Latest Current Affairs 19 November 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

Government accepts Cairn’s offer on retro tax; company to withdraw cases now, refund to follow 

Moving quickly towards ending a retrospective tax dispute with a firm that gave India its largest oilfield, the government has accepted Cairn Energy PLC’s undertakings which would allow for the refund of taxes, sources said.  Meeting the requirements of the new legislation that scraps levy of retrospective taxation, the company had earlier this month given required undertakings indemnifying the Indian government against future claims as well as agreeing to drop any legal proceedings anywhere in the world.  The government has now accepted this and issued Cairn a so-called Form-II, committing to refund the tax collected to enforce the retrospective tax demand, two sources with direct knowledge of the development said.  Following the issuance of Form-II, Cairn will now start withdrawing all cases in international courts. Once this is complete, the company will be issued a ₹7,900 crore refund, they said, adding the withdrawal of cases may take up to three-four weeks. While a Cairn spokesperson did not immediately respond to requests for comments, a senior finance ministry official confirmed the government accepting the company’s undertakings.  Seeking to repair India’s damaged reputation as an investment destination, the government in August enacted new legislation to drop ₹1.1 lakh crore in outstanding claims against multinationals such as telecom group Vodafone, pharmaceuticals company Sanofi and brewer SABMiller, now owned by AB InBev, and Cairn.  About ₹8,100 crore collected from companies under the scrapped tax provision are to be refunded if the firms agreed to drop outstanding litigation, including claims for interest and penalties. Of this, ₹7,900 crore is due only to Cairn.  Subsequent to this, the government last month notified rules that when adhered to will lead to the Centre withdrawing tax demands raised using the 2012 retrospective tax law and any tax collected in the enforcement of such demand being paid back.  For this, companies were required to indemnify the Indian government against future claims and withdraw any pending legal proceedings. Cairn on November 3 had stated that it has entered into undertakings with the Government of India in order to participate in the scheme introduced by recent Indian legislation, the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021, allowing the refund of taxes previously collected from Cairn in India. Cairn’s undertaking furnished in Form No.1 under the rule 11UE(1) of the amended law have been accepted by the Principal Commissioner for Income Tax, the sources said.  The August legislation cancelled a 2012 policy that gave the tax department power to go back 50 years and slap capital gains levies wherever ownership had changed hands overseas but business assets were in India.  The 2012 legislation was used to levy a cumulative tax of ₹1.10 lakh crore on 17 entities, including U.K. telecom giant Vodafone, but nearly 98% of the ₹8,100 crore recovered in enforcing such a demand was only from Cairn.  India issued Cairn with tax claims six years ago, and in December 2020 the company won an international arbitration against such demands.  

Hyderpora encounter: Return bodies to families, says Gupkar alliance; LG orders magisterial probe 

People’s Alliance for Gupkar Declaration (PAGD), an amalgam of Jammu and Kashmir’s regional parties, on Thursday met in Srinagar over the Hyderpora incident and resolved to help the three families to get the bodies of civilians killed in the encounter.  We did not meet for any political process or to hold elections. All we want is to safeguard the lives of our people. We appeal to the people of Jammu as well that we are together to save the lives, Constitution, and institutions which should guarantee the security of the common man, Gupkar alliance spokesman M.Y. Tarigami stated.  The meeting was held at the residence of Gupkar alliance chairman Dr. Farooq Abdullah.  In case such incidents don’t stop and bodies are not returned, we will knock every door to raise our voice. Members of Parliament will also raise the issues in Parliament, Tarigami, a CPI(M) leader, said.  The Gupkar alliance demanded that those involved should be dealt as per the law and the bodies should be returned.  Those involved, irrespective of their position, are violators and deserve punishment, Tarigami remarked. Dr. Abdullah approached the administration to allow him to meet the families but permission was not granted. Burial [of the bodies] is not being allowed, citing several issues including COVID-19, security reasons, which is against the constitution, he added.  National Conference vice president Omar Abdullah also held a sit-in in solidarity with the families, which were protesting and demanding the bodies.  Meanwhile, Jammu and Kashmir Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha on Thursday ordered a magisterial inquiry into the encounter in Hyderpora, Srinagar, November 15 after three families claimed that the three deceased out of the four killed during the operation were civilians.  The order came hours after the police removed the family members from a protest site in the city. A magisterial inquiry by an officer of ADM [additional district magistrate] rank has been ordered in Hyderpora encounter. The government will take suitable action as soon as the report is submitted in a time-bound manner. The J&K administration reiterates commitment of protecting lives of innocent civilians and it will ensure there is no injustice, a statement issued by Raj Bhawan read.  There has been a growing public outcry over the incident. Earlier, in a midnight action, the family members and protesters who had gathered at the Press Enclave in Srinagar on Wednesday to demand the bodies of the civilians were evicted and the sit-in was disallowed by the police. The family members were seen being dragged and bundled into a police vehicle during the police action that was carried out after snapping electricity in the area.  Peoples Democratic Party (PDP) president Mehbooba Mufti said she was disallowed to come out of her residence to join the protest. Their narrative right from the start was based on lies to escape accountability. They don’t want to be held accountable for their actions and that’s why they are muzzling voices that speak up against such injustice and atrocities, she said in a tweet.  She accused the police of arresting party leaders Najmu Saqib and Suhail Bukhari. They too have been arrested. The pattern of using innocent civilians as human shields and then denying their families the right to a decent burial shows that the Government of India has plumbed new depths of inhumanity, she stated.  Sharing a video of the police action at night, National Conference vice president Omar Abdullah said, This is the ‘Naya Kashmir’ of 2021. This is how the J&K police fulfills the Prime Minister’s promise to remove ‘dil ki doori and Dilli se doori’. It’s outrageous that the J&K administration did not allow the families to conduct a peaceful sit-in.  The Hurriyat, headed by Mirwaiz Umar Farooq, has called for a shutdown on Friday over the killings. Infant daughter, distraught mother protesting in freezing weather not for punishment to the killers but begging for the bodies for a decent burial is agonising, the Mirwaiz said in a statement.  

Sexual intent of the offender, not skin-to-skin contact, forms assault: SC  

The Supreme Court on Thursday quashed a Bombay High Court decision to acquit a man charged with assault under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO) solely on the grounds that he groped the child over her clothes without ‘skin-to-skin’ contact.  The act of touching a sexual part of the body with sexual intent will not be trivialised and not excluded under Section 7 of the POCSO Act, a Bench of Justices U.U. Lalit, S. Ravindra Bhat and Bela M. Trivedi held.  Section 7 mandates that whoever with sexual intent touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child or makes the child touch the vagina, penis, anus or breast of such person or any other person, or does any other act with sexual intent which involves physical contact without penetration is said to commit sexual assault.  Justice Trivedi, who authored the judgment, observed that the purpose of law is not to allow the offender to sneak out of the mesh of law. The court said limiting the ambit of touch to a narrow and pedantic definition would lead to an absurd interpretation.  Image used for representational purpose only.   The Bench said the most important ingredient in Section 7 was the sexual intent of the offender and not skin-to-skin contact.  The conclusion that ‘sexual intent’ mentioned in the provision should be ex facie skin to skin would defeat the object of the provision. It would, rather than giving effect to the rule, destroy it.  Justice Trivedi, speaking for the Bench, said when legislature had clarified its intent, the court should not introduce ambiguity.  The court should not be overzealous in searching for ambiguity when the words in the section are plain. Someone can wear a surgical glove and exploit a child and get away scot-free… This is an outrageous order, Attorney-General K.K. Venugopal, who moved the top court in the constitutional capacity of his office, had argued during the hearing.  The court, while setting aside the High Court decision, confirmed the guilt of the offender in the case and sentenced him to three years of rigorous imprisonment subject to the period he has already undergone.  Venugopal had argued that the High Court order would set a very dangerous precedent and cripple the intention of the POCSO Act to punish sexual offenders.  He added the High Court order had a deleterious effect when the number of POCSO cases had reached 43,000 in a year.  On January 19, a Single Judge of the Bombay High Court’s Nagpur Bench created a furore by acquitting a man under the POCSO Act and holding that an act against a minor would amount to groping or sexual assault only if there was skin-to-skin contact.  The High Court had concluded that mere touching or pressing of a clothed body of a child did not amount to sexual assault.  The accused was sentenced to the minimum three years’ imprisonment under Section 8 of the POCSO Act. That was set aside by the HC and his sentence was reduced to one year under Section 354 (assault of a women to outrage her modesty) of the Indian Penal Code… This is very disturbing, Venugopal had submitted in the top court shortly after he mentioned the case.  The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights had earlier asked the Maharashtra government to urgently appeal the High Court judgment.  Several organisations, including the Youth Bar Association of India, represented by advocate Manju Jetley, had also moved the top court against the High Court judgment.  The petitioners had said they were badly perturbed to note that the January 19 verdict contained several observations about the victim child’s modesty, which were both derogatory and defamatory. The child was even named in the judgment, the petition said.   

Paytm shares make weak debut; tumble over 27% during day trade  Shares of One97 Communications Ltd, Paytm’s parent company, on November 18 made a weak market debut and tumbled over 27% during the day from the issue price of ₹2,150. The stock was listed at ₹1,955, slipping 9% from the issue price on the BSE. It then tumbled 27.25% to ₹1,564 during the day.  On the NSE, it debuted at ₹1,950, registering a decline of 9.30% against the issue price. During the day, the stock plunged 27.34% to ₹1,562. Paytm, the biggest IPO in India so far, debuted the secondary market on a weaker note as compared to our expectations of a flat listing, Santosh Meena, head of research, Swastika Investmart Ltd., said.  The company commanded a market valuation of ₹1,01,484.00 crore in late afternoon trade on the BSE. Ant Group-backed Paytm’s ₹18,300 crore IPO was oversubscribed 1.89 times on the last day of India’s biggest share sale last week. This was greater than miner Coal India’s ₹15,000 crore offer a decade back.  Paytm founder and CEO Vijay Shekhar Sharma breaks down while delivering a speech during his company’s IPO listing ceremony at the Bombay Stock Exchange in Mumbai on November 18, 2021.   Paytm, formally called One97 Communications debuts today at exchanges which saw a dull response and got subscribed only 1.89 times from the investors, which is much lower compared to the other recently listed companies, Parth Nyati, founder, Tradingo said.  He added that they feel that due to the brand the company sought high valuation and it might see a correction in the near term.  The initial public offering of Paytm’s parent company One97 Communications Ltd. received bids for 9.14 crore equity shares against the offer size of 4.83 crore shares, according to information available with stock exchanges on November 10.  Paytm had fixed its IPO in a price band of ₹2,080-2,150 per share. Incorporated in 2000, One97 Communications is India’s leading digital ecosystem for consumers and merchants.  It offers a range of services, including payment services and financial services.  Launched by a son of a school teacher from a small town Aligarh nearly a decade ago as a platform for cellular recharging, Paytm grew rapidly after ride-hailing agency Uber listed it as a fast cost possibility.  

Speaker Birla for action plan to increase sittings of legislatures

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla on Thursday told an All-India Presiding Officers’ Conference in Shimla that there was need to prepare an action plan for increasing the sittings of legislatures. He was addressing the valedictory session of the two-day conference.  We should try to make a definite action plan to increase the number of meetings of the legislatures so that we can provide maximum time and opportunities to the members so that the people’s representatives can discuss the major issues of their state and country extensively, he stated. He called for drastic changes to the functioning of standing committees, including changes to their rules.  Presiding officers should evaluate the work of parliamentary committees once a year and make them more accountable to people. The tradition of zero hour should be started in State legislatures to give members the chance to raise urgent matters pertaining to their constituencies, he noted.  Addressing the issue of increasing disruptions, he observed that the matter would be discussed with leaders of all political parties. The work of creating a single platform for all legislatures would be done by 2022.  Speaking earlier in the session, Union Minister Anurag Thakur said a law was as good or bad as its implementation. Sometimes laws are passed, but the rules are not made for two or three years, he pointed out.  The conference adopted a resolution that there should be no disturbance in the House during the President and Governor’s address and Question Hour. This will be discussed again with all the parties… It has been agreed in this conference that the smooth conduct of the legislatures is the moral responsibility of the presiding officers and all the MPs and MLAs, the resolution said.  

INTERNATIONAL NEWS  

US remains India’s biggest trading partner, India-US trade to surpass $145 billion in 2021: US Consul General

The US remains India’s biggest trading partner with trade increasing from approximately $20 billion in 2001 to $145 billion in 2019, said the US Consul General in Chennai Judith Ravin while addressing the United States India Business Council after the opening of the India-US Tech Conclave as part of the Bengaluru Tech Summit. The US-India bilateral relationship continues to be expanding from collaboration on mitigating the impacts of COVID-19 and climate change to space exploration. Both countries have a joint commitment towards a free and open Indo-Pacific region. US Consul General Ravin further said that US Trade representative Katherine Tai will be in New Delhi on November 22, 2021 to hold talks with Union Minister for Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal on expanding bilateral trade.

Israel PM Naftali Bennett likely to visit India in 2022

Israeli Prime Minister Naftali Bennett is likely to visit India in 2022. Both countries are working on the tentative dates, informed Ambassador of Israel to India Naor Gilon. Meanwhile, Indian Chief of Army Staff General MM Naravane is currently visiting Israel. PM Modi and Israeli PM Bennett met for the first time on the sidelines of the UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow. They discussed the environment, defence, global, and regional issues. Both countries have also discussed Free Trade Agreement negotiations and will finalize it by June 2022. Former Israeli PM Benjamin Netanyahu had visited India in January 2018 where he met Indian PM Narendra Modi.

SYLLABUS AND EXAMINATION PLANING FOR COMPUTER INSTRUCTOR

BASIC COMPUTER INSTRUCTOR

The examination shall carry 100 marks. There will be two papers. Papers – I shall carry 100 marks.

EXAMINATION PATTERN PAPER-I

Paper – I

  1. The question paper will carry maximum 100 marks.
  2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours
  3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.

SYLLABUS OF EXAMINATION PAPER-I

Paper – I

(i) Art & Culture, History, Geography, General Science and Current Affairs of Rajasthan.

(ii) General Ability in include following point

  1. Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability
  2. Decision Making and Problem Solving.
  3. General Mental Ability.
  4. Basic Numeracy – Numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc. (Class X level)
  5. Data Interpretation – Charts, Graphs, Tables, Data Sufficiency, etc. (Class X level)
  6. Negative marking shall be applicable in the evaluation of answer. For every wrong answer 0.5 of the marks prescribed for that particular question shall be deducted

Syllabus and Scope of Papers – The syllabus and scope of paper for the examination will be as prescribed by the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority as the case may be, from time and will be intimated to the candidates within the stipulated time in the manner as the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/ Appointing Authority, as the case may be deems fit.

EXAMINATION PATTERN PAPER-II

Paper -II

  1. The question paper will carry maximum 100 marks.
  2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours.
  3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.
  4. Negative marking shall be applicable in the evaluation of answer. For every wrong answer 0.5 of the marks prescribed for that particular question shall be deducted Explanation: Wrong answer shall mean an incorrect answer of multiple answer

SYLLABUS OF EXAMINATION PAPER-II

Paper -II

(i) Pedagogy

(ii) Mental Ability:

Decision making and Problem solving. Data Interpretation. Data Sufficiency. Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability. Major developments in the field of Information Technology

 

(iii) Basie numeracy:

Numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc (Class X level)

 

(iv) Data Interpretation:

Charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency, etc. (Class X level)

 

(v) Fundamentals of Computer:

Overview of the Computer System including input-output devices, pointing devices, and scanner. Representation of Data (Digital versus Analog, Number System – Decimal. Binary & Hexadecimal). Introduction to Data Processing. Concepts of files and its types.

 

(vi) Data Processing :

Word Processing (MS-Word). Spread Sheet Software (MS Excel). Presentation Software (MS Power Point), DBMS Software (MS-Access).

 

(vii) Programming Fundamentals:

Introduction to C, C++, Java, DotNet, Artificial Intelligence (AI). Machine learning Python and Block Chain, Principles and Programming Techniques, Introduction of Object Oriented Programming TOPs) concepts. Introduction to “Integrated Development Environment and its advantages.

 

(vii) Data structures and Algorithms:

Algorithms for Problem Solving. Abstract data types, Arrays as data structures linked list v/s array for storage, stack and stack operations, queues, binary trees, binary search trees, raphe and their representations, sorting and searching, symbol table: Data structure using c & C++.

 

(ix) Computer Organization and Operation System:

Basic Structure of Computers, Computer Arithmetic Operations, Central Processing Unit and Instructions, Memory Organization, I/O Organization, Operating Systems Overview, Process Management, Finding and processing files.

 

(x) Communication and Network Concepts:

Introduction to Computer Networks. Introduction: Networks layers Models, Networking Devices, Fundamentals of Mobile Communication.

 

(xi) Network Security:

Protecting Computer Systems from viruses & malicious attacks. Introduction to Firewalls and its utility Backup & Restoring data, Networking (LAN & WAN), Security. Ethical Hacking.

 

(xii) Database Management System:

An Overview of the Database Management, Architecture of Database System, Relational Database Management System (RDBMS). Database Design. Manipulating Data, NoSQL Database Technologies, Selecting Right Database.

 

(xiii) System Analysis and Design:

Introduction, Requirement Gathering and Feasibility Analysis, Structured Analysis, Structured Design, Object-Oriented Modelling Using UML Testing System Implementation and Maintenance. Other Software Development Approaches.

 

(xiv) Internet of things and its application :

Introduction of Internet Technology and Protocol, LAN, MAN, WAN, Search Services/Engines. Introduction to online & offline messaging. World Wide Web Browsers. Web publishing, Basic knowledge HTML, XML and Scripts, Creation & Maintenance of Websites, HTML interactivity Tools, Multimedia and Graphics, Voicemail and Video Conferencing. Introduction to e-Commerce.

 

Syllabus and Scope of Papers :- The syllabus and scope of paper for the examination will be as prescribed by the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority as the case may be from time and will be intimated to the candidates within the stipulated time in the manner as the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority, as the case may be deems fit.

SENIOR COMPUTER INSTRUCTOR

The examination shall carry 100 marks. There will be two papers, Paper-I shall be of 100 marks and paper-II shall be of 100 marks

EXAMINATION PATTERN PAPER-I

Paper-I

  1. The question paper will carry maximum 100 marks.
  2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours.
  3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.

SYLLABUS OF EXAMINATION PAPER-I

(i) Art & Culture, History, Geography, General Science and Current Affairs of Rajasthan

(ii) General Ability in include following point :

  1. Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability.
  2. Decision Making and Problem Solving
  3. General Mental Ability.
  4. Basic Numeracy – Numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc. (Class X level)
  5. Data Interpretation – Charts, Graphs, Tables, Data Sufficiency, etc. (Class X level)
  6. Negative marking shall be applicable in the evaluation of answer. For every wrong answer 0.5 of the marks prescribed for that particular question shall be deducted.

Explanation: Wrong answer shall mean an incorrect answer of multiple answer Syllabus and Scope of Papers = The syllabus and scope of paper for the examination will be as prescribed by the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority as the case may be, from time and will be intimated to the candidates within the stipulated time in the manner as the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority, as the case may be, deems fit.

EXAMINATION PATTERN PAPER-II

Paper -II

  1. The question paper will carry maximum 100 marks.
  2. Duration of question paper will be 2.00 hours
  3. The question paper will carry 100 questions of multiple choices.
  4. Negative marking shall be applicable in the evaluation of answer. For every wrong answer 0.5 of the marks prescribed for that particular question shall be deducted.

Explanation: Wrong answer shall mean an incorrect answer of multiple answer.

SYLLABUS OF EXAMINATION PAPER-II

(i) Pedagogy

(ii) Mental Ability

Decision making and Problem solving Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency, Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability, Major developments in the field of Information Technology.

 

(iii) Basie numeracy

Numbers and their relations bandere of magnitude, etc. (Class X Level)

 

(iv) Data Interpretation 

Charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency, etc. (Class X Level)

 

(v) Fundamentals of Computer

Number system, arithmetic computer language, functional details of Input and Output devices.

 

(vi) Programming Fundamentals

C, C++, Java, DotNet Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine learning, Python and am programming, data types (Built in and user defined), Scope of variables, precedence of operators, Wounctions, arrays pointers, structures and unions, enumerated data-types and file handling, command line arguments.

 

(vii) Object Oriented Programming using C++ and JAVA

Objects and classes. Inheritance, polymorphism, event and exceptions handling, files and streams.

 

(viii) Data structures and Algorithms

Abstract data types, Arrays as data structures, linked list v/s array for Storage, Stack and stack operations, queues, binary trees, binary search trees, graphs and their representations, sorting and searching, symbol table.

 

(ix) Algorithms

Tree traversals, Branch and bound and greedy methods, complexity of algorithms.

 

(x) Digital Logic Systems

Boolean expressions, K-maps. TTL and CMOS logic families, combinational logic design using half full adders, Sub tractors, and multiplexer, synchronous sequential system design.

 

(xi) Computer Organization and Architecture

Von-Neumann architecture of computers. Registers and micro operations, control logic, processor addressing and bus organization. Processor input/output and DMA. Memory organization and cache coherence.

 

(xii) Operating Systems

CPU scheduling. Deadlocks, Memory management, file systems, disk scheduling. Concept of Client server architecture in distributed environment and RPC. Process, threads and their synchronization. Real Time OS clock synchronization and task scheduling. System initialization, hooting and handling user accounts. Backup and restore, Bourne shell programming for Linux

 

(xiii) Database Management System

E-R models. Relational algebra, calculus and databases Integrity constraints, triggers, normalization, and indexing. Transaction processing, concurrency control and Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)

 

(xiv) Software Engineering

Phases of System Development Life Cycle System modeling Software requirement specifications and DFDs. Introduction to software testing, software project management

 

(xv) Data and computer networks

Evolution of Networking. Data Communication terminologies, Transmission media Network devices. TCP/IP & OSI/ISO reference models functions of different layers, characteristics of physical media, multiplexing in physical layer, medium access protocols, introduction to 802.3, 802.4, 802.5, 802.11 LAN technologies, IP protocol including routing and congestion control. TCP and UDP, DNS.

 

(xvi) Network Security

Groups, rings and fields in finite space, Euler and Fermat’s theorem, primality testing, security services and mechanisms, symmetric and asymmetric encryption including DES, AES, IDEA, RSA algorithms, key management in symmetric and asymmetric encryption, message authentication and hashing, email security. viruses and trusted systems, Networking (LAN & WAN), Security: Ethical Hacking.

 

(xvii) Basics of communication

Channel capacity, attenuation, communication impairments, propagation of EMI waves through free space (excluding free space models), PCM and delta modulation, WDM, brief introduction to GSM and CDMA based communication systems.

 

(xviii) Web Development

HTML/DHTML, Web Page Authoring Using HTML, Document Object Model Concept and Importance of Document Object Model, Dynamic HTML document and Document Object Model. Introduction to Cascading Style Sheet (CSS). Extensible Markup Language (XML), Basic of PHP and Java Script

 

Syllabus and Scope of Papers :- The syllabus and scope of paper for the examination will be as prescribed by the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority as the case may be, from time and will be intimated to the candidates within the stipulated time in the manner as the Commission/Rajasthan Staff Selection Board/Appointing Authority, as the case may be, deems fit.

IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 19 Feb 2021 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

Section : General awareness Current Affairs 

Q.1 INS Jalashwa and INS Magar were part of which of the following Naval operations in May 2020? 

(A) Mission Rahat 

(B) Operation Samudra Setu 

(C) Operation Vanilla 

(D) Mission Sagar 

Answer – B

 

Q.2 Which country launched its first ever military communications satellite in July 2020? 

(A) South Korea 

(B) Japan 

(C) Nepal 

(D) France 

Answer – A

 

Q.3 Which of the following statements is true about PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme launched by Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare? 

(1) It has become operational from 1.12.2017. 

(2) PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 2 only 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

 

Q.4 Who among the following is one of the winners of the 2019 United Nations Military Gender Advocate Award? 

(A) Marcia Andrade Braga 

(B) Suman Gawani 

(C) Seitebatso Pearl Block 

(D) Aichatou Ousmane Issaka 

Answer – B

 

Q.5 Which of the following statement is correct about 2020 Bihar Legislative Assembly election? 

(A) National Democratic Alliance emerged as the winner with 125 elected MLAs 

(B) Mahagathbandhan won 110 seats 

(C) Vijay Kumar Sinha was elected the new Speaker of the Bihar Legislative Assembly. 

(D) The term of the previous Eighteen Legislative Assemblies of Bihar ended on 29 October 2020. 

(A) A, D and C 

(B) B, C and D 

(C) A, B and C 

(D) A, B and D 

Answer – C

 

Q.6 When did the Union Cabinet approved the setting up of National Recruitment Agency to conduct the Common Eligibility Test? 

(A) 9 July, 2020 

(B) 1 April, 2020 

(C) 1 March, 2020 

(D) 19 August, 2020

Answer – D

 

Q.7 Which one of the following is India’s largest Butterfly? 

(A) Queen Alexandra’s birdwing 

(B) Golden Birdwing 

(C) Giant Swallowtail 

(D) Monarch 

Answer – B

 

Q.8 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: 

List-I (Major events)  List-II (Chaired Addressed by) 
A. 19th SCO Council of Heads of Government summit  1- PM Narendra Modi
B. 7th IEF-IGU Ministerial Gas Forum  2- Dharmendra Pradhan 
C. 14th ADMM Plus Meet 2020  3- Rajnath Sinh Naidu 
D. 6th India-Japan Samvad Conference 4- M. Venkaiah Naidu 

Code: 

# A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 1 4 2

(A) d 

(B) c 

(C) a 

(D) b

Answer – D

 

Q.9 Consider the following statements about Bharat Ratna. 

(1) Nanaji Deshmukh received this award in 2019. 

(2) Nanaji Deshmukh received this award for his work in the field of Art and Literature. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Both 1 and 2 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) 2 only 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – D

 

Q.10 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 (Company) List-2 (Country)

A. Tencent 

B. SAP

C. Canon 

D. Samsung

1- China 

2- Germany 

3- South Korea 

4- Japan

(A) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(C) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

(D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 

Answer – B

 

Q.11 On 21st January 2021, NASA shared photos of the huge galaxy cluster. What statement is INCORRECT about the cluster? 

(1) The cluster is older and slower galaxy cluster merger than the Bullet Cluster 

(2) Name of the cluster is Abell 370 and was first discovered in 2002 using the lensing effect 

(3) Cluster is located 4.9 billion light-years away from the Earth in the constellation Cetus 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Both 2 and 3 

(A) a 

(B) c 

(C) b 

(D) d

Answer – A

 

Q.12 Which of the following exoplanets of the size between Mars and Earth was discovered by NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite in June 2019? 

(A) L98-59e 

(B) L98-59b 

(C) L98-59d 

(D) L98-590 

Answer – B

 

Q.13 Match List-1 with list List-2and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 (Name of Government Scheme) List-2 (Related Ministry)

A. The Venture Capital Assistance Scheme 

B. Support for International Patent Protection in Electronics and & Information Technology (SIP-EIT)

C. Single Point Registration Scheme

(1) Ministry Of Electronics & Information Technology 

(2) Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises 

(3) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 

(A) A-3, B-1, C-2 

(B) A-2, B-1, C-3 

(C) A-2, B-3, C-1 

(D) A-1, B-2, C-3 

Answer – A

 

Q.14 Who among the following was appointed as the Director of the National Science Foundation in USA? 

(A) K. S. Sethumadhavan 

(B) V. Sethuraman 

(C) Sethuraman Kandasamy 

(D) Sethuraman Panchanathan

Answer – D

 

Q.15 Who among the following is a Padma Shri awardee and known for his work for promoting Zero Budget Natural Farming in India? 

(A) Subhash Palekar 

(B) Sunil ydv SS 

(C) Hardik Satishchandra Shah 

(D) Muthulakshmi Reddi 

Answer – A

 

Q.16 Wing Commander Gajanand Yadava was awarded the ‘Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award 2019’ in: 

(A) Lifetime achievement category 

(B) Air adventure category 

(C) Water adventure category 

(D) Land adventure category 

Answer – B

 

Q.17 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 List-2
Name of the Author Name of the Book
A. Premchand (1) Gaban
B. Devaki Nandan Khatri (2) Chandrakanta
C. Bhagwati Charan Verma (3) Chitralekha
D. Dayananda Saraswati (4) Satyarth Prakash 

(A) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, 1-4 

(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, 1-4 

Answer – C

 

Q.18 Arrange the following cricket teams in descending order as per Men’s ICC Test Team Rankings updated in Jan 2021 

A. India 

B. New Zealand 

C. Australia 

D. England 

(A) D, B, C, A 

(B) B, A, C, D 

(C) A, B, D, C 

(D) D, B, A, C

Answer – B

 

Q.19 Who among the following had been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG) by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet led by Prime Minister in October 2019? 

(A) S. S. Deswal 

(B) Rajni Kant Mishra 

(C) Rajiv Rai Bhatnagar 

(D) Anup Kumar Singh 

Answer – D

 

Q.20 Which of the following statements about Arun Jaitley is/are correct? 

(1) He was a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP) During his time at the university. 

(2) He served as the Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs of the Government of India from 2015 to 2018. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 1 only 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – C

Section : General studies 

Q.21 Consider the following statements regarding sustainable development and climate change. 

(1) The year 2019 marked the fourth anniversary of the adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the Paris Agreement. 

(2) India’s sustained actions on addressing climate change have helped her achieve great strides, which are reflected in reduction in the emission intensity of India’s GDP by 21% during 2005-2014 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 only 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) 2 only 

Answer – C

 

Q.22 Which Article of the Indian Constitution, under The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India? 

(A) Article 19B 

(B) Article 35C 

(C) Article 21A 

(D) Article 43A 

Answer – C

 

Q.23 Which one of the following books was not written by R.K. Narayan? 

(A) The Man-Eater of Malgudi 

(B) Swami and Friends 

(C) Midnight’s Children 

(D) The Vendor of Sweets 

Answer – C

 

Q.24 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

List-I (Sports)  List-II (Players associated with these sports) 

A. Cricket 

B. Badminton 

C. Hockey 

D. Tennis 

(1) Suraj Karkera 

(2) P Kashyap 

(3) Prajnesh Gunneswaran 

(4) Rishabh Pant 

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 

(C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

(D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

Answer – B

 

Q.25 Cobalamin is the scientific name of which of the following vitamins? 

(A) C 

(B) B3 

(C) B12 

(D) D 

Answer – C

 

Q.26 What can be the effects of noise pollution on human health? 

(1) Damage to the ear and temporary or permanent hearing loss often called ‘a temporary threshold shift’ 

(2) Irritability, anxiety and stress 

(3) Lowered worker efficiency and productivity 

(4) Loss of vision 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 3 and 4 only 

(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(D) 1 and 2 only 

 Answer – C

 

Q.27 Who built the Geldria Fort at Pulicat in Tamil Nadu? 

(A) Dutch 

(B) French 

(C) Portuguese 

(D) British 

Answer – A

 

Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayas. 

(1) The Himalayas play a very significant role in influencing the climate of India. 

(2) The Himalayas are not appropriate for tourism activities 

(3) The Himalayan Mountain system is the source of many rivers. 

(4) The Himalayas do not contain any minerals. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 and 4 

(B) 2 only 

(C) 1 and 3 

(D) 2 and 3 

Answer – C

 

Q.29 Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Tyndall effect’. 

(1) It is a phenomenon wherein scattering of a beam of light can be observed. 

(2) It can be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole. 

(3) It can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 3 only 

(C) 2 only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer – D

 

Q.30 Members of which phylum are known as sponges? 

(A) Cnidaria 

(B) Ctenophora 

(C) Annelida 

(D) Porifera 

Answer – D

 

Q.31 Where is the headquarters of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is located? 

(A) Chennai 

(B) Kolkata 

(C) New Delhi 

(D) Mumbai 

Answer – C

 

Q.32 The_______was established in 1964 under an Act of Parliament as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India. 

(A) Central Bank of India 

(B) Industrial Development Bank of India 

(C) State Bank of India 

(D) Bank of Baroda 

Answer – B

 

Q.33 Where is the Motera Stadium located? 

(A) Varanasi 

(B) Indore 

(C) Ahmedabad 

(D) Pune 

Answer – C

 

Q.34 Consider the following statements regarding festivals and fairs in India. 

(1) The highlight of the Pooram festival held at Trichur in Kerala is the parade of magnificently decorated elephants. 

(2) The Bihu festival is celebrated in Assam, 

(3) Kartikai is a festival of lights held on Kartik Poornima in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and parts of Kerala. 

(4) The famous Pushkar fair is held in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(A) 3 and 4 only 

(B) 2 and 3 only 

(C) 1 and 2 only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer – D

 

Q.35 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

List-I (Book) List-II (Author) 
A. Brihat-Samhita  (1) Kalhana 
B. Mushika-vamsha  (2) Bilhana 
C. Rajatarangini  (3) Atula 
D. Vikramankadevacharita  (4) Varahamihira 

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 

(C) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 

(D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

Answer – C

 

Q.36 Gipmochi mountain lies between China, Bhutan and the Indian state of: 

(A) Manipur 

(B) Assam 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Arunachal Pradesh 

Answer – C

 

Q.37 Consider the following statements about Panchayats or rural local self-government agencies. 

(1) Gram Sabha is mentioned under Article 348 of the Constitution of India. 

(2) There is a provision for the State Election Commission to conduct the election of these bodies. 

(3) Article 243 D of the Constitution of India mentions about the reservation of seats. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 1, 2 and 3 

(B) 1 only 

(C) 1 and 2 only 

(D) 2 and 3 only 

Answer – D

 

Q.38 Which of the following is a human factor responsible for soil erosion? 

(1) Deforestation 

(2) Run off water 

(3) Overgrazing 

(4) Glacial erosion 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 2 and 3 

(B) 1 and 3 

(C) 1 only 

(D) 2 only 

Answer – B

 

Q.39 It is the festival of Martial Dance is celebrated to mark the major victory of peace over war. What is the name of the festival and where it is celebrated? 

(A) Kalinga Mahotsav, Odisha 

(B) Durga Puja, Kolkata 

(C) Vijayi Naach, Tamil Nadu 

(D) Chandan Yatra, Chattisgarh 

Answer – A

 

Q.40 The Home Rule movement was an important movement during the phase of Indian National Movement. 

(1) It was in 1915 that Annie Besant announced her decision to establish a Home Rule League at Madras based on the model of the Irish Home Rule League. 

(2) In 1916, Bal Gangadhar Tilak organised his own Home Rule League at Poona. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – B

Section : Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 In an examination P got 20% more marks than Q, Q got 20% less than R and R got 25% more than S. If P got 480 out of 600, find the marks of S. 

(A) 450 

(B) 425 

(C) 400 

(D) 520

Answer – C

 

Q.42 Total surface area of a solid cylinder is 297 cm2. If its radius is 3.5 cm, then what is its volume? 

(A) 385 cm3 

(B) 418 cm3 

(C) 363 cm3 

(D) 451 cm3

Answer – A

 

Q.43 If the ratio between two positive numbers is 5:7 and their product is 560. The smaller number will be 

(A) 20 

(B) 10 

(C) 28 

(D) 14

Answer – A

 

Q.44 What is the least possible number which on being divided by 7, 9 and 11, leaves a remainder of 2 in each case? 

(A) 695 

(B) 693 

(C) 600 

(D) 750

Answer – A

 

Q.45 A hall 10 m long, 2.5 m high and 4 m wide has one door of 1.5 mx 1 m and two windows of 1 m by 0.50 m. The cost of coloring the walls and the ceiling at Rs.12 per sq. m is: 

(A) Rs. 1190 

(B) Rs. 1230 

(C) Rs. 1290 

(D) Rs. 1330 

Answer – C

 

Q.46 The circle-graph given here shows the spendings of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the question given below it. 

How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf? 

(A) 75 percent 

(B) 27 percent 

(C) 35 percent 

(D) 37.5 percent

Answer – C

 

Q.47 Six persons went to a hotel for taking their meals. Five of them spent Rs.15 each over their meals and the sixth spent Rs.8 more than the average expenditure of all the six. 

What was the total money spent by them? 

(A) Rs. 99.6 

(B) Rs. 101.2 

(C) Rs. 95.3 

(D) Rs. 117.4 

Answer – A

 

Q.48 If 8 men working 5 hours a days complete a job in 12 days, then 15 men working 4 hours a day will finish the job in how many days? Assume that all men work at same efficiency. 

(A) 15 days 

(B) 42 days 

(C) 12 days 

(D) 8 days 

Answer – D

 

Q.49 Which of the following statement is correct? 

I. A boat can travel 30 km downstream in 6 hours. If it can travel 40 km upstream in 10 hours, then speed of stream is 1 km/hr. 

II. Length of a train is 1200 metre. If it can cross a 1500 metre long platform in 120 seconds, then speed of train is 90 km/hr. 

(A) Neither I nor II 

(B) Both I and II 

(C) Only I 

(D) Only II 

Answer – A

 

Q.50 The given table shows the number of employees appointed by different organizations in the given years. 

What is the respective ratio between the total employees appointed by the organization U in the year 2010 and 2012, and the total employees appointed by the organization P in the same years? 

(A) 208: 198 

(B) 189: 209 

(C) 209: 189 

(D) 198: 208 

Answer – C

 

Q.51 Which of the following will have maximum discount percent? 

(A) Marked price = 4000, Selling price = 3600 

(B) Marked price = 2400, Selling price = 2000 

(C) Marked price = 2800, Selling price = 2400 

(D) Marked price = 3200, Selling price = 2800 

Answer – B

 

Q.52 A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a man to buy 5 kg more for 300. Find the reduced price per kg of sugar. 

(A) ₹ 6.00 

(B) ₹ 5.25 

(C) ₹ 6.50 

(D) ₹ 5.75 

Answer – A

 

Q.53 Mahim bought a dozen eggs at Rs 50 and sells them at 26 percent profit. What is the selling price of each egg? 

(A) Rs. 5 

(B) Rs. 5.25 

(C) Rs. 10 

(D) Rs. 4 

Answer – B

 

Q.54 Anjali and Ritu appeared in an examination. Anjali secured 20 marks more than Ritu and her marks was 70 percent of sum of their marks. How much did Anjali secure? 

(A) 35 

(B) 50 

(C) 15 

(D) 20 

Answer – A

 

Q.55 What should be the principal if the simple interest earned at the rate of 10 percent per annum is Rs. 1000 at the end of 5 years? 

(A) Rs. 2500 

(B) Rs. 1000 

(C) Rs. 1500 

(D) Rs. 2000 

Answer – D

 

Q.56 Which of the following represents the fractional form of 0.12? 

(A) 3/100 

(B) 3/25 

(C) 12/120 

(D) 3/50

Answer – B

 

Q.57 A shopkeeper sells a product at some loss. If he reduces the selling price of the product by 5 percent, his loss increases by 4 percent. At what loss percent he sells his product? (Note: Options are rounded off) 

(A) 63.63 percent 

(B) 35 percent 

(C) 55.55 percent 

(D) 40 percent

Answer – C

 

Q.58 A man covers a distance of N km in 5 hours at a speed of 18 km/hr. Then find the speed of the man if he wants to cover the same distance in 3 hours. 

(A) 24 km/hr 

(B) 30 km/hr 

(C) 36 km/hr 

(D) 54 km/hr 

Answer – B

 

Q.59 Three solid spheres of radius 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm are melted and recasted into a solid sphere. What will be the percentage decrease in the surface area? 

(A) 14 percent 

(B) 12 percent 

(C) 16 percent 

(D) 28 percent 

Answer – D

 

Q.60 Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below it: 

Number of candidates appearing for an interview for a post in various Banks and percentage of candidates qualifying. 

The number of candidates who did not qualify in bank K was approximately what percent of the candidates who did not qualify in bank I? 

(A) 51 

(B) 48 

(C) 44 

(D) 42

Answer – B

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 Find the missing term in the following series : 

VYB, SVY, __________, MPS 

(A) TRS 

(B) STU 

(C) PSV 

(D) NOT

Answer – C

 

Q.62 Heavier coins are costlier. Ram’s coin is heavier than Mohan’s and costlier than Ramesh’s. Naresh’s coin is costlier than Ram’s but lighter than Yogesh’s. Ramesh’s coin is costlier than Mohan’s. So who is the owner of the costliest coin? 

(A) Ram 

(B) Ramesh 

(C) Naresh 

(D) Yogesh 

Answer – D

 

Q.63 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. 

Statements: 

I. All X are Y. 

II. No Z is X. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some X are not Z. 

II. Some Y are not Z. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows 

(B) Only conclusion II follows 

(C) Both conclusion I and II follows 

(D) Neither conclusion follows 

Answer – C

 

Q.64 In the question, below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. 

Statements: 

Some dawns are nights. 

No night is a noon. No dawn is a dusk. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some dusks are nights. 

II. Some noons are dawns. 

(A) If either Conclusion I or II follows 

(B) If neither I nor II follows 

(C) If only conclusion II follows 

(D) If only conclusion I follows 

Answer – B

 

Q.65 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer – B

 

Q.66 Complete the following letter series: 

HDF, GEE, FFD, EGC, _______ 

(A) FFB 

(B) FHB 

(C) DHB 

(D) DHC

Answer – C

 

Q.67 A paper has been folded and cut as shown. Figure (X) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the Figure (X). 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – D

 

Q.68 Rohit, Kyra, Suraj, Laila and Diya are sitting on a bench. Kyra is sitting to the right of Suraj, who is not sitting at extreme corners. Laila is sitting in between Kyra and Rohit. Diya is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the left of Kyra? 

(A) Rohit 

(B) Diya 

(C) Suraj 

(D) Laila 

Answer – C

 

Q.69 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically correct? 

7 – 3 + 6 × 4 ÷ 2 = 25 

(A) × and – 

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) ÷ and – 

(D) × and +

Answer – A

 

Q.70 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. 

Statements: 

I. No Pis X. 

II. No R is P. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some X are not P. 

II. No X is R. 

(A) Both conclusion I and II follows 

(B) Only conclusion II follows 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Neither conclusion follows 

Answer – C

 

Q.71 If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the mirror image of the given figure? 

Answer – D

 

Q.72 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

POQ,Q18T,R42W, S787, ? 

(A) T126C 

(B) F121E 

(C) T128U 

(D) P1360 

Answer – A

 

Q.73 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 

1.MALISM 

2.MAINED 

3.MALAX 

4.MARION 

5.MANCES 

(A) 2,3,1,5,4 

(B) 1,2,3,5,4 

(C) 3,2,1,4,5 

(D) 1,3,5,2,4 

Answer – A

 

Q.74 If SMILE is coded as 19-13-9-12-5, then what is the code for LAUGH? 

(A) 13-1-20-7-8 

(B) 12-1-21-7-8 

(C) 12-1-21-7-9 

(D) 13-1-22-7-9 

Answer – B

 

Q.75 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and Gwent to watch a movie. A is the only son of B. B is the mother of C. D is the grandmother of A. E is the sister-in-law of B. F is the daughter of E. G is the father of F. G said, “I will sit right next to my only niece”. If G doesn’t have any sibling, whom is he talking about? 

(A) C 

(B) A 

(C) F

(D) D 

Answer – A

 

Q.76 6 Flowers’ is related to ‘Bouquet’ in the same way ‘Cattle’ is related to ‘______’. 

(A) Herd 

(B) Swarm 

(C) Cow 

(D) Gang

Answer – A

 

Q.77 Which of the following cubes in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure? 

Answer – D

 

Q.78 The given Venn diagram shows the number of students who uses different social media like Facebook, Instagram and Twitter. How many students use either Facebook or Twitter or both, but not Instagram? 

(A) 198 

(B) 240 

(C) 300 

(D) 250

Answer – A

 

Q.79 Ram reached the office before Praful but after Alia. Joe reached the office before Ram but after Sam reached the office. Alia reached the office just after Joe reached the office. Who reached the office first?

(A) Ram 

(B) Joe 

(C) Sam 

(D) Alia 

Answer – C

 

Q.80 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given alternatives. 

82, 164, 492, 2450, 17220 

(A) 17220 

(B) 164 

(C) 492 

(D) 2450 

Answer – D

Section : English 

Q.81 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below. 

Vilification 

(A) Rectification 

(B) Variation 

(C) Aspersion 

(D) Assertion 

 Answer – C

 

Q.82 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. 

Women have constantly been _______________ to secondary positions in this men driven society

(A) relegated 

(B) liberated 

(C) serrated 

(D) arbitrated 

Answer – A

 

Q.83 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option ‘no correction required’ if the sentence is correct as given. He did exceptionally well in his exams (because he had tutored all week). 

(A) as he had been tutoring all week 

(B) as he had tutored all week 

(C) No correction required 

(D) as he had been tutored all week 

Answer – D

 

Q.84 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option ‘no correction required if the sentence is correct as given. 

(No sooner did we arrived) at the airport than we got into an argument with the cab driver. 

(A) No sooner had we arrive 

(B) No sooner than we arrived 

(C) No sooner did we arrive 

(D) No correction required 

Answer – C

 

Q.85 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below. 

Banish 

(A) Persist 

(B) Deport 

(C) Perish 

(D) Accept 

Answer – B

 

Q.86 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word with the correct spelling. 

(A) Irrevarance 

(B) Irreverance 

(C) Irreverence 

(D) Irrevarence 

Answer – C

 

Q.87 Choose the word that means the same as the given word. 

Alien 

(A) Local 

(B) Basic 

(C) Foreign 

(D) Native 

Answer – C

 

Q.88 Parts of a sentence have been jumbled up. Arrange these parts in a meaningful order. 

A. that have seen a surge in interest in 

B. is that of online education 

C. one of the few pursuits 

D. these otherwise trying times 

(A) CABD 

(B) CBAD 

(C) CBDA 

(D) CADB 

Answer – D

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. There are some people who think they are God’s gift to mankind. 

(A) which think they must have been 

(B) that think they had been 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) whose thinking is that they were 

Answer – C

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“Loaves and fish” 

(A) Main support 

(B) To get someone drunk 

(C) To act in a frenzied manner 

(D) Material interests 

Answer – D

 

Q.91 The sentence below has four parts (A, B, C, and D). One part has a grammatical error. 

Identify the part. 

The same set of the facts (A) can be tailored (B)/ to fit any (C)/ preconceived belief. (D) 

(A) can be tailored 

(B) preconceived belief 

(C) The same set of the facts 

(D) to fit any 

Answer – C

 

Q.92 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Going by the number of people present, it was appearing that the seminar was a huge success. 

(A) Going by the number of people present, 

(B) was a huge success. 

(C) that the seminar 

(D) it was appearing 

Answer – D

 

Q.93 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word with the correct spelling. 

(A) Impuden 

(B) Impudant 

(C) Impudane 

(D) Impudent 

Answer – D

 

Q.94 In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage. 

S(A) Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving of memories. 

P. Psychologists of the Gastalt school maintain that objects are recognized as a whole in a parallel procedure. 

Q. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brain’s memory system that constitutes an internal representation on the viewed object. 

R. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a single one-step procedure or a serial step-by-step one. 

S. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal recognition and thereby recognized. 

S6. The internal representation is matched with the retinal image in single operation. 

(A) QSRP 

(B) RPQS 

(C) SRPQ 

(D) SQPR 

Answer – B

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

IMPERTURBABLE 

(A) halcyon 

(B) floral 

(C) excitable 

(D) stoical 

Answer – C

 

Q.96 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 

“No error’. 

Neither my sister (1)/ and my brother is (2)/ interested in this project. (3)/ No error (4) 

(A) and my brother is 

(B) Neither my sister 

(C) interested in this project 

(D) No error 

Answer – A

 

Q.97 The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option ‘No Error’. 

(A) Cadets applying for the Indian navy 

(B) examination, interviews, and medical tests. 

(C) No error 

(D) must go through several 

Answer – B

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate ‘one word ‘for the expressions given below. 

Marriage outside one’s tribe 

(A) Autogamy 

(B) Polygamy 

(C) Endogamy 

(D) Exogamy 

Answer – D

 

Q.99 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. 

They were fortunate enough to get a look at the _____________ mansion from the inside in the poshest area of the city. 

(A) indolent 

(B) opulent 

(C) insolent 

(D) benevolent 

Answer – B

 

Q.100 Parts of a sentence have been jumbled up. Arrange these parts in a meaningful order. 

A. reacted collectively to nip this in the bud 

B. that are far more stringent than 

C. what we could have gotten away with had the world 

D. today, we will need social isolation methods 

(A) DCBA 

(B) DBCA 

(C) DACB 

(D) DBAC 

Answer – B

IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 19 Feb 2021 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

Section : General awareness Current Affairs 

Q.1 To commemorate which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, Gramodaya Chamber of Commerce and Technology (GCOT) instituted the ‘Gramodaya Bandhu Mitra Puraskar’? 

(A) 149th 

(B) 151th 

(C) 150th 

(D) 148th 

Answer – C

Q.2 Arrange the following cricket players in descending order as per the most runs taken by them during IPL 2020. 

A. KL Rahul 

B. Shikhar Dhawan 

C. Shreyas Iyer 

D. David Warner 

(A) C, B, A, D 

(B) D, B, C, A 

(C) A, B, D, C 

(D) D, B, A, C 

Answer – C

Q.3 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 (Company) List-2 (Founder) 
A. Space 1- Elon Musk
B. Virgin Galactic 2- Travis Kalanick
C. Twitter Inc. 3- Jack Dorsey
D. Uber  4- Richard Branson

(A) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

(C) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, 0-4 

Answer – B

Q.4 Consider the following statements about Padma Vibhushan Award for the year 2020. 

(1) Shri George Fernandes received this award posthumously for Public Affairs. 

(2) Shri Chhannulal Mishra received this award for Art Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – C

Q.5 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 List-2
Name of the Author Name of the Book
A. Charles Dickens  1- A Christmas Carol
B. Salman Rushdie  2- Midnight’s Children
C. Shashi Tharoor 3- The Company of Women
D. Khushwant Singh 4- The Great Indian Novel

(A) A-2, B-1, C-3, 1-4 

(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(C) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 

Answer – B

Q.6 In July 2020, Sahil Seth who is a 2011 batch Indian Revenue Service Officer, has been appointed honorary adviser of the steering committee of the 

(A) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry 

(B) SAARC Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

(C) BRICS Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

(D) G-20 Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

Answer – C

Q.7 Which of the following statements about 46th United States President Joe Biden is/are correct? 

(1) He was one of the youngest senators at the age of 24 

(2) He is the oldest US President at the age of 78 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2

(C) 2 only 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – C

Q.8 Which of the following statements is true about Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMWVY? 

(1) It is a pension plan for senior citizens 

(2) It is managed and operated by Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 1 only 

(D) 2 only 

Answer – B

Q.9 On 17th December 2020, India recently launched the CMS-01 communication satellite into the Geostationary Transfer Orbit. What statements is/are CORRECT regarding the satellite? 

(A) The satellite was launched on a PSLV-C50 launch vehicle. 

(B) The satellite will provide telecom services in the extended C-Band of the frequency spectrum. 

(C) Is India’s 40th communication satellite that will replace the functions of GSAT-12 launched in 201(C) 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) Both 1 and 2 

(A) b 

(B) c 

(C) a

(D) d

Answer – D

Q.10 In September 2020, which of the three bills was passed by the parliament aimed at transforming agriculture in the country and raising farmers’ income? 

(A) Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Bill, 2020 

(B) Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Bill, 2020 

(C) Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill 2020 

(D) Farmers Income and MSP (Minimum Support Price) Amendment Bill, 2020 

(A) A, D and C 

(B) B, C and D 

(C) A, B and C 

(D) A, B and D 

Answer – C

Q.11 In January 2020, at the age of 33, who became the world’s youngest democractically elected leader of a country? 

(A) Emmanuel Macron, France 

(B) Alexandria Ocasio-Cortez, USA 

(C) Sebastian Kurz, Austria 

(D) Jacinda Ardern, New Zealand 

Answer – C

Q.12 Which of the following statements are/are true regarding the recent appointment of Chief of Defense Staff of India? 

(1) Nearly two decades ago, in February 2000, the Kargil Review Committee (KRC) suggested the formation of a Chief of Defense Staff. 

(2) In terms of retirement age, the post of Chief of Defense Staff is not the same as that of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) etc. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – C

Q.13 Who among the following tennis players was disqualified from the US open 2020 after hitting an official with the ball? 

(A) Nick Kyrgios 

(B) Tim Henman 

(C) Novak Djokovic 

(D) Roger Federer 

Answer – C

Q.14 Which one of the following books won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2020 in Fiction category? 

(A) The Dutch House, by Ann Patchett (Harper) 

(B) The Topeka School, by Ben Lerner (Farrar, Straus and Giroux) 

(C) The Nickel Boys, by Colson Whitehead (Doubleday) 

(D) A Strange Loop, by Michael R. Jackson 

Answer – C

Q.15 What is the term used for special arrangement allowing citizens to travel by air between specified nations without having the need to undergo on-arrival quarantine?

(A) Vande Bharat 

(B) GetHomeltis 

(C) Travel Bubbles 

(D) Air India Express 

Answer – C

Q.16 The Constitution (126th) Amendment Bill which was passed by Parliament in December 2019, seeks to extend the reservation quota for the SC and ST community in legislatures by another: 

1.5 years 

(B) 10 years 

(C) 20 years 

(D) 15 years 

Answer – B

Q.17 When was Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPV) for the Indian Coast Guard launched and re christened as Indian Coast Guard Ship ‘Sarthak’?

(A) 6 June, 2020 

(B) 9 March, 2020 

(C) 13 August, 2020 

(D) 6 April, 2020 

Answer – C

Q.18 Nobel Prize is announced at an international level which is administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm, Sweden. Recently Nobel Prize winners for the year 2020 were announced. The recipients of Nobel Prize 2020 are 

(A) Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez for the discovery of a supermassive compact object at the centre of our galaxy. 

(B) Gérard Mourou and Donna Strickland for their method of generating high-intensity, ultra-short optical pulses. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Neither 1 and 2 

(C) 1 only 

(D) Both 1 and 2

Answer –  C

Q.19 Who is the first female appointed as Head of human spaceflight program of National Aeronautics and Space Administration in June 2020? 

(A) Sally Ride 

(B) Nancy Roman 

(C) Kathy Lueders 

(D) Katherine Johnson 

Answer – C

Q.20 When did SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket launch the SkySats 19, 20 and 21? 

(A) April 18, 2020 

(B) April 13, 2020 

(C) August 18, 2020 

(D) March 13, 2020 

Answer – C

Section : General studies 

Q.21 The Bhima river is a tributary of which of the following rivers?

(A) Narmada 

(B) Krishna 

(C) Damodar 

(D) Chambal 

Answer – B

Q.22 Consider the following statements in reference to the President of India. 

(A) Article 53 of the Constitution of India mentions that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 

(B) The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. 

(C) Article 60 of the Constitution of India mentions about the procedure 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 and 3 only 

(C) 1, 2 and 3 

(D) 1 and 2 only 

Answer – D

Q.23 Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

List-I (Sports)  List-II (Player) 
A. Cricket  1- Kidambi Srikanth 
B. Badminton  2- Birendra Lakra 
C. Field hockey 3- Sumit Nagal
D. Tennis  4- Ajinkya Rahane

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

(D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

Answer – B

Q.24 Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala art. 

(A) The Hoysala style (1050-1300 AD) developed in the southern region of Karnataka. 

(B) Hoysala at may be said to have its starting point in the temples of the early Chalukyas at Aihole. Badami and Pattadkal. 

(C) An important monument employing this art is the Kesava temple at Belur. 

(D) Apart from the architectural plan, the Hoysala style attained a few more distinguishing characteristics. For instance. chloritie schist was given up in favour of more tractable sandstone. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(A) 1, 2 and 3 

(B) 3 and 4 only 

(C) 2 and 3 only 

(D) 1 and 2 only 

Answer – A

Q.25 Which of the following factors determines the climate of India?  

(A) Latitude 

(B) Ocean currents 

(C) Distance from the sea 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) 1, 2 and 3 

(C) 1 only 

(D) 1 and 3 

Answer – B

Q.26 When was the World Bank established? 

(A) 1948 

(B) 1942 

(C) 1946 

(D) 1944 

Answer – D

Q.27 Which among the following schedules of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the allocation of seats in the Council of States? 

(A) Fifth 

(B) Fourth 

(C) Third 

(D) First 

Answer – B

Q.28 Which of the following is the first state to regulate the crop grown by farmers? 

(A) Madhya Pradesh 

(B) Haryana 

(C) Telangana 

(D) Himachal Pradesh  

Answer – C

Q.29 Kailasanathar is the temple built by which dynasty and in which state? 

(A) Pallava, Tamil Nadu 

(B) Chola, Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Chola, Tamil Nadu 

(D) Pallava, Andhra Pradesh 

Answer – A

Q.30 To which state of India do the ‘Khuded’ folk songs belong? 

(A) Chhattisgarh 

(B) Odisha 

(C) Jharkhand 

(D) Uttarakhand 

Answer – D

Q.31 Who has become the first Indian to win the Richard Dawkins Award? 

(A) Gulzar 

(B) Javed Akhtar 

(C) Prasoon Joshi 

(D) Naseeruddin Shah 

Answer – B

Q.32 Which among following statements about Bhagoriya is/are correct? 

(A) Bhagoriya is a one of the major festival of tribal people. 

(B) Bhagoriya is a Haat Market. 

(C) Bhagoriya festival celebrated in the month of May. 

(D) Bhagoriya festival celebrated by Bhil and Bhilala tribe in Madhya Pradesh. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) (A) 2 and 4 

(B) 2 Only 

(C) 1 Only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer – A

Q.33 Consider the following statements regarding matter. 

(A) Matter is made up of small particles. 

(B) The forces of attraction between the particles in matter are maximum in gases. 

(C) Evaporation does not cause cooling. 

(D) The matter around us exists in three states: solid, liquid and gas. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) I only 

(B) 3 and 4 

(C) 2 and 4 

(D) 1 and 4 

Answer – D

Q.34 Consider the following statements about the use of behavioral parameters by GSTN to enhance voluntary compliance with reference to GST (Goods and Service Tax). 

(A) The GST rules provide for electronic generation of e-way bill for transportation of goods above a certain threshold of value of the goods being transported. 

(B) Return filing status of a GSTIN is visible in the public domain on the GST portal. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) I only 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 2 only 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – B

Q.35 Vinesh Phogat is related with which of the following sports? 

(A) Swimming 

(B) Tennis 

(C) Wrestling 

(D) Badminton 

Answer – C

Q.36 Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Movement. 

(A) Romesh Chunder Dutt, a retired ICS officer, published ‘The Economic History of India’ at the beginning of the 20th Century. In this book he examined in minute detail the entire economic record of colonial rule since 1757. 

(B) The focal point of the nationalist critique was the drain theory. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – C

Q.37 What are rod shaped bacteria called?

(A) Basilaiye  

(B) Spirillum Spirillum 

(C) vibrio 

(D) caucus 

Answer – A

Q.38 Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of a good source of energy. 

(A) It would not do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass. 

(B) It is easily accessible. 

(C) It is easy to store or transport. 

(D) It is not economical. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

(B) 3 and 4 only 

(C) 1 and 2 only 

(D) 2 and 3 only 

Answer – D

Q.39 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. 

List-I (Author) List-II (Book)
A. Kautilya (A) Ashtadhyayi
B. Panini (B) Arthashastra
C. Kamandaka (C) Kumarasambhava
D. Kalidas (D) Nitisara

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

(C) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

(D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 

Answer – A

Q.40 The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company in the year______________.

(A) 1792 

(B) 1784 

(C) 1782 

(D) 1779 

Answer – B

Section : Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 The pie chart given here shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items and their savings, which amount to Rs. 8,000 in a month. 

Study the chart and answer the question based on the pie chart. 

How much more amount is spent on food than on housing? 

(A) Rs. 1,000 

(B) Rs. 2,500 

(C) Rs. 2,000 

(D) Rs. 3,000 

Answer – C

Q.42 Shagun and Sheetal have 40 kg and 50 kg apples respectively. Richa takes 30 percent apples from Shagun and 46 percent apples from Sheetal. Approximately what percent of total apples are Shagun and Sheetal left with? 

(A) 53 percent 

(B) 61 percent 

(C) 67 percent 

(D) 49 percent 

Answer – B

Q.43 Speed of a boat in still water is 10 km/hr. If speed of stream is 2 km/hr, then how much distance can the boat travel downstream in 2.5 hours? 

(A) 30 km 

(B) 24 km 

(C) 32 km 

(D) 28 km 

Answer – A

Q.44 A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1331 in 3 years at 10 per cent compounded annually. Find the sum invested. 

(A) Rs. 1050 

(B) Rs. 1000 

(C) Rs. 1132 

(D) Rs. 1100 

Answer – B

Q.45 Circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square. What is the ratio of area of circle to the area of square? (The value of T is 22/7) 

(A) 14:11 

(B) 18:11 

(C) 27 : 22 

(D) 31: 22 

Answer – A

Q.46 Salary of Ram is 20 per cent more than Shyam’s. By what percent is Shyam’s salary less than Ram. 

(A) 20.10 

(B) 16.66 

(C) 19.25 

(D) 18.75 

Answer – B

Q.47 Which of the following is correct?

(A) 6√8 > 4√3 > 3√2  > 12√12 

(B)  4√3 > 6√8 > 12√12  > 3√2  

(C)  4√3 > 6√8 > 3√2  > 12√12 

(D)  3√2 > 4√3 > 6√8  > 12√12 

Answer – A

Q.48 A, B and C start a partnership. They invested Rs. 45000, Rs. 36000 and Rs. 54000 respectively. They stayed in partnership for 4 years, 3 years and 2 years. If B’s share in profit is Rs. 1800, then what is the total profit? 

(A) Rs. 6000 

(B) Rs. 6600 

(C) Rs. 7200 

(D) Rs. 7000 

Answer – B

Q.49 Simplify the following. 7 ½ ÷ {4 ½ – ½ × (2 ½ – 1 ¼ – 3/4 )}

(A) 4.5 

(B) 7.25 

(C) 1.875 

(D) 5.75 

Answer – C

Q.50 Present ratio of the ages of Babita and Sunita is 7:9. 5 years ago, this ratio was 1:(B) Find the present age of Babita. 

(A) 9 years 

(B) 14 years 

(C) 7 years 

(D) 21 years 

Answer – C

Q.51 A line graph is given below which shows the number of cars sold by seller A and seller B on five days. 

Find the number of cars sold on Sunday by A and B together, if number of cars sold on Sunday is 16 percent more than the cars sold on Friday by A and B together? 

(A) 116 

(B) 112 

(C) 114 

(D) 120 

Answer – B

Q.52 Find the curved surface area of cone whose height is 3 m and radius is 4 m. (approximate value) (The value of π is 22/7) 

(A) 63 m2 

(B) 33 m2 

(C) 3.45 m2 

(D) 4.79 m2 

Answer – A

Q.53 The given table shows the number of employees appointed by different organizations in the given years. 

In the year 2008, the number of employees appointed by the organization R is how much percentage more from the previous year ? (Around the nearest integer) 

(A) 12 

(B) 14 

(C) 16 

(D) 10 

Answer – A

Q.54 What should come in place of a question mark (?) in the following question ? 

27 ½ + 15 ¾ – 12 ⅖ + 18 ⅘ = ?

(A) 49 13/20

(B) 48 13/20

(C) 49 33/20 

(D) 49 

Answer – A

Q.55 Which of the following is smallest? 

(A) √9 – √7 

(B) √6 – √4 

(C) √28 – 5 

(D) √18 – 4 

Answer – D

Q.56 What is the average of first 9 prime numbers? 

(A) 10.77 

(B) 11.33 

(C) 10.1 

(D) 11.11 

Answer – D

Q.57 A dealer sold 5/6th of his goods at 30 percent profit and the remaining at the cost price. What is his overall gain percent? 

(A) 27.27 percent 

(B) 25 percent 

(C) 22.5 percent 

(D) 30 percent 

Answer – B

Q.58 A tank is normally filled in 4 hours. But it takes 5 hours to fill, when there is a leak at the bottom of the tank. If the tank is full, in how many hours can it be emptied by the leak? 

(A) 12 

(B) 20 

(C) 10 

(D) 15 

Answer – B

Q.59 Rina can complete a piece of work in 6 days while Seema can do the same work in 9 days. If they both work together, then how many days will be required to finish the work? 

(A) 4 days 

(B) 10 days 

(C) 7.3 days 

(D) 3.6 days 

Answer – D

Q.60 A and B can together complete a task in 16 days. They started a task together and after 4 days A leave, B takes 24 days to finish the rest of the task. How many days would B have taken to do the task if he worked alone? 

(A) 30 days 

(B) 24 days 

(C) 32 days 

(D) 34 days 

Answer – C

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 Select the option that is related to the third term on the same basis as the second term is related to the first term. 

ACT: BFY :: BAD 😕 

(A) DCI 

(B) CDI 

(C) CID 

(D) ICD 

Answer – B

Q.62 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? 

Answer – B

Q.63 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically correct? 

9 +3+6 – 6 x 2 = 30 

(A) + and ÷

(B) × and ÷

(C) ÷ and – 

(D) × and + 

Answer – B

Q.64 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer – C

Q.65 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

(A) All peacocks are ducks. 

(B) No duck is a kite. 

(C) All fowls are kites. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some fowls are peacocks. 

II. No kite is a peacock. 

III. No peacock is a fowl. 

IV. Some kites are peacocks. 

(A) Only conclusions I, II and IV follow 

(B) Only conclusions II and III follow 

(C) Only conclusions I and IV follow 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow 

Answer – B

Q.66 If ‘ADMONISH’ is coded as ‘DAOMINHS’ in a particular language, then how will REPEATED’ be coded in the same language? 

(A) ERPETADE 

(B) EREPTADE 

(C) REEPTADE 

(D) EDATEPRE 

Answer – B

Q.67 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between birds, animals and crows?

Answer – D

Q.68 The given Venn diagram shows the number of students who can play Cricket, Basketball and Volleyball. How many can play both Cricket and Basketball but not Volleyball? 

(A) 8 

(B) 12 

(C) 10 

(D) 11 

Answer – C

Q.69 Venu, Sonia, Kamal, Ria and Aish are sitting on a bench. Sonia is sitting to the right of Kamal , who is not sitting at extreme end of the bench. Ria is sitting in between Sonia and Venu. Aish is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the right of Ria? 

(A) Kamal 

(B) Venu 

(C) Sonia 

(D) Aish 

Answer – B

Q.70 Pointing to a woman in the photograph a man said, “She is the daughter of my paternal grandmother’s only son.” How is the woman related to the man? 

(A) Sister 

(B) Sister-in-law 

(C) Daughter 

(D) Mother 

Answer – A

Q.71 Thickness of 8 tyres L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S is compared. Thickness of no two tyres is same. Thickness of N is more than L but less than 6 tyres. Thickness of O is more than M but less than Q. Thickness of P is less than only two tyres. Thickness of Q is not more than P. Which of the following statement is not correct? 

(A) If thickness of P is 108 cm, then sum of thickness of R and S can be 219 cm 

(B) Thickness of R is less than S 

(C) Thickness of O is less than P 

(D) L<N<M<O<Q<P<S<R can be the correct sequence of their thickness 

Answer – B

Q.72 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table and they are facing the center, not necessarily in the same order. B sits opposite E and A sits opposite F. Neither A nor C sits adjacent to B. If A sits to the immediate right of D, then in which order these six people sit, starting from A, in clockwise direction?

(A) ADBCFE 

(B) ADBFCE 

(C) ADFBCE 

(D) ADFCBE 

Answer – B

Q.73 Find the missing number in the following number series: 

22.5,_____, 26.5, 30, 34.5 

(A) 23.5 

(B) 24.5 

(C) 27 

(D) 24 

Answer – D

Q.74 Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

A. Some spoons are forks. 

B. Some forks are mats. 

Conclusions: 

I. No spoon is a mat. 

II. Some mats are forks. 

III. Some mats are spoons. 

IV. No fork is a spoon. 

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow 

(B) Only conclusions II and IV follow 

(C) Only conclusion II and either conclusion I or III follow. 

(D) Only either conclusion I and IV follows. 

Answer – C

Q.75 If BARK is coded as 2-1-18-11, then what is the code for WEAP? 

1.23-5-1-16 

(B) 22-4-1-15 

(C) 24-6-2-17 

(D) 21-7-1-18 

Answer – A

Q.76 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure and complete the pattern (rotation is NOT allowed). 

Answer – B

Q.77 Which of the answer figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side? 

Answer – B

Q.78 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 

(A) 52 

(B) 64 

(C) 18 

(D) 5 

Answer – B

Q.79 Complete the following series. 

7D, 15H, 23L, ______

(A) 31Q 

(B) 29P 

(C) 33Q 

(D) 31P 

Answer – D

Q.80 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. 

Statements: 

I. All Kare R. 

II. Some R are F. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some Fare K. 

II. Some R are not K. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows 

(B) Only conclusion I follows 

(C) Both conclusion I and II follows 

(D) Neither conclusion follows 

Answer – D

Section : English 

Q.81 Which of the following is correctly spelt? 

(A) Riceprocity 

(B) Reciprosity 

(C) Reciprocity 

(D) Reciprrosity

Answer – C

Q.82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The ability to make good judgements and take quick decisions. 

(A) Acumen 

(B) Ineptness 

(C) Intuition 

(D) Perception 

Answer – A

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

He was one of most respected generals because of his care for the men and his record as a fighter. 

(A) the most respect generals 

(B) the most respected generals 

(C) most respected general 

(D) No improvement 

Answer – B

Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Undercover officers were sent to gather information, and they gave evidence in court from behind screens to protect their identities. 

(A) for protecting his identities. 

(B) in protecting their identity. 

(C) No improvement 

(D) to protecting their identities. 

Answer – C

Q.85 Identify the segment of the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Shall her flight get cancelled, your mother says she will send you a message. 

(A) she will send you a message. 

(B) your mother says 

(C) Shall her flight 

(D) get cancelled, 

Answer – C

Q.86 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Select the option that has the error. If the sentence has no error then select ‘No Error’. 

In the ancient world, theories of the origin of Earth and the objects see in the sky were certainly much less constrained. 

(A) of Earth and the objects see in the sky 

(B) were certainly much less constrained. 

(C) No Error 

(D) In the ancient world, theories of the origin 

Answer – A

Q.87 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Select the option that has the error. If the sentence has no error then select ‘No Error’. 

Fewer than one percent of the earth’s water is unsalted and available for human consumption. 

(A) Fewer than one percent of the 

(B) for human consumption. 

(C) No Error 

(D) earth’s water is unsalted and available 

Answer – A

Q.88 Choose the word that means the same as the given word. 

Fatigue 

(A) Tiredness 

(B) Clumsy 

(C) Fresh 

(D) Stable 

Answer – A

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The problem, at least for those holidaying in Gibraltar, is that neither of these hotels a beach. 

(A) has 

(B) have 

(C) had 

(D) having 

Answer – A

Q.90 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A. students were expected 

B. studied in earlier classes 

C. having reached higher classes 

D. to know the formulas and principles 

(A) ACDB 

(B) CDAB 

(C) ADBC 

(D) CADB 

Answer – D

Q.91 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Books costing money and requiring the user to read them for the idea to spread. 

(A) cost money and require 

(B) cost money and requiring 

(C) No improvement 

(D) costing money and require 

Answer – A

Q.92 Select the incorrectly spelt word. 

(A) Diminutive 

(B) Presceint 

(C) Spectacular 

(D) Tectonic 

Answer – B

Q.93 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

Barking up the wrong tree 

(A) To blame someone unfairly for a problem. 

(B) To be mistaken, to be looking for solutions in the wrong place. 

(C) To ignore someone. 

(D) Being treated the same unpleasant way you have treated others. 

Answer – B

Q.94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

It is often said that the way to the man heart is through his stomach. 

(A) is through his stomach. 

(B) that the way to 

(C) the man heart 

(D) It is often said 

Answer – C

Q.95 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative. 

Your brother is ______intelligent than your father. 

(A) most 

(B) more 

(C) many 

(D) much 

Answer – B

Q.96 Arrange the jumbled sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. 

A. Half the world’s population is now under lockdown orders. 

B. As more information about the virus has become available, public advisories have also shape shifted accordingly. 

C. It is to help fight the Covid-19 contagion that has picked up fearful pace through the month of March. 

D. One such evolution has taken place on the question of masks. 

(A) ADBC 

(B) ACBD 

(C) ABCD 

(D) ACDB 

Answer – B

Q.97 Identify the segment of the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Startled, he looked around to locate the source of the sharp sound, but would not be finding any. 

(A) but would not be finding any. 

(B) Startled, he looked around 

(C) to locate the source 

(D) of the sharp sound, 

Answer – A

Q.98 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

An official pardon for people who have been convicted of political offences. 

(A) Liberation 

(B) Exoneration 

(C) Immunity 

(D) Amnesty 

Answer – D

Q.99 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A husband’s (or wife’s) provision for a spouse after separation or divorce; 

maintenance. 

(A) Alimony 

(B) Remittance 

(C) Provision 

(D) Patrimony 

Answer – A

Q.100 Out of all the alternatives given, select the option which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

Bite off more than you can chew 

(A) To take on a project that you cannot finish. 

(B) Taking credit for someone else achievements. 

(C) Being treated the same unpleasant way you have treated others. 

(D) Something considered too insignificant to create an impact. 

Answer – A

Latest Current Affairs 16 November 2021

NATIONAL NEWS

U.P. agrees to SC proposal to have ex-judge monitor Lakhimpur Kheri probe 

The Uttar Pradesh government on Monday agreed to the Supreme Court’s suggestion  appoint a retired judge to monitor the investigation into the Lakhimpur Kheri murders and violence. The cases concern a convoy, allegedly belonging to Union Minister of State for Home Affairs Ajay Mishra, ploughing into a group of farmers and civilians protesting the controversial agricultural laws and the ensuing violence at Lakhimpur Kheri district. Minister’s son Ashish Mishra is a prime accused in the case concerning the farmers’ deaths. We leave it to Your Lordships… You may appoint whoever you want, senior advocate Harish Salve, appearing for U.P., submitted before a three-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) N.V. Ramana. The Bench, also comprising Justices Surya Kant and Hima Kohli, after a briefly conferring among themselves, said it needed a day to zero in on the judge. We are considering former Punjab and Haryana HC Judge Rakesh Kumar Jain or others. We have to consult them, the court said. Salve stated that the government had left it to the wisdom of the court. However, he made a suggestion. He made a point that the court’s choice of a retired judge should not rest on whether he or she was from the State or outside. You mean it can be from any State… the court sought to clarify from him. Salve explained that the focus should be on the person, the judge, whether or not from or outside the State. It should be just that Your Lordships are appointing a person… he offered. The Bench indicated that it may consider either a retired Supreme Court or High Court judge willing to take up the assignment. The court further asked the government to provide it with a list of names of IPS officers of U.P. cadre, but who were not native to the State to be considered for inclusion in the task force. It noted that some of the members of the present task force were of sub-inspector level or drawn from the Lakhimpur Kheri police station itself. Salve interjected that a senior police officer had been recently appointed to the task force. But the court said the task force needed to be upgraded. It asked the government to provide the list by November 16. It posted the case next for November 17. The suggestion from the court to have a retired judge at the helm came after it expressed its waning confidence about the fate of the investigation at the hands of the State police. It observed that such a step may be necessary to infuse fairness and impartiality in the probe. In an earlier hearing, the CJI stated, The investigation is not going the way we expected… We are here to see that a proper investigation takes place. There is a need to appoint a retired High Court judge to monitor it (investigation) without bias. The court had refused to entertain suggestions from lawyers to order the CBI to take over from the police. The CBI is not the solution to everything, it said.  

Delhi air pollution: SC asks Centre to hold emergency meeting 

The Supreme Court on Monday said the cat is out of the bag to prove that urban factors such as construction activities, industry, vehicular exhaust and road dust were actually the major causes of pollution in the Capital and not farmers’ stubble burning. A special Bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) N.V. Ramana gleaned the fact from the affidavits filed by the Centre and the Delhi Government. The Centre, for one, stated that farm fires in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh contributed only 10% of the pollution. A flock of pigeons seen on a smoggy day in the national capital as the Air Quality Index remains in severe category in New Delhi on November 15, 2021. In the previous hearing, the court had questioned the narrow focus of the Centre and the Delhi Government on farmers. You say 76% of the pollution is caused by industry, dust, vehicles and construction and not due to stubble burning… So the cat is out of the bag… So, you are now trying to target pollution that is insignificant? Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, on the Bench, asked both Solicitor General Tushar Mehta and senior advocate Rahul Mehra, appearing for the Centre and Delhi, respectively. Are you agreeing in principle that farm fires are not the major cause? So all that hue and cry had no scientific or actual basis? Justice Surya Kant queried. Chief Justice Ramana noted that the court had been insisting that stubble burning was not the major cause. Pollution is caused by city-related issues… You first take care of them and then we will come to stubble burning, he observed, nudging the Centre, Delhi and States towards a firm commitment to act against pollution. The court was shocked to realise that Delhi had only 69 mechanised road sweepers to cover the entire streets of the Capital. Mehra was quick to assure commitment at the top. He said the municipal corporations in Delhi were autonomous bodies and suggested the court should ask the Mayors to file specific affidavits. This is like the story told by grandma… Everyone is passing the buck, Chief Justice Ramana scoffed. Justice Kant lashed out at the Delhi Government for coming up with lame excuses. He said if this went on, the court would be constrained to order an audit inquiry into the money the government spent on popularity slogans seen across the Capital. Justice Chandrachud asked, How will you augment the number of machines in the next 24 hours. Justice Kant stated, Municipal corporations say they don’t even have the money to pay their staff. Mehra, after conferring with officials, said MCD can say how many they require, the government will release the funds. We are committed… We will do on a war footling. Tall words… the CJI reacted at one point. The Delhi counsel persisted that the government had been doing everything the Union of India had asked to quell pollution. Mehra said, Everything that needs to be done further, will be done in 24 to 48 hours. Senior advocate Vikas Singh, for the petitioners, said the Centre had made a wrong statement in court today on stubble burning as their high-powered meeting last night has recorded that stubble burning even now is responsible for 35-40% of Delhi air pollution. He said construction needed to be regulated rather than banned. The court scheduled the next hearing for November 17.  

Congress demands ‘white paper’ from BJP, AAP on steps taken to tackle pollution in Delhi 

The Congress demanded a white paper from both the Centre and the Delhi Government on November 15 on the steps taken by them to tackle pollution in the national capital and said they should be held accountable for playing with the health of people. Talking to reporters in New Delhi, Congress spokesperson Jaiveer Shergill accused both the BJP and the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) of indulging in a blame game and wasting the taxpayers’ money on hollow advertisements. AAP’s Delhi government and BJP’s central government should issue a white paper on what steps they have taken to tackle the black pollution except hollow advertisements and playing blame game politics and wasting the taxpayers’ money, he said. Shergill said the Supreme Court’s observations have exposed the spineless and careless approach of the AAP and the BJP towards tackling pollution. The truth is that Delhiites are paying a heavy price for the BJP’s and the AAP’s politics, and their obsession with self publicity, he noted, soon after the apex court came down heavily on the two governments over the rising air pollution in the national capital. It is high time political accountability was fixed and the people of Delhi should hold both the BJP and the AAP accountable for playing with their health and jeopardising it, the Congress leader said. People have been suffering due to the severe air pollution in the national capital over the last few days with an Air Quality Index (AQI) of over 500.

Three months ahead of Uttar Pradesh elections, PM Modi to open Purvanchal Expressway on November 16 

With three months left for the 2022 Uttar Pradesh elections, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will on Tuesday inaugurate the 341-km six-lane Purvanchal Expressway that would connect the State capital to the eastern regions of the State. Since the leading Opposition Samajwadi Party has built a formidable caste alliance against the ruling BJP in the region and claimed credit for the project, the new expressway has come under the political spotlight, much like the Agra-Lucknow Expressway built under Chief Minister Akhilesh Yadav. Politics over the expressway intensified after the Ghazipur administration denied permission to the SP to hold a roadshow to Azamgarh, citing that no traffic would be allowed on the expressway on November 16 due to Modi’s launch of the highway on the same day. Prime Minister Narendra Modi. File In response, Yadav on Monday at a press conference said his party would shower petals at different places on the highway and mark a ‘symbolic’ launch of the highway the foundation stone of which, he said, was laid during his tenure. The SP also re-scheduled its rath yatra to November 17 and changed the route to Lucknow from Ghazipur. Modi will inaugurate the expressway at Karwal Kheri in Sultanpur where he will also witness an air show by the IAF on the 3.2-km long airstrip constructed on the expressway to enable landing and take-off of fighter planes in cases of emergency. The project was built at a cost of ₹22,497 crores, said the Uttar Pradesh Expressways Industrial Development Authority (UPEIDA). It starts from village Chaudsarai in Lucknow and ends at village Hydaria on National Highway 31, 18 km east of UP-Bihar border. It would pass through Lucknow, Barabanki, Amethi, Ayodhya, Sultanpur, Ambedkar Nagar, Azamgarh, Mau and Ghazipur districts. Yadav accused the BJP of trying to steal credit for the project. He also said the BJP government had not only removed the word ‘Samajwadi’ from the original name of the project but also ‘compromised’ on the quality to cut costs and launched an incomplete highway, putting commuters at risk. Riders would have to face back pain, he said. In contrast, If you are drinking tea in a car on the Agra-Lucknow Expressway, you will not spill it even at the speed of 100 kmph, Yadav said. The UPEIDA in a statement said the SP Government had also opened the Agra-Lucknow Expressway in 2016 when it was incomplete and that the BJP Government had to finish several portions of it after 2017. With the farmers protest raging in western U.P., the stakes are high for the BJP in Purvanchal where it hopes to showcase the expressway as a beacon of development. In November 2016, the then SP Government opened the 302-km Agra-Lucknow Expressway with a spectacular show of simulated take-offs and landings —‘touch-and-go’ manoeuvre — by six fighter planes of the IAF. It was touted as the hallmark of Yadav’s pitch to project his infrastructural works. However, in the 2017 election, in the 10 districts touched by the expressway, the BJP had won 48 seats while the SP could manage only 10. The BSP and the Congress got one each.  

Sidhu asks Punjab government to make public fiscal situation every month 

Punjab Congress president Navjot Singh Sidhu on Monday alleged that the State was reeling under acute debt and asked the government to make public the fiscal situation every month. Pointing out that his focus was beyond the 2022 Assembly elections, he asserted that Punjab was the most indebted State in the country and party workers were looking towards a solution. Today Punjab is the most indebted State in India. Debt accounts for 50% of State GDP. Half of our expenditure is funded by expensive debt. Let’s not derail from real issues to which every Punjabi & party worker demands solution, because there’s #PunjabBeyond2022, he tweeted. Financial Accountability and Transparency are pillars of Punjab Model. Accountability demands revealing sources of funds at every scheme announcement, whether from income or from more debt. Transparency demands making public state’s fiscal health every month, he stated. Borrowing was not the way to go forward for Punjab. Taxes should not go to settle debt but go back to people in the form of development. Borrowing is not the way forward! Taxes should not go to settle debt but go back to the people in the form of development. Solution oriented model is to stop theft of State’s resources, fill up public exchequer and create a Welfare State through income generation, he added.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

6th edition of Indo-France joint military exercise ‘Ex-Shakti 2021’ begins on November 16

The 6th edition of Indo-France joint military exercise ‘Ex-Shakti 2021’ began on November 16 at the French port town of Frejus. The 12-day long bilateral exercise will conclude on November 26, 2021. The Ex-Shakti 2021 will be focusing on Counter-Terrorism operations in semi-urban terrain under UN Mandate with an aim at enhancing inter-operability and military cooperation between both armies. The Indian Army is being represented by a platoon strength of a Gorkha Rifles Infantry Battalion whereas the French Army is being represented by troops of the 21st Marine Infantry Regiment of the 6th Light Armoured Brigade. The last edition of Ex-Shakti was conducted from October 31 to November 13, 2019 at Foreign Training Node in Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, Rajasthan during which Counter-Terrorism operations in semi-desert terrain were conducted. India and France armies carry out three biennial training exercises namely Exercise SHAKTI with the Indian Army, Exercise VARUNA with the Indian Navy, and Exercise GARUDA with Indian Air Force. 

Bangladesh writer Hasan Azizul Haque dies away at 82

Renowned literary figure and short-story writer of Bangladesh Hasan Azizul Haque passed away on November 15, 2021. Born in 1939, Haque was 82-years-old. Hasan Azizul Haque was one of the most prominent literary figures of Bangladesh. He was conferred with the Ekushey Padak in 1999 and Bangladesh’s top civilian honour Independence award in 2019. He has also been awarded the Bangla Academy award, Ananda Sahitya Puraskar, and Adamjee Sahitya Puraskar in 2018 in Kolkata for his novel ‘Agunpakhi’. Haque was known for his short stories in Bangla namely ‘Jibon Ghoshe Agun’, ‘Atmoja O Ekti Karabi Gaach’, ‘Gotrahin’ and ‘Naamhin’.

 

Latest Current Affairs 15 November 2021

NATIONAL NEWS 

CBI, ED directors can now have tenures of up to five years;

 Centre issues two ordinances The tenures of Directors of the CBI and the ED can now be up to a maximum of five years from the present two years, according to two ordinances brought in by the government on Sunday.  The Directors of the Central Bureau of Investigation and Enforcement Directorate enjoy a fixed tenure of two years from the date of their appointment in the wake of the directives of the Supreme Court in the famous Vineet Narain case.  The Central Vigilance Commission (Amendment) Ordinance comes barely three days ahead of the retirement of incumbent Enforcement Directorate chief S.K. Mishra, a 1984-batch IRS officer.  The government had given him an extension of one year in 2020 after the completion of his two years fixed term. The matter was heard by the Supreme Court this year which did not quash the extension but told the government not to give any further extension to Mishra beyond November 17.  However, with the promulgation of the ordinance it remains to be seen whether Mishra would continue as the ED chief or not, officials said. The ordinance promulgated by President Ram Nath Kovind that comes into effect at once states: Provided that the period for which the Director of Enforcement holds the office on his initial appointment may, in public interest, on the recommendation of the Committee under clause(a) and for the reasons to be recorded in writing, be extended up to one year at a time: Provided further that no such extension shall be granted after the completion of a period of five years in total including the period mentioned in the initial appointment, it states.  The ED Director is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary.  The government has also brought in Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021 which is also effective at once.  The ordinance inserts the provision in DSPE Act that Provided that the period for which the Director holds the office on his initial appointment may, in public interest, on the recommendation of the Committee under sub-section (1) of section 4A and for the reasons to be recorded in writing, be extended up to one year at a time: Provided further that no such extension shall be granted after the completion of a period of five years in total including the period mentioned in the initial appointment, it states.  The Director CBI is selected on the basis of the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Chief of Justice of India and the Leader of Opposition.  The fixed term of two years was aimed at ensuring the chiefs of CBI and ED work free from government interference without worrying about any adverse action for the probes carried out by divide. 

The divide between haves and have-nots is still a reality: CJI Ramana  

The stark divide between haves and have-nots is still a reality and law must work to alleviate poverty, Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana said on Sunday.  Despite our being a part of a welfare state, benefits are not trickling down to the intended beneficiaries at the desired levels. People’s aspiration about leading a dignified life are often met with challenges. One of them, primarily, being poverty, the CJI said.  Chief Justice Ramana quoted Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on the impact of poverty and a fragmented society in a country’s growth: There could be no real freedom without economic freedom and that to call a starving man free, is but to mock him.  He was speaking at a pan-Indian legal awareness and outreach campaign programme which coincided with the birth anniversary of Pandit Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister.  Chief Justice Ramana reminded that the fundamental mission of our Independence struggle was to find life and dignity for all.  The top judge reminisced how the Independence movement fought and won against the colonial attitude that poverty is a misfortune for which the law cannot take any responsibility at all.  The struggles and aspirations of our people shaped our Constitution, the document which promised us an egalitarian future, the CJI said.  The CJI said an independent and robust district judiciary was the foremost sign of a healthy judiciary. A woman in distress, a child in care of need, an illegal detainee approaches the trial court first.  The mind of the Indian judiciary can be known to millions largely through the actions of the trial court and the district judiciary. For an overwhelming majority of litigants, what is real and existing is only the district judiciary. Without robust justice delivery system at the grassroot level, we cannot imagine a healthy judiciary, Chief Justice Ramana said.  The CJI reinforced the need to practice a justice delivery system which reached out to those in need and rendered them help without delay. The CJI said such people care little for well-dressed, erudite lawyers or colossal court buildings.  All they want is to be relieved of their pain quickly, without exhausting all their resources, Chief Justice Ramana said.   

Gadchiroli encounter: Top Maoist leader Milind Teltumbde among 26 rebels killed, confirm Maharashtra police  

Maharashtra Police authorities on November 14 confirmed that top fugitive Maoist Milind Baburao Teltumbde was among the 26 members of the outlawed Communist Party of India (Maoist) who were killed in the November 13 encounter in the State’s Gadchiroli district.  Milind Teltumbde, known by his aliases ‘Jeeva’ and ‘Deepak’, was the central committee member of the CPI (Maoist) and in-charge of the newly formed Maharashtra-Madhya Pradesh-Chhattisgarh confluence (MMC) zone of the outlaws. Hailing from Rajur village in Yavatmal district’s Wani taluk, he carried a bounty of ₹50 lakh on his head and is said to have been instrumental in the growth of the outlawed movement in Gadchiroli, Gondia and Rajnandgaon districts in Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh.  Six among the outlaws were women, who were killed along with other senior members of the CPI (Maoist) in the gun battle between teams of C-60 commandos and the outlaws that began early on Saturday in the Mardintola forest area of eastern Maharashtra (near the Chhattisgarh border) and lasted several hours.  Ankit Goyal (second from right), SP of Maharashtra’s Gadchiroli district, and other officials on November 14, 2021 address a press conference on the encounter with 26 naxals the previous day at Gyarapatti-Kotgul forest near Dhanora in the district.    As per the primary identification, Teltumbde was one of the 26 Maoists killed in Saturday’s encounter. Three security personnel have also been injured in the crossfire. They have been airlifted by helicopter to Nagpur and admitted for treatment at a local hospital, said Gadchiroli Superintendent of Police Ankit Goyal.  While the identity of 10 of the slain rebels has yet to be ascertained, the 16 who have been identified include Lokesh alias Mangu Podiyam (also known as Mangu Madkam) and Mahesh alias Shivaji Gota – both Divisional Committee Members (DVCMs).  Mahesh Gota, who carried a bounty of ₹16 lakh on his head, was commander of the Kasansur ‘dalam’ (squad) while Lokesh, who was commander of company 4, carried a reward of ₹20 lakh.  Those killed also included Milind Teltumbde’s bodyguards, identified as Tilak Jade — an area committee member (ACM) also known by his aliases ‘Bhagatshingh’ and ‘Pradeep’ — and Manso Boga (known by her alias ‘Vimla’) who were said to be Milind Teltumbde’s bodyguards.  Milind Teltumbde had also been named as an accused in the 2018 Elgaar Parishad-Bhima Koregaon case, in which his elder brother Anand Teltumbde, a noted academic and writer, is currently lodged in Mumbai’s Taloja jail and is awaiting trial.  The National Investigation Agency’s charge sheet in the Elgaar Parishad case which it filed last year in October alleged that Milind Teltumbde had been apparently inspired by his elder brother to join the Maoist ranks.  The charge sheet had noted that Milind Teltumbde had been tasked with expanding the Maoist movement in urban areas with the help of his elder brother Anand Teltumbde on the international level and had allegedly taken guidance from him.   

Army Chief General MM Naravane on his first 5-day visit to Israel

The Chief of the Army Staff General MM Naravane has begun his 5-day visit to Israel. This will be Naravane’s first visit to Israel. During the visit, Naravane will meet Israel’s senior military and civilian leadership to discuss opportunities for enhancing Indo-Israel defence relations. Naravane will meet the Service Chief and visit the Headquarters of the Ground Forces element of the Israeli Defence Forces. Naravane will be further enhancing the excellent bilateral defence corporation between India and Israel through several meetings with senior officials of the security establishment.

President Ram Nath Kovind promulgates two ordinances extending tenure of CBI and ED Directors for upto 5 years

President Ram Nath Kovind on November 14, 2021, promulgated two Ordinances to extend the tenure of Directors of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and Enforcement Directorate (ED) upto 5 years. The two ordinances are the Central Vigilance Commission (Amendment) Ordinance 2021 and the Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Ordinance 2021. As per the ordinances, the Chiefs of both agencies CBI and ED will be eligible for extensions every year for upto 3 years after they complete the 2-year term. The ordinances however stated that no such extension will be given after the completion of a period of 5 years in total including the period mentioned in the initial appointment. The current tenure of the Chiefs of CBI and ED is 2-years.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

Glasgow climate summit commits nations to strengthen emission reductions  

The 26th United Nations Conference of Parties (COP) in Glasgow concluded late on Saturday, local time, with a resolution by countries to revisit and strengthen their existing emission targets by 2022.  The Glasgow Climate Pact, combined with increased ambition and action from countries, means that 1.5°C remains in sight, but it will only be delivered with concerted and immediate global efforts, said a statement from the United Nations Secretariat.  The Paris Agreement, a treaty signed in 2015, exhorts countries to strive to curtail emissions that would prevent temperatures from rising over 1.5°C by 2100. This would require significant adaptation to renewable energy, cutting global emissions by as much as 45% by 2030 and effectively zero emissions by mid-century.  A major target when negotiations began on November 1 was to tie up loose ends from 2015 Paris Agreement. The Paris Rulebook, that specifies guidelines for how the Paris Agreement is delivered, was also completed today after six years of discussions. This will allow for the full delivery of the landmark accord, after agreement on a transparency process which will hold countries to account as they deliver on their targets. This includes Article 6, which establishes a robust framework for countries to exchange carbon credits through the UNFCCC, the statement noted.  India was among the countries that had insisted on clarity on Article 6 because a bulk of the carbon credits accumulated by its several companies — private and public sector enterprises — over a decade were infructuous and India had pushed for them to be made valid again. Carbon credits allow companies in developed countries to indirectly pay for clean energy transitions in developing countries by accumulating credits. However, criticism mounted that that was not actually leading to measurable reductions in overall polluting emissions and the 1997 Kyoto Protocol that validated carbon credit trading had expired in 2020.  A key thrust of COP 26, led by the United States and the United Kingdom, which held the presidency this time, was to have countries such as India and China agree to a year, preferably mid-century, by which their emissions would be near zero. This would also imply phasing out coal. However India, in a last minute intervention and supported by China, opposed such wording in the text of the agreement. As a compromise, it now reads that coal will not be phased out but phased down.  The U.K. Presidency noted that as recently as 2019, only 30% of the world was covered by net zero targets and this had now moved close to 90%. Over the same period, 154 Parties (of the nearly 200) had submitted new national targets, representing 80% of global emissions. 

 

Russia starts delivery of S-400 missile systems to India, says Russian official  

Russia has started the delivery of S-400 surface-to-air missile systems to India, according to a senior Russian official. Russia’s Director of the Federal Service for Military-Technical Cooperation (FSMTC) Dmitry Shugaev told Sputnik news that the deliveries are going as planned.  The supplies of the S-400 air defence system to India have started and are proceeding on schedule, he said. In October 2018, India had signed a $5 billion deal with Russia to buy five units of the S-400 air defence missile systems, despite a warning from the Trump administration that going ahead with the contract may invite U.S. sanctions.  File photo of Russian S-400 air defense missile systems.   India made the first tranche of payment of around $800 million to Russia for the missile systems in 2019. The S-400 is known as Russia’s most advanced long-range surface-to-air missile defence system.  Following U.S. sanctions on Turkey over the procurement of S-400 missile systems, there have been apprehensions that Washington may impose similar punitive measures on India.  

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