NEET 2016 – 1

Q. 1 From a disc of radius R and mass M. a circular hole diameter R whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about perpendicular axis & passing through the centre?

A. 15 MR²/32

B. 13 MR²/32

C. 11 MR²/32

D. 9 MR²/32

Q. 2 A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I. The net force on the loop will be:

A. 2μ₀li/3π

B. μ₀li/2π

C. 2μ₀liL/3π

D. μ₀liL/2π

Q. 3 The magnetic suscepetibility is negative for

A. diamagnetic material only

B. paramagnetic material only

C. ferromagnetic material only

D. Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

Q. 4 A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a a speed of 15 ms⁻¹ .Then , the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :

(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms⁻¹)

A. 765 Hz

B. 800 Hz

C. 838 Hz

D. 885 Hz

Q. 5 A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turn to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

A. 0%

B. 20%

C. 75%

D. 80%

Q. 6 In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:

A. sin⁻¹(1/4)

B. sin⁻¹(2/3)

C. sin⁻¹(1/2)

D. sin⁻¹(3/4)

Q. 7 At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are -5.4×10⁷ J kg⁻² and 6.0 ms⁻² respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:

A. 2600 km

B. 1600 km

C. 1400 km

D. 2000 km

Q. 8 Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating

electromagnetic wave?

A. A charge moving at constant velocity

B. A stationary charge

C. A chargeless particle

D. An accelerating charge

Q. 9 Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from the both the sphere at a constant rate. As a result, the sphere approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres as :

A. v proportional to x¹/²

B. v proportional to x

C. v proportional to x⁻¹/²

D. v proportional to x⁻¹

Q. 10 A uniform rope of length L and mass m₁ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m₂ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:

A. √m₁/√m₂

B. √m₁+m₂/√m₂

C. √m₂/√m₁

D. √m₁+m₂/√m₁

Q. 11 A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is:

(Take 1 cal = 4.2 joules)

A. 2.365 W

B. 23.65 W

C. 236.5 W

D. 2365 W

Q. 12 An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a turning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same turning fork is:

A. 66.7 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 150 cm

D. 200 cm

Q. 13 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:

A. 0 A

B. 10⁻² A

C. 10⁻¹ A

D. 10⁻³ A

Q. 14 The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:

A. a³R/6b

B. a³R/3b

C. a³R/2b

D. a³R/b

Q. 15 A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U₁. At wavelength 500 nm is U₂ and that at 1000 nm is U₃. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88 x 10⁶ nmK. Which of the following is correct?

A. u₁=0

B. u₃=0

C. u₁>u₂

D. u₂>u₁

Q. 16 Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l₁ and l₂ respectively. If (l₂ – l₁) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?

A. α₁l₂ = α₂l₁

B. α₁l₂² = α₂l₁²

C. α₁²l₂ =α₂²l₁

D. α₁l₁ = α₂l₂

Q. 17 A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. Of the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:

A. 4, 3.84

B. 3.69, 3.84

C. 4, 4

D. 4, 3.69

Q. 18 The intensity of the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I₀. Distance between two slits of d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?

A. I₀

B. I₀/4

C. I₀

D. I₀/2

Q. 19 A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its center. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s⁻². Its net acceleration in ms⁻² at the end of 2.0 s is approximately.

A. 8.0

B. 7.0

C. 6.0

D. 3.0

Q. 20 An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is :

A. (1/c)(E/2m)¹/²

B. (E/2m)¹/²

C. c(2mE)¹/²

D. (1/E)(2m)²⁺⁽¹/ ᶜ⁾

Q. 21 A disk and a sphere o same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and lengths. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

A. Disk

B. Sphere

C. Both reach at the same time

D. Depends on their masses

Q. 22 The angle of incidence for a ray light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:

A. 45°1;/√2

B. 30°;√2

C. 45°;√2

D. 30°;1∕√2

Q. 23 When an α – particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘􀀁’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as:

A. 1/m

B. 1/√m

C. 1/m²

D. M

Q. 24 A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 c with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 x 10⁻⁴ J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?

A. 0.1 m/s²

B. 0.15 m/s²

C. 0.18 m/s²

D. 0.2 m/s²

Q. 25 The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms⁻¹ at 27 °C and 1.0 x 10⁵ Nm⁻² pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas respectively, 127 °C and 0.05 x 10⁵ Nm⁻², the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms⁻¹ is:

A. 100√2

B. 400/√3

C. 100√2/3

D. 100/3

Q. 26 A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross–section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B’, at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 4

Q. 27 A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cosωt ˆx + sin ωtyˆ . Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?

A. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r

B. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r

C. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.

D. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.

Q. 28 What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?

A. √gR

B. √2gR

C. √3gR

D. √5gR

Q. 29 When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4 . The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:

A. 4 λ

B. 5 λ

C. 5λ/2

D. 3λ

Q. 30 A gas is compressed is isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through and adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:

A. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.

B. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done

C. Compressing the gas isothermally of adiabatically will require the same amount or work

D. Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.

Q. 31 A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is

A. 5:1

B. 5:4

C. 3:4

D. 3:2

Q. 32 A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance

A. 37.3 cm

B. 46.0 cm

C. 50.0 cm

D. 54.0 cm

Q. 33 Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquids is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquids. The density d is equal to

A. {1+(n+1)p}p

B. {2+(n+1)p}p

C. {2+{n-1}p}p

D. {1+(n-1)p}p

Q. 34 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

A. A = 0, B = 1, C = 0

B. A = 1, B = 0, C = 0

C. A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

D. A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

Q. 35 A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one – quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all the energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 x 10⁵ J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]

A. 34km

B. 544 km

C. 136 km

D. 68 km

Q. 36 The ratio of escape velocity of earth (􀀁ᵥ) to the escape velocity at a planet (􀀁p) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:

A. 1 : 2

B. 1: 2√2

C. 1:4

D. 1: √2

Q. 37 If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:

A. 0°

B. 90°

C. 45°

D. 180°

Q. 38 Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:

A. 0.025 x 10⁴ m⁻¹

B. 0.5 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

C. 0.25 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

D. 2.5 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

Q. 39 A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F=(2ti+3t₂ J)N, where i and J are unit along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?

A. (2t² + 3t³) W

B. (2t² + 4t⁴) W

C. (2t³ + 3t⁴) W

D. (2t³ + 3t⁵) W

Q. 40 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C circuit is:

A. 0.51 W

B. 0.67 W

C. 0.76 W

D. 0.89 W

Q. 41 If the velocity of a particle is 􀀁 = At + Bt², where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between is and 2s is:

A. 3/2(A+4B)

B. 3/3(A+ 7B)

C. 23ᴬ⁺ᴮ

D. (A/2)+(B/3)

Q. 42 A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10⁻³ Wb. The self– inductance of the solenoid is:

A. 4H

B. 3H

C. 2H

D. 1H

Q. 43 A small signal voltage V(t) = V₀ sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:

A. Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°.

B. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

C. Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t) .

D. Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.

Q. 44 Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2 [where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

A. A→b and c; B→b and c; C→b and d; D→a and d

B. A→a and c; B→a and d; C→a and b; D→c and d

C. A→a and d; B→b and c; C→b and d; D→b and c

D. A→c and d; B→b and d; C→b and c; D→a and d

Q. 45 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the types of the car and the road is μ. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:

A. √((gR²)(μ+tanθ)/(1-μ tanθ))

B. √((gR)( μ+tanθ)/(1-μtanθ))

C. √((gμ+tanθ)/(R1-μtanθ))

D. √((g/R²)(μ+tanθ)/(1-μtanθ))

Q. 46 Consider the molecules CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O. Which of the given statements is false?

A. The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄, the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃, and the H – O – H bond angle in H₂O are all greater than 90°.

B. The H – O – H bond angle in H₂O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH₄.

C. The H – O – H bond angle in H₂O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃.

D. The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄ is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃.

Q. 47 In the following reaction

X and Y are :

A. X = 1 – Butyne; Y = 3- Hexyne

B. X = 2 – Butyne; Y = 3 – Hexyne

C. X = 2- Butyne ; Y = 2- Hexyne

D. X = 1- Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne

Q. 48 Among the following the correct order of acidity is :

A. HClO₃ < HClO₄ < HClO₂< HClO

B. HClO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄

C. HClO₂< HClO < HClO₃ < HClO₄

D. HClO₄ < HClO₂ < HClO < HClO₃

Q. 49 The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol⁻¹ s⁻¹at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after intiation of the reaction. The half – life period of the reaction is :

A. 24.1 s

B. 34.1 s

C. 44.1s

D. 54.1 s

Q. 50 Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?

A. Δ G is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive

B. ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative

C. ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive

D. ΔG and ΔS are negative butΔH is positive

Q. 51 In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with  the variation of property indicated against it?

A. Al³⁺> Mg²⁺< Na⁺< F⁻ (increasing ionic size)

B. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

C. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy

D. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

Q. 52 Which of the following statements is false?

A. Mg²⁺ ions form a complex with ATP.

B. Ca²⁺ ions are important in blood clotting

C. Ca²⁺ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart

D. Mg²⁺ ions are important in the green parts of plants.

Q. 53 Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect

A. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common

B. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts

C. Hydronium ion, H₃O⁺ exists freely in solution

D. Dihydrogen does not act as a oxidising agent

Q. 54 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alphacarbon is :

A. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.

B. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidily equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde – ketone equilibration

C. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrium with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation

D. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto – enol tautomerism.

Q. 55 MY and NY₃ two nearly insoluble salts, have te same ksp values of 6.2 x 10⁻¹³ at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard of MY and NY₃?

A. The molar solubilities of MY and NY₃ in water are indetical

B. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY₃

C. The salts MY and NY₃ are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.

D. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY₃ will have no effect on their solubilities.

Q. 56 In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:

A. α – glycosidid bond

B. β – glycosidic bond

C. Peptide bond

D. Dative bond

Q. 57 Natural rubber has:

A. All cis – configuration

B. All trans – configuration

C. Alternate cis – and trans – configuration

D. Random cis – and trans – configuration

Q. 58 Match items of Column I with the item of Column II and assign the correct code :

A. A (4), B (2), C(3), D(1)

B. A (2), B (3), C(1), D (5)

C. A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4)

D. A(3), B(4), C(5), D(1)

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements is correct when SO₂ is passed through acidified K₂Cr₂O7 solution?

A. The solution turns blue

B. The solution is decolorized

C. SO₂ is reduced.

D. Green Cr₂ (SO₄)₃ is formed

Q. 60 The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No.63), Gd (Atomic No.64 and Tb (Atomic No.65) are :

A. [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁸6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

B. [Xe]4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

C. [Xe]4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

D. [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

Q. 61 Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

A. Principle quantum number

B. Magnetic quantum number

C. Azimutual qautum number

D. Spin qauntum number

Q. 62 When copper is heated with cone. HNO₃ it produces:

A. Cu(NO₃) and NO₂

B. Cu(NO₃) and NO

C. Cu(NO₃)₂, and NO₂

D. Cu(NO₃)₂ and N₂O

Q. 63 Which of the following regents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the transisomer?

A. Aceptone

B. Ozone

C. MnO₂

D. Aluminium isopropoxide

Q. 64 The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is :

A. H < 0 and S = 0

B. H > 0 and S < 0

C. H < 0 and S > 0

D. H < 0 and S < 0

Q. 65 Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94g mol⁻¹. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

A. 154 pm

B. 352 pm

C. 527 pm

D. 264 pm

Q. 66 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?

A. (1)I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂

B. Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂

C. Br₂ > I₂ > F₂ > Cl₂

D. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂

Q. 67 Which of the following is an analgesic ?

A. Novalgin

B. Penicllin

C. Streptomycin

D. Chloromycetion

Q. 68 Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 3/8

D. 1/2

Q. 69 Consider the nitration of benezene using mixed conc. H₂SO₄ and HNO₃. If a large amount of KHSO₄ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:

A. faster

B. slower

C. unchanged

D. doubled

Q. 70 Predict the correct order among the following:

A. lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair

B. lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair

C. bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair

D. lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair

Q. 71 The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC₂ is :

A. Ca(CN)₂

B. CaCN

C. CaCN₃

D. Ca₂CN

Q. 72 Consider the following liquid — vapor equilibrium.

Liquid ⇔ Vapor

Which of the following relations is correct?

A. dlnG/dT² =Δ Hᵥ/RT²

B. dlnP/dT = -ΔHᵥ/RT

C. dlnP/dT² = -ΔHᵥ/T²

D. dlnP/dT = ΔHᵥ/RT²

Q. 73 Match the compounds given in set 1 with the hybridization and shape given in set 2 and mark the correct option.

Set 1

(a) XeF6

(b) XeO3

(c) XeOF4

(d) XeF4

Set 2

(i) distorted octahedral

(ii) square planar

(iii) pyramidal

(iv) square pyramidal

A. (a) – (i) (b) – (iii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (ii)

B. (a) – (i) (b) – (ii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (iii)

C. (a) – (iv) (b) – (ii) (c) – (i) (d) – (ii)

D. (a) – (iv) (b) – (i) (c) – (ii) (d) – (iii)

Q. 74 Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.28Å.)

A. Ni(CO)₄

B. [Co(CO)4]⊖

C. [Fe(CO)₄]²⁻

D. [Mn(CO)₆]⁺

Q. 75 The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H₂ –electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:

A. 10⁻¹⁴ atm

B. 10⁻¹² atm

C. 10⁻¹⁰ atm

D. 10⁻⁴ atm

Q. 76 The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?

A. Entropy

B. Internal Energy

C. Enthalpy

D. Activation Energy

Q. 77 The ionic radii of A⁺ and B⁻ ions are 0.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ m and 1.81 × 10⁻¹⁰ m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:

A. 6

B. 4

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 78 Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

A. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.

B. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.

C. Both are triprotic acids.

D. Both are diprotic acids.

Q. 79 Fog is colloidal solution of:

A. Liquid in gas

B. Gas in liquid

C. Solid in gas

D. Gas in gas

Q. 80 Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25˚C. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25˚C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)

A. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.

B. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.

C. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.

D. Not enough information is given to make a prediction.

Q. 81 The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:

A. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.

B. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.

C. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.

D. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.

Q. 82 The following reaction can be classified as:

A. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

B. Alcohol formation reaction

C. Dehydration reaction

D. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction

Q. 83 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:

A. Schiff base

B. Ketone

C. Carboxylic acid

D. Aromatic acid

Q. 84 Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 85 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.

B. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.

C. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.

D. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.

Q. 86 At 100˚C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:

A. 101˚C

B. 100˚C

C. 102˚C

D. 103˚C

Q. 87 The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is :

A. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’- deoxyribose.

B. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’- deoxyribose.

C. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.

D. The sugar component in RNA is 2’- deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.

Q. 88 The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :

A. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.

B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.

C. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.

D. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.

Q. 89 Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?

A. Maltose

B. Lactose

C. Glucose

D. Sucrose

Q. 90 The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH₃CH ≡ C^⊖, is present in which of the following orbitals?

A. 2p

B. sp³

C. sp²

D. sp

Q. 91 Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

A. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.

B. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.

C. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.

D. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.

Q. 92 The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Phosphodiester bond

C. Covalent bond

D. Disulphide bridges

Q. 93 The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

A. Endocarp

B. Fleshy mesocarp

C. Free nuclear proembryo

D. Free nuclear endosperm

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

A. They lack a protein coat

B. They are smaller than viruses

C. They cause infections

D. Their RNA is of high molecular weight

Q. 95 Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

A. Chitinous exoskeleton

B. Metameric segmentation

C. Parapodia

D. Jointed appendages

Q. 96 Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

A. Recessive gene disorder

B. X-linked recessive gene disorder

C. Chromosomal disorder

D. Dominant gene disorder

Q. 97 Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

A. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

B. Two photosystems operating simultaneously

C. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Q. 98 In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

A. Boron, zinc, manganese

B. Iron, copper, molybdenum

C. Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese

D. Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus

Q. 99 Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

A. Emphysema

B. Asthma

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

Q. 100 A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:

A. Ley farming

B. Contour farming

C. Strip farming

D. Shifting agriculture

Q. 101 Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(a) semi-autonomous organelles.

(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.

Which one of the following options is correct?

A. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

B. (b) is true but (a) is false.

C. (a) is true but (b) is false.

D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q. 102 In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. It is usually done when a woman is between 14 – 16 weeks pregnant.

B. It is used for prenatal sex determination.

C. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.

D. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

Q. 103 In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in 2

A. Stroma

B. Lumen of thylakoids

C. Inter membrane space

D. Antennae complex

Q. 104 Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of :

A. Guanosine and Retinol

B. Opsin and Retinal

C. Opsin and Retinol

D. Transducin and Retinene

Q. 105 Spindle fibres attach on to:

A. Telomere of the chromosome

B. Kinetochore of the chromosome

C. Centromere of the chromosome

D. Kinetosome of the chromosome

Q. 106 Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

A. Gangetic shark

B. River dolphin

C. Blue whale

D. Sea – horse

Q. 107 Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

A. glucose

B. galactose

C. lactose

D. lactose and galactose

Q. 108 Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

A. Parathormone – Calcitonin

B. Insulin – Glucagon

C. Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic Factor

D. Relaxin – lnhibin

Q. 109 Microtubules are the constituents of:

A. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

B. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia

C. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin

D. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

Q. 110 A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:

A. Polysome

B. Polymer

C. Polypeptide

D. Okazaki fragment

Q. 111 Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

A. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

B. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

C. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.

D. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.

Q. 112 Asthma may be attributed to:

A. bacterial infection of the lungs

B. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

C. inflammation of the trachea

D. accumulation of fluid in the lungs

Q. 113 The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

A. ABA

B. GA₃

C. IAA

D. Ethylene

Q. 114 The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:

A. Carina

B. Pappus

C. Vexillum

D. Corona

Q. 115 Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

A. Liliaceae

B. Solanaceae

C. Fabaceae

D. Poaceae

Q. 116 One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :

A. Chitin

B. Peptidoglycan

C. Cellulose

D. Hemicellulose

Q. 117 Select the incorrect statement :

A. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

B. LH triggers ovulation in ovary.

C. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

D. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.

Q. 118 In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

A. Pachytene

B. Leptotene

C. Zygotene

D. Diplotene

Q. 119 A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:

A. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

B. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf

C. 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf

D. 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall

Q. 120 Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?

A. Over – exploitation

B. Alien species invasion

C. Habitat loss and fragmentation

D. Co-extinctions

Q. 121 Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

A. Absence of soil organisms

B. Least genetic diversity

C. Absence of weeds

D. Ecological succession

Q. 122 Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:

A. estrogen and progesterone

B. estrogen and inhibin

C. progesterone only

D. progesterone and inhibin

Q. 123 Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

A. Independent replication

B. Circular structure

C. Transferable

D. Single-stranded

Q. 124 Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?

A. Schizocoelom as body cavity

B. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development

C. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine

D. Metamerically segmented body

Q. 125 In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and  non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

A. Allergic response

B. Graft rejection

C. Auto-immune disease

D. Active immunity

Q. 126 Match the terms in Set 1 with their description in Set2 and choose the correct option:

Set 1

(a) Dominance

(b) Codominance

(c) Pleiotropy

(d) Polygenic inheritance

Set 2

(i) Many genes govern a single character

(ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

(iv) A single gene influences many characters

A. (a) – (ii) (b) – (i) (c) – (iv) (d) – (iii)

B. (a) – (ii) (b) – (iii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (i)

C. (a) – (iv) (b) – (i) (c) – (ii) (d) – (iii)

D. (a) – (iv) (b) – (iii) (c) – (i) (d) – (ii)

Q. 127 Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:

A. 1960s

B. 1970s

C. 1980s

D. 1990s

Q. 128 Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(b) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

A. (a) and (d) are correct.

B. (b) and (d) are correct.

C. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Q. 129 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

B. Golden algae are also called desmids.

C. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.

D. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.

Q. 130 Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

A. Anther

B. Connective

C. Placenta

D. Thalamus or petal

Q. 131 Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

A. Barrier methods – prevent fertilization

B. Intra uterine devices – increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms

C. Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent/ retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization

D. Vasectomy – prevents spermatogenesis

Q. 132 The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

A. Thermus aquaticus

B. Thiobacillus ferroxidans

C. Bacillus subtilis

D. Pseudomonas putida

Q. 133 Identify the correct statement on ’inhibin’:

A. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.

B. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.

C. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.

D. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.

Q. 134 Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

A. Flower

B. Leaf

C. Stem

D. Root

Q. 135 Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

A. Activated pathogens

B. Harvested antibodies

C. Gamma globulin

D. Attenuated pathogens

Q. 136 Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

A. Mitochondria

B. Chloroplasts

C. Lysosomes

D. Nuclei

Q. 137 Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

A. Spasm

B. Fatigue

C. Tetanus

D. Tonus

Q. 138 Which of the following is not a stem modification?

A. Pitcher of Nepenthes

B. Thorns of citrus

C. Tendrils of cucumber

D. Flattened structures of Opuntia

Q. 139 Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

A. Xanthophylls

B. Chlorophylls

C. Carotenoids

D. Anthocyanins

Q. 140 Select the correct statement:

A. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

B. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms

C. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

D. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate

Q. 141 Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

A. Polymerase chain reaction

B. Zinc finger analysis

C. Restriction enzymes

D. DNA-DNA hybridization

Q. 142 Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

A. Tissue – Smooth muscle Location – Wall of intestine

B. Tissue – Areolar tissue Location – Tendons

C. Tissue – Transitional epithelium Location – Tip of nose

D. Tissue – Cuboidal epithelium Location – Lining of stomach

Q. 143 A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

A. C₃

B. C₄

C. CAM

D. Nitrogen fixer

Q. 144 Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?

A. Dorsal fin of a Shark

B. Wing of a Moth

C. Hind limb of Rabbit

D. Flipper of Whale

Q. 145 Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?

A. Cartilaginous endoskeleton – Chondrichthyes

B. Viviparous – Mammalia

C. Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw – Chordata

D. 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle – Reptilia

Q. 146 Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

A. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

B. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.

C. Mutations inactivate the cell control.

D. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

Q. 147 The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

A. Melatonin and Serotonin

B. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine

C. Estrogen and Progesterone

D. Cortisol and Cortisone

Q. 148 Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :

(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

A. (a) is correct but (b) is false.

B. (b) is correct but (a) is false.

C. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q. 149 Reduction in pH of blood will:

A. reduce the rate of heart beat.

B. reduce the blood supply to the brain.

C. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.

D. release bicarbonate ions by the liver.

Q. 150 Analogous structures are a result of:

A. Divergent evolution

B. Convergent evolution

C. Shared ancestry

D. Stabilizing selection

Q. 151 Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

A. Hind II

B. Protease

C. DNase I

D. RNase

Q. 152 The term ecosystem was coined by:

A. E.P’. Odum

B. A.G. Tansley

C. E. Haeckel

D. E. Warming

Q. 153 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

B. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.

C. Uracil is a pyrimidine.

D. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

Q. 154 In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

A. Wind

B. Insects

C. Birds

D. Water

Q. 155 When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):

A. when N/K is exactly one.

B. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.

C. when N/K equals zero.

D. when death rate is greater than birth rate.

Q. 156 Which one of the following statements is not true?

A. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

B. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin

C. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies

D. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes

Q. 157 Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?

A. Lichens

B. Liverworts

C. Mosses

D. Green algae

Q. 158 Which one of the following is the starter codon?

A. AUG

B. UGA

C. UAA

D. UAG

Q. 159 Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?

A. Ossified endoskeleton

B. Breathing using lungs

C. Viviparity

D. Warm blooded nature

Q. 160 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

A. Biological names can be written in any language

B. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet

C. The names are written in Latin and are italicised

D. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined

Q. 161 Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

A. same as that in the aorta.

B. more than that in the carotid.

C. more than that in the pulmonary vein.

D. less than that in the venae cavae.

Q. 162 Cotyledon of maize grain is called:

A. plumule

B. coleorhiza

C. coleoptile

D. scutellum

Q. 163 In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :

A. gastrin secreting cells

B. parietal cells

C. peptic cells

D. acidic cells

Q. 164 Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Ozone

C. Ammonia

D. Methane

Q. 165 Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:

A. Monera

B. Protista

C. Fungi

D. Animalia

Q. 166 Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:

A. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

B. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO₂ is different.

C. The above processes happen only during night time.

D. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.

Q. 167 In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?

A. Renal Vein

B. Dorsal Aorta

C. Hepatic Vein

D. Hepatic Portal Vein

Q. 168 Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:

A. Sporulation

B. Budding

C. Somatic hybridization

D. Apomixis

Q. 169 Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 170 In a testcross involving F₁ dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:

A. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

B. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.

C. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.

D. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

Q. 171 It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

A. It is easier to carry a small body weight

B. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate

C. Small animals have a lower O₂ requirement

D. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.

Q. 172 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

A. Spindle fibres

B. Disappearance of nucleolus

C. Chromosome movement

D. Synapsis

Q. 173 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

B. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.

C. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.

D. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.

Q. 174 Specilised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

A. Complementary cells

B. Subsidiary cells

C. Bulliform cells

D. Lenticels

Q. 175 Which of the following guards the opning of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?

A. Semilunar valve

B. Ileocaecal valve

C. Pyloric sphincter

D. Sphincter of Oddi

Q. 176 Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

A. Cladodes

B. Phyllodes

C. Phylloclades

D. Scales

Q. 177 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:

A. Halophiles

B. Thermoacidophiles

C. Methanogens

D. Eubacteria

Q. 178 A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

A. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

B. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.

C. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.

D. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.

Q. 179 A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:

A. Aneuploidy

B. Polyploidy

C. Somaclonal variation

D. Polyteny

Q. 180 A typical fat molecule is made up of:

A. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

B. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

C. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule

D. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	A	C	D	D	A	D	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	B	A	D	D	A	D	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	A	A	B	C	C	D	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	D	D	C	B	B	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	A	B	B	A	B	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	A	D	B	C	A	A	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	A	C	B	B	A	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	A	C	AA	D	A	B	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	A	B	A	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	B	B	D	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	B	B	B	B	C	D	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	A	A	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	C	C	A	D	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	A	B	D	A	D	A	C	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	D	D	A	A	A	A	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	D	B	B	B	B	C	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	A	B	D	C	C	D	B	B

NEET 2015

Q. 1 If force (F ), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will be

A. [E V^(−2) T^(−1)]

B. [E V^(−1) T^(−2)]

C. [E V^(−2) T^(−2)]

D. [E^(-2) V^(−1) T^(−3)]

Q. 2 A Ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10 km h⁻¹ and a ship B 100 km south of A is moving northwards with a speed of 10 km h⁻¹. The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest is

A. 0 h

B. 5 h

C. 5√2 h

D. 10√2 h

Q. 3 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to υ(x)=βx-2n where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x is given by

A. -2 n β^2 x^(-2n-1)

B. -2 n β^2 x^(-4n-1)

C. -2 n β^2 x^(-2n+1)

D. -2 n β^2 x^(-4n+1)

Q. 4 Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg, respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is

A. 2 N

B. 6 N

C. 8 N

D. 18 N

Q. 5 A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is μk. When the block is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is

A. (m2 +μk m1 )g / (m1 + m2)

B. (m2 -μk m1 )g / (m1 + m2)

C. (m2 . m2(μk + 1))g / (m1 + m2)

D. (m2 . m2(1 – μk))g / (m1 + m2)

Q. 6 Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ. They are stretched, first by the same amount (case a), then y the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as in case (a) and case (b), respectively:

A. WP = WQ; WP > WQ

B. WP = WQ; WP = WQ

C. WP > WQ; WQ > WP

D. WP < WQ; WQ < WP

Q. 7 A block of mass 10 kg, moving in the x-direction with a constant speed of 10 ms⁻¹ subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. final KE will be

A. 475 J

B. 450 J

C. 275 J

D. 250 J

Q. 8 A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest the force on the particle at time t is

A. (√mk / 2) t⁻¹/²

B. (√mk ) t⁻¹/²

C. (√2mk ) t⁻¹/²

D. 1 / (√mk ) t⁻¹/²

Q. 9 Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles get excited to higher level, after absorbing energyε . If final velocities of particles be v1 and v2 then we must have

A. m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 -ε = m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2

B. 1/2 (m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 ) = 1/2 (m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2) – ε

C. 1/2 (m1 u1^(2) +m2 u2^(2) ) – ε = 1/2 (m1^ v1^(2) +m2 v2^(2))

D. 1/2 (m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 ) – ε = 1/2 (m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2)

Q. 10 The rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is

A. Wx / d

B. Wd / x

C. W(d – x) / x

D. W(d – x) / d

Q. 11 A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to a string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as shown. The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m moves in a circle of radius R0. The final value of the kinetic energy is

A. m v^2 R0

B. 1/4 m v^2 R0

C. 2 m v^2 R0

D. 1/2 m v^2 R0

Q. 12 Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX’ which is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX’ axis is

A. 11/5 m r^2

B. 3 m r^2

C. 16/5 m r^2

D. 4 m r^2

Q. 13 Kepler’s third law states that square of period of revolution (T) of a planet around the Sun is proportional to third power of average distance r between Sun and planet i.e. T^2 = K r^3 here K is constant. If the masses of Sun and planet are M and m, respectively, then as per Newton’s law of gravitation, force of attraction between them is F = GMm/ r^2, here G is the gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as

A. GK = 4 π^2

B. GMK = 4 π^2

C. K = G

D. K = 1/G

Q. 14 Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and radii R and 2 R are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before collision is

A. 2.5 R

B. 4.5 R

C. 7.5 R

D. 1.5 R

Q. 15 On observing light from three different starts P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded from the above observation that

A. TP > TQ > TR

B. TP > TR > TQ

C. TP < TR < TQ

D. TP < TQ < TR

Q. 16 16. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. the compressibility of water is 45.4 x 10^(−11) Pa^(−1) and density of water is 10^3 kg/m^3. What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?

A. 0.8 x 10^(-2)

B. 1.0 x 10^(-2)

C. 1.2 x 10^(-2)

D. 1.4 x 10^(-2)

Q. 17 The two ends of a metal rod maintained at temperatures 100 ⁰C and 110 ⁰C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200 ⁰C and 210 ⁰C, the rate of heat flow will be

A. 44.0 J/s

B. 16.8 J/s

C. 8.0 J/s

D. 4.0 J/s

Q. 18 A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be (P air = 1.2 kg/m3)

A. 4.8 x 10^5 N, downwards

B. 4.8 x 10^5 N, upwards

C. 2.4 x 10^5 N, upwards

D. 2.4 x 10^5 N, downwards

Q. 19 Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be

A. 380 J

B. 500 J

C. 460 J

D. 300 J

Q. 20 A Carnot engine having an efficiency of η=1/10 as heat engine is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

A. 100 J

B. 99 J

C. 90 J

D. 1 J

Q. 21 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure,The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is

A. 20 kJ

B. – 20 kJ

C. 20 J

D. -12 kJ

Q. 22 The ratio of the specific heats Cp / Cy =γ in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by

A. 1 = 1/3

B. 1 + n/3

C. 1 + 2/n

D. 1+ n/2

Q. 23 When two displacements represented by y1 = a sin (ωt) and y2 = b cos (ωt) are

superimposed the motion is

A. Not a simple harmonic

B. Simple harmonic with amplitude a/b

C. Simple harmonic with amplitude √( a^2 + b^2 )

D. Simple harmonic with amplitude (a + b)/2

Q. 24 A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period is

A. 2π √( (x1^2 + x2^2)/(v1^2 + v2^2) )

B. 2π √( (x2^2 – x1^2)/(v1^2 – v2^2) )

C. 2π √( (v1^2 + v2^2)/(x1^2 + x2^2) )

D. 2π √( (v1^2 – v2^2)/(x1^2 – x2^2) )

Q. 25 The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both ends is

A. 80 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 120 cm

D. 140 cm

Q. 26 A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. The potential difference between the plates decrease K times

B. The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times

C. The change in energy stored is 1/2 ( C V^2)( 1/K – 1)

D. The charge on the capacitor is not conserved

Q. 27 The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the origin of the field, will be given by

A. 4π ε0 Aa^2

B. ε0 Aa^2

C. 4π ε0 Aa^3

D. ε0 Aa^3

Q. 28 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 W. The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of emf 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is

A. 32 Ω

B. 40 Ω

C. 44 Ω

D. 48 Ω

Q. 29 A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R and 3R, respectively, as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC, respectively, then

A. VA = VB = VC

B. VA ≠ VB = VC

C. VA = VB ≠ VC

D. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC

Q. 30 Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is

A. current density

B. current

C. drift velocity

D. electric field

Q. 31 A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis, while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y–Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is

A. B = (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi + 2k )

B. B = – (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi – 2k )

C. B = -(μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi + 2k )

D. B = (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi – 2k )

Q. 32 An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude:

A. μ0 n e / 2πr

B. zero

C. μ0 n 2 e

D. μ0 r n e / 2r

Q. 33 A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to

A. 1 / x^2

B. 1 / (2x – a)^2

C. 1 / (2x + a)^2

D. 1 / (2x + a)(2x – a)

Q. 34 A resistance ‘R” draws power ‘P’ when connected to an AC source. if an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be

A. P ( R/Z )^2

B. P√(R/Z)

C. P ( R/Z )

D. P

Q. 35 A resistance ‘R’ draws power ‘P’ when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be

A. P ( R/Z)^2

B. P √(R/Z)

C. P ( R/Z)

D. E / C^2

Q. 36 Two identical thin plano–convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the combination is

A. -20 cm

B. -25 cm

C. -50 cm

D. 50 cm

Q. 37 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ‘λ’, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width ‘a’ is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be

A. 2Dλ/a

B. Dλ/a

C. Da/λ

D. 2Da/λ

Q. 38 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern?

A. 0.2 mm

B. 0.1 mm

C. 0.5 mm

D. 0.02 mm

Q. 39 The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is

A. 180° – 3A

B. 180° – 2A

C. 90° – A

D. 180°+ 2A

Q. 40 A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is

A. 6λ

B. 4λ

C. 4^λ

D. 6^λ

Q. 41 Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 42 Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K = 9 x 10^9 constant, Z = 2 and h(Planck’s constant) = 6.6 x 10^−34 Js]

A. 2.92 x 10^6 m/s

B. 1.46 x 10^6 m/s

C. 0.73 x 10^6 m/s

D. 3.0 x 10^6 m/s

Q. 43 If radius of the 27/13 Al nucleus is taken to be R(Al) then the radius of 125/53 Te nucleus is nearly:

A. (53/13)^(1/3) R

B. 5/3 R

C. 3/5 R

D. 13/53 R

Q. 44 If in a p–n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied, as shown

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 45 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. OR

B. NAND

C. AND

D. NOR

Q. 46 Which of the following species contains equal number of σ and π -bonds?

A. HCO₃⁻

B. XeO₄

C. CN₂

D. CH₂ CN₂

Q. 47 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?

A. Ar < K+ < Ca2+

B. Ca2+ < Ar <K+

C. Ca2+ < K+ < Ar

D. K+ < Ar < Ca2+

Q. 48 The function of ‘’Sodium pump’’ is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump?

A. Ca2+

B. Mg2+

C. K+

D. Fe2+

Q. 49 ‘’Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores’’. Out of the following two (a and b) reasons which is/are true for the above observation?(a)Metal nitrates are highly unstable (b) Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water

A. a and b are true

B. a and b are false

C. a is false but b is true

D. a is true but b is false

Q. 50 Solubility of the alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence :

A. Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba

B. Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg

C. Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba

D. Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca

Q. 51 Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).

A. Ti (22) and Zr (40)

B. Zr (40) and Nb (41)

C. Zr (40) and Hf (72)

D. Zr (40) and Ta (73)

Q. 52 Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

A. Rusting of iron sheets

B. Decolourisation of blue CuSO₄ solution by iron

C. Formation of FeCO₅ from Fe

D. Liberation of H² from steam by iron at high temperature

Q. 53 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. CO₃²⁻ , SO₃²⁻

B. ClO₃²⁻ , CO₃²⁻

C. SO₃²⁻ , NO₃⁻

D. ClO₃⁻ , SO₃²⁻

Q. 54 Which of the following options represents the correct bond order?

A. O₂⁻ >O₂ >O₂⁺

B. O₂⁻ <O₂ <O₂⁺

C. O₂⁻ >O₂ <O₂⁺

D. O₂- <O₂ >O₂⁺

Q. 55 Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other?

A. forms ‘acid – rain’

B. is a reducing agent

C. is soluble in water

D. is used as a food-preservative

Q. 56 Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following

A. NO₂

B. NO₂⁻

C. NO₂⁺

D. NO₃⁻

Q. 57 Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by: (At. nos. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)

A. Ni₂⁺

B. Ti₃⁺

C. Cr₂⁺

D. Co₂⁺

Q. 58 Cobalt (III) Chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C?

A. CoCl₃ . 3NH₃

B. CoCl₃ . 4NH₃

C. CoCl₃ . 5NH₃

D. CoCl₃ .6NH₃

Q. 59 Which of these statements about [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ is true?

A. [[Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration

B. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has four unpaired electrons and will be in low-spin configuration

C. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration

D. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has no unpaired electrons and will e in a high-spin configuration

Q. 60 The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

A. In K vs. T

B. InK/T vs.T

C. InKvs. 1/T

D. T/InK vs. 1/T

Q. 61 Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

A. ΔHmix

B. ΔSmix

C. ΔVmix

D. ΔP=Pobserved -PRaoult

Q. 62 A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1:4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

A. 1:4

B. 4:1

C. 16:1

D. 2:1

Q. 63 A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure having edge length of 361 pm. If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the radius of one atom?

A. 40 pm

B. 127 pm

C. 80 pm

D. 108 pm

Q. 64 When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half – life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is :

A. Zero

B. First

C. Second

D. More than zero but less than first

Q. 65 If the value of an equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium the system will contain

A. All reactants

B. Mostly reactants

C. Mostly products

D. Similar amounts of reactants and products

Q. 66 A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as :

A. Fuel cell

B. Electrolytic cell

C. Dynamo

D. Ni–Cd cell

Q. 67 The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg^−1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case?

A. X is undergoing dissociation in water

B. Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y

C. Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y

D. Y is undergoing dissociation in water, while X undergoes no change

Q. 68 Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff’s factor (i) as that of Al₂(SO₄)₃ (if all are 100% ionized)?

A. K₂SO₄

B. K₃[Fe(CN)₆]

C. Al(NO₃)₃

D. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

Q. 69 The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following?

A. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)

B. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

C. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)

D. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)

Q. 70 The correct bond order in the following species is:

A. O²⁺₂ < O₂⁺ < O₂⁻

B. O²⁺₂ <O₂⁻ < O₂⁺

C. O₂⁺ < O₂⁻ < O²⁺₂

D. O₂⁻ < O₂⁺ < O²⁺₂

Q. 71 The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to:

A. √ 6 h

B. √2 h

C. 2 √3 h

D. 0 h

Q. 72 The Ksp of Ag₂CrO₄, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are, respectively, 1.1 × 10⁻¹², 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰, 5.0 × 10⁻¹³, 8.3 × 10⁻¹⁷. Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if AgNO₃ solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na₂CrO₄

A. AgI

B. AgCl

C. AgBr

D. AgCrO₄

Q. 73 Which property of colloidal solution is independent of charge on the colloidal particles?

A. Coagulation

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electro-osmosis

D. Tyndall effect

Q. 74 Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?

A. ΔG=-2.30RTlogK

B. ΔG=2.30RTlogK

C. ΔGo =-2.30RTlogK

D. ΔGo =2.30RTlogK

Q. 75 Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to function as a/an:

A. Softener

B. Dryer

C. Buffering agent

D. Antiseptic

Q. 76 The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces:

A. P-Aminophenol

B. Azoxybenzene

C. Azobenzene

D. Aniline

Q. 77 In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL if nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

A. 17.36

B. 18.20

C. 16.76

D. 15.76

Q. 78 In which of the following compounds, the C–Cl bond ionization shall give most stable carbonium ion?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 79 The given reaction is

A. Williamson Synthesis

B. Williamson continuous etherification process

C. Etard reaction

D. Gatterman–Koch reaction

Q. 80 The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr produces

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 A single compound of the given structure is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 82 Treatment of cyclopentanone the following species?

A. Cyclopentanonyl anion

B. Cyclopentadienyl cation

C. Cyclopentadienyl radical

D. Cyclopentanonyl biradical

Q. 83 Consider the following compounds. The hyperconjugation occurs in?

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and III

Q. 84 Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement of a nucleophilic reaction to take place

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 85 The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has:

A. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

B. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds

C. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

D. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds

Q. 86 Given, Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. I, II and III

Q. 87 The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as:

A. I > II > III

B. III > II > I

C. II > III > I

D. II > I > III

Q. 88 Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and aminocaproic acid is

A. Nylon 2–nylon 6

B. PHBV

C. Buna-N

D. Nylon 6, 6

Q. 89 The total number of π- bond electrons in the following structure is:

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 90 An organic compound ‘X’ having molecular formula C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollens’ test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. ‘X’ could be:

A. pentanal

B. 2-pentanone

C. 3-pentanone

D. n-amyl alcohol

Q. 91 Which one of the following matches is correct?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 92 Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements: (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes is sporophytic (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.

A. (A),(C) AND (D)

B. (B),(C) and (D)

C. (A),(D) and (E)

D. (B),(C) and (E)

Q. 93 In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living

A. Funaria

B. Marchantia

C. Pteris

D. Pinus

Q. 94 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

B. Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

C. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food

D. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

Q. 95 The guts of cow and buffalo possess

A. Fucus spp.

B. Chlorella spp.

C. Methanogens

D. Cyanobacteria

Q. 96 Male gametes are flagellated in

A. Polysiphonia

B. anabaena

C. Ectocarpus

D. Spirogyra

Q. 97 Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

A. A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

B. Cambium is absent

C. There are no vessels with perforations

D. Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

Q. 98 The given figure is the floral image of

A. Allium

B. Sesbania

C. Petunia

D. Brassica

Q. 99 A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of

A. Open vascular bundles

B. Scattered vascular bundles

C. Vasculature without cambium

D. Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem long the radius

Q. 100 Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of

A. Tulip

B. Indigofera

C. Aloe

D. Tomato

Q. 101 Perigynous flowers are found in

A. Guava

B. Cucumber

C. China rose

D. Rose

Q. 102 Leaves become modified into spines in

A. Opuntia

B. Pea

C. Onion

D. Silk Cotton

Q. 103 The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are

A. Cristae

B. Grana

C. Stroma lamellae

D. Stroma

Q. 104 The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are

A. Metacentric

B. Acrocentric

C. Telocentric

D. Sub-metacentric

Q. 105 Select the correct matching in the following pairs

A. Smooth R – Oxidation of phospholipids

B. Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

C. Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen

D. Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids

Q. 106 True nucleus is absent in

A. Anabaena

B. Mucor

C. Vaucheria

D. Volvox

Q. 107 Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?

A. Phosphate granule

B. Cyanophycean granule

C. Glycogen granule

D. Polysome

Q. 108 Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by

A. Pulling it upward

B. Pulling and pushing it, respectively

C. Pushing it upward

D. Pushing and pulling it, respectively

Q. 109 Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include

A. Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium

B. Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper

C. Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron

D. Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc

Q. 110 What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side to bend toward the source of light as it grows?

A. Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis

B. Green plants seek because they are phototropic

C. Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster

D. Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there.

Q. 111 In a ring girdled plant

A. The shoot dies first

B. The root dies first

C. The shoot and root die together

D. Neither root nor shoot will die

Q. 112 Typical growth curve in plants is

A. Sigmoid

B. Linear

C. Stair–steps shaped

D. Parabolic

Q. 113 Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements?

A. Transpiration

B. Potassium influx and efflux

C. Starch hydrolysis

D. Guard cell photosynthesis

Q. 114 The hilum is a scar on the

A. Seed, where funicle was attached

B. Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel

C. Fruit, where style was present

D. Seed, where micropyle was present

Q. 115 Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

A. Geitonogamy

B. Xenogamy

C. Apogamy

D. Cleistogamy

Q. 116 Which one of the following statement is not true?

A. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they used in the form of tablets and syrups

B. Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people

C. The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete four odour to attract them

D. Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers

Q. 117 Transmission tissue is characteristics feature of

A. Hollow style

B. Solid style

C. Dry stigma

D. Wet stigma

Q. 118 In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through

A. Rhizome

B. Offsets

C. Bulbils

D. Runners

Q. 119 Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?

A. Colour and large size of flower

B. Nectar and pollen grains

C. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals

D. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates

Q. 120 How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?

A. Five

B. Six

C. Seven

D. Eight

Q. 121 Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually reproducing organism?

A. Transduction

B. Chromosomal aberrations

C. Genetic drift

D. Recombination

Q. 122 A technique of micropropagation is

A. Somatic hybridisation

B. Somatic embryogenesis

C. Protoplast fusion

D. Embryo rescue

Q. 123 The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called

A. Inversion

B. Duplication

C. Translocation

D. Crossing over

Q. 124 Multiple alleles are present

A. On different chromosomes

B. At different loci on the same chromosome

C. At the same locus of the chromosome

D. On non-sister chromatids

Q. 125 Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?

A. Biosafety committee

B. Indian council of agricultural research

C. Genetic Engineering Approval committee

D. Research committee on Genetic Manipulation

Q. 126 In BT cotton, the BT toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to

A. Alkaline pH of the insect gut

B. Acidic pH of the insect gut

C. Action of gut microorganisms

D. Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

Q. 127 The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to

A. Fungi

B. Bacteria

C. Insects

D. Herbicides

Q. 128 DNA is not present in

A. Chloroplast

B. Ribosomes

C. Nucleus

D. Mitochondria

Q. 129 Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts?

A. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride

B. Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate

C. IAA and kinetin

D. IAA and gibberellins

Q. 130 The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in

A. Poland

B. South Africa

C. Peru

D. Qatar

Q. 131 Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as

A. Divergence

B. Stratification

C. Zonation

D. Pyramid

Q. 132 In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?

A. In situ conservation : National Park Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden

B. In situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation : Wildlife sanctuary

C. In situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex situ conservation : National Park

D. In situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves

Q. 133 Secondary succession takes place on/in

A. Bare rock

B. Degraded forest

C. Newly created pond

D. Newly cooled lava

Q. 134 The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called

A. Gross primary productivity

B. Standing state

C. Net primary productivity

D. Standing crop

Q. 135 In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed

A. Net primary productivity

B. Gross primary productivity

C. Secondary productivity

D. Net productivity

Q. 136 Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?

A. Segmentation

B. Bilateral symmetry

C. Exoskeleton

D. Eyes

Q. 137 Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity

A. Ancylostoma duodenale

B. Enterobius vermicularis

C. Trichinella spiralis

D. Ascaris lumbricoides

Q. 138 Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 139 Which of the following animals is not viviparous?

A. Flying fox (bat)

B. Elephant

C. Platypus

D. Whale

Q. 140 Erythropoiesis starts in

A. Kidney

B. Liver

C. Spleen

D. Red bone marrow

Q. 141 The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by

A. Cementing glue

B. Muscular tissue

C. Arthrodial membrane

D. Cartilage

Q. 142 Nuclear envelope is a derivative of

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B. Membrane of Golgi complex

C. Microtubules

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Q. 143 Cytochromes are found in

A. Matrix of mitochondria

B. Outer wall of mitochondria

C. Cristae of mitochondria

D. Lysosomes

Q. 144 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme– inhibitor complex

B. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme

C. The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate breakdown of the enzyme– substrate complex

D. The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate

Q. 145 Select the correct option for (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

B. (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

C. (i) (ii) (v) (iv)

D. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Q. 146 A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has

A. Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

B. Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

C. Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA

D. Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

Q. 147 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen

B. Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus

C. Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl

D. Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase

Q. 148 Gastric juice of infants contains

A. Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin

B. Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase

C. Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin

D. Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen

Q. 149 When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood  would first lead to the urge to breathe?

A. Falling O₂ concentration

B. Rising CO₂ concentration

C. Falling CO₂ concentration

D. Rising CO₂ and falling O₂ concentration

Q. 150 Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

A. Systole of the left atrium

B. Diastole of the right ventricle

C. Systole of the left ventricle

D. Diastole of the right atrium

Q. 151 Which one of the following is correct?

A. Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes

B. Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

C. Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC

D. Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets

Q. 152 Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in

A. More diluted urine

B. More concentrated urine

C. No change in quality and quantity of urine

D. No urine formation

Q. 153 Sliding filament theory can best explained as

A. When filaments slide past each other actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten

B. Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other

C. Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other

D. When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten, while Actin filaments do not shorte

Q. 154 Glenoid cavity articulates

A. Clavicle with acromion

B. Scapula with acromion

C. Clavicle with scapula

D. Humerus with scapula

Q. 155 Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

A. Medulla oblongata – Homoeostatic control

B. Cerebellum – Language comprehension

C. Corpus callosum – Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices

D. Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation

Q. 156 A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of

A. Cochlea

B. Vestibular apparatus

C. Tectorial membrane

D. Organ of Corti

Q. 157 A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is

A. Melatonin

B. Calcitonin

C. epinephrine

D. Cortisol

Q. 158 Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

A. Alcohol

B. Caffeine

C. Renin

D. Atrial-natriuretic factor

Q. 159 Capacitation refers to changes in the

A. Sperm before fertilisation

B. Ovum before fertilisation

C. Ovum after fertilisation

D. Sperm after fertilisation

Q. 160 Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

A. Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio

B. Synthesis of prostaglandins

C. Release of oxytocin

D. Release of prolactin

Q. 161 Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Human immunodeficiency virus

C. Chikungunya virus

D. Ebola virus

Q. 162 Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

A. Primary polar body

B. Spermatid

C. Spermatogonia

D. Secondary polar body

Q. 163 Hysterectomy is surgical removal of

A. Uterus

B. Prostate gland

C. Vas deferens

D. Mammary glands

Q. 164 Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease?

A. Syphilis

B. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

C. Trichomoniasis

D. Encephalitis

Q. 165 An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to

A. Formation of abnormal sperms in the father

B. Formation of abnormal ova in the mother

C. Fusion of two ova and one sperm

D. Fusion of two sperms and one ovum

Q. 166 Alleles are

A. Different phenotype

B. True breeding homozygotes

C. Different molecular forms of a gene

D. Heterozygotes

Q. 167 A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?

A. A and B only

B. A, B and AB only

C. A, B, AB and O

D. O only

Q. 168 Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is

A. Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

B. Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

C. Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription

D. Feedback inhibition because excess of β – galactosidase can switch off transcription

Q. 169 In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in the DNA are

A. G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

B. G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

C. G 17%, A 33%, T 33%

D. G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%

Q. 170 Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

A. Homo erectus

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo habilis

Q. 171 A population will not exist in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is

A. Individuals mate selectively

B. There are no mutations

C. There is no migration

D. The population is large

Q. 172 Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine for (a), (b), (c) and (d) are:

A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q. 173 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

A. B-lymphocytes

B. Leukocytes

C. Helper T-lymphocytes

D. Thrombocytes

Q. 174 To active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon

A. Erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon

B. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only

C. Food n intestine

D. Blood only

Q. 175 High value of BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) indicates that

A. Water is pure

B. Water is highly polluted

C. Water is less polluted

D. Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes

Q. 176 Most animals are tree dwellers in a

A. Coniferous forest

B. Thorn woodland

C. Temperate deciduous forest

D. Tropical rainforest

Q. 177 The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that

A. Both plant populations in this habitat decreased

B. Population B compete more successfully for food than population A

C. Population A produced more offspring than population B

D. Population A consumed the members of population B

Q. 178 Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as

A. In situ conservation of biodiversity

B. Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity

C. In situ conservation by sacred groves

D. In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity

Q. 179 Rachel Carson’s famous book ‘Silent spring’ is related to

A. Pesticide pollution

B. Noise pollution

C. Population explosion

D. Ecosystem management

Q. 180 Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

A. Increased skin cancer

B. Reduced immune system

C. Damage to eyes

D. Increased liver cancer

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	C	B	C	D	C	A	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	D	A	B	C	A	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	C	C	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	C	A	A	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	B	C	A	A	D	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	A	C	C	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	C	C	A	D	B	A	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	C	D	D	C	C	B	C	C	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	B	B	B	A	D	B	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	A	A	D	B	A	B	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	C	C	C	A	D	B	B	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	C	C	B	C	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	C	D	B	C	A	C	B	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	C	D	B	B	C	C	A	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	A	D	B	C	C	B	C	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	C	C	A	B	D	B	B	A	D

NEET 2014

Q. 1 If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are take As fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :

A. [F V F⁻¹]

B. [F V T⁻²]

C. [F V⁻¹ T⁻¹]

D. [F V⁻¹ T]

Q. 2 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms⁻¹ and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired another planet with a velocity of 3 ms⁻¹ at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms⁻²) is: (given g = 9.8 ms⁻²)

A. 3.5

B. 5.9

C. 16.3

D. 110.8

Q. 3 A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y)are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5s

Average velocity vector Vav from t = 0 to t = 5 s is: 

A. 1/5 * (13 i ̂ +14 i ̂ )

B. 7/3 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

C. 2 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

D. 11/5 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

Q. 4 A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a strings passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = u) the pulley if frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :

A. g(1-gμ)/9

B. 2gμ/3

C. g(1-2μ)/3

D. g(1-2μ)/2

Q. 5 The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force — time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero

A. 24 Ns

B. 20 Ns

C. 12 Ns

D. 6 Ns

Q. 6 A balloon with mass ‘m’ descends down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’?

A. 2ma/(g+a)

B. 2ma/(g-a)

C. ma/(g+a)

D. ma/(g-a)

Q. 7 A body of mass (4m) is laying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :

A. Mv²

B. 3/2 mv²

C. 2 mv²

D. 4 mv²

Q. 8 The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the  equation, Where, X = A cos (ωt); X = displacement at time t; ω = frequency of oscillation. Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’? Here a = acceleration at time t 

T = time period

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 9 A solid cylinder of mass 50 g and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s⁻² is :

A. 25 N

B. 50 N

C. 78.5 N

D. 157 N

Q. 10 The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ Without slipping and slipping down the incline with rolling is :

A. 5:7

B. 2:3

C. 2:5

D. 7:5

Q. 11 A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 x 10²⁴ kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ?

A. 10⁻⁹ m

B. 10⁻⁶ m

C. 10⁻² m

D. 100 m

Q. 12 Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 13 Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When the wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’ the extension produced in the wire is ‘Δl’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?

A. Δl versus 1/l

B. ΔI versus l²

C. ΔI versus 1/l²

D. ΔI versus l

Q. 14 A certain number of spherical drops of liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :

A. Energy = 4VT (1/e – 1/R) is released.

B. Energy = 3VT (1/r + 1/R) is absorbed

C. Energy = 3VT (1/r – 1/R) is released

D. Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Q. 15 Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C the mass of water present will be :

[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g⁻¹]

A. 24 g

B. 31.5 g

C. 42.5 g

D. 22.5 g

Q. 16 Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is :

A. 45°C

B. 20°C

C. 42°C

D. 10°C

Q. 17 A monatomic gas at pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure if the gas is : (take y: 5/3)

A. 64 P

B. 32 Po

C. P/ 64

D. 16 P

Q. 18 A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is :

A. P0V0

B. 2 P0V0

C. P0V0/2

D. Zero

Q. 19 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius is inversely proportional to :

A. r³

B. r²

C. r

D. √r

Q. 20 If n₁,n₂ and n₃ are the fundamental frequencies three segments into which a string is divided, the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by :

A. 1/n = 1/n₁ + 1/n₂ + 1/n₃

B. 1/sqrt(n) = 1/sqrt(n₁) + 1/sqrt(n₂) + 1/sqrt(n₃)

C. sqrt(n) = sqrt(n₁) + sqrt(n₂) + sqrt(n₃)

D. n = n₁ + n₂ + n₃

Q. 21 The number of possible natural oscillations of column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are :

(velocity of sound = 340 ms⁻¹)

A. 4

B. 5

C. 7

D. 6

Q. 22 A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds the traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. The speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be :

A. 1332 Hz

B. 1372 Hz

C. 1412 Hz

D. 1454 Hz

Q. 23  Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are

A. Zero and Q/(4 π ε R^2)

B. Q/(4 π ε R) and Zero

C. Q/(4 π ε R) and Q/(4 π ε R^2)

D. Both are Zero

Q. 25 In a region the potential is represented by V (x,y,z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where v is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a change of 2 coulomb situated at point (1,1,1) is :

A. 6√5 N

B. 30 N

C. 24 N

D. 4√35 N

Q. 26 Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is :

A. 19.2 w

B. 19.2 kW

C. 19.2 J

D. 12.2 kW

Q. 27 The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance; the new balance point is at 1.6l₁. The resistance ‘R’ is:

A. 10 Ω

B. 15 Ω

C. 20 Ω

D. 25 Ω

Q. 28 A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R connected across the given cell, has values of.

(1) Infinity

(2) 9.5 Ω

The ‘balancing lengths’ on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, Respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is:

A. 0.25 Ω

B. 0.95 Ω

C. 0.5 Ω

D. 0.75 Ω

Q. 29 Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment⃗ m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 30 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:

A. (1/499) * G

B. (499/500) * G

C. (1/500) * G

D. (500/499) * G

Q. 31 Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that ‘O’ is their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents, respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be: 

A. μ/2πd * (I1 / I2)

B. μ/2πd * (I1 + I2)

C. μ/2πd * (I1^2 – I2^2)

D. μ/2πd * sqrt (I1^2 + I2^2)

Q. 32 A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:

A. Zero

B. Bvπr²/2 and P is at higher potential

C. πrBv and R is at higher potential

D. 2rBv and R is at higher potential

Q. 33 A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :

A. 300 V, 15 A

B. 450 V, 15 A

C. 450 V, 13.5 A

D. 600 V, 15 A

Q. 34 Light with an energy flux of 25 x 10⁴ Wm⁻² falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm², the average force exerted on the surface is :

A. 1.25 x 10⁻⁶ N

B. 2.50 x 10⁻⁶ N

C. 1.20 x 10⁻⁶ N

D. 3.0 x 10⁻⁶ N

Q. 35 A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :

A. 1.2 cm

B. 1.2 mm

C. 2.4 cm

D. 2.4 mm

Q. 36 In the Young’s double — slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wavelength of light used). The intensity at point where the path difference is λ/4 will be:

A. K

B. K/4

C. K/2

D. Zero

Q. 37 If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of:

A. Microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease.

B. Microscope and telescope both will increase

C. Microscope and telescope both will decrease

D. Microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.

Q. 38 The angle of prism is ‘A’ One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ of the prism is

A. 2 sin A

B. 2 cos A

C. 1/2 cos A

D. Tan A

Q. 39 When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20% the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is

A. 0.65 eV

B. 1.0 eV

C. 1.3 eV

D. 1.5 eV

Q. 40 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :

A. 25

B. 75

C. 60

D. 50

Q. 41 Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 A. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be :

A. 3

B. 2

C. 6

D. 10

Q. 42 The Binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li and ⁴₂He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction ⁷₃Li + ¹₁H → ⁴₂He + ⁴₂He +Q, the value of energy Q released is :

A. 19.6 MeV

B. -2.4 MeV

C. 8.4 MeV

D. 17.3 MeV

Q. 43 A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 x 10⁹ years decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is : 

A. 1.96 x 10⁹ years

B. 3.92 x 10⁹ years

C. 4.20 x 10⁹ years

D. 8.40 x 10⁹ years

Q. 44 The given graph represents V — I characteristics for semiconductor device.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. It is V — I characteristics for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point b short circuit current.

B. It is for s solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively.

C. It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

D. It is for LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively

Q. 45 The barrier potential of a p – n junction depends on :

(a) Type of semiconductor material

(b) Amount of doping

(c) Temperature

Which one of the following is correct?

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (c) only

C. (b) and (c) only

D. (a), (b) and (c)

Q. 46 What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers?

n=3, l=1, m₁=0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 47 Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :

(Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ Js ; speed of light c = 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹)

A. 6.67 x 10¹⁵

B. 6.67 x 10¹¹

C. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁵

D. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁸

Q. 48 Equal masses of H₂, 0₂ and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27° C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂ : O₂ : methane would be :

A. 8 : 16 : 1

B. 16 : 8 : 1

C. 16: 1 : 2

D. 8 : 1 : 2

Q. 49 If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner atom in the cube will be

A. 2/√3 a

B. 4/√3 a

C. √3/4 a

D. √3/2 a

Q. 50 Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles ?

A. Coagulation

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electro — osmosis

D. Tyndall effect

Q. 51 Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?

A. KCl

B. NaCl

C. Na₂CO₃

D. CuSO₄

Q. 52 Of the following 0.10 aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?

A. KCl

B. C₆H₁₂O₆

C. Al₂(SO₄)₃

D. K₂SO₄

Q. 53 When 22.4 liters of H₂ (g) is mixed with 11.2 liters of Cl₂ (g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to :

A. 1 mol of HCl (g)

B. 2 mol of HCl (g)

C. 0.5 mol of HCl (g)

D. 1.5 mol of HCl (g)

Q. 54 When 0.1 mol MnO²₄⁻ is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize MnO ²₄⁻ to MnO⁻₄ is :

A. 96500 c

B. 2 x 96500 c

C. 9650 c

D. 96.50 c

Q. 55 Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,

Ag₂CO₃ (s) ↔ 2Ag⁺ (aq) + CO₃²⁻ (aq)

The Ksp of Ag₂CO₃(s) in water at 25°C is:

(R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

A. 3.2 x 10⁻²⁶

B. 8.0 x 10⁻¹²

C. 2.9 x 10⁻³

D. 7.9 x 10⁻²

Q. 56 The weight of silver (at.wt = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of 0₂ at STP will be :

A. 5.4 g

B. 10.8 g

C. 54.0 g

D. 108.0 g

Q. 57 Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

A. S is negative and, therefore, H should be highly positive.

B. S is negative and therefore, H should be highly negative.

C. S is positive and therefore, H should be negative.

D. S is positive and, therefore, H should also be highly positive.

Q. 58 For the reversible reaction :

N₂ (g) + 3H₂(g) ↔ 2NH₃ (g) + heat

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction :

A. By increasing the concentration of NH₃ (g)

B. By decreasing the pressure

C. By decreasing the concentration of N₂ (g) and H₂ (g)

D. By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

Q. 59 For the reaction :

X₂O₄ → 2X0₂ (g)

U = 2.1 k cal, S = 20 cal K⁻¹ at 300 K

Hence, G is

A. 2.7 k cal

B. -2.7 k cal

C. 9.3 k cal

D. -9.3 k cal

Q. 60 For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T₁ and T₂, respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T₁ and T₂, it is readily observed that :

A. Kp > K’p

B. Kp < K’p

C. KP =K’p

D. Kp = 1/K’p

Q. 61 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ?

A. H⁻ > H⁺ > H

B. Na⁺ > F⁻ > 0²⁻

C. F⁻ > 0²⁻ > Na⁺

D. Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > N³⁻

Q. 62 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much?

(At.wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)

A. Mg, 0.16 g

B. O₂ , 0.16 g

C. Mg, 0.44 g

D. O₂, 0.28 g

Q. 63 The pair of compounds that can exist together is :

A. FeCl₃, SnCl₂

B. HgCl₂, SnCl₂

C. FeCl₂, SnCl₂

D. FeCl₃, KI

Q. 64 Be²⁺ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

A. H⁺

B. Li⁺

C. Na⁺

D. Mg²⁺

Q. 65 Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?

A. CO₂

B. CH₄

C. NH₃

D. NF₃

Q. 66 Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?

A. N₃

B. NO₃⁻

C. NO₂⁻

D. CO₂

Q. 67 Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increase in the order

A. H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te

B. H₂Se < H₂S > H₂Te

C. H₂Te < H₂S < H₂Se

D. H₂Se < H₂Te < H₂S

Q. 68 (a) H₂O₂ + O3 → H₂O + 2O₂

(b) H₂O₂ + Ag₂O → 2Ag + H₂O + O₂

Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:

A. Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)

B. Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)

C. Reducing in (a) and (b)

D. Oxidizing in (a) and (b)

Q. 69 Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold conditions only is :

A. Saccharine

B. Sucralose

C. Aspartame

D. Alitame

Q. 70 In acidic medium, H₂O₂ changes Cr₂O₇⁻² to CrO₅ which has two (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ is :

A. +5

B. +3

C. +6

D. -10

Q. 71 The reaction of aqueous KMnO₄ with H₂O₂ in acidic conditions gives :

A. Mn⁴⁺ and O₂

B. Mn²⁺ and O₂

C. Mn²⁺ and O₃

D. Mn⁴⁺ and MnO₂

Q. 72 Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is :

A. [Mn(H₂O)₆]³⁺

B. [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺

C. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Q. 73 Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?

(At.nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

A. Ti³⁺

B. Ni²⁺

C. Cr³⁺

D. Mn²⁺

Q. 74 Which of the following complexes is used to be as anticancer agent ?

A. mer — [Co(NH₃)₃Cl]

B. cis — [PtCl₂(NH₃)₂]

C. cis — K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]

D. Na₂COCl₄

Q. 75 Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is :

A. Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals

B. Increasing Nuclear charge

C. Decreasing nuclear charge

D. Decreasing screening effect

Q. 76 In the following reaction, the product (A)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 77 Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN₂⁺X⁻ ?

A. CH₃N₂⁺X⁻

B. C₆H₅N₂⁺X⁻

C. CH₃CH₂N₂⁺X⁻

D. C₆H₅CH₂N₂⁺X⁻

Q. 78 D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 79 Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings ?

A. Thyroxine

B. Insulin

C. Adrenaline

D. Estradiol

Q. 80 Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?

A. Propylene and para HO — (C₆H₄) — OH

B. Benzoic acid and ethanol

C. Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

D. Benzoic acid and para HO —(C₆H₄) — OH

Q. 82 Which one of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog ?

A. Ozone

B. Acrolein

C. Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D. Chlorofluorocarbons

Q. 83 In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H₂SO₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :

A. 37.33

B. 45.33

C. 35.33

D. 43.33

Q. 84 What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br in the presence of FeBr₃ ?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 85 Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iv)

C. (iii) and (iv)

D. (i) and (iv)

Q. 86 Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?

A. CH₃CHO;RMgX

B. C₆H₅OH;NaOH;CH₃I

C. C₆H₅OH;neutral FeCl₃

D. C₆H₅ — CH₃;CH₃COCl;AlCl₃

Q. 87 Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?

A. 2,4,6 — trinitrophenol

B. Benzoic acid

C. o — Nitrophenol

D. Benzenesulfonic acid

Q. 88 Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 89 Identity Z in the sequence of reactions :

CH₃CH₂CH = CH₂ _______ Hbr/H₂O₂ → Y → C₃H₅ONaZ

A. CH₃ — (CH₂)₃ — O — CH₂CH₃

B. (CH₃)2CH₂ — O — CH₂CH₃

C. CH₃(CH₂)₄ — O — CH₃

D. CH₃CH₂ — CH (CH₃) — O — CH₂CH₃

Q. 90 Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product — (CO₂)?

A. Ethane

B. Ethyne

C. Ethene

D. Ethanol

Q. 91 Which one of the following shows isogamy with non — flagellated garnets ?

A. Sargassum

B. Ectocarpus

C. Ulothrix

D. Spirogyra

Q. 92 Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :

A. Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus

B. Mode of reproduction

C. Mode of nutrition

D. Complexity of body organization

Q. 93 Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?

A. Morchella esculenta

B. Amanita muscaria

C. Neurospora sp.

D. Ustilago sp.

Q. 94 Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :

A. Cell membrane structure

B. Mode of nutrition

C. Cell shape

D. Mode of reproduction

Q. 95 Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?

A. Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium

B. Globule and nucule present on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium

D. Globule is male reproductive structure

Q. 96 Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

A. Marchantia

B. Riccia

C. Funaria

D. Sphagnum

Q. 97 Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:

A. Apple

B. Banana

C. Tomato

D. Potato

Q. 98 When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as :

A. Vexillary

B. Imbricate

C. Twisted

D. Valvate

Q. 99 You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

A. Secondary xylem

B. Secondary phloem

C. Protoxylem

D. Cortical cells

Q. 100 Which one of the following statement is correct ?

A. The seed in grasses is not endospermic

B. Mango is parthenocarpic fruit

C. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

D. A sterile pistil is called a stainamode

Q. 101 Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :

A. Having casparian strips

B. Being imperforate

C. Lacking nucleus

D. Being lignified

Q. 102 An example of edible underground stem is :

A. Carrot

B. Groundnut

C. Sweet potato

D. Potato

Q. 103 Which structure performs the function of mitochondria in bacteria?

A. Nucleoid

B. Ribosomes

C. Cell wall

D. Mesosomes

Q. 104 The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as :

A. Microtubules

B. Microfilaments

C. Intermediate filaments

D. Lamins

Q. 105 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:

A. Mitochondria

B. Vacuoles

C. Plastics

D. Ribosomes

Q. 106 During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

A. G₀ and G₁

B. G₁ and S

C. Only G₂

D. G₂ and M

Q. 107 Match the following and select the correct answer :

(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria

(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids

(d) Ribozymes (iv) basal body cilia or flagella

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 108 Dr. F went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut-coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ?

A. It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin

B. It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth — promoting substances

C. It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin

D. It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

Q. 109 Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in :

A. Senescent leaves

B. Young leaves

C. Roots

D. Buds

Q. 110 In which one of the following processes CO₂ is not released ?

A. Aerobic respiration in plants

B. Aerobic respiration in animals

C. Alcoholic fermentation

D. Lactate fermentation

Q. 111 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristics of :

A. Rhodospirillum

B. Spirogyra

C. Chlamydomonas

D. Ulva

Q. 112 A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while — colored like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?

A. Mutated

B. Embolized

C. Etiolated

D. Defoliated

Q. 113 Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘ stress hormone’?

A. Abscisic acid

B. Ethylene

C. GA₃

D. Indole acetic acid

Q. 114 Geitonogamy involves

A. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant

B. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower

C. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population

D. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

Q. 115 Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:

A. Pteris

B. Funaria

C. Lilium

D. Pinus

Q. 116 An aggregate fruit is one which develops from:

A. Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium

B. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

C. Complete inflorescence

D. Multicarpellary superior ovary

Q. 117 Pollen tablets are available in the market for:

A. In vitro fertilization

B. Breeding programs

C. Supplementing food

D. Ex situ conservation

Q. 118 Function of filiform apparatus is to

A. Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma

B. Stimulate division of generative cell

C. Produce nectar

D. Guide the entry of pollen tube

Q. 119 Non — albuminous seed is produced in :

A. Maize

B. Castor

C. Wheat

D. Pea

Q. 120 Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?

A. Poliovirus

B. Tobacco mosaic virus

C. Measles virus

D. Retrovirus

Q. 121 Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?

A. Transcription — Writing information From DNA to t — RNA

B. Translation — Using information in m — RNA to make protein

C. Repressor protein — Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

D. Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter

Q. 122 Transformation was discovered by :

A. Meselson and stahl

B. Hershey and chase

C. Griffith

D. Watson and Crick

Q. 123 Fruit color in squash is an example of:

A. Recessive epistasis

B. Dominant epistasis

C. Complementary genes

D. Inhibitory genes

Q. 124 Viruses here :

A. DNA enclosed in a protein coat

B. Prokaryotic nucleus

C. Single chromosome

D. Both DNA and RNA

Q. 125 The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is :

A. Insulin

B. Estrogen

C. Thyroxine

D. Progesterone

Q. 126 An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use:

A. Electrophoresis

B. Blotting

C. Autoradiography

D. PCR

Q. 127 In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by :

A. PCR and RAPD

B. Northern blotting

C. Electrophoresis and HPLC

D. Microscopy

Q. 128 An alga which can be employed as food for human being is :

A. Ulothrix

B. Chlorella

C. Spirogyra

D. Polysiphonia

Q. 129 Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ?

A. Bacterial artificial chromosome

B. Yeast artificial chromosome

C. Plasmid

D. Cosmid

Q. 130 An example of ex situ conservation is :

A. National park

B. Seed Bank

C. Wildlife Sanctuary

D. Sacred Grove

Q. 131 A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the

A. Trees are very healthy

B. Trees are heavily infested

C. Location is highly polluted

D. Location is not polluted

Q. 132 Match the following and select the correct option :

(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species

(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore

(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality

(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination

A. (1) 

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 133 A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called:

A. Vulnerable

B. Endemic

C. Critically Endangered

D. Extinct

Q. 134 The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called :

A. Ionosphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Troposphere

Q. 135 The organization which publishes the Red list of species is :

A. ICFRE

B. IUCN

C. UNEP

D. WWF

Q. 136 Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and freshwater species :

A. Echinoderms

B. Ctenophora

C. Cephalochordata

D. Cnidaria

Q. 137 Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ?

A. Cyanobacteria

B. Sea — Fan (Gorgonia)

C. Saccharomyces

D. Blue — Green algae

Q. 138 Planaria possess high capacity of:

A. Metamorphosis

B. Regeneration

C. Alternation of generation

D. Bioluminescence

Q. 139 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is :

A. Pristis

B. Trygon

C. Trygon

D. Scoliodon

Q. 140 Choose the correctly matched pair :

A. Tendon – Specialized connective tissue

B. Adipose tissue — Dense connective tissue

C. Areolar tissue — Loose connective tissue

D. Cartilage — Loose connective tissue

Q. 141 Choose the correctly matched pair :

A. Inner lining of salivary ducts — Ciliated epithelium

B. Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium

C. Tubular parts of nephrons — Cuboidal epithelium

D. Inner surface of bronchioles — squamous epithelium

Q. 142 In ’s’ phase of the cell cycle

A. Amount of DNA doubles in each cell

B. Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.

C. Chromosome number is increased

D. Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell

Q. 143 The motile bacteria are able to move by :

A. Fimbriae

B. Flagella

C. Cilia

D. Pili

Q. 144 Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :

A. Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site

B. Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate

C. A non — competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate

D. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

Q. 145 Which one of the following is a non — reducing carbohydrate?

A. Maltose

B. Sucrose

C. Lactose

D. Ribose 5 — phosphate

Q. 146 The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis :

A. Pachytene

B. Zygotene

C. Diplotene

D. Diakinesis

Q. 147 The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ?

A. Lipase

B. Trypsin

C. Rennin

D. Pepsin

Q. 148 Fructose is absorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called :

A. Active transport

B. Facilitated transport

C. Simple diffusion

D. Co-transport mechanism

Q. 149 Approximately seventy percent of carbon — dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs :

A. As bicarbonate ions

B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules

C. By binding to R.B.C

D. As carbamino — hemoglobin

Q. 150 Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :

A. Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

B. Both A and B antibodies in the plasma

C. No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma

D. Both A and antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

Q. 151 How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?

A. Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

B. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.

C. Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

D. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

Q. 152 Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?

A. Increase in aldosterone levels

B. Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels

C. Decrease in aldosterone levels

D. Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

Q. 153 Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 154 Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at :

A. The neuromuscular junction

B. The transverse tubules

C. The myofibril

D. The sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q. 155 Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:

A. Short — term memory

B. Co-ordination during locomotion

C. Executive function, such as decision making

D. Regulation of body temperature

Q. 156 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

A. Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments

B. In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments

C. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.

D. Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

Q. 157 Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :

A. Oxytocin — posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands

B. Melatonin — pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.

C. Progesterone — corpus — luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs

D. Atrial natriuretic factor — ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

Q. 158 Fight — or — flight reactions cause activation of:

A. The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.

B. The kidney, leading to suppression of renin angiotensin — aldosterone pathway

C. The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

D. The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

Q. 159 The shared terminal duct of the productive and urinary system in the human ale is :

A. Urethra

B. Ureter

C. Vas deferens

D. Vasa efferentia

Q. 160 The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :

A. Estrogen only

B. Progesterone

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

D. Relaxin only

Q. 161 Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :

A. High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium

B. High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo

C. High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

D. High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

Q. 162 Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :

A. Small party of fallopian tube is removed or tied up

B. Ovaries are removed surgically

C. Small party of vas deferens is removed or tied up.

D. Uterus is removed surgically

Q. 163 Which of the following is a hormone releasing intraUterine Device (IUD)

A. Multiload 375

B. LNG — 20

C. Cervical cap

D. Vault

Q. 164 Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :

A. Ovum into fallopian tube

B. Zygote into the fallopian tube

C. Zygote into the uterus

D. Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

Q. 165 A man whose father was color blind marries a woman who had a color blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be color blind ?

A. 25%

B. 0%

C. 50%

D. 75%

Q. 166 In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is :

A. 0.4

B. 0.5

C. 0.6

D. 0.7

Q. 167 A human female with Turner’s syndrome :

A. Has 45 chromosomes with XO

B. Has one additional X chromosome

C. Exhibits male characters

D. Is able to produce children with normal husband

Q. 168 Select the correct option :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 169 Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :

A. T — DNA

B. BAC and YAC

C. Expression Vectors

D. T/A Cloning Vectors

Q. 170 Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:

A. Analogous organs

B. Adaptive radiation

C. Homologous organs

D. Convergent evolution

Q. 171 Which one of the following are analogous structures ?

A. Wings of Bat and wings of Pigeon

B. Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man

C. Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita

D. Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse

Q. 172 Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?

A. Hallucinogen

B. Depressant

C. Stimulant

D. Pain — killer

Q. 173 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?

A. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

B. When the infected retro virus enters host cells

C. When HIV damages large number of helper T—Lymphocytes

D. When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

Q. 174 To obtain virus—free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

A. Apical meristem only

B. Palisade parenchyma

C. Both apical and axillary meristem

D. Epidermis only

Q. 175 What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?

A. Methane and CO₂ only

B. Methane, Hydrogen, sulphide and CO₂

C. Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O₂

D. Hydrogen sulphide and CO₂

Q. 176 Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to :

A. Western Ghat

B. Meghalaya

C. Corbett National Park

D. Keoladeo National Park

Q. 177 Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 178 Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 179 A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:

A. Gases like sulphur dioxide

B. Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above

C. Gases like ozone and methane

D. Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less

Q. 180 If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?

Plant → mice → snake → peacock

A. 0.02 J

B. 0.002 J

C. 0.2 J

D. 0.0002 J

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	D	C	C	A	B	C	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	B	C	D	A	C	D	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	C	B	D	B	B	C	C	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	B	B	D	C	D	B	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	A	D	C	D	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	D	B	D	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	C	B	C	B	A	C	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	B	B	A	D	B	D	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	C	D	A	C	A	B	D	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	B	A	C	D	C	B	C	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	C	A	A	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	A	A	C	B	C	D	D	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	C	B	D	A	D	D	B	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	D	C	C	B	D	B	B	B	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	B	B	B	A	C	B	A	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	D	A	D	C	B	C	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	A	B	B	C	C	A	A	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	D	C	D	D	A