SSC GD 14th Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 In a certain code, DIG is written as 60. How will FEED be written in that code? 

(A) 90 

(B) 80 

(C) 20 

(D) 50 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The sum of the numbers represented by each alphabet, as A=1, B=2, C=3 and so on, is multiplied by the number of letters in the word. ≡ (4 + 9 + 7) × 3 = 60 

Eg :- DIG 

≡ (6 + 5 + 5 + 4) × 4 = 80 

Similarly, FEE(D) 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 2 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D.H is to the left of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting third to the right of H? 

(A) D 

(B) A 

(C) B 

(D) F 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

A is opposite F and third to the right of B, => B is sitting to the immediate right of F. 

G is between F and D, and H is to the left of D, => H sits opposite B and D to the immediate right of H. 

E is between (C) and A, => (C) sits to the immediate right of B. 

=> F is sitting third to the right of H. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 3 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) All pens are frogs. 

2.) All crows are frogs. 

Conclusions: 

I. No pen is a crow. 

II. Some pens are crows. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. No pen is a crow = may or may not be true. 

II. Some pens are crows = may or may not be true. 

Thus, either conclusion I or II follows. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 5 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

BFH : HBF :: GKM : ? 

(A) KMG 

(B) MKI 

(C) MGK 

(D) IKM 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression = BFH : HBF :: GKM : ? 

The pattern followed is that last letter of the first term is appended at the beginning, rest is same. ≡ 

Eg :- BF-H H-BF = HBF 

Similarly, GKM : MGK 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 6 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour.=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 7 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 216 

(B) 65 

(C) 8 

(D) 125 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Apart from 65, all are perfect cubes, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 8 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘x’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. O is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q. U is NOT sitting at any extreme end.R is sitting to the immediate left of T. Who is sitting fourth to the right of U? 

(A) R 

(B) Q 

(C) T 

(D) P 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 11 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Dispur : Assam :: Kohima : ? 

(A) Capital 

(B) Sikkim 

(C) Meghalaya 

(D) Nagaland 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

First is the capital of second, Assam’s capital is Dispur, similarly Kohima is the capital of Nagaland. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that will correctly replace the Question mark (?) in the series. 

6, 21, 51, 96, ? 

(A) 156 

(B) 176 

(C) 136 

(D) 116 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Consecutive multiples of 15 are added. 

6 + 15 = 21 

21 + 30 = 51 

51 + 45 = 96 

96 + 60 = 156 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) LNM 

(B) RNK 

(C) JKV 

(D) HLW 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Only in the first option, there are consecutive letters as they appear in English alphabetical order, hence it is the odd one. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 14 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

27 + 48 × 2 − 7 ÷ 3 = 30 

(A) × and ÷ 

(B) + and − 

(C) − and ÷ 

(D) − and × 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the Question mark (?) in the series. 

TOD, RQB, PSZ, NUX, ? 

(A) LWU 

(B) LVW 

(C) LWW 

(D) LWV 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Expression : TOD, RQB, PSZ, NUX, ? 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : T (-2) = R (-2) = P (-2) = N (-2) = L 

2nd letter : O (+2) = Q (+2) = S (+2) = U (+2) = W 

3rd letter : (D) (-2) = (B) (-2) = Z (-2) = X (-2) = V 

Thus, missing term = LWV 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

45 : 315 :: 37 : ? 

(A) 144 

(B) 259 

(C) 169 

(D) 221 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Expression = 45 : 315 :: 37 : ? 

x : 7x 

The pattern followed is = 

Eg :- 

45 × 7 = 315 

Similarly, 

37 × 7 = 259 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 18 In a certain code, STEERING is written as TEIGTEIG. How will Q. be written in that code? 

(A) USINVSIN 

(B) USJNUSIN 

(C) USINUSIN 

(D) USINUSJN 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

STEERING is written as TEIGTEIG 

The pattern followed is that the letters at even positions (starting from left) are taken and are written twice. ≡ 

Eg : S(T)E(E)R(I)N(G) TEIG + TEIG = TEIGTEIG 

Similarly, for Q. : USINUSIN 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 19 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) Some owls are horses. 

2.) Some horses are hares. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some owls are hares. 

II. Some hares are owls. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Ghana 

(B) Cuba 

(C) Egypt 

(D) Berlin 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Ghana, Cuba and Egypt are countries, while Berlin is the capital of Germany, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the Question mark (?) in the series. 

5, 6, 14, 45, ? 

(A) 135 

(B) 184 

(C) 195 

(D) 180 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the Question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 34 

(B) 15 

(C) 64 

(D) 8 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is : 

(2 + 2)² = (4)² = 16 

(2 + 4)² = (6)² = 36 

(3 + 5)² = (8)² = 64 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 23 J, K L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, NOT necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, NOT necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subject is taught on the day between Thursday and Saturday? 

(A) Social Science 

(B) Maths 

(C) Science 

(D) English 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Famous : Renowned :: Moisten : ? 

(A) Drench 

(B) Desire 

(C) Debate 

(D) Drink 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The first two words are pairs of synonyms, similarly word which has same meaning as moisten is drench. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 25 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Whales, Bats, Mammals 

Answer: (D) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following Union Territories is given partial statehood in India? 

(A) Chandigarh 

(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 

(C) Daman Diu 

(D) Puducherry 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Malaria and Kala Azar are caused by: 

(A) bacteria 

(B) fungi 

(C) protozoa 

(D) virus 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 Choose the correct group of important Gods of the Vedic period. 

(A) Brahma, Prajapati, Garuda 

(B) Seshanaga, Chandra, Yama 

(C) Varuna, Vishnu, Shiva 

(D) Agni, Indra, Soma 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Tundra type of vegetation? 

(A) Small shrubsare a part of this vegetation. 

(B) Moss and lichens are found here. 

(C) The growth of natural vegetation is limited here. 

(D) It is found in a temperate region. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 The Justice Rajendar Sachar Committee was set up by the Government of India to : 

(A) study the condition of unorganized sector of Indian Economy. 

(B) study the conditions of National parks in India. 

(C) examine the status of India’s foreign policy. 

(D) examine the social and economic status of the Muslim community. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 In the context of Elections in India, the term VVPAT stands for: 

(A) Voter Visit Poll Account Trail 

(B) Voter Vivid Press Audit Trail 

(C) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail 

(D) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 Which of the following places served as the venue for the closing ceremony of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2019? 

(A) Chandigarh 

(B) Pune 

(C) Varanasi 

(D) Kochi 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 The other name of the tertiary sector is : 

(A) service sector 

(B) primary sector 

(C) manufacturing sector 

(D) public sector 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 ‘Bibi Ka Maqbara, the replica of the Taj Mahal is situated in: 

(A) Chandarnagar 

(B) Aurangabad 

(C) Ahmedabad 

(D) Cuttack 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 In the context of the Indian Constitution, which of the following Articles guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion to its citizens? 

(A) Article 14 

(B) Article 25 

(C) Article 32 

(D) Article 22 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 The type of unemployment in the agricultural sector of India where more people are employed than required is known as: 

(A) disguised unemployment 

(B) seasonal unemployment 

(C) structural unemployment 

(D) marginal unemployment 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 Sandstone is an example of : 

(A) non-foliated rock 

(B) sedimentary rock 

(C) igneous rock 

(D) metamorphic rock 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 Which bridge connects Dibrugarh in Assam to Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh? 

(A) Naini 

(B) Bogibeel 

(C) Coronation 

(D) Pamban 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 Food containing oil and fat, when kept for a longer time, causes a change in its taste and smell due to the process of ………. 

(A) decomposition 

(B) fermentation 

(C) rancidity 

(D) substitution 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 40 The Ryotwari System was introduced by: 

(A) Warren Hastings 

(B) Lord Cornwallis 

(C) Thomas Munro 

(D) Lord Ripon 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, which of the following statements is NOT correct? 

(A) It is also known as the Right to Work. 

(B) It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development. 

(C) It was initiated by the Government of India in 2009. 

(D) It guarantees 100 days of work to the beneficiary. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 The Bandipur National Park is located in which state of India? 

(A) Karnataka 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Odisha 

(D) Chhattisgarh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 Light Year is related to : 

(A) weather 

(B) distance 

(C) sound 

(D) speed 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 The ………. collects sound from the surroundings. 

(A) auditory nerve 

(B) tympanic membrane 

(C) cochlea 

(D) pinna 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 The 2018 Dronacharya Award for Table Tennis was given to : 

(A) Srinivasa Rao 

(B) Jiwan Kumar Sharma 

(C) Vijaya Sharma 

(D) Tarak Sinha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 46 The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress is significant because: 

(A) it passed the resolution to demand Poorna Swaraj. 

(B) it passed the resolution to start the Rowlatt Satyagraha. 

(C) it passed the resolution to hold civil services examination in India. 

(D) it passed the resolution to boycott provincial elections. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 After some days, statues of brass and bronze become green due to: 

(A) oxidation 

(B) corrosion 

(C) erosion 

(D) decomposition 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 The bronze sculpture of Nataraja was cast during the period of the: 

(A) Cheras 

(B) Pallavas 

(C) Cholas 

(D) Pandyas 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 ‘Bali Yatra’, the voyage to Bali, is celebrated in which of the following states of India? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B) Rajasthan 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Odisha 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Which Indian cricketer has become the fastest bowler to claim 100 wickets in One-day Internationals as on January 2019? 

(A) Ishant Sharma 

(B) Umesh Yadav 

(C) Hardik Pandya 

(D) Mohammed Shami 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 What is the value of [(½ ÷ ¼ – 4 × ½ × ⅓) of (⅔ ÷ 4/3 + ½)]? 

(A) ½ 

(B) 5/2 

(C) ¾ 

(D) 4/3 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 K alone can complete a work in 20 days and M alone can complete the same work in 30 days. K and M start the work together but K leaves the work after 5 days of the starting of work. In how many days M will complete the remaining work? 

(A) 35/2 days 

(B) 25/2 days 

(C) 55/2 days 

(D) 45/2 days 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 53 (A) sum becomes three times of itself in 10 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum? 

(A) 25% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 15% 

(D) 30% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The sum of the volume of two solid spheres is 1144/3 cm³. If the sum of their radii is 7 cm, then what will be the difference of the radii? 

(A) 4 cm 

(B) 3 cm 

(C) 2 cm 

(D) 1 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 55 Rohit, Mohit and Sumit individualy can complete a work in 8 days, 14 days and 21 days respectively. In how many days these three together can complete the same work? 

(A) 156/43 days 

(B) 168/41 days 

(C) 168/43 days 

(D) 156/41 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 56 What is the mode of the given data? 

3, 0, 1, 0, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 2, 1, 1, 1, 3, 2 

(A) 1 

(B) 0 

(C) 2 

(D) 3 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Arranging in ascending order : 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3 

Thus, the most repeated term = Mode = 1 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 57 If a number is divided by 14, then it becomes equal to 10% of the second number. First number is how much percent more than the second number? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 45% 

(C) 60% 

(D) 30% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 If the selling price of an article is ₹638 and profit is 45%, then what will be the net profit? 

(A) ₹256 

(B) ₹287.1 

(C) ₹440 

(D) ₹198 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 If Sohan is driving a bike at a speed of 25 m/s, then in how much time Sohan will cover a distance of 540 km? 

(A) 7 hr 

(B) 5 hr 

(C) 21.6 hr 

(D) 6 hr 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 The area of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than the side of a square by 5 cm and its breadth is less than the side of square by 4 cm. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle? 

(A) 84 cm 

(B) 82 cm 

(C) 76 cm 

(D) 72 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 The ratio of two numbers is 13 : 20. If the difference between them is 189, then what is the smaller of the two numbers? 

(A) 279 

(B) 221 

(C) 297 

(D) 351 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 Marked price of an article is 40% more than its cost price. If 50% discount is given on the article, then selling price is what percent of the cost price? 

(A) 78% 

(B) 70% 

(C) 93% 

(D) 84% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 The line chart given below shows the production (in 10000s) of cars in 7 different months. 

What is the average monthly production for the given 7 months? 

(A) 32.2 (in 10000s) 

(B) 21.6 (in 10000s) 

(C) 23.5 (in 10000s) 

(D) 28.8 (in 10000s) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 The table given below shows the marks obtained by 4 students in 5 subjects. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

What are the average marks per subject obtained by P2? 

(A) 72.4 

(B) 75.8 

(C) 70.6 

D74.6 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 65 What is the value of [45 of ( 3/7 ÷ 15/14) − 6½ ÷ 3 − 4) + 2 ]? 

(A) 131/6

(B) 147/11

(C) 109/6

(D) 33/7

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 If Mohit can cover a distance of 1872 km in 26 hours, then what is the speed of Mohit? 

(A) 36 km/hr 

(B) 72 km/hr 

(C) 20 m/s 

(D) Both (B) and (C) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 67 A person purchases calculators at the rate of ₹345 per calculator. If he sells calculators on 40% loss then what will be the selling price of 28 calculators? 

(A) ₹6872 

(B) ₹8657 

(C) ₹13524 

(D) ₹5796 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 Height of a right circular cylinder is 20 cm.If the radius is its base 14 cm, then what will be the curved surface area of the cylinder? 

(A) 1940 cm² 

(B) 2120 cm² 

(C) 1760 cm² 

(D) 1880 cm² 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 The average salary of managers is x and the average salary of workers is y. The number of the managers is 15 times of the number of workers. What is average salary of managers and workers together? 

(A) (15x+y)/16 

(B) (15x+y)/(x+y) 

(C) (x+15y)/(x+y) 

(D) (x+15y)/16 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 The average weight of 10 articles is 65 kg. If three articles having an average weight of 72 kg are removed, then what will be new average weight of the remaining articles? 

(A) 58 kg 

(B) 65 kg 

(C) 71 kg 

(D) 62 kg 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 P, Q and R invest ₹14000, ₹18000 and ₹24000 respectively to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹25480, then what is difference between the profits of P and Q? 

(A) ₹2670 

(B) ₹3480 

(C) ₹1820 

(D) ₹2140 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 72 What will be the highest number which when divides 52 and 104 leaves remainder 4 and 8 respectively? 

(A) 12 

(B) 48 

(C) 16 

(D) 26 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 73 If x : y = 5 : 4, then what will be the ratio of (x/y) : (y/x)? 

(A) 25 : 16 

(B) 16 : 25 

(C) 4 : 5 

(D) 5 : 4 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 The line chart given below shows the production (in 10000s)of cars in 7 different months. 

Production of cars in month M2 is how much percent more than the production of cars in month M1? 

(A) 25% 

(B) 37.5% 

(C) 33.33% 

(D) 28% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 A sum of ₹4500 is lent at compound interest. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum (interest is compounded annually), then what will be the amount after 3 years? 

(A) ₹5989.5 

(B) ₹5689.5 

(C) ₹5686.5 

(D) ₹5889.5 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

The prince was told kill the dragon,but in order to do so, he had to cross the Forbidden Mountain. 

(A) was told killing the dragon 

(B) No improvement 

(C) was told too kill the dragon 

(D) was told to kill the dragon 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

Ten years since Mohit left India and started working for the betterment of the downtrodden people. 

(A) Ten years since 

(B) the betterment of 

(C) started working for 

(D) Mohit left India 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

At the drop of a hat 

(A) Instantly 

(B) Lately 

(C) Slowly 

(D) Seldom 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Calander 

(B) Calendar 

(C) Calandar 

(D) Calender 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate optionto fill in the blank. 

The film we sawlast night was boring. I wish I ………. seen it. 

(A) didn’t 

(B) hadn’t 

(C) shouldn’t 

(D) wouldn’t have 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Mentainance 

(B) Maintainance 

(C) Maintainence 

(D) Maintenance 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the antonym of the given word. 

BOISTEROUS 

(A) Aggravated 

(B) Incompetent 

(C) Restrained 

(D) Exuberant 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A person who thinks he/she is the best. 

(A) Eccentric 

(B) Egoist 

(C) Selfish 

(D) Garrulous 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

The mobile company changed their handsets last year, and by doing so they have managed to improve their sale. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) improve the sale 

(C) improve their sales 

(D) improved their sales 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the synonym of the given word. 

AMIABLE 

(A) Cheerful 

(B) Bashful 

(C) Hostile 

(D) Friendly 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Don’t use those pencils; use the one we bought in Portugal. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) use this ones 

(C) use one 

(D) use the ones 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 Select the synonym of the given word. 

TURBULENT 

(A) Violent 

(B) Miserable 

(C) Accurate 

(D) Troublesome 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. IfI ama bird, I would fly and explore the world. 

(A) I would fly 

(B) and explore 

(C) If I am 

(D) the world 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Beware of him. He is as sly as a __________

(A) goat 

(B) rabbit 

(C) snail 

(D) fox 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Most animals have their own habitats ……….(1) some make long journeys from one region to another. This ……….(2) called migration. It takes place at a particular …………(3) of the year. Birds are the best-known …………(4) but many other animals also migrate to places with …………..(5) climate. 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(1). 

(A) but 

(B) because 

(C) so 

(D) as 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(2). 

(A) are 

(B) were 

(C) is 

(D) was 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(3). 

(A) season 

(B) time 

(C) month 

(D) part 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(4). 

(A) visitors 

(B) migrants 

(C) travellers 

(D) tourists 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(5). 

(A) extreme 

(B) favourable 

(C) harsh 

(D) cold 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

URGE 

(A) Deter 

(B) Persuade 

(C) Triumph 

(D) Request 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

When She bid farewell to her parents, her eyes were full ……….. tears. 

(A) with 

(B) of 

(C) from 

(D) by 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. He cannot speak Spanish because he was born and brought up in Spain. 

(A) born and brought up 

(B) He cannot speak 

(C) because he was 

(D) in Spain. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A life history written by somebody else 

(A) Autobiography 

(B) Museology 

(C) Biography 

(D) Bibliography 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Spill the beans 

(A) To keep the secret 

(B) To be productive 

(C) To leak the secret 

(D) To be clumsy 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Let us go for a picnic today. The ………… is very pleasant. 

(A) atmosphere 

(B) climate 

(C) weather 

(D) season 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 14th Feb 2019 Shift-II 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 In a certain code, WORKER is written as OKROKR. How will ASSUME be written in that code? 

(A) SUESUE 

(B) SUESVE 

(C) SUMSUM 

(D) SSESSE 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 729 

(B) 125 

(C) 256 

(D) 225 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. Units, Watt, Volt 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Watt and Volt both are subset of Unit as both are measuring units. Therefore option (B) is the perfect representation of the given question. 

 

Q. 4 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some mouses are whales. 

2) All whales are dogs. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some mouses are dogs. 

II. No mouse is dog. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

9, 20, 42, 75, ? 

(A) 99 

(B) 129 

(C) 109 

(D) 119 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. H is to theleft of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting opposite H? 

(A) B 

(B) C 

(C) D 

(D) G 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All knights are nuns. 

2) All nuns are men. 

Conclusion: 

I. All men are knights. 

II. All knights are men. 

(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) EKO 

(B) JIU 

(C) KVG 

(D) QMJ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way asthe second term is related to the first term. 

DEH : HIL :: GHL : ? 

(A) KJP 

(B) KPL 

(C) KLP 

(D) KLO 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

DEH :HIL 

D+4 ->H 

E+4->I 

H+4->L 

Similarly 

GHL:? 

G+4->K 

H+4->L 

L+4->P 

Therefore, 

GHL:KLP 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Colombia 

(B) Canada 

(C) Asia 

(D) China 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 15 In a certain code, CIRCLE is written as 50. How will ALGAE be written in that code? 

(A) 57 

(B) 26 

(C) 23 

(D) 59 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end.R is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting between P and R? 

(A) U 

(B) R 

(C) Q 

(D) O 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

SNC, QPA, ORY, MTW, ? 

(A) KUU 

(B) KVV 

(C) KUV 

(D) KVU 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

20, 24, 40, 76, ? 

(A) 130 

(B) 120 

(C) 145 

(D) 140 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 J, K, L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subjectis taught on the day between Social Science and Math? 

(A) Science 

(B) Hindi 

(C) English 

(D) Arts 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Aeroplane : Hanger :: Gun : ? 

(A) Shoot 

(B) Armoury 

(C) Human 

(D) Fire 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 27 

(B) 625 

(C) 343 

(D) 125 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

30 + 28 × 3 − 16 ÷ 4 = −50 

(A) × and ÷ 

(B) + and − 

(C) − and × 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

22 : 242 :: 18 : ? 

(A) 275 

(B) 169 

(C) 162 

(D) 221 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Chef : Knife :: Surgeon : ? 

(A) Scalpel 

(B) Grip 

(C) Chisel 

(D) Spade 

Answer: (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 ‘Do or Die’ was the slogan of which famous movement in India? 

(A) Quit India Movement 

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement 

(C) Non-cooperation Movement 

(D) Rowlatt Movement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 Which Indian city is the first to make it to the UNESCO World Heritage List? 

(A) Bhubaneswar 

(B) Indore 

(C) Bengaluru 

(D) Ahmedabad 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 Doddabetta is the highest peak of which of the following mountain ranges? 

(A) Vindhya 

(B) Satpura 

(C) Aravalli 

(D) Nilgiri 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission is correct? 

(A) It consists of 10 members. 

(B) Its powers are only recommendatory in nature. 

(C) Mumbai serves as its Headquarters. 

(D) Its chairman must be sitting judge in the Supreme Court. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 The King Khalid International Airport serves which country? 

(A) Syria 

(B) Traq 

(C) Bahrain 

(D) Saudi Arabia 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is one of the criteria to represent the standard of living in a country? 

(A) Industrial growth 

(B) Poverty ratio 

(C) National income 

(D) Per capita income 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 Rapid integration between countries is known as: 

(A) globalisation 

(B) liberalisation 

(C) modernisation 

(D) privatisation 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 33 The term “double fault” is used in: 

(A) volleyball 

(B) tennis 

(C) snooker 

(D) kabbadi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 ……… is widely used as a fuel and is a major component of compressed natural gas. 

(A) Propane 

(B) Octane 

(C) Methane 

(D) Butane 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Which one of the following products received the first geographical indication (GI) in India? 

(A) Mizo Chilli 

(B) Ratlami Sev 

(C) Joha Rice 

(D) Darjeeling Tea 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 Where did Babur defeat Ibrahim Lodhi in 1526? 

(A) Haldighati 

(B) Kalinjar 

(C) Chausa 

(D) Panipat 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 Which temples are well-known for their Nagara-style of architecture having erotic sculptures? 

(A) Khajuraho 

(B) Somnath 

(C) Hampi 

(D) Meenakshi 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 The temperate grasslands of South Africa are called: 

(A) Downs 

(B) Praries 

(C) Pampas 

(D) Velds 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 The prestigious Laureus World Sports Awards was given to the Indian athlete: 

(A) Anirban Chatterji 

(B) Pankaj Advani 

(C) Dutee Chand 

(D) Vinesh Phogat 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 The term ‘mutation’ primarily refers to: 

(A) genetic migration 

(B) genetic line 

(C) genetic correction 

(D) genetic mistake 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Which of the following countries won the Men’s Hockey World Cup 2018? 

(A) Belgium 

(B) New Zealand 

(C) Argentina 

(D) Pakistan 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Panchayati Raj institutions came into existence under the: 

(A) 42^nd and 43^rd Amendment Acts 

(B) 86^th and 87^th Amendment Acts 

(C) 63^rd and 64^th Amendment Acts 

(D) 73^rd and 74^th Amendment Acts 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 Which IUCN document lists endangered species of flora and fauna? 

(A) Blue List 

(B) Green List 

(C) Red List 

(D) Black List 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Who among the following introduced the practice of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the feet of monarch) in the court? 

(A) Allauddin Khalji 

(B) Firoz Shah Tughluq 

(C) Muhammad bin Tughluq 

(D) Ghiyasuddin Balban 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 ……… is a microfinance organisation and community development bank founded in Bangladesh which makes small loans to the impoverished without requiring collateral. 

(A) Reserve bank 

(B) Federal bank 

(C) Cooperative bank 

(D) Grameen bank 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT a sustainable development goal targeted to be achieved by 2030? 

(A) Gender Equality 

(B) Zero Hunger 

(C) Good Health and Wellbeing 

(D) Space Research 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 A………… measures the humidity of the air. 

(A) hygrometer 

(B) micrometer 

(C) thermometer 

(D) hydrometer 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 48 Which household waste has an excellent recycling potential? 

(A) Vegetable scraps 

(B) Metal 

(C) Plastic 

(D) Rubber 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 World Energy Out look is released by the: 

(A) International Energy Tribunal 

(B) International Energy Agency 

(C) World Economic Forum 

(D) International Energy Organisation 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 According to the 2011 census, the total percentage of Muslims in India is : 

(A) 10.2 

(B) 12.4 

(C) 16.6 

(D) 14.2 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A sum of ₹ 11700 becomes ₹ 16848 in 2 years at the rate of compound interest. If the interest is compounded annually, then what will be the rate of interest? 

(A) 20 % 

(B) 15 % 

(C) 17.5 % 

(D) 25 % 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 A sum of ₹ 4650 is lent at simple interest. If the rate of interest is 7.5% per annum, then what will be the simple interest for 4 years? 

(A) ₹ 1395 

(B) ₹ 1295 

(C) ₹ 1495 

(D) ₹ 1300 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 53 Pipe C can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe D can fill the same tank in 40 hours. In how many hours both pipe C and D together can fill the same tank? 

(A) 60/7 hours 

(B) 60/11 hours 

(C) 120/13 hours 

(D) 120/11 hours 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 54 The length, breadth and height of a solid cuboid is 14 cm, 12 cm and 8 cm respectively. If cuboid is melted to form identical cubes of side 2 cm, then what will be the number of identical cubes? 

(A) 168 

(B) 144 

(C) 156 

(D) 128 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 The average weight of all the vehicles in a parking is 4000 kg. The average weight of 12 vehicles is 6000 kg. Average weight of the remaining vehicles is 3000 kg. What is the total number of vehicles in the parking? 

(A) 40 

(B) 36 

(C) 20 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the total number of vehicles in the parking be x. 

Then, Total weight of all vehicles = 4000x kg 

Given, Average weight of 12 vehicles = 6000 kg 

Total weight of 12 vehicles = 72000 kg 

Remaining vehicles = x-12 

Given, Average weight of (x-12) vehicles = 3000 kg 

Total weight of (x-12) vehicles = 3000*(x-12) = 3000x-36000 kg 

Then, 72000 + 3000x – 36000 = 4000x 

=> 1000x = 36000 => x = 36 

Therefore, Number of vehicles in the parking = 36. 

 

Q. 56 What is the value of 80 ÷ 40 − 10 − 5 × 4 of (⅓  ÷ 10/3) ? 

(A) -12 

(B) 40/3

(C) 22/5

(D) -10 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 57 The total weight of 12 boys and 8 girls is 1080 kg. If the average weight of boys is 50 kg, then what will be average weight of girls? 

(A) 55 kg 

(B) 50 kg 

(C) 60 kg 

(D) 45 kg 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 The diagonal of a square is 14 cm. What will be the length of the diagonal of the square whose area is double of the area of first square? 

(A) 28√2 cm 

(B) 14√2 cm 

(C) 28 cm 

(D) 21√2 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 59 The line chart given below shows the production (in 10000 s) of cars in 7 different months. 

Production of cars in month M4 is what percent of the production of cars in month M2? 

(A) 125% 

(B) 75% 

(C) 66.66% 

(D) 83.33% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 What is the value of [88 − 44 ÷ (22 × 4) of (½ − ¼ ÷ ⅛ )]?? 

(A) 265/3

(B) 703/9

(C) 514/9

(D) 711/3

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 The Least Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of two numbers are 60 and 3 respectively. If their difference is 3, then what will be the sum of these two numbers? 

(A) 24 

(B) 35 

(C) 27 

(D) 21 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the two numbers be a and b. 

We know that the product of two numbers = Product of their LCM and HCF ab = 3*60 = 180 

Given, a – b = 3 

We know that 

(a − b)² = (a + b)² − 4ab 

3² = (a + b)² − 4 × 180 

9 = (a + b)² − 720 

=> (a + b)² = 729 => a + b = 27 

Therefore, Sum of the two numbers = 27 

 

Q. 62 Selling price and cost price of an article are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What will be the profit/loss percentage? 

(A) 40% profit 

(B) 28.5% profit 

(C) 20% loss 

(D) 14.28% loss 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 The length of a rectangle is 16 cm. If the length of diagonal is 20 cm, then what will be the breadth of the rectangle? 

(A) 8 cm 

(B) 12 cm 

(C) 10 cm 

(D) 14 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 64 The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

What is the average production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee from year 2009 to 2011? 

(A) 1366.67 

(B) 1166.67 

(C) 1233.33 

(D) 1466.67 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 Manish goes to his hometown at the speed of 40 km/hr and returns to his home at the speed of Y km/hr. Distance between his home and hometown is 360 km. If he takes total 21 hours, then what is the value of Y? 

(A) 25 km/hr 

(B) 28 km/hr 

(C) 30 km/hr 

(D) 33 km/hr 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 P and Q together can complete a work in 20 days. If P alone can complete the same work in 36 days, then in how many days Q alone can complete the same work? 

(A) 48 days 

(B) 42 days 

(C) 45 days 

(D) 51 days 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 180 units (LCM of 20 and 36) 

Efficiency of P+Q = 180/20 = 9 units per day 

Efficiency of P = 180/36 = 5 units per day 

Then, Efficiency of Q = 9-5 = 4 units per day 

Therefore, Q can do the work together in 180/4 = 45 days 

 

Q. 67 The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

The production for the year 2011 is what percent of the production for the year 2009? 

(A) 157.5% 

(B) 175.25% 

(C) 187.5% 

(D) 205.25% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 3 : 8 respectively. If the sum of these four numbers is 432, then what is the sum of first and fourth number? 

(A) 192 

(B) 216 

(C) 240 

(D) 232 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the four numbers be 2x,5x,3x and 8x. 

Sum of four numbers = 2x+5x+3x+8x = 18x 

Given, 18x = 432 => x = 24 

Then, Sum of first and last numbers = 2x+8x = 10x = 10*24 = 240. 

 

Q. 69 The length of platform is double of the length of train. Speed of the train is 144 km/hr.If train crosses the platform in 30 seconds, then what is the length of the platform? 

(A) 600 metres 

(B) 800 metres 

(C) 500 metres 

(D) 400 metres 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 The ratio of number of children, women and men in colony is 6 : 4 : 3 respectively and the colony has at least 200 members. What will be minimum number of children in the colony? 

(A) 48 

(B) 72 

(C) 64 

(D) 96 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given, Children : Women : Men = 6 : 4 : 3 

Let number of children be 6x 

Number of women be 4x 

Number of men be 3x 

Total members in the colony = 6x+4x+3x = 13x 

Given, 13x = 200 

Here, 200 is not divisible by 13. So, Total members can be taken as 208. 

13x = 208 

=> x = 16 

Therefore, Number of children = 6x = 6*16 = 96. 

 

Q. 71 The marked price of an article is ₹ 1200 and discount offered is 31%. If profit is 15%, then what will be the cost price? 

(A) ₹640 

(B) ₹704 

(C) ₹748 

(D) ₹720 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 If the length of a rectangle increases by 50% and the breadth decreases by 25%, then what will be the percent increase in its area? 

(A) 15% 

(B) 17.5% 

(C) 12.5% 

(D) 25% 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, Increase in Length = 50% Decrease in Breadth = 25% 

50 × 25 

= 50 − 25 − 100

= 25 − 12.5 = 12.5 

Then, Overall Change in Area % 

 

Q. 73 Selling price of first article is ₹ 470 and cost price of second article is ₹ 470. If there is a loss of 20% on first article and profit of 20% on second article, then what will be the overall profit or loss percentage? 

(A) 2.22% loss 

(B) 4% profit 

(C) No profit no loss 

(D) 1.80% loss 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 Teena, Reena and Sheena start a business with investment of respectively ₹ 24000, ₹ 28000 and ₹ 20000. Teena invests for 8 months, Reena invest for 10 months and Sheena invests for one year. If the total profit at the end of year is ₹ 25810, then what is the share of Teena? 

(A) ₹6960 

(B) ₹10150 

(C) ₹7940 

(D) ₹8700 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 What is the median of the given data? 

1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3, 8, 2 

(A) 3 

(B) 5 

(C) 2 

(D) 2.5 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Arranging the given numbers in ascending order: 1,2,2,3,3,5,6,8,8 

Median is the middle most number in the series which is 3. 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Gita won’t pass the examination and …………. will Rita. 

(A) nor 

(B) or 

(C) either 

(D) neither 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Tourists visiting Leh take home photos and memories but leave back a mountain of waste. 

(A) leave away 

(B) left back 

(C) No improvement 

(D) leave behind 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

The Second Anglo-Maratha Warhad shattered the (1)……… of the Maratha chiefs, but not theirspirit. The loss of their freedom caused them deep (2)……… They madea last (3)……….. attempt to regain their independencein 1817. The lead in organising a united front of the Maratha chiefs (4)…….. by the Peshwa who was smarting under the (5)……….. contro! exercised by the British Resident. 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) patience 

(B) dignity 

(C) power 

(D) time 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) agony 

(B) distress 

(C) fear 

(D) depression 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) violent 

(B) massive 

(C) desperate 

(D) feeble 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) was taking 

(B) was taken 

(C) had taken 

(D) were taken 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) cruel 

(B) orthodox 

(C) pleasant 

(D) rigid 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 83 Select the synonym of the given word. 

AGILE 

(A) Aggressive 

(B) Active 

(C) Dull 

(D) Lazy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Gratefull 

(B) Greatfull 

(C) Greatful 

(D) Grateful 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Select the antonym of the given word. 

HIDEOUS 

(A) Beautiful 

(B) Secretive 

(C) Detestable 

(D) Ugly 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the antonym of the given word. 

BLESS 

(A) Purify 

(B) Sanctify 

(C) Wish 

(D) Curse 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 From the given options, identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Ram alwaystries to do things very carefully and made sure he does them correctly. 

(A) to do things 

(B) Ram always tries 

(C) does them 

(D) and made sure 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If they had a playground here, they can play after their school is over. 

(A) after their 

(B) If they had 

(C) school is over 

(D) they can play 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Occation 

(B) Occassion 

(C) Occasion 

(D) Ocassion 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

A red letter day 

(A) (A) sad day 

(B) (A) boring day 

(C) (A) memorable day 

(D) (A) painful day 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Someone who leaves one’s country to settle in another country. 

(A) Tourist 

(B) Emigrant 

(C) Foreigner 

(D) Explorer 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Just are the ….. of God. 

(A) ways 

(B) deeds 

(C) plans 

(D) tricks 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the synonym of the given word. 

MELODIOUS 

(A) Rhythmic 

(B) Rattling 

(C) Tuneful 

(D) Doleful 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To eat humble pie 

(A) To deny desperately 

(B) To defend oneself 

(C) To accept error 

(D) To be aggressive 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 From the given options, identify the segmentin the sentence which contains the grammatical error. I said you to prepare the article yesterday but you didn’t. 

(A) the article 

(B) I said you 

(C) you didn’t 

(D) to prepare 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

You can visit me on ………. at 7 o’clock. 

(A) tomorrow 

(B) next month 

(C) today 

(D) Sunday 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Yesterday eleven coaches of a train headed for Delhi was derailed at Vaishali district of Bihar. 

(A) was derailed in 

(B) were derailed in 

(C) No improvement 

(D) were derail at 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

…………. are to be avoided: they lead to conflict. 

(A) Questions 

(B) Statements 

(C) Arguments 

(D) Decisions 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

On inspection a hundred year old bridge was find being too weak to take the load of lakhs of vehicles everyday. 

(A) was being found 

(B) No improvement 

(C) was found to be 

(D) has to be found 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who is present everywhere 

(A) Omnipotent 

(B) Omniscient 

(C) Omnipresent 

(D) Omnivorous 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 14th Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 J, K, L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subject is taught on the day between Science and Math? 

(A) Hindi 

(B) Arts 

(C) Science 

(D) English 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 2 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when the mirror is placed at the right side.

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Chapter : Book :: Arc : ? 

(A) Cube 

(B) Triangle 

(C) Square 

(D) Circle 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 5 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

16, 20, 36, 72, ? 

(A) 126 

(B) 116 

(C) 136 

(D) 146 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting arounda circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D.H isto theleft of D. E is between C and A. Whois sitting fourth to the left of A? 

(A) D 

(B) B 

(C) F 

(D) C

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Proud : Haughty : Fallacy : ? 

(A) Ego 

(B) War 

(C) Fall 

(D) Illusion 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

32 : 256 :: 16 : ? 

(A) 128 

(B) 122 

(C) 144 

(D) 66 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Ottawa 

(B) Thimphu 

(C) Beijing 

(D) Chile 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 11 In a certain code, BICYCLE is written as 59. How will WINDOW be written in that code? 

(A) 88 

(B) 91 

(C) 89 

(D) 77 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 13 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

8, 19, 41, 74, ? 

(A) 108 

(B) 98 

(C) 118 

(D) 128 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) ILP 

(B) JHU 

(C) FJU 

(D) THI 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 16 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 651 

(B) 571 

(C) 561 

(D) 471 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 In a certain code, BOTANY is written as OBATYN. How will OOLOGY be written in that code? 

(A) OOOLGY 

(B) OLOOYG 

(C) OOLOYG 

(D) OOOLYG 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some forces are volumes. 

2) Some currents are volumes. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some volumes are forces. 

II. Some volumes are currents. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some wines are chairs. 

2) All chairs are drums. 

Conclusion 

I. All chairs are wines. 

II. Some drums are wines. 

(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Currencies, Yuan, Baht 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 21 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a moviesitting in a row.S is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting second to the right ofS.P is sitting between O and Q.U is notsitting at any extreme end. is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting between S and Q? 

(A) U 

(B) R 

(C) O 

(D) P 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

RMB, POZ, NQX, LSV, ? 

(A) JUT 

(B) JVT 

(C) JUS 

(D) JVS 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

21 + 5 × 2 − 21 ÷ 3 = 12 

(A) + and − 

(B) − and ÷ 

(C) − and × 

(D) × and ÷ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 4 

(B) 5 

(C) 11 

(D) 13 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

GKM : FIO: : EIK : ? 

(A) DGN 

(B) DFM 

(C) DGM 

(D) DHM 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Ashoka appointed religious officials, known as: 

(A) Dhamma-mahamatta 

(B) Dhammadhiraja 

(C) Dhammadhikari 

(D) Dhammadhyaksha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 Bank rate is decided by which of the following agencies? 

(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India 

(B) Reserve Bank of India 

(C) State Bank of India 

(D) Ministry of Finance 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 The cabinet has raised the Minimum Support Price of wheat for 2018-19 by: 

(A) ₹ 105 per quintal 

(B) ₹ 202 per quintal 

(C) ₹ 309 per quintal 

(D) ₹ 600 per quintal 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 In which year was the Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro held? 

(A) 1991 

(B) 1993 

(C) 1992 

(D) 1990 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Pandit Bhimsen Joshi is associated with which tradition of classical music? 

(A) Qawwali 

(B) Thumri 

(C) Carnatic 

(D) Hindustani 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 Muscle cramp is caused by: 

(A) water loss during sweating 

(B) fatiguing muscles respiring aerobically 

(C) increased blood circulation 

(D) accumulation of lactic acid 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 Which of the following languages is NOT a part of the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution? 

(A) Dogri 

(B) Bodo 

(C) Persian 

(D) Santhal 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following is NOT in the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India? 

(A) Appellate 

(B) Original 

(C) Advisory 

(D) Financial 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 The percolation rate of water is the least in ……….. soil. 

(A) clayey 

(B) sandy 

(C) gravel 

(D) loamy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 The Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in which of the following fields? 

(A) Medicine 

(B) Social work 

(C) Literature 

(D) Cinema 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 36 The 2018 Commonwealth Games were held in: 

(A) Gold Coast 

(B) London 

(C) Doha 

(D) Brazil 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of the BASIC grouping? 

(A) South Africa 

(B) China 

(C) Brazil 

(D) Kenya 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 The 86^th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 inserted which of the following articles in the Constitution of India? 

(A) 21-A

(B) 39-A 

(C) 20-A 

(D) 56-C 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Which of the following heritage sites shows the Dravidian style of architecture? 

(A) Konark 

(B) Bodh Gaya 

(C) Akshardham 

(D) Hampi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 ……….. was the founder of the Shuddhi Movement. 

(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati 

(B) Swami Vivekananda 

(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 

(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 Which among the following CANNOT be used as indicators? 

(A) China Rose 

(B) Phenolphthalein 

(C) Common salt 

(D) Turmeric 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built across the river: 

(A) Pamba 

(B) Mahanadi 

(C) Krishna 

(D) Cauvery 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The Jataka tales are associated with which of the following sects? 

(A) Lingayat 

(B) Shaivism 

(C) Jainism 

(D) Buddhism 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Mirabai Chanu won a Gold medal at which of the following events held in Anaheim, United States? 

(A) World Snooker Championships 

(B) World Archery Championships 

(C) World Weightlifting Championships 

(D) World Tennis Championships 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 ……… refers to a deposit into a bank accountor a financial institution with no specified maturity date. 

(A) demand deposit 

(B) fixed deposit 

(C) recurring deposit 

(D) current deposit 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 The ‘Gol Gumbaz’ is located in: 

(A) Bijapur 

(B) Bidar 

(C) Daulatabad 

(D) Hyderabad 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 According to Census 2011, ………. has the highest literacy rate. 

(A) Mizoram 

(B) Goa 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Karnataka 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 ‘Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan’, is the initiative of ……… 

(A) Indian Council of Historical Research 

(B) Ministry of Tourism 

(C) Archaeological Survey of India 

(D) Ministry of Culture 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 Land and sea breeze are caused due to …………. 

(A) convection 

(B) acclimatisation 

(C) radiation 

(D) conduction 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 What is the role of mucus secreted by the stomach? 

(A) To protect the lining of the stomach 

(B) To digest fats 

(C) To kill the germs in the food 

(D) To digest the proteins 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 P, Q and R can complete a work in 30 days, 15 days and 20 days respectively. P works on first day, then Q works on second day and then R works on third day and so on. In how many days the work will be completed? 

(A) 20 days 

(B) 21 days 

(C) 22 days 

(D) 19 days 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 60 units (LCM of 30,15 and 20) 

Efficiency of P = 60/30 = 2 units per day 

Efficiency of Q = 60/15 = 4 units per day 

Efficiency of R = 60/20 = 3 units per day 

Then, 9 units of work will be completed in 3 days. 

=> 54 units of work will be completed in 18 days. 

Next 2 units of work will be completed by P in 1 day. 

Remaining 4 units of work will be completed by Q in 1 day. 

Therefore, Time taken to complete 60 units of work = 18+1+1 = 20 days. 

 

Q. 52 If length, breadth and height of cuboids are increases by 10%, 20% and 15% respectively, then what will be the percentage change in its volume? 

(A) 47.4% 

(B) 45% 

(C) 51.8% 

(D) 54.2% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 What is the value of (24 ÷ 4 − ⅔ of 21/8 ÷ ¼)?

(A) −1 

(B) -96/15

(C) 91/16

(D) -8

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 54 If the average of five consecutive odd numbers is 17, then what will be the highest number among them ? 

(A) 21 

(B) 25 

(C) 19 

(D) 23.5 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 The length of a rectangle is 24 cm. If the length of diagonal is 26 cm, then what will be the breadth of the rectangle? 

(A) 12 cm 

(B) 14 cm 

(C) 15 cm 

(D) 10 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 If selling price of an article is ₹ 432 and profit is 35%, then what will be the cost price of the article? 

(A) ₹480.40 

(B) ₹320 

(C) ₹583.20 

(D) ₹368 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 A train covers a certain distance at a speed of 45 m/s in 15 minutes. How much time it will take to cover the same distance at the speed of 60 m/s? 

(A) 3.25 minutes 

(B) 4.75 minutes 

(C) 6.75 minutes 

(D) 11.25 minutes 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 What is average of 410, 475, 525, 560 and 720? 

(A) 561 

(B) 542 

(C) 538 

(D) 526 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 The diagonal of a square is 10 cm. What will be the length of the diagonal of the square whose area is double of the area of first square? 

(A) 10√2 cm 

(B) 8√2 cm 

(C) 20√2 cm 

(D) 20 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 60 What will be the difference between the compound interest (interest is compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of ₹ 6400 at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years? 

(A) ₹ 90 

(B) ₹ 72 

(C) ₹ 128 

(D) ₹ 64 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 The radii of two circles are 20 cm and 15 cm respectively. If a third circle has an area which is equal to the sum of the areas of the two given circles, what will be the radius of the third circle? 

(A) 35 cm 

(B) 22 cm 

(C) 27 cm 

(D) 25 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 A sum of ₹ 3460 is lent at simple interest. If the rate of interest is 5% per annum,then what will be the simple interest for 5 years? 

(A) ₹ 875 

(B) ₹ 865 

(C) ₹ 855 

(D) ₹ 845 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, Principal = Rs.3460 

Rate of interest = 5% per annum 

Time period = 5 years 

Then, Simple Interest for 1 year = 5% of 3460 = Rs.173 

Simple Interest for 5 years = 5*173 = Rs.865 

 

Q. 63 What is the value of 5/4 of 12/5 ÷ 4/25 + ½ × ¾ ?

(A) 149/4

(B) 153/8

(C) 149/8

(D) 153/16

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 64 What will be the ratio of Highest common Factor and Least Common Multiple of two numbers 14 and 18? 

(A) 1 : 49 

(B) 1 : 27 

(C) 1 : 21 

(D) 1 : 63 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given numbers are 14 and 18. 

LCM of 14 and 18 = 126 

HCF of 14 and 18 = 2 

Therefore, HCF : LCM = 2 : 126 = 1 : 63 

 

Q. 65 The bar chart given below shows the annual production (in 1000 tonnes) of coffee of a country for years 2009 to 2013.

What is the percentage increase in the production of coffee in the year 2011 as compared to year 2010? 

(A) 20% 

(B) 27.5% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 32.5% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 The pie chart given below shows sale of different types of cars in a city for a given year. The total sale of cars in the city is 600000.

What is the sum of total number of cars sold of type T5, T6 and T3? 

(A) 232000 

(B) 228000 

(C) 245000 

(D) 252000 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Cars sold of type T3 = 13% of 6 lakhs 

Cars sold of type T5 = 17% of 6 lakhs 

Cars sold of type T6 = 8% of 6 lakhs 

Therefore, Total cars sold of type T3, T5 and T6 = 13% of 6 lakhs + 17% of 6 lakhs + 8% of 6 lakhs = 38% of 6 lakhs = 228000 

 

Q. 67 If two successive discounts of 25% and 20% respectively are given, then what will be the net discount percentage? 

(A) 42.5% 

(B) 45% 

(C) 50% 

(D) 40% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 What is the mean of the given data? 

23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32 

(A) 26.75 

(B) 27.69 

(C) 27.5 

(D) 26.12 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 A alone can complete a work in 10 days and B alone can complete the same work in 20 days. In how many days both 4 and B together can complete half of the total work? 

(A) 40/3 days

(B) 20/3 days 

(C) 10/3 days

(D) 25/3 days

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 P and Q starts a business with investment of ₹ 28000 and ₹ 42000 respectively. P invests for 8 months and Q invests for one year.If the total profit at the end of the year is ₹ 21125, then what is the share of P? 

(A) ₹ 12625 

(B) ₹ 14625 

(C) ₹ 6500 

(D) ₹ 8750 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 71 The pie chart given below shows sale of different types of cars in a city for a given year. The total sale of cars in the city is 600000.

What is the difference in the number of cars sold of type T5 and T1? 

(A) 21000 

(B) 24000 

(C) 18000 

(D) 27000 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Number of cars sold of T1 = 20% of 6 lakhs 

Number of cars sold of T5= 17% of 6 lakhs 

Required difference = 20% of 6 lakhs – 17% of 6 lakhs = 3% of 6 lakhs = 18000 

 

Q. 72 Four numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 1 : 7 : 5 respectively. If the sum of these four numbers is 336, then what is the sum of first and fourth number? 

(A) 152 

(B) 172 

(C) 168 

(D) 146 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the four numbers be 3x,x,7x,5x 

Sum of the four numbers = 3x+x+7x+5x = 16x 

Given, 16x = 336 => x = 21 

Then, the numbers are, 

3x = 3*21 = 63 

x = 21 

7x = 7*21 = 147 

5x = 5*21 = 105 

Therefore, Sum of first and fourth numbers is 63+105 = 168. 

 

Q. 73 A train is moving at the speed of 20 m/sec. If the length of train is 540 metres, then how much time will it take to cross a pole? 

(A) 108 seconds 

(B) 81 seconds 

(C) 27 seconds 

(D) 54 seconds 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 The ratio of number of children, women and men in colony is 6 : 4 : 3 respectively and the colony has at least 200 members. What could be the minimum number of women in the colony? 

(A) 75 

(B) 80 

(C) 64 

(D) 20 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the number of children, women and men be 6x, 4x and 3x respectively. 

Then, Total members in the colony = 6x+4x+3x = 13x 

Given that the colony has at least 200 members. 

Since, 200 is not divisible by 13, Total members in the colony will be 208. 

13x = 208 => x = 16 

Therefore, Number of women = 4x = 4*16 = 64 

 

Q. 75 A person purchases bags at the rate of ₹ 128 per bag. If he sells bags on 20% profit, then what will be the selling price of 15 bags? 

(A) ₹ 1600 

(B) ₹ 2304 

(C) ₹ 2194 

(D) ₹ 1886 

Answer: (B) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

My favourite novelist in all was Charles Dickens, who really left his mark on me. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) My favourite novelist of all 

(C) My favourite novelist between all 

(D) My favourite novelist at all 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The man greeted his secretary and told her that he need her help to complete the work immediately. 

(A) to complete the work 

(B) told her that 

(C) he need her help 

(D) greeted his secretary 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

Meeting my teacher after ten years was an unforgotten moment that I will always treasure. 

(A) a forgotten moment 

(B) an unforgettable moment 

(C) the unforgotten moment 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Smoking is ……… to health. 

(A) tedious 

(B) serious 

(C) anxious 

(D) injurious 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the antonym of the given word. 

STINGY 

(A) Generous 

(B) Skinny 

(C) Cheap 

(D) Mean 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Let us ……….. our heads together to solve the problem. 

(A) join 

(B) put 

(C) bring 

(D) combine 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To see eye to eye 

(A) To agree with another 

(B) To love another 

(C) To threaten another 

(D) To fight with another 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Acheive 

(B) Achieve 

(C) Acheeve 

(D) Achiev 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

In the United States of America two dozen people ……… due to the present cold wave. 

(A) have been killed 

(B) are being killed 

(C) has killed 

(D) has been killed 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

When you go by rail, make sure taking the express train that stops only at big stations. 

(A) make sure to taking 

(B) No improvement 

(C) make sure to take 

(D) making sure to take 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

I think that childhood is a time when there are ………… ways to make life enjoyable. 

(A) many 

(B) less 

(C) little 

(D) more 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. After finishing his tiring game, Rohan leaned by the wall. 

(A) his game 

(B) Rohan leaned 

(C) After finishing 

(D) by the wall 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word. 

IMPECCABLE 

(A) Imperfect 

(B) Flawless 

(C) Smooth 

(D) Clean 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To have the gift of the gab 

(A) To be eloquent 

(B) To be intelligent 

(C) To be boastful 

(D) To be gifted 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the antonym of the given word. 

OPAQUE 

(A) Turbid 

(B) Transparent 

(C) Fogged 

(D) Murky 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Without water(1)………. animal can survive.In desert regions the greatest (2)…….. to life is dying of thirst. But many creatures are able to make useof(3)………… little water that exists in arid areas. One of nature’s masterpieces (4)………… creatures equipped to (5)………… with desert life is the hardy camel. 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) any 

(B) some 

(C) every 

(D) no 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) threat 

(B) warning 

(C) worry 

(D) requirement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) the 

(B) that 

(C) very 

(D) what 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) besides 

(B) about 

(C) among 

(D) between 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) cope 

(B) resist 

(C) adapt 

(D) live 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 96 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A place where fights take place 

(A) Arsenal 

(B) Arena 

(C) Asylum 

(D) Aquarium 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A poem that expresses lament for the dead 

(A) Lyric 

(B) Ode 

(C) Elegy 

(D) Sonnet 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If it weren’t for the old man, we haven’t had anything to talk about. 

(A) we haven’t had 

(B) anything to talk 

(C) for the old man 

(D) If it weren’t 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Select the synonym of the given word. 

SLENDER 

(A) Narrow 

(B) Wide 

(C) Slim 

(D) Weak 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Permanant 

(B) Permanent 

(C) Pirmenent 

(D) Perminent 

Answer: (B) 

SSC GD 13th Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All birds are cups. 

2) Some cups are cats. 

Conclusion: 

I. All birds are cats. 

II. Some cups are birds. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 2 There is only one dictionary in a Library which will be used by 6 students P, Q, R, S, T and U, one by one. S will useit immediately after Q andbefore P. T will use it immediately after R and before U. R will use the dictionary after P. Who will use the dictionary the last? 

(A) Q 

(B) P 

(C) T 

(D) U 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 Ina certain code, CONCOLOGY is written as YGOLOCNOC. How will PALAEOGRAPHY be written in that code? 

(A) YHPRAGOEALAP 

(B) YHPARGOEALAP 

(C) YHPARGOAELAP 

(D) YHPARGEOALAP 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

7, 18, 40, 73, ? 

(A) 117 

(B) 115 

(C) 127 

(D) 107 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure x will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

15, 19, 35, 71, ? 

(A) 125 

(B) 141 

(C) 145 

(D) 135 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

India, Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Quarrel : War :: Wish : ? 

(A) Ask 

(B) Desire 

(C) Drown 

(D) Sad 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 9 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. is to the left of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting third to the right of A? 

(A) D

(B) G 

(C) B

(D) C 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 10 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

24 + 2 × 2 − 6 ÷ 3 = 22 

(A) × and ÷ 

(B) − and ÷ 

(C) + and − 

(D) + and × 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 12 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Kabul 

(B) Bahrain 

(C) Vienna 

(D) Canberra 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 In a certain code, OOLOGY is written as 89. How will VIROLOGY be written in that code? 

(A) 89 

(B) 123 

(C) 97 

(D) 113 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 15 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All goats are dogs. 

2) Some goats are cows. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some dogs are cows. 

II. Some cows are dogs. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

19 : 441 :: 17 : ? 

(A) 225 

(B) 144 

(C) 169 

(D) 361 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 519 

(B) 566 

(C) 357 

(D) 276 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 18 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row.S is sitting at one extreme end.Q is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q.U is not sitting at any extreme end. is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting to the immediate right of P? 

(A) Q 

(B) R 

(C) U 

(D) O 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

DFH : IKM : EGI : ? 

(A) JLM 

(B) JLN 

(C) JIM 

(D) JLI 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 13 

(B) 6 

(C) 9 

(D) 11 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

QLA, ONY, MPW, KRU, ? 

(A) ITS 

(B) ITU 

(C) JTS 

(D) IST 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Assume : Presume :: Calm : ? 

(A) Peace 

(B) Proclaim 

(C) Ego 

(D) Sedate 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) SGH 

(B) SHT 

(C) HKO 

(D) IET 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Magnus Carlsen is famous for which of the following sports? 

(A) Tennis 

(B) Football 

(C) Carrom 

(D) Chess 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Which of the following terms is NOT used in the banking field? 

(A) Repo rate 

(B) Zero hour 

(C) Collateral 

(D) Interest rate swap 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 From which country did the Indian Constitution borrow the idea of directive principles of state policy? 

(A) Britain 

(B) Germany 

(C) South Africa 

(D) Ireland 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Which of the following ministries presents the Economic Survey in the parliament every year? 

(A) Finance 

(B) Corporate Affairs 

(C) Home Affairs 

(D) Commerce 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 As per the text ‘Charaka Samhita’ how many bones are there in a human body? 

(A) 206 

(B) 360 

(C) 370 

(D) 208 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 The peninsular plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass? 

(A) Gondwana land 

(B) Tethys 

(C) Andean 

(D) Laurasia 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 The popular depiction named ‘Ravana Shaking Mount Kailash’ is depicted in which of the following caves? 

(A) Kanheri 

(B) Ellora 

(C) Hatigumpha 

(D) Ajanta 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 Which article of the Indian Constitution provides powers to the president of India to declare National emergency? 

(A) Article 356 

(B) Article 371 

(C) Article 352 

(D) Article 372 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 The Brihadeswara temple at Tanjore belongs to which of the religious sects? 

(A) Alvars 

(B) Shakta 

(C) Nayanars 

(D) Vedic 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Which one of the following waves are used by the common TV remote control? 

(A) Lasers 

(B) Radio waves 

(C) Ultrasonic waves 

(D) Infrared waves 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 The National Sports Day is celebrated on which day in India? 

(A) August 29 

(B) August 26 

(C) August 28 

(D) August 27 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 The Sangai festival is celebrated in which of the following states of India? 

(A) Arunachal Pradesh 

(B) Meghalaya 

(C) Nagaland 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 According to Union Budget 2018, how much amount was allocated for Operation Green? 

(A) 600 crore 

(B) 500 crore 

(C) 400 crore 

(D) 700 crore 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 Which juice secreted by the organs in the alimentary canal plays an important role in the digestion of fats? 

(A) Pancreatic juice, saliva 

(B) Hydrochloric acid, mucus 

(C) Bile juice, Pancreatic juice 

(D) Saliva, hydrochloric acid 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 40 “The Long walk to Freedom”is the autobiography of: 

(A) Nelson Mandela 

(B) Martin Luther King 

(C) John F Kennedy 

(D) Abraham Lincoln 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 Who is the Ex-Office Chairman of Rajya Sabha? 

(A) Opposition Leader in Rajya Sabha 

(B) Speaker 

(C) Vice President of India 

(D) Prime Minister 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Which of the below rivers is also referred to as “Dakshin Ganga’? 

(A) Periyar 

(B) Krishna 

(C) Kaveri 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 Who of the following gave the statement “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”? 

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 

(C) Chittaranjan Das 

(D) Dada Bhai Naoroji 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 44 The ancient name of Coastal Orissa was: 

(A) Kalinga 

(B) Kaushambi 

(C) Kamarupa 

(D) Khandesh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 The novel “The God of Small Things” is inspired by which country? 

(A) China 

(B) India 

(C) Bangladesh 

(D) Nepal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT a major source of proteins? 

(A) Soyabean 

(B) Wheat 

(C) Fish 

(D) Gram 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 A solution of which of the following is needed to test the presence of proteins? 

(A) Copper sulphate and caustic soda solution 

(B) Iodine and caustic soda solution 

(C) Copper sulphate and iodine solution 

(D) Iodine solution 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following statements describes “endemic species”? 

(A) Species with less population may move to the category of endangered species. 

(B) Species that are not found existing after intense searches. 

(C) Species that are found only in some particular areas. 

(D) Species that have come from abroad. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 Which of the following days is observed as the “Human Rights Day’’? 

(A) February 10 

(B) November 10 

(C) December 10 

(D) January 10 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 50 Which of the following aquatic animals does NOT have gills? 

(A) Octopus 

(B) Squid 

(C) Clown fish 

(D) Whale 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If C alone can complete two-third part of a work in 12 days, then in how many days C can complete the whole work? 

(A) 24 days 

(B) 15 days 

(C) 8 days 

(D) 18 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 What is the value of 512 ÷ 16 + 4 × 5/2 of (⅛ + ⅓)? 

(A) 455/12

(B) 449/12

(C) 439/12

(D) 443/12

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 The perimeter of a rectangular table is 60 cm. If the area of the rectangular table is 209 cm² , then what will be the length of the table? 

(A) 17 cm 

(B) 19 cm 

(C) 13 cm 

(D) 21 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 Marked price of an article is 70% more than its cost price. After giving a discount of 10%, article is sold for ₹ 1071. What will be the cost price of the article? 

(A) ₹ 530 

(B) ₹ 590 

(C) ₹ 700 

(D) ₹ 620 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let Cost Price of the article be Rs.100x 

Then, Marked Price of the article = 170% of Rs.100x = Rs.170x 

Selling Price after discount of 10% = 90% of Rs.170x = Rs.153x 

Given, Rs.153x = Rs.1071 

=> x = Rs.7 

Therefore, Cost Price = Rs.100x = Rs.100*7 = Rs.700 

 

Q. 55 A certain sum at compound interest amounts to Rs.7800 for 5 years and for six years to ₹ 9048 (interest is compounded annually). What is the rate of interest? 

(A) 12% 

(B) 15% 

(C) 16% 

(D) 14% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 56 If cost price of an article is ₹ 928 and profit is 15%, then what will be the net profit? 

(A) ₹ 154.50 

(B) ₹ 139.20 

(C) ₹ 212 

(D) ₹ 168.40 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, Cost Price = Rs.928 

Profit = 15% 

Then, Net profit = 15% of 928 = 15/100 × 928 = Rs.139.2 

 

Q. 57 Simple interest for three years for a certain sum at the rate of 15% is ₹ 9000. If the rate of interest becomes 30%, then what will be the simple interest for two years? 

(A) ₹27000 

(B) ₹4500 

(C) ₹12000 

(D) ₹9000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 What is the value of 1040 ÷ 65 − 8 × ½ of (½ − ⅓)? 

(A) 44/3

(B) 49/3

(C) 50/3

(D) 46/3

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 The pie chart given below shows the imports of 7 different items P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6 and P7 as a percentage of total imports of a country. 

If the total import of item P1 is ₹ 33000, then what is the value of imports of item P2? 

(A) 46000 

(B) 57500 

(C) 80500 

(D) 69000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 If 1/A :1/B : 1/C = 2 : 3 : 4, then what is the ratio of A : B : C ? 

(A) 6 : 4 : 3 

(B) 4 : 3 : 6 

(C) 3 : 6 : 4 

(D) 12 : 6 : 8 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 In a class there are total 70 students. The average weight of 26 girls is 28 kg and average weight of the remaining students is 35 kg. What will be the average weight(in kg) of all 70 students? 

(A) 32.4 kg 

(B) 36.8 kg 

(C) 35.2 kg 

(D) 34.6 kg 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Number of students = 70 

Given, Average weight of 26 girls = 28 kg 

Total weight of 26 girls = 28*26 = 728 kg 

Remaining students = 70-26 = 44 

Average weight of 44 students = 35 

Total weight of 44 students = 44*35 = 1540 kg 

Total weight of 70 students = 1540+728 = 2268 kg 

Average weight of 70 students = 2268/70 = 32.4kg 

 

Q. 62 A 250 metre long train takes 30 seconds to cross a 350 metres long bridge. How much time train will take to cross a 550 metre long bridge? 

(A) 38 seconds 

(B) 42 seconds 

(C) 40 seconds 

(D) 35 seconds 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 63 In an election between Ravi and Manoj, Ravi gets 61% of the total valid votes. If total votes were 25000 and 20% of the total votes were declared invalid, then other candidate Manoj get how much number of votes? 

(A) 8200 

(B) 7800 

(C) 9750 

(D) 8025 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, Ravi got 61% of valid votes. Then, Manoj gets 39% of valid votes 

Given, Total votes = 25000 

Total valid votes = 80% of 25000 = 20000 

Then, Manoj gets 39% of 20000 = 7800 votes 

 

Q. 64 The price of two articles are in the ratio of 5 : 6 respectively. The price of first article is increased by 30% and the price of second article is decreased by X%. If the new ratio is 13 : 11 respectively, then what is the value of X? 

(A) 9.09 

(B) 8.33 

(C) 11.11 

(D) 12.5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 The pie chart given below shows sale of different types of cars in a city for a given year. The total sale of cars in the city is 600000.

How many T4 cars are sold in the city for the given year? 

(A) 144000 

(B) 138000 

(C) 126000 

(D) 128000 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Percentage of T4 cars sold = 21% 

Total cars sold in the given year = 600000 

Then, Cars sold of T4 = 21% of 600000 = 126000 

 

Q. 66 The length and breadth of a rectangle is 16 cm and 12 cm. What will be the area of the rectangle? 

(A) 144 cm² 

(B) 192 cm² 

(C) 212 cm² 

(D) 176 cm² 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given, Length of the rectangle = 16 cm 

Breadth of the rectangle = 12 cm 

Area of the rectangle = Length × Breadth = 16 × 12 = 192cm² 

 

Q. 67 M can complete a work in 14 days less than the time taken by L. If both M and L together can complete the same work in 24 days, then in how many days L alone can complete the same work? 

(A) 35 days 

(B) 56 days 

(C) 21 days 

(D) 42 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 U, V and W invest sum in the ratio of 15 : 20 : 27 respectively. If they earned total profit of ₹ 10230 at the end of year, then what is the share of V? 

(A) ₹2870 

(B) ₹3300 

(C) ₹3150 

(D) ₹3500 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Ratio of profits = Ratio of investments 

Let Profit of U, V, W be Rs.15x, Rs.20x, Rs.27x respectively. 

Given, Rs.15x+Rs.20x+Rs.27x = Rs.16230 

Rs.62x = Rs.16230 

=> x = Rs.165 

Therefore, Profit of V = Rs.20x = Rs.165*20 = Rs.3300 

 

Q. 69 Mohan covers a distance of 187 km at the speed of S km/hr. If Mohan increases his speed by 6 km/hr, then he takes 6 hours less. What is the value of S? 

(A) 12 km/hr 

(B) 14 km/hr 

(C) 11 km/hr 

(D) 13 km/hr 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 The radii of two circles are 15 cm and 8 cm.If the area of a third circle is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles, then what will be the radius of the third circle? 

(A) 17 cm 

(B) 23 cm 

(C) 21 cm 

(D) 19 cm 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Radii of two circles = 15 cm and 8 cm 

π (15² + 8²) = π(225 + 64) = π(289) = π(17 )² πr² 

Sum of areas of two circles = which is in the form of Hence, Radius of third square = 17 cm 

 

Q. 71 The pie chart given below shows the imports of 7 different items P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6 and P7 as a percentage of total imports of a country. 

Imports of item P6 is how much percent more than the imports of item P5? 

(A) 75% 

(B) 33% 

(C) 80% 

(D) 9% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 P sells an article to Q at a loss of 5% and Q sells that article to R at a loss of 20%. If R pays ₹ 2812 for the article, then what was the cost price for P? 

(A) ₹3750 

(B) ₹3700 

(C) ₹3515 

(D) ₹3250 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the Cost Price of P be Rs.100x 

Selling Price of P = Cost Price of Q = 95% of Rs.100x = Rs.95x 

Selling Price of Q = Cost Price of R = 80% of Rs.95x = Rs.76x 

Given, Cost Price of R = Rs.2812 

Rs.76R = Rs.2812 

=> R = 37 

Therefore, Cost Price of P = Rs.100x = Rs.100*37 = Rs.3700. 

 

Q. 73 The average monthly expenditure of a family is ₹ 8160 for first 2 months, ₹ 12780 for next 5 months and ₹ 14280 for 5 months. If the family saves ₹ 66300 in the whole year, then what will be the average monthly income of the family? 

(A) ₹18000 

(B) ₹18160 

(C) ₹18100 

(D) ₹18260 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Average monthly expenditure for 2 months = Rs.8160 

Total expenditure for 2 months = 8160*2 = Rs.16320 

Average monthly expenditure for 5 months = Rs.12780 

Total expenditure for 5 months = 12780*5 = Rs.63900 

Average monthly expenditure for 5 months = Rs.14280 

Total expenditure for 5 months = 14280*5 = Rs.71400 

Then, Total expenditure for 12 months = Rs.16320+Rs.63900+Rs.71400 = Rs.151620 

Given, Savings for 12 months = Rs.66300 

Then, Income for 12 months = Rs.151620+Rs.66300 = Rs.217920 

Therefore, Average monthly income = Rs.217920/12 = Rs.18160 

 

Q. 74 The data below shows the number of students in class (A) and (B) having secured different marks. 

What is the combined mean of (A) and B? 

(A) 3.75 

(B) 3.5 

(C) 4.7 

(D) 4 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 What will be the Least Common Multiple of 2² × 3⁵ × 7³ and 2⁴ × 3⁴ × 7¹ ? 

(A) 2² × 3⁴ × 7¹ 

(B) 2⁶ × 3⁹ × 7⁴ 

(C) 2⁴ × 3⁶ × 7⁴ 

(D) 2⁴ × 3⁵ × 7³ 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

English 

Q. 76 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

Switch off the air conditioner ……….. you will catch a cold. 

(A) or 

(B) but 

(C) and 

(D) so 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

GULLIBLE 

(A) Credulous 

(B) Knowledgeable 

(C) Innocent 

(D) Perceptive 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The state government has announced that it was giving financial helps to the economically weaker sections of society. 

(A) will give financial help 

(B) will give financial helps 

(C) Gives financial helps 

(D) No improvement. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

ABSURD 

(A) guilty 

(B) sensible 

(C) sincere 

(D) ridiculous 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

At one’s wits end 

(A) To disagree with something 

(B) Not knowing what to do 

(C) Without aim or purpose 

(D) To take note of something 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

If you kill us, the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the ………… of avenging our death. 

(A) pretext 

(B) excuse 

(C) guise 

(D) pretense 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

ABUNDANT 

(A) sufficient 

(B) plentiful 

(C) adequate 

(D) scarce 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

The most common act of forgetfulness, I suppose(1)……….. in the matter of posting letters. So common is it that I am always (2)………. to trust a departing visitor to post an important (3)…….. So before handing over the letter I make him (4)………. to post it immediately. As for myself, anyone (5)…………… asks me to post a letter is a poor judge of my character. 

 

Q. 83 Fill in blank (1) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) develops 

(B) creates 

(C) occurs 

(D) takes 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Fill in blank (2) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) willing 

(B) frightened 

(C) reluctant 

(D) indifferent 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Fill in blank (3) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) message 

(B) letter 

(C) parcel 

(D) mail 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Fill in blank (4) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) assure 

(B) promise 

(C) pledge 

(D) ready 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Fill in blank (5) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) whom 

(B) which 

(C) that 

(D) who 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 88 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Attendance 

(B) Attendence 

(C) Attandence 

(D) Attandance 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

We need a ……… leader for the nation in these troubled times. 

(A) gifted 

(B) dynamic 

(C) sturdy 

(D) hard-core 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Most of us fail to understand the objective of his frequent visits to this part of the country. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) to understand the objectives to 

(C) to understanding the objective of 

(D) to understand the object of 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who collects stamps 

(A) Numismatist 

(B) Philatelist 

(C) Philanthropist 

(D) Pilagiarist 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Beginning 

(B) Begining 

(C) Bigining 

(D) Begginning 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. May I have your permission leaving the office a little early today? 

(A) a little 

(B) May I have 

(C) early today 

(D) leaving 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Even though I took a taxi, the train left before I reached the station. 

(A) I reached 

(B) took a taxi 

(C) Even though 

(D) the train left 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

ELABORATE 

(A) Sketchy 

(B) Elongated 

(C) Detailed 

(D) Appropriate 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Hale and hearty. 

(A) Happy 

(B) Superior 

(C) Healthy 

(D) Friendly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Originating or occurring naturally in the place or country where found. 

(A) Indigenous 

(B) National 

(C) Ingenious 

(D) Ordinary 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

She has been reduced ……….. a skeleton due to her illness. 

(A) for 

(B) with 

(C) to 

(D) in 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

There is no reason why you should remain tense when I was promising to help you. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) I promised helping you 

(C) I have promised to help you 

(D) I promising to help you 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. We would be very pleased if you could come to my house. 

(A) come to 

(B) would be 

(C) if you 

(D) my house 

Answer: (D) 

SSC GD 13th Feb 2019 Shift-1 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Mouse: Rodent :: Bee: ? 

(A) Drone 

(B) Insect 

(C) Reptile 

(D) Bird 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. S is sitting at one extreme end. is sitting second to the right of S. P is sitting between O and Q. is not sitting at any extreme end.R is sitting to the left of T. Who is sitting in the middle? 

(A) R 

(B) Q 

(C) P 

(D) U 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 3 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes: 

Udaipur, Rajasthan, India 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 4 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 5 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

4, 16, 28, 40, ? 

(A) 69 

(B) 52 

(C) 51 

(D) 56 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

11 : 225 :: 14 : ……. 

(A) 169 

(B) 324 

(C) 144 

(D) 225 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 9 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Unhappy : Sad :: Speak : ? 

(A) Shout 

(B) Desire 

(C) Ask 

(D) Listen 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion (s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All hens are lions. 

2) All lions are cats. 

Conclusion 

I. All cats are hens. 

II. Some cats are hens. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 In a certain code, SCIENTIST is written as TSITNEISC. How will GOLDSMITH be written in that code? 

(A) HTIMSDLOG 

(B) HTISMDLGO 

(C) HTIMSDLGO 

(D) HITMSDLOG 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 117 

(B) 154 

(C) 165 

(D) 119 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 15 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

OJY, MLW, KNU, IPS, ? 

(A) GRQ 

(B) GRP 

(C) GPO 

(D) GRR 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 16 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite F and third to the right of B. G is between F and D. H is to the left of D. E is between C and A. Who is sitting opposite C ? 

(A) D

(B) F 

(C) B

(D) A 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) MIF 

(B) RGC 

(C) DPR 

(D) EFQ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 J, K L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Arts on Saturday. L teaches neither English nor Social Science, but he teaches on Thursday. Wednesday is reserved for Maths taught by K. O teaches Science a day before N. Social Science is taught a day before Arts. Which subject is taught by N? 

(A) Arts 

(B) Hindi 

(C) English 

(D) Science 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

9, 10, 18, 45, ? 

(A) 107 

(B) 111 

(C) 109 

(D) 110 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

13 + 26 × 2 − 5 ÷ 3 = 11 

(A) − and ÷ 

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) + and − 

(D) − and × 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Select the odd from the following options 

(A) Garlic 

(B) Ginger 

(C) Potato 

(D) Tomato 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some men are insects. 

2) Some larvae are insects. 

Conclusion 

I. Some insects are larvae. 

II. Some insects are men. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

BAC : GFH :: LKM : ? 

(A) QRP 

(B) QPR 

(C) QOP 

(D) QPO 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 24 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 109 

(B) 561 

(C) 127 

(D) 307 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 In a certain code, REFUSE is written as 74. How will KIDNAP be written in that code? 

(A) 59 

(B) 55 

(C) 54 

(D) 57 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following festivals is associated with the ‘Vaman’ incarnation of Vishnu? 

(A) Kumbha 

(B) Bihu 

(C) Onam 

(D) Janmashtami 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 27 As of February 2019, who is the current Vice-Chairman of Niti Aayog? 

(A) Shaktikanta Das 

(B) Rajiv Kumar 

(C) Shakti Sinha 

(D) Urjit Patel 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 The Indian constitution declares India as: 

(A) a Federation of States 

(B) a Confederation of States 

(C) a Union of States 

(D) a Association of States 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the patterns of drainage system? 

(A) Climatic conditions of the area 

(B) Source of the drainage system 

(C) Underlying rock structure 

(D) Slope of the land 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 In the context of Sufi tradition, the term ‘khangah’ stood for: 

(A) the Hell 

(B) a graveyard 

(C) a hospice 

(D) the Heaven 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is NOT true about nuclear fusion? 

(A) It produces much more energy than nuclear fission. 

(B) The process is used for making nuclear bomb. 

(C) Electricity production through this process is commercially less viable than nuclear fission. 

(D) It is the source of energy in the stars. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched? 

(A) Magnesium hydroxide MgOH2 

(B) Sulphuric acid – H2SO4 

(C) Ammonium hydroxide – NH4OH 

(D) Nitric acid – HNO3 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following money transfer systems allows 247365 transfer of money? 

(A) IMPS 

(B) Cheque 

(C) NEFT 

(D) RTGS 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the following is NOT an artificial ecosystem? 

(A) Reservoir of a dam 

(B) Paddy-field 

(C) Forest 

(D) Garden 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Which of the followings has been dubbed as ‘India’s maiden human spaceflight programme’? 

(A) Mangalyaan — II 

(B) Gaganyaan 

(C) Chandrayaan — II 

(D) Aditya L – 1 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 Which of the followings was NOT a Harappan city? 

(A) Lothal 

(B) Dholavira 

(C) Mehrgarh 

(D) Sotkakoh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 ………. was awarded the Noble Peace Prize 2018. 

(A) Nadia Murad 

(B) Kazuo Ishiguro 

(C) James P. Allison 

(D) Donna Strickland 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Which Indian cricketer topped the MRF Tyres ICC Test Player Rankings at the year-end after 2018? 

(A) Virat Kohli 

(B) Ajinkya Rahane 

(C) CheteshwarPujara 

(D) Ravindra Jadeja 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Which of the following turns Blue litmus Red? 

(A) Vinegar 

(B) Lime Water 

(C) Baking Soda 

(D) Milk 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 Bhimbetka, a world heritage site, is known for: 

(A) Ashokan Pillar 

(B) prehistoric rock shelters 

(C) monolithic temples 

(D) Buddhist stupas 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about myopia? 

(A) The vision may be corrected with the help of concavelens. 

(B) It is also knownas near sightedness. 

(C) In the affected eye, the image of a distant object is formed beyondthe retina. 

(D) The person affected by it cannot see beyond few metres. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 What is ‘Bringa’ in Orissa? 

(A) A village known for diamond mines 

(B) A stone weapon used by the aboriginals 

(C) An edible oil used by the aboriginals 

(D) A local name of slash and burn’ agriculture 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 43 Which of the following options is also termed as the third-tier of democracy in India? 

(A) State government 

(B) Union Territory governments 

(C) Local-self government 

(D) Supreme Court 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Which of the following rulers built the mosque called ‘Adhai-din-ka-Jhonpra’? 

(A) Balban 

(B) Abraham Lodi 

(C) Iltutmish 

(D) Qutub-ud-Din-Aibak 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Which of the following constitutional amendments provided for the Right to Education? 

(A) 88^th amendment 

(B) 89^th amendment 

(C) 87^th amendment 

(D) 86^th amendment 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following institutions is responsible for regulating the formal sources of credit in India? 

(A) RBI 

(B) TRAI 

(C) NABARD 

(D) IRDA 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 Which of the following organizations received the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy 2017-18? 

(A) JSW Sports 

(B) Isha Outreach 

(C) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited 

(D) Guru Nanak Dev University 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 The Economic Survey of India is published by: 

(A) Department of Financial Services 

(B) Department of Economic Affairs 

(C) Department of Revenue 

(D) Department of Public Expenditure 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 During British rule in India, ‘gomastha’ was: 

(A) a paid servant to supervise weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth 

(B) an Indian soldier appointed as the in-charge of a cavalry 

(C) a village-level official in the revenue-department 

(D) an Indian official in the intelligence department 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 Which of the following rivers forms the famous Dhuandhar falls? 

(A) Narmada 

(B) Kali Sind 

(C) Chambal 

(D) Tapi 

Answer: (A) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A sum of ₹ 8250 gives simple interest of ₹ 2475 in 5 years. What will be the rate of interest per annum? 

(A) 7.5% 

(B) 8% 

(C) 6% 

(D) 10% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 The bar chart given below shows the total exports (in = 1000 crores) of a country for 7 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, Y5, Y6 and Y7. 

What is the average exports from years Y1 to Y7? 

(A) 931.45 

(B) 886.19 

(C) 964.28 

(D) 847.87 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 The volume of a right circular cone is equal to the volume of that right circular cylinder whose height is 27 cm and diameter of its base is 30 cm. If the height of the cone is 25 cm, then what will be the diameter of its base? 

(A) 24 cm 

(B) 54 cm 

(C) 27 cm 

(D) 35 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 Out of 100 articles, 25 articles were sold at 25% profit and the remaining articles were sold at 25% loss. What will be the total loss percentage? 

(A) 15 

(B) 12.5 

(C) 20 

(D) 10 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 40 mechanics can repair a bike in 56 days. In how many days 32 mechanics will do the same work? 

(A) 60 days 

(B) 56 days 

(C) 80 days 

(D) 70 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 The average of 23, 27, 29, 36, 47 and x is 35. What is the value of x? 

(A) 45 

(B) 52 

(C) 48 

(D) 39 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 Tap K can fill a tank in 8 hours and tap L can fill the same tank in 20 hours. In how many hours both tap K and L together can fill the same tank? 

(A) 20/3 hours 

(B) 60/11 hours 

(C) 18/5 hours 

(D) 40/7 hours 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 Selling price of first article is ₹ 960 and cost price of second article is ₹ 960. If there is a profit of 20% on first article and loss of 20% on second article, then, what will be the total loss? 

(A) ₹36 

(B) ₹24 

(C) ₹20 

(D) ₹32 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 Neeraj covers two distances of 10 km and 20 km in 1 hour and 5 hours respectively. What will be the average speed of Neeraj for the whole journey? 

(A) 4 km/hr 

(B) 7 km/hr 

(C) 5 km/hr 

(D) 6 km/hr 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 60 The pie chart given below shows the annual snowfall received by 7 states of a country. The snowfall is shown as a percentage of total annual snowfall of the country. 

If the annual snowfall received by the country is 700 cm. What is the difference in the annual snowfalls of S3 and S2? 

(A) 42 cm 

(B) 7 cm 

(C) Cannot be determined 

(D) 35 cm 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given, Annual snowfall received by the country = 700 cm 

Snowfall received by S2 = 15% of 700 

Snowfall received by S3 = 20% of 700 

Difference between the snowfall of S2 and S3 = 20% of 700 – 15% of 700 = 5% of 700 = 35 cm. 

 

Q. 61 What is the value of (2000 ÷ ½ of 25/2 × 5/2 of 4/25 – 5)? 

(A) 121 

(B) 123 

(C) 122 

(D) 126 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 A motorcycle is moving at the speed of 25 km/hr and its speed is increased by 7 km/hr at the end of each hour. How much time it will take to cover a distance of 225 km? 

(A) 11/2 hr 

(B) 7 hr 

(C) 13/2 hr 

(D) 6 hr 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, Total distance = 225 km 

Distance travelled in every hour will be equal to the speed. Distance travelled in 1st hour = 25 km 

Distance travelled in 2nd hour = 32 km (Speed increased by 7 km/hour) Distance travelled in 3rd hour = 39 km 

Distance travelled in 4th hour = 46 km 

Distance travelled in 5th hour = 53 km 

Total distance travelled in 5 hours = 25+32+39+46+53 = 195 km Remaining distance = 225-195 = 30 km 

Speed for 6th hour will be 53+7 = 60 km/hr 

Hence, 30 km can be travelled in 0.5 hours. 

Therefore, 225 km distance will be travelled in 5.5 hours = 

 

Q. 63 What is the mode of the given data? 

21, 22, 23, 23, 24, 21, 22, 23, 21, 23, 24,23, 21, 23 

(A) 23 

(B) 21 

(C) 22 

(D) 24 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 A sum of ₹ 10500 becomes ₹ 17745 in 2 years at the rate of compound interest. If the interest is compounded annually, then what will be the rate of interest? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 25% 

(D) 20% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 The average monthly salary of 30 employees and 5 managers is ₹ 80000. One manager with salary ₹ 180000 is replaced by a new manager. If the average monthly salary now becomes ₹ 78500, then what is the monthly salary of the new manager? 

(A) ₹142500 

(B) ₹132000 

(C) ₹127500 

(D) ₹154500 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 Height of a right circular cone is 8 cm. If diameter of its base is 12 cm, then what will be the curved surface area of the cone? 1056 

(A) 1056/7 cm²

(B) 1320/7 cm²

(C) 1440/7 cm²

(D) 2112/7 cm²

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 The ratio of the areas of two triangles is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their bases is 3 : 4. What will be the ratio of their height? 

(A) 1 : 3 

(B) 4 : 3 

(C) 2 : 1 

(D) 2 : 3 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 A bag has Rs.840 in the denomination of ₹ 1, ₹ 2 and ₹ 5 coins. ₹ 1, ₹ 2 and ₹ 5 coins are in the ratio of 8 : 1 : 5. How many coins of ₹ 5 are in the bag? 

(A) 60 

(B) 24 

(C) 600 

(D) 120 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the number of Rs.1 coins, Rs.2 coins and Rs.5 coins be 8x, x and 5x respectively. 

Then, Value of Rs.1 coins = 8x*1 = Rs.8x 

Value of Rs.2 coins = x*2 = Rs.2x 

Value of Rs.5 coins = 5x*5 = Rs.25x 

Then, Total money present in the bag = Rs.8x+Rs.2x+Rs.25x = Rs.35x 

Given, Rs.35x = Rs.840 => x = 24 

Therefore, Number of Rs.5 coins = 5x = 24*5 = 120 coins. 

 

Q. 69 What is the value of (11 ÷ 4 – ⅔ of 9/8 + 11)? 

(A) 13 

(B) 11 

(C) 15 

(D) 17 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 The Least Common Multiple and Highest common Factor of two numbers are 30 and 5 respectively. If their sum is 25, then what will be the difference of these two numbers? 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C) 25 

(D) 5 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the two numbers be a and b. 

We know that Product of two numbers = Product of their LCM and HCF. 

Then, ab = 30*5 = 150 

a+b = 25 

(a − b)² = (a + b)² − 4ab = 25² − 4 × 150 = 625 − 600 = 25 

=> a-b = 5 

Therefore, The difference between the numbers = 5. 

 

Q. 71 A shopkeeper sells a cooler at a discount of 15%.If he gives a discount of 19%, then he earns ₹ 332 less. What will be the marked price of the cooler? 

(A) ₹8100 

(B) ₹8300 

(C) ₹8700 

(D) ₹8200 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the Marked Price of the cooler be Rs.100x 

Selling Price after a discount of 15% = 85% of Rs.100x = Rs.85x 

Selling Price after a discount of 19% = 81% of Rs.100x = Rs.81x 

Given, Rs.85x – Rs.81x = Rs.332 

=> 4x = 332 => x = 83 

Therefore, Marked price = Rs.100x = Rs.100*83 = Rs.8300. 

 

Q. 72 The bar chart given below shows the total exports (in = 1000 crores) of a country for 7 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, Y5, Y6 and Y7. 

What is the ratio of the exports of year with lowest exports and the year with second highest exports? 

(A) 9 : 12 

(B) 5 : 12 

(C) 9 : 13 

(D) 5 : 11 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Exports of year with lowest exports(in 1000 crores) = 500 in Y1 

Exports of year with second highest exports(in 1000 crores) = 1200 in Y4 

Therefore, Required ratio = 500 : 1200 = 5 : 12 

 

Q. 73 If X is 80% more than Y, then Y is how much percentage less than X? 

(A) 61.33% 

(B) 80% 

(C) 33.33% 

(D) 44.44% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 P, Q and R invest sum in the ratio of 7 : 4 : 9 respectively. If they earned total profit of ₹ 6680 at the end of year, then what is the total share of P and Q together? 

(A) ₹4868 

(B) ₹4254 

(C) ₹4124 

(D) ₹3674 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 K, L and M invest sum in the ratio of 15 : 20 : 27 respectively. If they earned total profit of ₹ 10230 at the end of year, then what is the difference between share of K and L? 

(A) ₹ 1155 

(B) ₹ 1275 

(C) ₹ 1980 

(D) ₹ 825 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Ratio of investments = Ratio of profits 

Let the profits of K, L and M be Rs.15x, Rs.20x and Rs.27x respectively. 

Total profit = Rs.15x+Rs.20x+Rs.27x = Rs.62x 

Given, Rs.62x = Rs.10230 => x = Rs.165 

Then, The difference between share of K and L = Rs.20x – Rs.15x = Rs.5x = Rs.5*165 = Rs.825 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

My views are totally in harmony with my brother’s views. 

(A) according to 

(B) in favor of 

(C) different from 

(D) in agreement with 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

ATTRACTED

(A) Repelled 

(B) Enchanted 

(C) Transformed 

(D) Disturbed 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

My sister ………… a cat and brought it home. 

(A) assumed 

(B) adapted 

(C) adopted 

(D) approved 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The sound of the sea waves became gradually weaker over the time. 

(A) sounds of the sea wave 

(B) sound from sea waves 

(C) No improvement 

(D) sound with the sea waves 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Sivagami longed to touch the chisel but her grandfather chase her away. 

(A) chased it away 

(B) chased her away 

(C) No improvement 

(D) had chased them away 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. I’m sorry, but I don’t agree with which you just said. 

(A) I’m sorry 

(B) with which 

(C) just said 

(D) don’t agree 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

THRIVE 

(A) Prosper 

(B) Promote 

(C) Foster 

(D) Progress 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

An act that makes you feel morally bad or ashamed. 

(A) Displeased 

(B) Irrational 

(C) Disgraceful 

(D) Ignorant 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Bone of contention 

(A) A cause of failure 

(B) A matter of contentment 

(C) A highly irritable person 

(D) A subject of dispute 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 85 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words. 

Once the mother duck jumped ……….. the pond, the ducklings followed suit. 

(A) over 

(B) in 

(C) under 

(D) into 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Thoroughfare 

(B) Thoroughfair 

(C) Thorowfare 

(D) Throughfare 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The ticking of the clock was the only sound to hear. 

(A) in hearing 

(B) No improvement 

(C) to hear with 

(D) to be heard 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some wordshavebeen deleted.Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Passage: 

The trees had lost mostof their leaves and their (1)………. figures were clear against the grey sky. Bella looked up at them and could see birds (2)……….. with difficulty, (3)……….. to keep themselves in place while the windtried to blow them (4)……….. She was walking against the wind andtrying hard to pushherself ahead. She 

resisted and strode (5)………… 

 

Q. 88 Fill in blank (1) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) bared 

(B) dreary 

(C) parched 

(D) dried 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Fill in blank (2) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) perching 

(B) punching 

(C) pouncing 

(D) parching 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Fill in blank (3) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) struggling 

(B) sleeping 

(C) sliding 

(D) surviving 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Fill in blank (4) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) out 

(B) away 

(C) up 

(D) aside 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Fill in blank (5) with the most appropriate option. 

(A) on 

(B) by 

(C) up 

(D) in 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 93 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. As far the eye could reach, nothing could be seen except the ruined columns of an old building. 

(A) could reach 

(B) As far the eye 

(C) except the 

(D) nothing could be 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

That which cannot be wrong 

(A) Irrefutable 

(B) Inaccurate 

(C) Infallible 

(D) Inevitable 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

BENEVOLENT 

(A) Dull 

(B) Merciless 

(C) Friendly 

(D) Injurious 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

His success in the competitive examination gave him a major ………. in his career. 

(A) break out 

(B) breakthrough 

(C) break up 

(D) breakdown 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. She always gets the better in quarrels whether it is with girls or boys. 

(A) better in 

(B) gets the 

(C) it is with 

(D) She always 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Kindergarden 

(B) Kindergarten 

(C) Kindargarten 

(D) Kindergardan 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

…………… in the first attempt, he did not try again. 

(A) Being failing 

(B) Having failed 

(C) Being failed 

(D) Having fail 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

MORALE 

(A) Appearance 

(B) Attitude 

(C) Self-confidence 

(D) Reputation 

Answer: (C)