an article is ₹ 80. A customer pays ₹ 30 for it. He was given 2 successive discounts, one of them being 50%. What was the other discount? 

(A) 20% 

(B) 12.50% 

(C) 30% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work in 8, 20 and 25 days respectively. Working together, they will complete the same work in: 

(A) 180/43 days 

(B) 162/43 days 

(C) 200/43 days 

(D) 172/43 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 A grocer has a sale of ₹ 3,425, ₹ 3,810, ₹ 3,155 and ₹ 3,610 in 4 consecutive days. How much sale should he have in the 5th day so as to get an average sale of ₹ 3,500? 

(A) ₹3,500 

(B) ₹3,435 

(C) ₹3,480 

(D) ₹3,455 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 60 A car owner buys petrol at ₹ 40, ₹ 50 and ₹60 per litre for 3 consecutive years. If he spends ₹ 30,000 each year, what is the average cost of a litre of petrol? (correct to two decimal places) 

(A) ₹48.65 

(B) ₹51.20 

(C) ₹49.20 

(D) ₹50 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 P works twice as fast as Q. If Q can complete a task in 36 days independently, the number of days in which P and Q can together complete the task in: 

(A) 12 days 

(B) 9 days 

(C) 16 days 

(D) 18 days 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Efficiencies of P and Q are in the ratio 2 : 1. 

Q can do the work independently in 36 days. 

Let the total work be 36 units. 

Efficiency of Q = 1 unit per day 

Efficiency of P = 2 units per day. 

Efficiency of P and Q together = 3 units per day 

Therefore, 36 units of work will be completed in 36/3 = 12 days. 

 

Q. 62 A train passes a platform in 42 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 25 seconds. If the speed of the train is 72 km/hr, what is the length of the platform? 

(A) 300 m 

(B) 270 m 

(C) 340 m 

(D) 370 m 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 63 What is the greatest 3-digit number divisible by 4, 5 and 6? 

(A) 990 

(B) 930 

(C) 960 

D900 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The greatest 3 digit number = 999 

LCM of 4,5,6 = 60 

Dividing 999 by 60, we get a remainder of 39. 

Subtracting 999-39 = 960. 

Therefore, 960 is the greatest 3 digit number divisible by 4,5,6. 

 

Q. 64 If a equals 20% of c and b equals 40% of c, then which one of the following is 150% of b? 

(A) 50% of c 

(B) 250% of a 

(C) 65% of c 

(D) 300% of a 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 Two numbers A and B are respectively 80% and 50% more than the third number C. What is the ratio of A and B? 

(A) 6 : 5 

(B) 5 : 6 

(C) 8 : 5 

(D) 5 : 8 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let third number (C) be 100 

Then, (A) = 180% of 100 = 180 

(B) = 150% of 100 = 150 

(A) : (B) = 180 : 150 = 6 : 5 

 

Q. 66 A cloth piece was purchased for ₹ 700. At what price should it be sold to get a profit of 12.5% after a tailoring charge of ₹ 20 was paid for? 

(A) ₹760 

(B) ₹810 

(C) ₹785 

(D) ₹840 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 The length of the bridge, which a train 400 metres long and travelling at 60 km/hr can cross in 36 seconds, is: 

(A) 450 m 

(B) 250 m 

(C) 200 m 

(D) 500 m 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 Find the value of: 

(11 + 4) − 9 × 1 ÷ 3 of 4 

(A) 75/4

(B) 57/4

(C) 5

(D) 3

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 69 The pie charts show the market share of the companies in the detergent market in 2017 and 2018. The total size of the market has decreased from ₹ 300 crores to ₹ 200 crores. What is the decrease in the sales of Company F? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 70 The line graph shows the scores of a batsman in 6 consecutive matches. 

What is his batting average in the 6 matches? 

(A) 37.19 

(B) 38.33 

(C) 38.17 

(D) 39.17 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 If the selling price is tripled, the profit becomes 5 times. What is the profit percent? 

(A) 100% 

(B) 200% 

(C) 50% 

(D) 150% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 A sum fetched a total simple interest of ₹ 1,350 at 9% p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum? 

(A) ₹2,000 

(B) ₹3,300 

(C) ₹2,500 

(D) ₹3,000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 73 What is the value of x if the mean of 21, 26, 49 and x is 32? 

(A) 30 

(B) 36 

(C) 32 

(D) 34 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 If 15 apples cost as much as 6 strawberries, 2 strawberries cost as much as 16 bananas, 6 bananas cost as much as 15 potatoes, then what is the cost of 1 potato if an apple costs ₹ 20? 

(A) ₹25 

(B) ₹22.50 

(C) ₹2.50 

(D) ₹2.25 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 A sum of ₹ 1,000 becomes ₹ 1,144.90 in 2 years. At what rate is the interest is compounded annually? 

(A) 7% 

(B) 5% 

(C) 8% 

(D) 6% 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the synonym of the given word. 

COMPASSION 

(A) Indifference 

(B) Heartlessness 

(C) Cruelty 

(D) pity 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Believe 

(B) Conscience 

(C) Irresistable 

(D) Apparent 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Thunderstorms develop in hot, humid tropical areas like India much to frequently. 

(A) tropical areas 

(B) frequently 

(C) Thunderstorms develop 

(D) much to 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Intentionally starting a fire to damage something 

(A) Extinguish 

(B) Arson 

(C) Crime 

(D) Loot 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The earthy fragrance of soil aftera first rain is always refreshing. 

(A) always refreshing 

(B) The earthy 

(C) a first rain 

(D) fragrance of 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word tofill in the blank. 

India gets a large number of medicaltourists and visitors ……….. many countries. 

(A) Through 

(B) by 

(C) from 

(D) across 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segmentin the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

In vigorous exercise, the demand for bodily energy is very high. 

(A) In vigorously exercise 

(B) No substitution required 

(C) While vigorous exercise 

(D) During vigorous exercise 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate word tofill in the blank. 

Unlike the calm waters of lakes, ocean water keeps moving ………. 

(A) continuous 

(B) continuously 

(C) continue 

(D) continuing 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) leisure 

(B) Independant 

(C) Judgment 

(D) license 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate wordto fill in the blank. 

After reaching New York, Prakash will have to ………. himself to the new surroundings. 

(A) develop 

(B) mix 

(C) submit 

(D) adapt 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Bite off more than one can chew 

(A) To have an upset stomach 

(B) To be always hungry 

(C) To take more than one can deal with 

(D) To attack fiercely 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The authorities have ……….. into this incident. 

(A) examined 

(B) evaluated 

(C) tested 

(D) probed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

The food is broke down into useful substances that can be absorbed by the body. 

(A) is broken down 

(B) break down 

(C) is breaking down 

(D) No substitution required 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the antonym of the given word. 

AGONY 

(A) Suffering 

(B) Affliction 

(C) Pleasure 

(D) Pain 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required. 

Yesterday, Maria was eagerly waited to meet her grandparents. 

(A) No substitution required 

(B) was eagerly waited 

(C) eagerly wait 

(D) was eagerly waiting 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 91 Identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Continuous heavy rainfall may farther worsen the flood situation. 

(A) rainfall may 

(B) Continuous 

(C) farther 

(D) flood situation 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

(A) person employed to drive a private or hired car 

(A) Chauffeur 

(B) Astronaut 

(C) Sailor 

(D) Pilot 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

Settlements are (1)…………. where people build their homes. (2)…………. human beings lived on trees and (3)…………. caves. When theystarted (4)……….. crops it became (5)……… to have a permanent home. 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) quarters 

(B) sections 

(C) passages 

(D) places 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) Prior 

(B) Previous 

(C) Early 

(D) Initial 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) around 

(B) on 

(C) at 

(D) in 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) growing 

(B) grows 

(C) grown 

(D) grow 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) needed 

(B) required 

(C) necessary 

(D) requirement 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

GRATIFICATION 

(A) Dissatisfaction 

(B) Satisfaction 

(C) Complaint 

(D) Annoyance 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word. 

AGREEMENT 

(A) Discord 

(B) Accord 

(C) Consensus 

(D) Harmony 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the meaning of the given idiom. 

Under the gun 

(A) To be cruel 

(B) To be brave 

(C) To be killed 

(D) To be under pressure 

Answer: (D)