FM Nirmala Sitharaman to chair 46th GST Council meeting today
Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will chair the 46th meeting of the GST Council in New Delhi on December 31, 2021. The meeting is important as it comes ahead of Union Budget, which will be presented on February 1, 2022. Union Ministers of State in Finance Ministry Pankaj Chaudhary and Dr. Bhagwat Kishanrao Karad will also attend the meeting.
Covaxin safe, immunogenic in 2-18 age group: Bharat Biotech
Bharat Biotech said on December 30, 2021, that its COVID-19 vaccine, Covaxin was found to be “safe, well-tolerated, and immunogenic” in the age group of 2-18 years in phase II/III study. Bharat Biotech had conducted phase II/III clinical trials to evaluate the safety, reactogenicity, and immunogenicity of COVAXIN in healthy children and adolescents. This comes as the vaccine has been approved for 15–18-year-olds.
SBI authorized to issue electoral bonds
The State Bank of India (SBI) has been authorized to issue Electoral Bonds through its select 29 branches during January 1-10, 2022. This was informed by the Finance Ministry on December 30, 2021. The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for 15 days from the date of issuance and no payment shall be made to any payee Political Party if the Electoral Bond is deposited after expiry of the validity period. The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Post-COVID-19 infection immunity persists for 9 months: ICMR DG Dr. Balram Bhargava
The immunity after COVID-19 infection persists for at least 9 months, as per evidence-based studies from different countries informed Dr. Balram Bhargava, Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) on December 30, 2021. He stated that if you get the infection then for 9 months you are generally protected.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
South Africa’s Quinton de Kock announces sudden retirement from Tests
Former South Afican captain and wicketkeeper Quinton de Kock announced sudden retirement from Test cricket with immediate effect on December 30, 2021. The announcement comes one day after the first test between India and South Africa in Centurion, where India won by 113 runs. Quinton de Kock said that he wanted to spend more time with his family.
Biden-Putin phone call
US President Joe Biden in a phone call with Russian President Vladimir Putin urged Russia to de escalate the tensions with Ukraine. The US President in a 50-minute phone with Putin made clear that the US, its allies, and partners will respond decisively if Russia further invades Ukraine. During a phone call, President Biden also expressed his support for the diplomacy, starting from 2022 with the bilateral strategic stability dialogue, at NATO through the NATO-Russia Council, and the Organisation for Security and Cooperation in Europe. This is the second call in a month between the two leaders amid the escalating tension in Ukraine as the United States continues to pressure Russia to draw down its military presence near Ukraine’s borders.
South Korea to develop technology for artificial sun
South Korean Government has been planning to develop a technology for the country’s first artificial sun ‘KSTAR’. The technology will maintain 100 million degrees for 300 seconds by 2026. The 300 seconds is the minimum time which is required for the commercialization of nuclear fusion technology. Nuclear fusion is the basic principle that the artificial sun generates heat and light. In 2018, the Korean Research team had first successfully maintained KSTAR at 100 million degrees for 1.5 seconds. The team was also successful in maintaining 100 million degrees for 20 seconds in 2020 and 30 seconds in 2021. Following last year, South Korea has set the longest record of maintaining 100 million degrees in the world in 2021.
GATE 2019 Computer Science and Information Technology Previous Year Paper
General Aptitude
Section -A
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The expenditure on the project _____ as follows: equipment Rs.20 lakhs, salaries Rs.12
lakhs, and contingency Rs.3 lakhs.
(A) break down
(B) break
(C) breaks down
(D) breaks
Q.2 The search engine’s business model ___________ around the fulcrum of trust.
(A) revolves
(B) plays
(C) sinks
(D) bursts
Q.3 Two cars start at the same time from the same location and go in the same direction. The speed of the first car is 50 km/h and the speed of the second car is 60 km/h. The number of hours it takes for the distance between the two cars to be 20 km is ___.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Q.4 Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided not to contribute, each of the other friends had to pay Rs 150 more. The cost of the gift was Rs. ____.
(A) 666
(B) 3000
(C) 6000
(D) 12000
Q.5 A court is to a judge as _____________ is to a teacher.
(A) a student
(B) a punishment
(C) a syllabus
(D) a school
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 The police arrested four criminals – P, Q, R and S. The criminals knew each other. They
made the following statements: P says “Q committed the crime.” Q says “S committed the crime.” R says “I did not do it.” S says “What Q said about me is false.” Assume only one of the arrested four committed the crime and only one of the statements made above is true. Who committed the crime?
(A) P
(B) R
(C) S
(D) Q
GA 1/3
Q.7 In the given diagram, teachers are represented in the triangle, researchers in the circle and administrators in the rectangle. Out of the total number of the people, the percentage of administrators shall be in the range of ___________.
(A) 0 to 15
(B) 16 to 30
(C) 31 to 45
(D) 46 to 60
Q.8 “A recent High Court judgement has sought to dispel the idea of begging as a disease — which leads to its stigmatization and criminalization — and to regard it as a symptom. The underlying disease is the failure of the state to protect citizens who fall through the social security net.”
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Beggars are lazy people who beg because they are unwilling to work
(B) Beggars are created because of the lack of social welfare schemes
(C) Begging is an offence that has to be dealt with firmly
(D) Begging has to be banned because it adversely affects the welfare of the state
Q.9 In a college, there are three student clubs. Sixty students are only in the Drama club, 80 students are only in the Dance club, 30 students are only in the Maths club, 40 students are in both Drama and Dance clubs, 12 students are in both Dance and Maths clubs, 7 students are in both Drama and Maths clubs, and 2 students are in all the clubs. If 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs, then the total number of students in the college is _____.
(A) 1000
(B) 975
(C) 900
(D) 225
GA 2/3
Q.10 Three of the five students allocated to a hostel put in special requests to the warden. Given the floor plan of the vacant rooms, select the allocation plan that will accommodate all their requests.
Request by X: Due to pollen allergy, I want to avoid a wing next to the garden.
Request by Y: I want to live as far from the washrooms as possible, since I am very sensitive to smell.
Request by Z: I believe in Vaastu and so want to stay in the South-west wing. The shaded rooms are already occupied. WR is washroom.
Section – B
Q.1 A certain processor uses a fully associative cache of size 16 kB. The cache block size is 16 bytes. Assume that the main memory is byte addressable and uses a 32-bit address. How many bits are required for the Tag and the Index fields respectively in the addresses generated by the processor?
(A) 24 bits and 0 bits
(B) 28 bits and 4 bits
(C) 24 bits and 4 bits
(D) 28 bits and 0 bits
Q.2 The chip select logic for a certain DRAM chip in a memory system design is shown below. Assume that the memory system has 16 address lines denoted by A15 to A0. What is the range of addresses (in hexadecimal) of the memory system that can get enabled by the chip select (CS) signal?
(A) C800 to CFFF
(B) CA00 to CAFF
(C) C800 to C8FF
(D) DA00 to DFFF
Q.3 Which one of the following kinds of derivation is used by LR parsers?
(A) Leftmost
(B) Leftmost in reverse
(C) Rightmost
(D) Rightmost in reverse
Q.4 In 16-bit 2’s complement representation, the decimal number −28 is:
(A) 1111 1111 0001 1100
(B) 0000 0000 1110 0100
(C) 1111 1111 1110 0100
(D) 1000 0000 1110 0100
Q.5 Let U = {1,2,…,n}. Let A = {(x,X)|x ∈ X,X ⊆ U}. Consider the following two statements
on |A|.
I. |A| = n2n−1
II. Which of the |A| above =k=1nk(nk)
statements k(nk) is/are TRUE?
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Q.6 Which one of the following is NOT a valid identity?
(A) (x ⊕ y) ⊕ z = x ⊕ (y ⊕ z)
(B) (x + y) ⊕ z = x ⊕ (y + z)
(C) x ⊕ y = x + y, if xy = 0
(D) x ⊕ y = (xy + x′y′)′
Q.7 If L is a regular language over Σ = {a,b}, which one of the following languages is NOT
regular ?
(A) L ⋅ LR = {xy | x ∈ L,yR ∈ L}
(B) {wwR | w ∈ L}
(C) Prefix (L) = {x ∈ Σ∗|∃y ∈ Σ∗ such that xy ∈ L}
(D) Suffix (L) = {y ∈ Σ∗|∃x ∈ Σ∗ such that xy ∈ L}
Q.8 Consider Z = X – Y, where X, Y and Z are all in sign-magnitude form. X and Y are each represented in n bits. To avoid overflow, the representation of Z would require a minimum of:
(A) n bits
(B) n − 1 bits
(C) n + 1 bits
(D) n + 2 bits
Q.9 Let X be a square matrix. Consider the following two statements on X.
I. X is invertible. II. Determinant of X is non-zero.
Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) I implies II; II does not imply I.
(B) II implies I; I does not imply II.
(C) I does not imply II; II does not imply I.
(D) I and II are equivalent statements.
Q.10 Let G be an arbitrary group. Consider the following relations on G:
𝑅1: ∀𝑎,𝑏∈𝐺,𝑎 𝑅1𝑏 if and only if ∃𝑔∈𝐺 such that 𝑎=𝑔−1𝑏𝑔
𝑅2:∀𝑎,𝑏∈𝐺,𝑎 𝑅2𝑏 if and only if 𝑎=𝑏−1
Which of the above is/are equivalence relation/relations?
(A) R1 and R2
(B) R1 only
(C) R2 only
(D) Neither R1 nor R2
Q.11 Consider the following two statements about database transaction schedules:
I. Strict two-phase locking protocol generates conflict serializable schedules that
are also recoverable.
II. Timestamp-ordering concurrency control protocol with Thomas’ Write Rule can generate view serializable schedules that are not conflict serializable.
Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Q.12 Let G be an undirected complete graph on n vertices, where n > 2. Then, the number of
different Hamiltonian cycles in G is equal to
(A) n!
(B) (n − 1)!
(C) 1
(D) (n−1)!
Q.13 Compute x3x4-812×2-5x-3
(A) 1
(B) 53/12
(C) 108/7
(D) Limit does not exist
Q.14 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the B+ tree data structure used
for creating an index of a relational database table?
(A) B+ Tree is a height-balanced tree
(B) Non-leaf nodes have pointers to data records
(C) Key values in each node are kept in sorted order
(D) Each leaf node has a pointer to the next leaf node
Q.15 For Σ = {a,b}, let us consider the regular language L = { x |x = a2+3k or x = b10+12k, k ≥ 0}. Which one of the following can be a pumping length (the constant guaranteed by the pumping lemma) for L ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) 24
Q.16 Which of the following protocol pairs can be used to send and retrieve e-mails (in that order)?
(A) IMAP, POP3 (B) SMTP, POP3
(C) SMTP, MIME
(D) IMAP, SMTP
Q.17 The following C program is executed on a Unix/Linux system:
#include <unistd.h>
int main()
{
int i;
for (i=0; i<10; i++)
if (i%2 == 0) fork();
return 0;
}
The total number of child processes created is ________.
Q.18 Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
int jumble(int x, int y){
x=2*x+y;
return x;
}
int main(){
int x=2, y=5;
y=jumble(y,x);
x=jumble(y,x);
printf(“%d \n”, x);
return 0;
}
The value printed by the program is ________.
Q.19 Consider the grammar given below:
S → Aa
A → BD
B → b | ε
D → d | ε
Let a, b, d, and $ be indexed as follows:
Compute the FOLLOW set of the non-terminal B and write the index values for the symbols in the FOLLOW set in the descending order. (For example, if the FOLLOW set is {a, b, d, $}, then the answer should be 3210)
Q.20 An array of 25 distinct elements is to be sorted using quicksort. Assume that the pivot element is chosen uniformly at random. The probability that the pivot element gets placed in the worst possible location in the first round of partitioning (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________.
Q.21 The value of 351 mod 5 is ________.
Q.22 Two numbers are chosen independently and uniformly at random from the set {1,2 ,…,13}. The probability (rounded off to 3 decimal places) that their 4-bit (unsigned) binary representations have the same most significant bit is ___________.
Q.23 Consider three concurrent processes P1, P2 and P3 as shown below, which access a shared variable D that has been initialized to 100.
The processes are executed on a uniprocessor system running a time-shared operating system. If the minimum and maximum possible values of D after the three processes have completed execution are X and Y respectively, then the value of Y – X is _____________.
Q.24 Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(){
int arr[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,0,1,2,5}, *ip=arr+4;
printf(“%d\n”, ip[1]);
return 0;
}
The number that will be displayed on execution of the program is ___________
Q.25 Consider a sequence of 14 elements: A = [−5, −10, 6, 3, −1, −2, 13, 4, −9, −1, 4, 12, −3, 0].
The subsequence where 0 ≤ i ≤ j < sum 14. S(i,j) (Divide = and ∑ conquer jk=i A[k] approach . Determine the maximum of may be used.)
S(i,j),
Q.26 Consider I the following C function.
void convert(int n){
if(n<0)
printf(“%d”,n);
else {
convert(n/2);
printf(“%d”,n%2);
}
}
Which one of the following will happen when the function convert is called with any positive integer n as argument?
(A) It will print the binary representation of n and terminate (B) It will print the binary representation of n in the reverse order and terminate (C) It will print the binary representation of n but will not terminate (D) It will not print anything and will not terminate
Q.27 Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
int r(){
static int num=7;
return num–;
}
int main(){
for (r();r();r())
printf(“%d”,r());
return 0;
}
Which one of the following values will be displayed on execution of the programs?
(A) 41
(B) 52
(C) 63
(D) 630
Q.28 Consider three machines M, N, and P with IP addresses 100.10.5.2, 100.10.5.5, and 100.10.5.6 respectively. The subnet mask is set to 255.255.255.252 for all the three machines. Which one of the following is true?
(A) M, N, and P all belong to the same subnet
(B) Only M and N belong to the same subnet
(C) Only N and P belong to the same subnet
(D) M, N, and P belong to three different subnets
Q.29 Suppose that in an IP-over-Ethernet network, a machine X wishes to find the MAC address of another machine Y in its subnet. Which one of the following techniques can be used for this?
(A) X sends an ARP request packet to the local gateway’s IP address which then finds the
MAC address of Y and sends to X
(B) X sends an ARP request packet to the local gateway’s MAC address which then finds
the MAC address of Y and sends to X
(C) X sends an ARP request packet with broadcast MAC address in its local subnet
(D) X sends an ARP request packet with broadcast IP address in its local subnet
Q.30 Consider three 4-variable functions f1, f2, and f3, which are expressed in sum-of-minterms as
For the following circuit with one AND gate and one XOR gate, the output function f can be expressed as:
(A) ∑ (7, 8, 11)
(B) ∑ (2, 7, 8, 11, 14)
(C) ∑ (2, 14)
(D) ∑ (0, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 14, 15)
Q.31 Which one of the following languages over Σ = {a,b} is NOT context-free?
(A) {wwR |w ∈ {a,b}∗}
(B) {wanbnwR |w ∈ {a,b}∗,n ≥ 0}
(C) {wanwRbn |w ∈ {a,b}∗,n ≥ 0}
(D) {anbi | i ∈ {n,3n,5n},n ≥ 0}
Q.32 Let the set of functional dependencies F = {QR → S, R → P, S → Q} hold on a relation schema X = (PQRS). X is not in BCNF. Suppose X is decomposed into two schemas Y and Z, where Y = (PR) and Z = (QRS).
Consider the two statements given below.
I. Both Y and Z are in BCNF
II. Decomposition of X into Y and Z is dependency preserving and lossless
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Both I and II
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) Neither I nor II
Q.33 Assume that in a certain computer, the virtual addresses are 64 bits long and the physical addresses are 48 bits long. The memory is word addressible. The page size is 8 kB and the word size is 4 bytes. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) in the address translation path has 128 valid entries. At most how many distinct virtual addresses can be translated without any TLB miss?
(A) 16×210
(B) 256×210
(C) 4×220
(D) 8×220
Q.34 Consider the following sets:
S1. Set of all recursively enumerable languages over the alphabet {0,1}
S2. Set of all syntactically valid C programs
S3. Set of all languages over the alphabet {0,1}
S4. Set of all non-regular languages over the alphabet {0,1}
Which of the above sets are uncountable?
(A) S1 and S2
(B) S3 and S4
(C) S2 and S3
(D) S1 and S4
Q.35 Consider the first order predicate formula φ:
∀x [(∀z z|x ⇒ ((z = x) ∨ (z = 1))) ⇒ ∃w (w > x) ∧ (∀z z|w ⇒ ((w = z) ∨ (z = 1)))]
Here ‘a|b’ denotes that ‘a divides b’, where a and b are integers. Consider the following sets:
S1. {1,2,3,…,100} S2. Set of all positive integers S3. Set of all integers
Which of the above sets satisfy φ?
(A) S1 and S2
(B) S1 and S3
(C) S2 and S3
(D) S1, S2 and S3
Q.36 Consider the following grammar and the semantic actions to support the inherited type declaration attributes. Let 𝑋1, 𝑋2, 𝑋3, 𝑋4, 𝑋5, and 𝑋6 be the placeholders for the non-terminals D, T, L or L1 in the following table:
Which one of the following are the appropriate choices for X1, X2, X3 and X4?
(A) 𝑋1=𝐿 , 𝑋2=𝑇, 𝑋3=𝐿1, 𝑋4=𝐿
(B) 𝑋1=𝑇 , 𝑋2=𝐿, 𝑋3=𝐿1, 𝑋4=𝑇
(C) 𝑋1=𝐿 , 𝑋2=𝐿, 𝑋3=𝐿1, 𝑋4=𝑇
(D) 𝑋1=𝑇 , 𝑋2=𝐿, 𝑋3=𝑇, 𝑋4=𝐿1
Q.37 There are n unsorted arrays: A1, A2, …, An. Assume that n is odd. Each of A1, A2, …, An contains n distinct elements. There are no common elements between any two arrays. The worst-case time complexity of computing the median of the medians of A1, A2, …, An is
(A) O(n)
(B) O(n log n)
(C) O(n2)
(D) Ω(n2 log n)
Q.38 Let G be any connected, weighted, undirected graph.
I. G has a unique minimum spanning tree, if no two edges of G have the same weight. II. G has a unique minimum spanning tree, if, for every cut of G, there is a unique
minimum-weight edge crossing the cut.
Which of the above two statements is/are TRUE?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Q.39 Consider the following snapshot of a system running n concurrent processes. Process i is holding currently Xin i instances of exactly two instances of a resource R, 1 ≤ i ≤ n. Assume that all instances of R are use. Further, for all i, process i can place R while holding processes p the and q Xsuch i instances that it already Yp = Yq a request for at most has. Of the n processes, Yi additional there are = 0. Which one of the following conditions guarantees that no other process apart from p and q can complete execution?
(A) Xp + Xq < Min {Yk | 1 ≤ k ≤ n ,k ≠ p,k ≠ q}
(B) Xp + Xq < Max {Yk | 1 ≤ k ≤ n ,k ≠ p,k ≠ q}
(C) Min (Xp ,Xq) ≥ Min {Yk | 1 ≤ k ≤ n ,k ≠ p,k ≠ q}
(D) Min (Xp,Xq) ≤ Max {Yk | 1 ≤ k ≤ n ,k ≠ p,k ≠ q}
Q.40 Consider the following statements:
I. The smallest element in a max-heap is always at a leaf node
II. The second largest element in a max-heap is always a child of the root node
III. A max-heap can be constructed from a binary search tree in Θ(n) time
IV. A binary search tree can be constructed from a max-heap in Θ(n) time
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV
Q.41 Consider the following four processes with arrival times (in milliseconds) and their length of CPU bursts (in milliseconds) as shown below:
These processes are run on a single processor using preemptive Shortest Remaining Time First scheduling algorithm. If the average waiting time of the processes is 1 millisecond, then the value of Z is________.
Q.42 The index node (inode) of a Unix-like file system has 12 direct, one single-indirect and one double-indirect pointers. The disk block size is 4 kB, and the disk block address is 32-bits long. The maximum possible file size is (rounded off to 1 decimal place) _________ GB.
Q.43 Consider the augmented grammar given below:
S’ → S
S → 〈L〉 | id
L → L,S | S
Let I0 = CLOSURE ({[S’ → •S]}). The number of items in the set GOTO (I0, 〈 ) is: ________.
Q.44 Consider the following matrix:
The absolute value of the product of Eigenvalues of R is .
Q.45 A certain processor deploys a single-level cache. The cache block size is 8 words and the word size is 4 bytes. The memory system uses a 60-MHz clock. To service a cache miss, the memory controller first takes 1 cycle to accept the starting address of the block, it then takes 3 cycles to fetch all the eight words of the block, and finally transmits the words of the requested block at the rate of 1 word per cycle. The maximum bandwidth for the memory system when the program running on the processor issues a series of read operations is __________× 106 bytes/sec.
Q.46 Let T be a full binary tree with 8 leaves. (A full binary tree has every level full.) Suppose two leaves a and b of T are chosen uniformly and independently at random. The expected value of the distance between a and b in T (i.e., the number of edges in the unique path between a and b) is (rounded off to 2 decimal places) .
Q.47 Suppose Y is distributed uniformly in the open interval (1,6). The probability that the polynomial 3x2 + 6xY + 3Y + 6 has only real roots is (rounded off to 1 decimal place) ________.
Q.48 Let Σ be the set of all bijections from {1,…,5} to {1,…,5}, where id denotes the identity function, i.e. id(j) = j,∀j. Let ∘ denote composition on functions. For a string x = xConsider 1 x2 ⋯xn the ∈ language Σn, n ≥ 0 , L let π(x) = = {x ∈ Σ∗| xπ(x) 1 ∘ x2 = ∘ id ⋯∘ }. xnThe . minimum number of states in any DFA accepting L is .
Q.49 Consider that 15 machines need to be connected in a LAN using 8-port Ethernet switches. Assume that these switches do not have any separate uplink ports. The minimum number of switches needed is__________.
Q.50 What is the minimum number of 2-input NOR gates required to implement a 4-variable function expressed in sum-of-minterms form as f = ∑ (0, 2, 5, 7, 8, 10, 13, 15)? Assume that all the inputs and their complements are available.
Q.51 A relational database contains two tables Student and Performance as shown below:
The primary key of the Student table is Roll_no. For the Performance table, the columns Roll_no. and Subject_code together form the primary key. Consider the SQL query given below:
SELECT S.Student_name, sum(P.Marks)
FROM Student S, Performance P
WHERE P.Marks > 84
GROUP BY S.Student_name;
The number of rows returned by the above SQL query is ________.
Q.52 Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(){
float sum = 0.0, j = 1.0, i = 2.0;
while (i/j > 0.0625){
j = j + j;
sum = sum + i/j;
printf(“%f\n”, sum);
}
return 0;
}
The number of times the variable sum will be printed, when the above program is executed, is _________________.
Q.53 Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a[] = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10};
int i, sum = 0, *b = a + 4;
for (i = 0; i < 5; i++)
sum = sum + (*b – i) – *(b – i);
printf (“%d\n”, sum);
return 0;
}
The output of the above C program is __________.
Q.54 In an RSA cryptosystem, the value of the public modulus parameter n is 3007. If it is also known that φ(n) = 2880, where φ() denotes Euler’s Totient Function, then the prime factor of n which is greater than 50 is ____________________.
Q.55 Consider the following relations P(X,Y,Z), Q(X,Y,T) and R(Y,V).
How many tuples will be returned by the following relational algebra query?
NDA/NA(I) Exam 2021 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
PART -A
Synonyms
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Q. 4.Under his leadership the company grew in an organic manner.
(a) natural
(b) speedy
(c) unusual
(d) disciplined
Q. 5.His charm lies in his oratory.
(a) deceit
(b) eloquence
(c) looks
(d) nobility
Q. 6.She is a patron of art and culture.
(a) entrepreneur
(b) admirer
(c) critique
(d) backer
Q. 7.Arrogance is a hallmark of his nature.
(a) concern
(b) unpretentiousness
(c) conceit
(d) simplicity
Q. 8.She undertook a reconnaissance of the entire issue.
(a) revaluation
(b) ratification
(c) investigation
(d) regularisation
Q. 9.My daughter is my replica.
(a) pride
(b) clone
(c) love
(d) original
Q. 10.The sardonic nature of her stories made her stand out among the contemporary writers.
(a) compassionate
(b) insightful
(c) mocking
(d) comic
Antonyms
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Q. 11. He found her extremely attractive and charming.
(a) unnatural
(b) modern
(c) repulsive
(d) disapproving
Q. 12. The sky is boundless.
(a) active
(b) productive
(c) lazy
(d) disloyal
Q. 13.The sky is clear today.
(a) bright
(b) opaque
(c) cloudless
(d) blue
Q. 14. I have a fascination for deep waters.
(a) dark
(b) light
(c) dangerous
(d) shallow
Q. 15. My boss has been too generous.
(a) stingy
(b) generous
(c) evil
(d) hostile
Q. 16. Spring is a time of plenty.
(a) ugliness
(b) scarcity
(c) roughness
(d) dryness
Q. 17. He is an industrious workman.
(a) high
(b) vast
(c) expansive
(d) finite
Q. 18.Plants grow in abundance here.
(a) shrivel
(b) stretch
(c ) spread
(d) enlarge
Q. 19.She rarely comes here.
(a) seldom
(b) never
(c) always
(d) frequently
Q. 20.She is a rather crooked woman.
(a) polite
(b) rough
(c) straightforward
(d) happy
Idioms and Phrases
Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), whichever is the most appropriate expression and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Q. 21. Overstep the mark
(a) To tell people how successful you are
(b) To step into someone else’s areas of expertise
(c) To upset someone by doing/saying more than you should
(d) To do something in an excited way
Q. 22. Palsy-walsy friends
(a) Good friends
(b) Friends who help each other in difficult situations
(c) Friends by choice, and not by chance
(d) Unfriendly
Q. 23. Open a Pandora’s box
(a) To do something that causes a lot of new problems that you did not expect
(b) To do something out of compulsion
(c) To do something beyond expectation
(d) To do something out of the box, that causes awards and ceremonies for you
Q. 24. Pull your socks up
(a) To get well-dressed for the occasion
(b) Improve your work or behaviour
(c) To speak in an honest way without hesitation
(d) To be in control of an organization, often secretly
Q. 25. To get under somebody’s skin
(a) To deceive someone
(b) To admire someone
(c) To annoy someone
(d) To support someone
Q. 26. Turn topsy-turvy
(a) To completely change something
(b) To completely evaluate something
(c) To enjoy yourself greatly
(d) To exhaust yourself completely
Q. 27. A clarion call
(a) A trumpet call
(b) An intimidating voice
(c) A strong request
(d) An urgent order
Q. 28. Fire in the belly
(a) Fear and hatred
(b) Powerful ambition
(c) Love and dedication
(d) Lethargy and indifference
Q. 29. A hunky-dory situation
(a) There are serious issues among people
(b) There are no problems and people are happy
(c) There is war and bloodshed all over
(d) There is no work, only enjoyment
Q. 30. Give somebody a leg up
(a) To pull someone down
(b) To deceive and betray someone
(c) To help someone for their livelihood
(d) To help someone to be successful
Spotting Errors
Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (6) and (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Q. 31.
(a) You don’t have
(b) a monopoly on suffering;
(c) other people don’t have problems too.
(d) No error
Q. 32.
(a) If you say that someone
(b) you admire has feet of clay,
(c) you mean that they have hidden faults.
(d) No error
Q. 33.
(a) He refused to change
(b) his decision;
(c) he refused it point out.
(d) No error
Q. 34.
(a) The importance of trade in Mughal times reinforced
(b) the cultural definition of wealth as something
(c) comprising of movable property.
(d) No error
Q. 35.
(a) In the nineteenth century,
(b) most traditional scholars
(c) tried to stay clear from the imperial Government.
(d) No error
Q. 36.
(a) He began his discussion by pointing over
(b) that men and women
(c) had different biological functions.
(d) No error
Q. 37.
(a) Though he is poor,
(b) but he is
(c) honest.
(d) No error
Q. 38.
(a) My mother
(b) has been doing
(c) everything for the family.
(d) No error
Q. 39.
(a) When learning to dive
(b) it is important
(c) to relax in between and take breaks.
(d) No error
Q. 40.
(a) I have the opportunity
(b) to study
(c) in America next year.
(d) No error
Fill in the blanks
Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
Q. 41. There was a time when West Germany was a distinct________.
Q. 42. I was_________ with the film; I had expected it to be better.
(a) disappointed
(b) disappointing
(c) annoying
(d) prejudiced
Q. 43. It was a ______experience. Everybody was shocked.
(a) terrified
(b) horrified
(c) terrifying
(d) denouncing
Q. 44. Elephants ____when they perceive danger.
(a) trumpet
(b) frolic
(c) whine
(d) sing
Q. 45. The first film on Tagore was such a success that now they are going to make a _________.
(a) serial
(b) sequence
(c) sequel
(d) sequential
Q. 46.The United Nations had _______ 2020 as the International Year of Plant Health.
(a) ruled
(b) ordered
(c) foretold
(d) declared
Q. 47. My brother is_________ punctual, but he is late today.
(a) normatively
(b) primarily
(c) normally
(d) basically
Q. 48. My son is very _____; he trusts everyone.
(a) fallible
(b) gullible
(c) sensible
(d) credible
Q. 49. Mahatma Gandhi was a lover of humanity and a ___believer in the goodness of human nature.
(a) staunch
(b) powerful
(c) cheerful
(d) hopeful
Q. 50. I wish I________her before we met.
(a) know
(b) have known
(c) knew
(d) known
PART-B
Q. 51. Consider the following statements about Light year :
1. Light year is a unit for measurement of very large distances.
2. Light year is a unit for measurement of very large time intervals.
3. Light year is a unit for measurement of intensity of light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
Q. 52. Which one of the following regarding density of water at atmospheric pressure is correct ?
(a) Density of water at 4°C is 1000 kg/m3.
(b) Density of water at 0°C is 1000 kg/m3.
(c) Density of water at 0°C is 100 kg/m3
(d) Density of water at 4°C is 10 kg/m3.
Q. 53.Which of the following pairs of physical phenomenon and the discoverer is/are correctly matched ?
1. James Chadwick : Photoelectric effect
2. Albert Einstein : Neutron
3. Marie Curie : Radium
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Q. 54. LED (a semi-conductor device) is an abbreviation that stands for
(a) Licence for Energy Detector.
(b) Light Energy Device.
(c) Light Emitting Diode.
(d) Lost Energy Detector.
Q. 55. The statement “friction force is a contact force while magnetic force is a non-contact force” is
(a) always true.
(b) true only at 0°C.
(c) a false statement.
(d) either true or false depending upon the temperature of the surroundings.
Q. 56. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Hypobromous acid ?
(a) HBrO4
(b) HOBr
(c) HBr
(d) HBrO3
Q. 57.The composition of gases in exosphere is
(a) Helium and Hydrogen.
(b) Neon and Oxygen.
(c) Neon and Hydrogen.
(d) Helium and Neon.
Q. 58. Which one of the following is not used as a raw material in the manufacture of glass?
(a) Soda
(b) Alumina
(c) Borax
(d) Gypsum
Q. 59. In electrolytic refining of copper, the electrolyte is a solution of
(a) acidified copper chloride.
(b) acidified copper sulphate.
(c) potassium chloride
(d) sodium sulphate.
Q. 60. Solder is an alloy of
(a) Cu and Sn.
(b) Fe and Zn.
(c) Pb and Sn.
(d) Ag and Zn.
Q. 61. Which one of the following statements about dihydrogen (H2) is not correct ?
(a) H2, is lighter than air and insoluble in water.
(b) H2, is inert at room temperature due to high H -H bond dissociation enthalpy.
(c) H2, reacts with alkali metals at high temperature to yield metal hydrides.
(d) A mixture of NO, and H, is known as Syngas.
Q. 62. Which of the following sets of elements has the same valency?
(a) Na, Mg, Ca
(b) Na, Mg, A1
(c) Mg, Ca, K
(d) Mg, Ca, Ba
Q. 63. Which one of the following is the lowest possible temperature ?
(a) 0° Celsius
(b) – 073° Celsius
(c)- 173° Celsius
(d) – 273° Celsius
Q. 64 Numerically two thermometers, one in Fahrenheit scale and another in Celsius scale shall read same at
(a) – 40°
(b) 0°
(c) -2730
(d) 100°
Q. 65.The image we see in plane mirror is
(a) real and thus can be photographed.
(b) virtual and is laterally inverted.
(c) virtual and nearer than the object.
(d) real but cannot be photographed.
Q. 66. Which one of the following colours may be obtained by combining green and red colours ?
(a) Blue
(b) Magenta
(c) Pink
(d) Yellow
Q. 67. Which of the following are the primary colours of light ?
(a)Yellow, Red and Green
(b) Blue, Red and Green
(c)Violet, Red and Yellow
(d) Indigo, Violet and Green
Q. 68. According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, which one of the following is correct in respect of the formula
where symbols have their usual meanings ?
(a) It applies only to spherical mirrors.
(b) It applies only to spherical lenses.
(c) It applies to spherical mirrors as well as spherical lenses.
(d) It is an invalid formula.
Q. 69. Movement of materials to different parts of cytoplasm and nucleus is generally carried out by
(a) Ribosomes.
(b) Mitochondria.
(c) Lysosomes.
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum.
Q. 70.In mitochondria, ATP synthesizing chemical reactions take place in the
(a) Outer membrane.
(b) Matrix
(c) Inner membrane.
(d) DNA of mitochondria.
Q. 71.Squamous epithelial cells are found in the inner lining of
(a) Oesophagus.
(b) Small intestine.
(c) Ducts of salivary gland.
(d) Kidney.
Q. 72.Transformation of meristematic cells into specific permanent tissues occurs by the process of
(a) Cell differentiation.
(b) Cell division.
(c) Cell multiplication.
(d) Cell regeneration.
Q. 73.The gaseous product of a process in plants is a requirement for another vital process that releases energy. Given below are four combinations of the process and product. Identify the correct answer.
(a) Respiration and Nitric oxide
(b) Transpiration and Water vapour
(c) Photosynthesis and Oxygen
(d) Germination and Carbon dioxide
Q. 74. In a dicot pot herb, vaseline/vegetable oil was applied on the upper surface of one leaf (Experimental leaf 1) and on the lower surface of another leaf (Experimental leaf 2).Vaseline/Vegetable oil was not applied on the control leaf. The plant was deliberately not watered for several days. Which leaf will dry
(a) Experimental leaf 1
(b) Experimental leaf 2
(c) Control leaf
(d) All the leaves will dry up simultaneously
Q. 75. Which one of the following statements is not correct for light rays ?
(a) Light travels at different speeds in different media.
(b) Light travels at almost 300 million metres per second in air.
(c) Light speeds down as it leaves a water surface and enters the air.
(d) Light speeds up as it leaves a glass surface and enters the air.
Q. 76. A glass prism splits white light into different colours. This phenomenon is called dispersion of light by prism. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the reflection of light.
(b) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of the refraction of light.
(c) Red light will deviate the most and it is because of the refraction of light.
(d) Violet light will deviate the most and it is because of the reflection of light.
Q. 77. A current of 1.0 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is
(a) 0.1C
(b) 10 C
(c) 600 C up last?
(d) 800 C
Q. 78. Which one of the following formulas does not represent electrical power ?
(a) I2R
(b) IR2 3
(c) VI
(d) v2/R
Q. 79.The sound created in a big hall persists because of the repeated reflections. The phenomenon is called
(a) Reverberation.
(b) Dispersion.
(c) Refraction.
(d) Diffraction,
Q. 80.When light is scattered by a molecule and the frequency of the scattered light is changed, this phenomenon is called
(a) Rayleigh scattering,
(b) Raman effect.
(c) Photoelectric effect.
(d) Rutherford scattering.
Q. 81. Which one of the following statements about the cleansing action of soap is not true ?
(a) The oil and dirt gets collected in the centre of the micelle.
(b) Soap micelles scatter light.
(c)Soaps are ammonium salts of long chain
(d)Soap forms insoluble precipitates with the calcium and magnesium ions in hard water.
Q. 82. Hydrogenation of vegetable oils using nickel catalyst is an example of
(a) Substitution reaction.
(b) Elimination reaction.
(c) Addition reaction.
(d) Free-radical polymerization.
Q. 83. Which one of the following materials is not an allotrope of carbon ?
(a) Diamond
(b) Graphene
(c) Fly ash
(d) Fullerene
Q. 84.Which one of the following reactions does not result in the evolution of hydrogen gas?
(a) Reaction of zinc metal with dilute sulphuric acid solution
(b) Mixing water to Plaster of Paris
(c) Heating zinc metal with sodium hydroxide solution
(d) Reaction of potassium metal with water
Q. 85. Which one of the following acids is predominantly found in tomatoes?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Tartaric acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Lactic acid carboxylic acids.
Q. 86. Which one of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment ?
(a) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(b) The radius of the atom is about 105 times the radius of the nucleus.
(c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
(d) Nearly all the mass of the atom resides in the nucleus.
Q. 87. Reaction of quick lime (CaO) with water to produce slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) is an example
(a) Displacement reaction.
(b) Endothermic reaction.
(c) Decomposition reaction.
(d) Exothermic reaction.
Q. 88. Which one of the following is not a bio-mass energy source ?
(a) Wood
(b) Nuclear reactor
(c) Gobar gas
(d) Coal
Q. 89.Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) particular frequencies of the starlight.
(b) reflection of starlight from the oceanic surface.
(c) atmospheric refraction of starlight.
(d) magnetic field of Earth.
Q. 90. Which one of the following cannot be the unit of frequency of a sound wave ?
(a) dB
(b) 5-1
(c) Hz
(d) min-1
Q. 91. ‘Beats’ is a phenomenon that occurs when frequencies of two harmonic waves are
(a) equal.
(b) far apart.
(c) multiples of each other.
(d) nearly same.
Q. 92. Light waves are incident on an air-glass boundary. Some of the light waves are reflected and some are refracted in the glass. Which one of the following properties is the same for the incident wave and the refracted wave?
(a) Speed
(b) Direction
(c)Brightness
(d) Frequency
Q. 93.Which one of the following statements is true for a simple harmonic oscillator ?
(a) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and is in same direction.
(b) Force acting is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and is in opposite direction.
(c) Acceleration of the oscillator is constant.
(d) The velocity of the oscillator is not periodic.
Q. 94. During seed germination, the part of the embryo which grows into root is
(a) Radicle.
(b) Plumule.
(c)Cotyledon
(d)Epicotyl.
Q. 95.In a typical flower, germinating pollen grains pass through several parts of the gynoecium before they reach the ovule. A list of the parts of gynoecium is given below in different combinations. Choose the combination that represents the correct sequence of pollen tube pathway/journey :
(a) Style, Stigma, Ovary
(b) Stigma, Style, Ovary
(c) Pistil, Stigma, Ovary
(d) Ovary, Pistil, Style
Q. 96. If human blood is placed in a 2% detergent solution, what will happen to the RBC ?
(a) The RBC will shrink.
(b) The RBC will swell and become turgid.
(c) The RBC will swell and burst.
(d) The RBC will lyse.
Q. 97. The major source of vitamins and minerals for vegetarians is
(a) black gram and wheat.
(b) rice and mustard.
(c) vegetables and fruits.
(d) soya bean and milk.
Q. 98.If a ray of light enters from a rarer medium to a denser medium at zero angle of incidence, it would
(a) reflect back.
(b) go straight.
(c) turn towards right.
(d) bend at 45°.
Q. 99. Mirage is an illustration of
(a) only dispersion of light.
(b) only reflection of light.
(c) only total internal reflection of light.
(d) both refraction and total internal reflection of light.
Q. 100. Common salt (NaCl) is not used as a raw material for preparation of which one of the following compounds ?
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Baking soda
(c) Plaster of Paris
(d) Washing soda
Q. 101. Which one of the following Harappan sites was a specialised centre for making shell objects ?
(a) Lothal
(b) Balakot
(c) Amri
(d) Kot Diji
Q. 102. Which one of the following was not a part of the dhamma of King Ashoka ?
(a) Honouring the king
(b) Tolerance of religions other than one’s own
(c) Respecting Brahmanas
(d) Promoting the welfare of his subjects
Q. 103. Which of the following statements about Saguna bhakti traditions is/are correct ?
1.Saguna bhakti traditions focus on the worship of specific deities such as Vishnu or his avatars.
2. In Saguna bhakti traditions, Gods and Goddesses are conceptualised in anthropomorphic forms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 104. At which one of the following places was a Shiva temple not constructed under the patronage of the Chola rulers ?
(a) Chidambaram
(b) Thanjavur
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(d) Naneghat
Q. 105. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots Commission is/are correct?
1.The Commission did not hold enquiries in the districts which were not affected.
2.The Commission did record the statements of ryots, sahukars and eye-witnesses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 106. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ziyarat?
(a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of sufi saints
(b) The practice of revenue farming
(c) The death anniversary of a sufi shaikh
(d) A form of Islamic divorce
Q. 107. Keppel Island is completely bleached mainly due to the expansion of
(a) Starfish.
(b) Blue whale.
(c) Octopus.
(d) Sea horse. 1
Q. 108. Which one of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Brahmaputra ?
(a) River Manas
(b) River Kameng
(c)River Mahananda
(d) River Subansiri
Q. 109. Which one of the following is not a minor plate ?
(a) Cocos Plate
(b) Nazca Plate
(c) Caroline Plate
(d) Antarctic Plate
Q. 110. Advantage(s) of tectonic activity in Iceland include(s):
1.Source of natural geothermal energy
2. Creation of new land
3. Attraction of tourists
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. 111. The process whereby certain minerals absorb water, expand and change is called as
(a) Hydration.
(b) Oxidation.
(c) Hydrolysis.
(d) Carbonation.
Q. 112. Which one of the following is the longest Latitude ?
(a) 90 degree Latitude
(b) 23.5 degree Latitude
(c)0:0 degree Latitude
(d) 66-5 degree Latitud
Q. 113. If it is 12:00 Noon in India, on which meridian will it be 7.00 am of the same day?
Q. 114. Who among the following was considered to be the preceptor of Mirabai ?
(a) Dadu
(b) Raidas
(c) Ramanand
(d) Surdas
Q. 115. Consider the following statements about the Mahanavami Dibba :
1. It was the name of a giant box of sweets distributed at the Mahanavami festival.
2. It was the name of a massive platform with a base covered with relief carvings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 116. Which one of the following statements about the Ain-i-Akbari is not correct ?
(a) It was written by Abu’l Fazl.
(b) It is a part of a larger work called Akbar Nama.
(c) It describes the Mughal Empire as having a diverse population and a composite culture.
(d) It was later revised by Sadullah Khan on the orders of Shah Jahan.
Q. 117. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
1.was opposed to the worship of idols of Gods and Goddesses.
2.regarded the Vedas as infallible.
3. had met and had discussions with Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q. 118. Consider the following statements :
1. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was founded at Aligarh by Sayyid Ahmad Khan.
2.Sayyid Ahmad Khan was a great believer in religious toleration, and Hindus, Parsis and Christians had contributed to the funds of his college.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 119. Basket-of-eggs topography is related to
(a) Drumlins.
(b) Eskers.
(c) Cirques.
(d) Moraines.
Q. 120. Which one of the following planets has the highest density ?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Earth
Q. 121. Point of Origin of Earthquake Wave is known as
(a) Epicentre.
(b) Focus.
(c) Photosphere.
(d) Seismic Zone.
Q. 122. The maximum depth of Lithosphere is found in the
(a) Pacific Ocean.
(b) Siberian Plain.
(c) Patagonian Desert.
(d) Himalayan Mountains.
Q. 123. A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the Earth’s crust and develops in the form of large domes is known as
(a) Batholiths.
(b) Lacoliths.
(c) Lopoliths.
(d) Phacoliths
Q. 124. Which one of the following Oil Refineries is not located in Assam ?
(a) Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India
(b) Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
(c) The Indian Independence Act
(d) Article 20 of the Constitution of India
Q. 125. Where and when did Mahatma Gandhi make his first public appearance in India on coming back from South Africa after two decades?
(a) Champaran in 1917
(b) Lucknow in 1916
(c) Banaras Hindu University in 1916
(d) Ahmedabad in 1918
Q. 126. When and where was the demand for “Purna Swaraj” or complete independence made by the Indian National Congress?
(a) Bombay, 1885
(b) Lahore, 1929
(c) Kheda, 1917
(d) Bombay, 1942
Q. 127. Which one of the following provides for the complete equality of men and women in India ?
(a) Tatipaka
(b) Numaligarh
(c) Bongaigaon
(d) Digboi
Q. 128. Which of the following statements about the non-permanent members of the Security Council of the United Nations is/are correct ?
1. Their total number is now 10, but was originally only 6.
2. They are elected for a term of two years only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 129. At which of the following was the American Declaration of Independence adopted on 4 July, 1776 ?
(a) Washington Conference
(b) San Francisco Conference
(c) Second Continental Congress
(d) First Continental Congress
Q. 130. Who among the following was the head of the Government that was overthrown by the Bolsheviks in the 1917 Revolution ?
(a) Alexander Kerensky
(b) Prince Lvov
(c) Grand Duke Sergei
(d) Tsar Nicholas
Q. 131.Which one of the following is not a form of condensation ?
(a) Dew
(b) Fog
(c)Frost
(d) Sleet
Q. 132. Which one of the following clouds is a rain-bearing cloud ?
(a) Cumulus cloud
(b) Stratus cloud
(c)Nimbus cloud
(d) Cirrus cloud
Q. 133. In which one of the following countries is intensive subsistence agriculture not predominantly practised ?
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) Canada
(d) Indonesia
Q. 134. The Headquarters of South-Eastern Railway is located at
(a) Bilaspur.
(b) Secunderabad.
(c) Kolkata.
(d) Bhubaneswar.
Q. 135. Bharatmala Pariyojana is related to
(a) interlinking of Northern and Southern Indian rivers in a garland shape. (b) networks of National Highways in India.
(c) interlinking of all cities of India through Railways.
(d) interlinking of all industrial regions of India through pipelines.
Q. 136. The natural vegetation which covers the maximum geographical areas of India is
(a) Tropical deciduous forests.
(b) Tropical thorn forests.
(c) Montane forests.
(d) Tropical evergreen forests.
Q. 137. River Beas, flowing from Himachal and Punjab, joins the river
(a) Indus.
(b) Satluj.
(c) Chenab.
(d) Ravi.
Q. 138. With regard to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The words – Socialist and Secular, were not originally part of the Constitution.
(b) The Preamble states the objects of the Constitution of India.
(c) The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law.
(d) A Republic refers to the people as the source of all authority under the Constitution.
Q. 139. Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Speaker shall preside over the House of the People.
(b) Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House.
(c) Speaker will have power to maintain order within the House of the People.
(d) Speaker can adjourn the House or suspend the meeting till there is a
quorum.
Q. 140. Which one of the following is included in Article 51A (Part IV A) of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Suspension of Fundamental Rights
(c) Special Powers of Governors
(d) Writs
Q. 141. As per the data up to November, 2020, released by the Union Finance Ministry, which one of the following countries ranks 1 in terms of ODI (Outward Direct Investment) for the year 2020 – 21 ?
(a) USA
(b) Singapore
(c) Mauritius
(d) United Kingdom
Q. 142. ‘Exercise Desert Knight – 21’ is a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force and the Air Force of which one of the following countries?
(a) USA
(b) France
(c) Britain
(d) Israel
Q. 143. Tableau of which one of the following States/Union Territory was adjudged best in the Republic Day Parade, 2021 ?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tripura
(d) Uttarakhand
Q. 144. In the recently concluded elections. in December 2020, Faustin-Archange Touadéra has won a second term in office as President of
one of the following countries. Identify the country.
(a) Central African Republic
(b) Republic of South Africa
(c) Republic of Ghana
(d) Republic of Mozambique
Q. 145. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the ‘Legion of Merit award ?
(a) This award is conferred by the President of the United States of America.
(b) This award was conferred to the Prime Minister of India in December, 2020.
(c) This was also awarded to the Prime Minister of Australia, Scott Morrison.
(d) It is the highest civilian award of the United States of America.
Q. 146. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate about ‘Exercise Kavach’?
(a) It is a military exercise of the Indian Army only.
(b) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army and the Indian Navy only.
(c) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force only.
(d) It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, the Indian Air Force and also the Indian Coast Guard.
Q. 147. Recently a state of emergency has been declared in which one of the following countries?
(a) Maldives
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Q. 148. Which one of the following teams is the winner of the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy, 2021 ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Baroda
Q. 149. Which country has replaced Maldives to host the 2023 Indian Ocean Island Games ?
(a) Madagascar
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) India
(d) Mauritius
Q. 150. Identify the correct reason, out of the following, about Claire Polosak for being in the news :
(a) She has been honoured with the Pulitzer Prize.
(b) She recently won a Grand Slam championship.
(c) She became the first female match official to conduct a men’s cricket test match.
(d) She has been conferred with the Gandhi Peace Prize.
BCCI President Sourav Ganguly is hemodynamically stable after testing positive for COVID-19, informed Woodlands Hospital MD & CEO Dr. Rupali Basu. The MD further informed that the former cricketer’s oxygen saturation was maintained at 99 percent on room air. Ganguly had been admitted to the hospital late evening on December 26,2021 when he tested positive for COVID.
PM Modi to release 10th installment under PM-KISAN scheme on January
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will release the 10th installment of financial benefit under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme on January 1, 2022. The Prime Minister will transfer an amount worth Rs 20,000 crore through video conferencing to more than 10 crore beneficiary farmer families. The fund will be directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
Assam Rifles veteran who escorted 14th Dalai Lama on his arrival in India passes away
Chandra Das, the Assam Rifles veteran, who had received and escorted the 14th Dalai Lama on his arrival in India in 1959 passed away on December 28, 2021. He was 83. Dalai Lama had fled Tibet in 1959 at the age of 22 and crossed the border on March 30, 1959 with the help of the CIA’s Special Activities Division. He had arrived at Tezpur in Assam. He was escorted into India by a seven-member Assam Rifles team, which comprised 23-year-old Naren Chandra Das.
PM Modi to lay foundation stone of 23 projects in Uttarakhand today
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will visit Haldwani in Uttarakhand today to inaugurate and lay the foundation stone of 23 projects that will worth almost Rs 17,500 crore. The Prime Minister will lay the foundation stone of around 17 projects, which will be worth around Rs 14, 100 crore.
Congress to get new President in September 2022?
According to Congress Central Election Authority President Madhusudan Mistry, the Congress party will get its new national president by the end of September 2022. The Congress is currently being led by interim President Sonia Gandhi, who took over after Rahul Gandhi resigned from the post in July 2019 after the party’s massive defeat in 2019 Lok Sabha Elections.
Vaccines still effective against Omicron: WHO Chief Scientist According to WHO Chief Scientist Dr. Soumya Swaminathan, vaccines are still proving to be effective against Omicron as even though the number of Covid cases are rising sharply across the globe, the severity of the disease has not risen. The WHO scientist said that the T cell immunity is holding up better against the Omicron Coviod variant. She urged all those who have not yet received their vaccine to get vaccinated at the earliest.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
China and Japan agreed to launch military hotline
China and Japan have agreed to establish a military hotline in 2022. It will be done to put in place a system that can defuse the potential crisis over the disputed islands and Taiwan strait. The Defence Ministry of Japan informed that the two governments have agreed to set up the link by the end of 2022. On the other hand, the Defence Ministry of China stated that there has been a need for strengthening liaison and communication between the defence ministries of both Japan and China.
Pakistan approves ‘National Security Policy’
The top security panel of Pakistan has given its approval to its ‘National Security Policy’ for 2022-26. The policy places ‘economic security at the core’ to ensure a citizen-centric approach to security. This is also the first time that a National Security Policy has been approved in Pakistan. The NSP puts economic security at the core and a stronger economy will create additional resources to bolster human and economic security. The policy has been created through a whole-of-government effort over the last 7 years and also included extensive consultations among the federal government institutions. The National Security Policy in Pakistan will now be presented to the Cabinet before being officially adopted by the Government.
NDA/NA(I) Exam 2021 Mathematics Previous Year Paper
Q. 1. The smallest positive integer n for which where is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Q. 2. The value of x, satisfying the equation logcos x sin x =1, where is
Q. 3. If Δ is the value of the determinant
Then what is the value of the following determinant ?
Q. 4. If C0, C1, C2…., Cn are the coefficients in the expansion fo (1+x)n then what is the value of C1 + C2 + C3 + ……. Cn?
Q. 5. If a + b + c = 4 and ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of the following determinant ?
Q. 6. The number of integer values of k, for which the equation 2sin x = 2k + 1 has a solution, is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) four
Q. 7. If a1, a2, a3, …… a9 are in GP, then what is the value of the following determinant ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Q. 8. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + 2x + k = 0 are real, then
Q. 9. If n = 100!, then what is the value of the following ?
Q. 10. If Z = 1 + i, where i = √-1, then what is the modulus of Z + 2/Z?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q. 11. If A and B are two matrices such that AB is of order n × n, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) A and B should be square matrices of same order.
(b) Either A or B should be a square matrix.
(c) Both A and B should be of same order.
(d) Orders of A and B need not be the same.
Q. 12. How many matrices of different orders are possible with elements comprising all prime numbers less than 30 ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Q. 13. Let
Where p, q, r and s are any four different prime numbers less than 20. What is the maximum value of the determinant ?
(a) 215
(b) 311
(c) 317
(d) 323
Q. 14. If A and B are square matrices of order 2 such that det (AB) = det (BA), then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) A must be a unit matrix.
(b) B must be a unit matrix.
(c) Both A and B must be unit matrices.
(d) A and B meet not be unit matrices.
Q. 15. What is cot 2x cot 4x – cot 4x cot 6x – cot 6x cot 2x equal to ?
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Q. 16. If tan x = -¾ and x is in the second quadrant, then what is the value of sin x . cos x ?
Q. 17. What is the value of the following ?
Q. 18. If the determinant
Then what is x equal to ?
(a) -2 or 2
(b) -3 or 3
(c) -1 or 1
(d) 3 or 4
Q. 19. What is the value of the following ?
tan 31° tan 33° tan 35° …….. tan 57° tan 59°
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Q. 20. If
then what is f(-1) + f (0) + f(1) equal to ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 100
(d) -100
Q. 21. The equation sin-1 x – cos-1 x = π/6 has
(a) no solution
(b) unique solution
(c) two solutions
(d) infinite number of solutions
Q. 22. What is the value of the following ?
(sin 24° + cos 66°)(sin 24° – cos 66°)
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Q. 23. A chord subtends an angle 120° at the center of a unit circle. What is the length of the chord ?
(a) √2 – 1 units
(b) √3 – 1 units
(c) √2 units
(d) √3 units
Q. 24. What is equal to ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q. 25. What is equal to ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2 tan θ
(d) 2 cot θ
Q. 26. What is the interior angle of a regular octagon of side length 2 cm ?
Q. 27. If 7sinθ + 24cosθ = 25, then what is the value of (sinθ + cosθ)?
(a) 1
(b) 26/25
(c) 6/5
(d) 31/25
Q. 26. A ladder 6 m long reaches a point 6m below the top of vertical flagstaff. From the foot of the ladder, the elevation of the top of the flagstaff is 750. What is the height of the flagstaff ?
Q. 29. The shadow of a tower is found to be x metre longer, when the angle of elevation of the sun changes from 600 to 450. If the height of the tower is 5(3 + √3)m, then what is x equal to ?
(a) 8 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 15 m
Q. 30. If cosθ = 4 sinθ, then what is the value of tan (450 + θ)?
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 7/2
(d) 7/4
Q. 31. tan-1 x + cot-1 x = π/2 holds, when
Q. 32. If tan A = 1/7, then what is cos2A equal to ?
(a) 24/25
(b) 18/25
(c) 12/25
(d) 6/25
Q. 33. The sides of a triangle are m, n and √m2 + n2 + mn. What is the sum of the acute angles of the triangle ?
(a) 450
(b) 600
(c) 750
(d) 900
Q. 34. What is the area of the triangle ABC with sides a = 10 cm, c = 4 and angle B = 300?
(a) 16 cm2
(b) 12 cm2
(c) 10 cm2
(d) 8 cm2
Q. 35. Consider the following statements :
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Q. 36. Consider the following statements:
The null set is a subset of every set.
Every set is subset of itself
It a set has 10 elements, then its power set will have 1024 elements.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. 37. Let R be a relation defined as xRy if and only if 2x + 3y = 20, where x, y ∈ N. How many elements of the form (x, y) are there in R ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Q. 38. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 39. Consider the following in respect of complex number Z:
Which of the above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 40. Consider the following statements in respect of an arbitrary complex number Z:
The difference of Z and its conjugate is an imaginary number.
The sum of Z and its conjugate is a real number.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 41. What is the modulus of the complex number i2n+1 (-i)2n-1, where n ∈ N and i = √-1?
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) √2
(d) 2
Q. 42. If α and β are the roots of the equation 4x2 + 2x – 1 = 0, then which one of the following is correct ?
Q. 43. If one root of 5x2 + 26x + k = 0 is reciprocal of the other, then what is the value of k ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 8
Q. 44. In how many ways can a team of 5 players be selected from 8 players so as not to include a particular player ?
(a) 42
(b) 35
(c) 21
(d) 20
Q. 45. What is the coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of (1 + 4x + 4x2)5?
(a) 8064
(b) 4032
(c) 2016
(d) 1008
Q. 46. What is C(n, 1) + C(n, 2) + …….+C(n, n) equal to ?
Q. 47. What is the sum of the coefficients of first and last terms in the expansion of (1 + x)2n, where n is a neutral number?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) n
(d) 2n
Q. 48. If the first term of an AP is 2 and the sum of the first five term is equal to one-fourth of the sum of the next five terms, then what is the sum of the first ten terms ?
(a) -500
(b) -250
(c) 500
(d) 250
Q. 49. Consider the following statements :
If each term of a GP is multiplied by same non-zero number, then the resulting sequence is also a GP.
If each term of a GP is dividend by same non-zero number, then the resulting sequence is also a GP.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 50. How many 5-digit prime numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if the repetition of digits is not allowed ?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 4
(d) 0
Q. 51. If f(x + 1) = x2 – 3x + 2, then what is f(x) equal to ?
Q. 52. If x2, x, -8 are in AP, then which one of the following is correct ?
Q. 53. The third term of a GP is 3. What is the product of its first five terms?
(a) 81
(b) 243
(c) 729
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Q. 54. The element in the ith row and the jth column of a determinant of third order is equal to 2(i + j). What is the value of the determinant ?
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Q. 55. With the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, all the possible determinants with these four different elements are constructed. What is the sum of the values of all such determinants ?
(a) 128
(b) 64
(c) 32
(d) 0
Q. 56. What is the radius of the circle 4x2 + 4y2 – 20x + 12y – 15 = 0
(a) 14 units
(b) 10.5 units
(c) 7 units
(d) 3.5 units
Q. 57. A parallelogram has three consecutive vertices (-3, 4), (0, -4) and (5, 2). The fourth vertex is
(a) (2, 10)
(b) (2, 9)
(c) (3, 9)
(d) (4, 10)
Q. 58. If the line y + px = 1 and y – qx = 2 are perpendicular, then which one of the following is correct ?
Q. 59. If A, B and C are in AP, then the straight line Ax + 2By + C = 0 will always pass through a fixed point. The fixed point is
Q. 60. If the image of the point (-4, 2) by a line mirror is (4, -2), then what is the equation of the line mirror ?
(a) y = x
(b) y = 2x
(c) 4y = x
(d) y = 4x
Q. 61. Consider the following statements in respect of the points (p, p-3), (q + 3,q) and (6, 3):
The points lie on a straight line
The points always lie in the first quadrant only for any value of p and q.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 62. What is the acute angle between the line x – 2 = 0 and √3x – y – 2 = 0?
(a) 00
(b) 300
(c) 450
(d) 600
Q. 63. The point of intersection of diagonals of a square ABCD is at the origin and one of its vertices is at A(4, 2). What is the equation of the diagonal BD ?
Q. 64. If any point on a hyperbola is (3 tanθ, 2 secθ), then what is the eccentricity of the hyperbola ?
Q. 65. Consider the following with regard to eccentricity (e) of a conic section :
e=0 for circle
e=1 for parabola
e<1 for ellipse
Which of the above are correct
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. 66. What is the angle between the two lines having direction ratios (6, 3, 6) and (3, 3, 0) ?
Q. 67. If l, m, n are the direction cosines of the line x – 1 = 2 (y + 3) = 1 – z, the what is l4 + m4 + n4 equal to ?
(a) 1
(b) 11/27
(c) 13/27
(d) 4
Q. 68. What is the projection of the line segment joining A (1, 7, -5) and B (-3, 4, -2) on y-axis?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Q. 69. What is the number of possible values of k for which the line joining the points (k, 1, 3) and (1, -2, k+1) also passes through the point (15, 2, -4) ?
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Infinite
Q. 70. The foot of the perpendicular drawn form the origin to the plane x + y + z = 3 is
(a) (0, 1, 2)
(b) (0, 0, 3)
(c) (1, 1, 1)
(d) (-1, 1, 3)
Q. 71. A vector is equally inclined to both x and y axes. If the magnitude of the vector is 2 units, then what are the values of a and b respectively ?
Q. 72. Consider the following statements in respect of a vector where :
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 73. If and are two vectors such that | + | = | –| = 4, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) and must be unit vectors
(b) must be parallel to
(c) must be perpendicular to .
(d) must be equal to .
Q. 74. If , and are coplanar, then what is (2 × 3 ).4 + (5 × 3) . 6 equal to .
(a) 114
(b) 66
(c) 0
(d) -66
Q. 75. Consider the following statements :
The cross product of two unit vectors is always a unit vector.
The dot product of two unit vectors is always unity.
The magnitude of sum of two unit vectors is always greater than the magnitude of their difference.
Which of the above statements are not correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. 76. If
Then what is the value of a ?
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Q. 77. A particle starts from origin with a velocity (in m/s) given by the equation . The time (in second) taken by the particle to traverse a distance of 24 m is.
(a) ln 24
(b) ln 5
(c) 2 ln 5
(d) 2 ln 4
Q. 78. What is
equal to ?
(a) a
(b) 2a
(c) 0
(d) a/2
Q. 79. What is
equal to ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Q. 80. If
then what is g(x) equal to ?
Q. 81. What is the area bounded by y=16-x2, y0and the x-axis ?
(a) 16π square units
(b) 8π square units
(c) 4π square units
(d) 2π square units
Q. 82. The curve y = -x3 + 3x2 + 2x – 27 has the maximum slope at
(a) x = -1
(b) x = 0
(c) x = 1
(d) x = 2
Q. 83. A 24 cm long wire is bent to form a triangle with one of the angles as 600. What is the altitude of the triangle having the greatest possible area ?
(a) 4√3 cm
(b) 2√3 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 3 cm
Q. 84. If f(x) = e|x|, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) f’(0) = 1
(b) f’(0) = -1
(c) f’(0) = 0
(d) f’(0) does not exist
Q. 85. What is equal to ?
Q. 86. What is equal to
Q. 87. If x + y = 20 and P = xy, then what is the maximum value of P ?
(a) 100
(b) 96
(c) 85
(d) 50
Q. 88. What is the derivative of sin(ln x) + cos (ln x) with respect to x at x = e ?
Q. 89. If x = et cost and y = et sin t, then what is dx/dy at t = 0 equal to ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2e
(d) -1
Q. 90. What is the maximum value of sin 2x. Cos 2x ?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Q. 91. What is the derivative of ex with respect to xe ?
Q. 92. If a differentiable function f(x) satisfies
then what is x-1f(x)equal to ?
(a) – 3/2
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 1
Q. 93. If the function
is continuous, then what is the value of (a + b) ?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Q. 94. Consider the following statements in respect of the function f(x) = sin x :
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 95. What is the domain of the function f(x) = 3x ?
Q. 96. If the general solution of a differential equation is y2 + 2cy – cx + c2 = 0, where c is an arbitrary constant, then what is the order of the differential equation ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q. 97. What is the degree of the following differential equation ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Degree is not defined
Q. 98. Which one of the following differential equations has the general solution y = aex + be-x ?
Q. 99. What is the solution of the following differential equation ?
Q. 100. What is e(2 ln x + ln x2)dx equal to ?
Q. 101. Consider the following measures of central tendency for a set of N numbers:
Arithmetic mean
Geometric mean
Which of the above uses/use all the data ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 102. The numbers of Science, Arts and Commerce graduates working in a company are 30, 70 and 50 respectively. If these figures are represented by a pie chart, then what is the angle corresponding to Science graduates ?
(a) 360
(b) 720
(c) 1200
(d) 1680
Q. 103. For a histogram based on a frequency distribution with unequal class intervals, the frequency of a classes should be proportional to
(a) the height of the rectangle
(b) the area of the rectangle
(c) the width of the rectangle
(d) the perimeter of the rectangle
Q. 104. The coefficient of correlation is independent of
(a) change of scale only
(b) change of origin only
(c) both change of scale and change of origin
(d) Neither change of scale nor change of origin
Q. 105. The following table gives the frequency distribution of number of peas per pea pod of 198 pods :
What is the median of this distribution ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Q. 106. If M is the mean of n observations x1 – k, x2 – k, x3 – k,….., xn – k, where k is any real number, then what is the mean of x1, x2, x3,…., xn ?
(a) M
(b) M + k
(c) M – k
(d) kM
Q. 107. What is the sum of deviations of the variate values 73, 85, 92, 105, 120 from theri mean ?
(a) −2
(b) −1
(c) 0
(d) 5
Q. 108. Let x be the HM and y be the GM of two positive numbers m and n. If 5x = 4y, then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) 5m = 4n
(b) 2m = n
(c) 4m = 5n
(d) m = 4n
Q. 109. If the mean of a frequency distribution is 100 and the coefficient of variation is 45%, then what is the value of the variance
(a) 2025
(b) 450
(c) 45
(d) 4.5
Q. 110. Let two events A and B be such that P(A) = L and P(B) = M. Which one of the following is correct ?
Q. 111. For which of the following sets of numbers do the mean, median and mode have the same value ?
(a) 12, 12, 12, 12, 24
(b) 6, 18, 18, 18, 30
(c) 6, 6, 12, 30, 36
(d) 6, 6, 6, 12, 30
Q. 112. The mean of 12 observations is 75. If two observations are discarded, then the mean of the remaining observations is 65. What is the mean of the discarded observations ?
(a) 250
(b) 125
(c) 120
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Q. 113. If k is one of the roots of the equation x(x + 1) + 1 = 0, then what is its other root ?
(a) 1
(b) -k
(c) k2
(d) -k2
Q. 114. The geometric mean of a set of observations is computed as 10. The geometric mean obtained when each observation xi is replaced by 3x4i is
(a) 810
(b) 900
(c) 30000
(d) 81000
Q. 115. If P(A ⋃ B) = 5/6, P(A ⋂ B) = 1/3 and P(A) = 1/2, then which of the following is/are correct ?
A and B are independent events.
A and B are mutually exclusive events.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 116. The average of a set of 15 observations is recorded, but later it is found that for one observation, the digit in the tens place was wrongly recorded as 8 instead of 3. After correcting the observation, the average is
(a) reduced by 1/3
(b) increased by 10/3
(c) reduced by 10/3
(d) reduced by 50
Q. 117. A coin is tossed twice. If E and F denote occurrence of head on first toss and second toss respectively, then what is P(E ⋃ F) equal to ?
(a) 1/4
(b)1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) 1/3
Q. 118. In a binomial distribution, the mean is ⅔ and variance is 5/9. What is the probability that random variable X = 2?
(a) 5/36
(b) 25/36
(c) 25/54
(d) 25/216
Q. 119. If the mode of the scores 10, 12, 13, 15, 15, 13, 12, 10, x is 15, then what is the value of x ?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 15
Q. 120. If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 3/4 and P(B) = 5/8, then consider the following statements :
NDA/NA(I) Exam 2020 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
PART – A
ANTONYMS
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer sheet accordingly.
Q. 1. He nodded absently throughout the meeting.
(a) capably
(b) alertly
(c) agitatedly
(d) dreamily
Q. 2. I fully believe that the cornerstone of good policy is an electorate that is educated on the national issues.
(a) cerebral
(b) enlightened
(c) ignorant
(d) erudite
Q. 3. For important medical decisions, even finding a doctor you trust is not enough.
(a) significant
(b) trivial
(c) basic
(d) probable
Q. 4. Planets move in their orbits.
(a) push
(b) rotate
(c) stall
(d) flow
Q. 5. Temperature is a measure of internal energy of an object and is frequently expressed by physicists in units of Kelvin.
(a) found
(b) told
(c) distributed
(d) concealed
Q. 6. People argue about why Venus is so much warmer than the Earth.
(a) friendlier
(b) colder
(c) wilder
(d) heavier
Q. 7. Scientists are concerned whether the oceans and land biosphere will take up as much carbon in the future as they presently do.
(a) worried
(b) indifferent
(c) curious
(d) puzzled
Q. 8. The biggest debate among scientists today is about cloud feedback.
(a) contend
(b) moot
(c) wrangle
(d) agreement
Q. 9. The Earth’s climate sensitivity is conventionally defined as the equili brium temperature increase caused by a doubling of carbon dioxide.
(a) imperviousness
(b) willingness
(c) responsiveness
(d) closeness
Q. 10. The oceans carry a huge amount of heat from the tropics to the high latitudes.
(a) significant
(b) major
(c) tiny
(d) dormant
ORDERING OF WORDS IN SENTENCE
Directions:Each of the following item in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
Q. 11. Several years ago, (P) course on climate change at Texas A&M University (Q), Professor Andrew Dessler created and introductory (R), for freshmen and sophomores (S).
(a) PROS
(b) QRPS
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS
Q. 12. I realize that solving the climate change problem (P) than solving (Q) will be much harder (R) the ozone depletion problem (S)
(a) PROS
(b) QRPS
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS
Q. 13. although the temperature of this layer of the (P) when directly comparing the satellite (Q) measurements of temperature (R) atmosphere should generally track the surface temperature, we must be careful (S)
(a) PROS
(b) PSQR
(c) SRP
(d) PORS
Q. 14. the element heats up, (P) eventually reaching high temperatures (Q) glowing like a dark orange that radiates (R) the visible range, (S)
(a) PQSR
(b) QPSR
(c) SQRP
(d) PRSQ
Q. 15. two people argue about why Venus is so much warmer (P) to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy. The second argues (Q) that it’s because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-gas rich atmosphere (R) than the Earth. The first argues that it’s because Venus is closer (S)
(a) PSQR
(b) QRPS
(C) SQRP
(d) PQRS
Q. 16. are now used by more than a thousand firms (P) and are growing in popularity (Q) in the United States and Europe (R) gain sharing-plans
(a) PROS
(b) QRPS
(c) PRSO
(d) SPRO
Q. 17. adversity without succumbing (P) to the clouds of doubt and jealousy (Q) between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and (R) the essay ‘Of Friendship’ by Francis Bacon celebrated the intimacy (S)
(a) PROS
(b) QRPS
(c) SRPQ
(d) PQRS
Q. 18. friends without which the world is (P) make friends and a person wills to want true (Q) it is miserable solitude that compels a person to (R) nothing other than a place of wilderness (S)
(a) PROS
(b) QRPS
(c) ROPS
(d) PQRS
Q. 19. takes the longest (P) that never started (Q) the job (R) to finish (S)
(a) PROS
(b) ROPS
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS
Q. 20. to what you can create (P) control, shift your energy (Q) instead of worrying about (R) what you cannot (S)
(a) PRSO
(b) QRSP
(c) SRP
(d) RSQP
SYNONYMS
Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Q. 21. She got the divorce within no time.
(a) detachment
(b) breaking down
(c) annulment
(d) punishment
Q. 22. He was known for his gentle disposition.
(a) harmful
(b) amiable
(c) cunning
(d) adjusting
Q. 23. The harder we kick, the better the ball bounces back.
(a) recoils
(b) deflates
(c) inflates
(d) ascends
Q. 24. I plan and execute.
(a) desire
(b) debate
(c) accomplish
(d) discard
Q. 25. He listened to me with equanimity.
(a) carelessly
(b) excitedly
(c) patiently
(d) half-heartedly
Q. 26. The whole thing was a futile exercise.
(a) costly
(b) pointless
(c) indecisive
(d) successful
Q. 27. He was too cunning for her.
(a) capable
(b) fit
(c) intelligent
(d) dodgy
Q. 28. This decision is crucial for me.
(a) momentous
(b) natural
(c) primitive
(d) inept
Q. 29. The media went into a frenzy about the case.
(a) silent
(b) creative
(c) berserk
(d) wrong
Q. 30. He has been yearning to go home.
(a) declining
(b) demanding
(c) begging
(d) hankering
PREPOSITIONS
Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and preposition from the given options and ma accordingly.
Q. 31. Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that exclude the observed increase _____________ greenhouse gases fail to simulate the increase in temperature over the second half of the 20th century.
(a) of
(b) in
(c) by
(d) to
Q. 32. In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work a young age and are therefore a source of income.
(a) in
(b) on
(c) by
(d) at
Q. 33. People who are averse ________ hard work, generally do not succeed in life.
(a) to
(b) about
(C) at
(d) on
Q. 34. I have known her ________ a long time.
(a) since
(b) for
(c) at
(d) before
certain
Q. 35. I accepted the offer _____ conditions.
(a) on
(b) in
(c) by
(d) within
Q. 36. She is a woman ________ humble origin.
(a) off
(b) of
(c) from
(d) within
Q. 37. There is no cure___________ the common cold.
(a) for
(b) of
(c) to
(d) on
Q. 38. I ran ________John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.
(a) by
(b) off
(c) beside
(d) into
Q. 39. My grandmother enjoyed boating __________the lovely lake.
(a) in
(b) on
(c) beside
(d) within
Q. 40. He visits the needy to relieve them __________ their sufferings and poverty.
(a) from
(b) off
(c) of
(d) on
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions : Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Q. 41.
(a) This building
(b) comprises of six houses,
(c) three parking lots and one basement.
(d) No error.
Q. 42.
(a) I look forward
(b) to meet
(c) you.
(d) No error.
Q. 43.
(a) I cannot
(b) cope up
(c) with this pressure.
(d) No error.
Q. 44.
(a) I came
(b) to this place
(c) by walk.
(d) No error.
Q. 45
(a) What is
(b) the time
(c) in your watch?
(d) No error.
Q. 46.
(a) The price of my dress
(b) is higher than that of
(c) yours.
(d) No error.
Q. 47.
(a) My friend’s
(b) daughter-in-laws
(c) have come.
(d) No error.
Q. 48
(a) I prefer
(b) seafood
(c) than Mediterranean food.
(d) No error.
Q. 49.
(a) We were
(b) discussing about
(c) the issue.
(d) No error.
Q. 50.
(a) Dispose off
(b) the garbage
(c) from the shelves.
(d) No error.
भाग – B
Q. 51. निम्नलिखित में से किस द्वीप समूह का हिस्सा, न्यूजीलैंड माना जाता है ?
(a) माइक्रोनेशिया
(b) मेलानेशिया
(c) पोलिनेशिया
(d) हवाई द्वीप श्रृंखला
Q. 52. प्रधानमंत्री कृषि सिंचाई योजना (PMKSY) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?
1. PMKSY की शुरूआत 2015-16 के दौरान की गई थी
2. PMKSY का मूल उद्देश्य है – खेतों तक जल की भौतिक पहुँच को बढ़ाना
3. PMKSY का एक प्रमुख उद्देश्य है – खेत स्तर पर सिंचाई में निवेशों के अभिसरण (सम्मिलन) को प्राप्त करना
नीचे दिये गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 1 और 2
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
Q. 53. भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 79 के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से किसे/किन्हें भारत की संसद के एक भाग के रूप में वर्णित किया गया
1. लोक सभा
2. राज्य सभा
3. भारत का राष्ट्रपति
नीचे दिये गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिये:
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 1 और 2
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
Q. 54. पंचवर्षीय योजना पहली बार कहाँ शुरू की गई थी?
(a) चीन
(b) USSR
(c) भारत
(d) भूटान
Q. 55. गरीबी हटाओ का आह्वान किस पंचवर्षीय योजना में सम्मिलित किया गया था ?
(a) चौथी पंचवर्षीय योजना
(b) पांचवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना
(c) छठी पंचवर्षीय योजना
(d) सातवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना
Q. 56. सूची I को सूची II से सुमेलित कीजिये और सूचियों के नीचे दिये गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : –
सूची I (प्रमुख उद्देश्य)
सूची II (पंचवर्षीय योजना)
A. तीव्रतर एवं अधिक समावेशी वृद्धि (विकास)
1. पहली
B. तीव्रतर, अधिक समावेशी और संधारणीय वृद्धि
2. पांचवीं
C. द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध से उत्पन्न असंतुलन को ठीक करना (सुधारना)
3. ग्यारहवीं
D. आत्म निर्भरता प्राप्त करना
4.बारहवीं
कूट:
*
A
B
C
D
(a)
3
1
4
2
(b)
3
4
1
2
(c)
2
4
1
3
(d)
2
1
4
3
Q. 57. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा निदेशक सिद्धांत (निदेशक तत्व) संविधान (42वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 1976 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था ?
(a) राज्य आय में असमानताओं को कम करेगा
(b) समान न्याय तथा मुफ्त कानूनी सहायता
(c) सहकारी सोसाइटी का संवर्धन
(d) शुरूआती बाल्यावस्था देख-भाल का प्रावधान
Q. 58. दो या अधिक राज्यों के लिये एक सार्व उच्च न्यायालय की स्थापना किसके द्वारा की जा सकती है?
(a) संसद द्वारा पारित एक कानून द्वारा
(b) भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के एक – आदेश द्वारा
(c) भारत के राष्ट्रपति के एक आदेश द्वारा
(d) भारत के संविधान में एक संशोधन द्वारा
Q. 59. वर्ष 1928 में, कांग्रेसी नेताओं की एक समिति ने भारत के लिये एक संविधान का मसौदा तैयार किया । इस समिति की अध्यक्षता किसने की थी ?
(a) महात्मा गांधी
(b) टी. बी. सप्रू
(c) मोतीलाल नेहरू
(d) जवाहरलाल नेहरू
Q. 60. जयपाल सिंह के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है ?
(a) वे संविधान सभा के सदस्य थे
(b) उन्होंने आदिवासी महासभा की स्थापना की
(c) वे पहली भारतीय राष्ट्रीय हॉकी टीम के कप्तान थे
(d) उन्होंने छत्तीसगढ़ के लिये, एक अलग राज्य का अभियान चलाया
Q. 61. कुपोषण के संदर्भ में “टिक्की मौसी” क्या है ?
(a) विशेष रूप से पैक की गयी एक खाद्य वस्तु
(b) एक शुभंकर
(c) एक स्कीम का नाम
(d) स्वास्थ्य सेवा देने वालों को दिया गया एक नाम
Q. 62. विश्व पर्यटन दिवस, 2019, की विषयवस्तु, निम्नलिखित में से क्या थी ?
(a) टिकाऊ (संधारणीय) पर्यटन डिजिटल रूपांतरण
(b) पर्यटन और (परिवर्तन)
(c) पर्यटन : जलवायु परिवर्तन की चुनौती की प्रतिक्रिया
(d) पर्यटन और नौकरियां (जॉब्स) : सभी के लिए एक बेहतर भविष्य
Q. 63. निम्नलिखित में से किस देश ने सैन्य (थल सेना) अभ्यास TSENTR, 2019 का आयोजन किया ?
(a) रूस
(b) चीन
(c) कजाकिस्तान (कजाखिस्तान)
(d) किर्गिस्तान (किर्गिज़स्तान)
Q. 64. निम्नलिखित में से किस देश को “कन्ट्री ऑफ विन्डस” (हवाओं का देश) कहा जाता है ?
(a) भारत
(b) चीन
(c) डेनमार्क
(d) जर्मनी
Q. 65. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा, भारत सरकार का सबसे पुराना वैज्ञानिक (साइंटिफिक) विभाग है ?
(a) जैव प्रौद्योगिकी (बायोटेक्नोलॉजी) विभाग
(b) भारतीय सर्वेक्षण विभाग (सर्वे ऑफ इंडिया)
(c) भारत मौसम विज्ञान विभाग
(d) DRDO
Q. 66. ‘नसीम-अल-बहर’ एक द्विपक्षीय नौसैनिक अभ्यास है । यह अभ्यास भारत और किस अन्य देश के बीच हुआ है ?
(a) संयुक्त अरब अमीरात
(b) ईरान
(c) सऊदी अरब
(d) ओमान
Q. 67. कोनेरू हम्पी, निम्नलिखित में से किस खेल की उत्कृष्ट खिलाड़ी हैं ?
(a) मुक्केबाजी (बॉक्सिंग)
(b) टेबल टेनिस
(c) शतरंज (चैस)
(d) बिलियर्डस
Q. 68. खेलो इंडिया युथ गेम्स, 2020 (खेलो इंडिया युवा खेल, 2020) का आधिकारिक शुभंकर, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा था ?
(a) विजय
(b) याया
(c) रोंगमैन
(d) अम्मू
Q. 69. जनवरी 2020 में, ईरान में तेहरान के इमाम खुमैनी विमान पत्तन से उड़ान के तुरंत बाद एक यात्री विमान दुर्घटनाग्रस्त (क्रैश) हुआ, जिसमें सवार लगभग 170 लोग मारे गये। यह वायुयान निम्नलिखित में से किसका था ?
(a) कतर एयरवेज
(b) यूक्रेन इन्टरनेशनल एयरलाइन्स
(c) सिंगापुर एयरलाइन्स
(d) कैथे पैसिफिक
Q. 70. MILAN, एक बहुपक्षीय नौसैनिक अभ्यास, 2020 निम्नलिखित में से किस शहर में आयोजित किया गया था ?
(a) पोर्ट ब्लेयर
(b) कोच्ची
(c) विशाखापटनम
(d) पणजी
Q. 71. खड़िया (चाक) और संगमरमर, निम्नलिखित में से किसके विभिन्न रूप हैं ?
(a) कैल्सियम हाइड्रोजन कार्बोनेट
(b) कैल्सियम कार्बोनेट
(c) कैल्सियम ऐसीटेट
(d) सोडियम कार्बोनेट
Q. 72. N कोश (शैल) में इलेक्ट्रानों की अधिकतम संख्या कितनी होती है ?
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 18
(d) 32
Q. 73. सिरका (विनेगर) का अन्य नाम क्या है ?
(a) इथेनोइक ऐसिड (एथेनोइक ऐसिड)
(b) नाइट्रिक ऐसिड
(c) सल्फ्यूरिक ऐसिड
(d) टार्टरिक ऐसिड
Q. 74. किसी द्रव को कांच के एक बीकर में रखा गया है। द्रव स्तम्भ द्वारा बीकर के आधार पर आरोपित दाब के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक कथन सही है ?
(a) दाब, बीकर के आधार के क्षेत्रफल पर निर्भर करता है
(b) दाब, द्रव स्तम्भ की ऊँचाई पर निर्भर करता है
(c) दाब, द्रव के घनत्व पर निर्भर नहीं करता
(d) दाब, न तो बीकर के आधार के क्षेत्रफल पर निर्भर करता है, न ही द्रव स्तम्भ की ऊँचाई पर निर्भर करता है
Q. 75. ध्वनि तरंगों के प्रगमन (आगे बढ़ने) के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है ?
(a) ध्वनि तरंगें पानी से होकर गुजर सकती हैं
(b) ध्वनि तरंगें हवा से होकर गुजर सकती हैं
(c) ध्वनि तरंगें इस्पात से होकर गुजर सकती
(d) ध्वनि तरंगें निर्वात से होकर गुजर सकती
Q. 76. दीनदयाल बंदरगाह (पोर्ट) कहां अवस्थित है ?
(a) केरल
(b) गुजरात
(c) महाराष्ट्र
(d) गोवा
Q. 77. जैविक विविधता पर अभिसमय (2000) के प्रति जैव सुरक्षा प्रोटोकाल के साथ, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शहर जुड़ा हुआ है ?
(a) जिनेवा
(b) नैरोबी
(c) कार्टाजेना
(d) रियो डी जनेरियो
Q. 78. कृष्ण राज सागर बांध/जलाशय, किस नदी पर बनाया गया है ?
(a) कृष्णा नदी
(b) तुंगभद्रा नदी
(c) गोदावरी नदी
(d) कावेरी नदी
Q. 79. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा भारतीय राज्य, दो अथवा अधिक देशों के साथ अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमा को साझा नहीं करता है ?
(a) अरुणाचल प्रदेश
(b) असम
(c) मिजोरम
(d) त्रिपुरा
Q. 80. भारत की जनगणना, 2011 के अनुसार, भारत के निम्नलिखित राज्यों में से कौन सा एक राज्य न्यूनतम आबादी वाला राज्य है ?
(a) महाराष्ट्र
(b) मध्य प्रदेश
(c) ओडिशा
(d) पंजाब
Q. 81. प्रमुख भारतीय भाषाओं के बोलनेवाले, कितने भाषा परिवारों से संबंधित हैं ?
(a) दो
(b) तीन
(c) चार
(d) छः
Q. 82. गांधीजी ने सत्याग्रह की शैली (ढंग) आरंभिक रूप से कहां गढ़ी (विकसित की) थी ?
(a) इंगलैंड
(b) दक्षिण अफ्रीका
(c) उत्तर अफ्रीका
(d) भारत
Q. 83. गांधीजी के दांडी मार्च के समय, भारत का वाइसराय कौन था ?
(a) लॉर्ड इर्विन
(b) लॉर्ड लिनलिथगो
(c) लॉर्ड रीडिंग
(d) लॉर्ड विलिंगडन
Q. 84. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक अमेरिकी समाचार पत्रिका, गांधीजी के दांडी मार्च के बारे में आरंभ में बहुत संशयात्मक थी, किन्तु एक सप्ताह के भीतर ही उसने अपनी राय पूरी तरह से बदल ली और एक महात्मा और राजनेता के रूप में गांधीजी का अभिवादन किया ?
(a) सैटर्ड इवनिंग पोस्ट
(b) रीडर्स डाइजेस्ट
(c) टाइम
(d) लाइफ
Q. 85. निम्नलिखित में से किस वर्ष में, इंगलैंड में यात्री ट्रेन (रेलगाड़ी) आरंभ की गयी थी ?
(a) 1823
(b) 1825
(c) 1848
(d) 1861
Q. 86. किसी गोलीय दर्पण की वक्रता त्रिज्या R तथा फोकस दूरी f में सही संबन्ध है
(a) R = f
(b) R = 2f
(c) R = 3f
(d) R = 4f
Q. 87. कांच के एक गिलास में पानी के अंदर रखा हुआ एक नींबू अपने वास्तविक आकार से बड़ा दिखाई देता है । ऐसा किस कारण से होता है ?
(a) प्रकाश का परावर्तन
(b) प्रकाश का प्रकीर्णन
(c) प्रकाश का अपवर्तन
(d) प्रकाश का ध्रुवण (ध्रुवीकरण)
Q. 88. एक पतली झिल्ली से होकर प्रकाश नेत्र में प्रवेश करता है। इस झिल्ली को क्या कहा जाता है ?
(a) रेटिना
(b) कॉर्निया
(c) पुतली
(d) आइरिस
Q. 89. उस वैज्ञानिक का नाम क्या है, जिसने सूर्य के प्रकाश का स्पेक्ट्रम प्राप्त करने के लिए पहली बार कांच के प्रिज़्म का उपयोग किया ?
(a) सी. वी. रमन
(b) लॉर्ड रेले
(c) आइज़ैक न्यूटन
(d) एस. चन्द्रशेखर
Q. 90. एक औद्योगिक प्रशीतित्र (रेफ्रिजरेटर) जो 10 घंटे प्रतिदिन 30 दिनों के लिए कार्य करने पर 5kW पावर (शक्ति) का उपयोग करता है, को परिचालित करने (चलाने) के लिए ऊर्जा का मूल्य होगा [दिया गया है कि प्रति kW. ऊर्जा का प्रभार (खर्च) = ₹ 4]
(a) ₹ 600
(b) ₹ 6,000
(c) ₹ 1,200
(d) ₹ 1,500
Q. 91. चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है ?
(a) चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र एक राशि है जिस में दिशा और परिमाण होते हैं
(b) चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र रेखाएं संवृत वक्र (क्लोज्ड कर्व) होती हैं
(c) चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र रेखाएं खुला वक्र (ओपेन कर्व) होती हैं
(d) कोई भी दो चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र रेखाएं एक दूसरे को नहीं काटती हैं
Q. 92. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं
(a) बकिमिंस्टरफुलरीन कार्बन का एक अपरूप है
(b) हीरा विद्युत का एक अच्छा चालक है
(c) ग्रेफाइट विद्युत का एक अच्छा चालक है
(d) ग्रैफाइट में, प्रत्येक कार्बन परमाणु तीन अन्य कार्बन परमाणुओं से जुड़ा होता है
Q. 93. क्लोरोप्रोपेन अणु जिसका आण्विक सूत्र C3H7C1 है, में कितने सहसंयोजी आबंध होते है ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Q. 94. किसी तत्व का सर्वाधिक मौलिक अभिलक्षण, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा है ?
(a) गलनांक
(b) परमाणु क्रमांक
(c) रंग
(d) परमाणु भार
Q. 95. न्यूट्रान की खोज किसने की थी ?
(a) जैम्स चैडविक
(b) अर्नेस्ट रदरफोर्ड
(c) जे. जे. थॉमसन
(d) जॉन डॉल्टन
Q. 96. किसी तत्व की परमाणु संहति, निम्नलिखित में से किसकी संख्या के योग के बराबर होती है ?
(a) केवल इलेक्ट्रानों और प्रोटॉनों की संख्या
(b) केवल प्रोटॉनों और न्यूट्रानों की संख्या के
(c) केवल इलेक्ट्रानों और न्यूट्रानों की संख्या
(d) इलेक्ट्रानों, प्रोटॉनों और न्यूट्रानों की संख्या के
Q. 97. निम्नलिखित में से कौन से एक तत्व का समस्थानिक, कैंसर के उपचार में प्रयुक्त किया जाता है ?
(a) यूरेनियम
(b) कोबाल्ट
(c) सोडियम
(d) आयोडीन
Q. 98. एककोशिक जीवों की स्थिति में अतिरिक्त (आधिक्य) जल और अपशिष्टों को निष्कासित करने में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कोशिका अंगक एक भूमिका निभा सकता है ?
(a) लाइसोसोम
(b) धानी (वैक्युओल)
(c) गॉल्जी काय
(d) अंतर्द्रव्यी जालिका
Q. 99. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शब्द भूमि के एकही (उसी) टुकड़े पर एक साथ (एक ही समय में) दो अथवा अधिक फसलें उगाने की पद्धति को वर्णित करता है ?
(a) फसल चक्रण (क्रॉप रोटेशन)
(b) मिश्रित फसल (मिक्स्ड क्रॉपिंग)
(c) अंतर-फसल (इन्टरक्रॉपिंग)
(d) मिश्रित खेती (मिक्स्ड फार्मिंग)
Q. 100. विषाणुओं (वाइरस) पर प्रतिजैविकों (एंटीबायोटिक दवाओं) के प्रभावों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है ?
(a) वाइरस “अजीवित (निर्जीव)” अस्तित्व हैं, किन्तु ये प्रतिजीवाणुओं के साथ पारस्परिक क्रिया (अंतः क्रिया) कर सकते हैं
(b) ऐन्टिबायोटिक्स लेने से विषाणु संक्रमण का उपचार होता है
(c) वाइरस उपापचयी पथों से युक्त नहीं होते हैं जिन पर प्रतिजीवाणु कार्य कर सकते हैं, जबकि बैक्टीरिया में इस तरह के पथ होते हैं
(d) प्रतिजीवाणुओं के प्रति वाइरस प्रतिरोधी होते हैं
Q. 101. वर्ष 1914 में खोली गयी पनामा नहर, किसे जोड़ती है ?
(a) लाल सागर और भूमध्य सागर
(b) अटलांटिक महासागर और पैसिफिक महासागर
(c) हिन्द महासागर और पैसिफिक महासागर
(d) एड्रियाटिक सागर और काला सागर
Q. 102. संयुक्त राष्ट्र के 51 आरंभिक (मूल) सदस्यों द्वारा 1945 में, संयुक्त राष्ट्र चार्टर (यूनाइटेड नेशन्स चार्टर) कहां पर हस्ताक्षरित किया गया था ?
(a) हेग सम्मेलन
(b) लंदन सम्मेलन
(c) सैन फ्रांसिस्को सम्मेलन
(d) बर्लिन सम्मेलन
Q. 103. भारत में बनाये रखे गये भू-राजस्व अभिलेखों ने भूमि-प्रयोग को कितने वर्गों में बांटा है ?
(a) 6 वर्ग
(b) 9 वर्ग
(c) 15 वर्ग
(d) 21 वर्ग
Q. 104. भारत में शुष्क भूमि खेती मुख्यतः उन क्षेत्रों तक सीमित है, जहाँ वर्षा होती है –
(a) 100 cm से कम
(b) 85 cm से कम
(c) 80 cm से कम
(d) 75 cm से कम
Q. 105. सूखा संभावित श्रेणी से वर्जित होने के लिए, किसी क्षेत्र के सकल फसल क्षेत्र (सस्य क्षेत्र) का कितना प्रतिशत सिंचाई के अंतर्गत होना चाहिए ?
(a) 10 प्रतिशत या अधिक
(b) 20 प्रतिशत या अधिक
(c) 25 प्रतिशत या अधिक
(d) 30 प्रतिशत या अधिक
Q. 106. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक, प्रशांत महासागर की धारा नहीं है ?
(a) ओयाशियो धारा
(b) अलास्का धारा
(c) अगुलहास धारा
(d) कैलिफोर्निया धारा
Q. 107. भारत में मानसून की अवधि, औसतन कितने समय के लिये विस्तारित होती है ?
(a) 80 – 140 दिन
(b) 100 – 120 दिन
(c) 90 – 130 दिन
(d) 100 – 140 दिन
Q. 108. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, दक्षिण पूर्वी चीन की प्राकृतिक वनस्पति है ?
(a) उपोष्ण पृथुपर्णी सदापर्णी वन
(b) उष्ण कटिबंधीय पृथुपर्णी सदापर्णी वन
(c) उष्ण कटिबंधीय पर्णपाती वन
(d) शीतोष्ण सदापर्णी वन
Q. 109. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी एक, कोल्ड लोकल विन्ड (शीत स्थानीय पवन) है ?
(a) सेंटा ऐना
(b) चिनूक
(c) मिस्ट्रल
(d) लू
Q. 110. बंगाल में ग्रामीण समाज (रूरल सोसायटी) के चिरस्थायी बंदोबस्त (परमानेंट सेटलमेंट) का परिणाम (प्रभाव) क्या था ?
(a) ब्रिटिश योमन किसानों की तरह ही कृषि की उन्नति करने के लिए जमींदारों ने पूंजी लगायी और उद्यम किया
(b) धनी (संपन्न) किसानों के एक समूह ने जिसे जोतेदार कहा जाता था, गांवों में अपनी स्थिति को मजबूत बनाने में सफलता पायी
(c) रैयत (किसानों) पर निश्चित राजस्व लेवी (उगाही) लगाने के परिणामस्वरूप किसान समृद्ध (संपन्न) हुए
(d) जमींदारों पर निरीक्षणात्मक (पर्यवेक्षी) नियंत्रण लगाने के लिए कंपनी द्वारा आरंभ की गयी कलक्टरी (वसूली) की प्रणाली लोकप्रिय होने (बढ़ने) में असफल हो गयी
Q. 111. राजमहल क्षेत्र में दामिन-ई कोह क्या था ?
(a) भूमि का एक विशाल क्षेत्र जिसका सीमांकन किया गया था और जिसे सान्थालों की भावी (भविष्य) भूमि घोषित किया गया था
(b) पहारियाओं की भूमि जो विशेष रूप से धान की खेती के लिए थी
(c) ब्रिटिश इलाका (भूमि) जो उनके सैन्य (फौज) शिविर के लिए चिह्नित था
(d) निर्धारित किये गये किसानों को स्थापित करने के लिए अलग की गयी (तय की गयी) भूमि
Q. 112. सन 1857 के विद्रोह के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है ?
(a) यह राजाओं, नवाबों और तालुकदारों द्वारा सावधानीपूर्वक व्यवस्थित और नियोजित किया गया एक विद्रोह था
(b) इस विद्रोह के आरंभ होने (उभरने) और फैलने में अफवाहों और भविष्यवाणियों की कोई भूमिका नहीं थी
(c) 1857 में विद्रोही घोषणाओं द्वारा आबादी के सभी वर्गों से उनकी जाति और पंथ (धर्ममत) पर ध्यान दिए बिना, बारंबार अपील की गयी
(d) विद्रोहियों पर तेजी से और आसानी से नियंत्रण कर पाने में ब्रिटिश सफल रहे
Q. 113. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, पंचशील का सिद्धांत नहीं था ?
(a) शांतिपूर्ण सह-अस्तित्व
(b) क्षेत्रीय अखंडता के लिए पारस्परिक सम्मान
(c) नाभिकीय निवारण (परमाणु प्रतिरोध)
(d) आंतरिक मामलों में अहस्तक्षेप
Q. 114. निम्नलिखित में से किसने, 1904 में, क्रांतिकारियों की एक गुप्त सोसाइटी (संस्था) अभिनव भारत स्थापित की थी ?
(a) खुदीराम बोस
(b) श्यामजी कृष्ण वर्मा
(c) हर दयाल
(d) वी. डी. सावरकर
Q. 115. यह सिद्धांत कि स्वतंत्र भारत के लिये नये संविधान को तैयार करना मुख्यतः (यद्यपि अकेले नहीं) खुद (स्वयं) भारतीयों की जिम्मेवारी होनी चाहिए, पहली बार निम्नलिखित में से किस एक में स्वीकार किया गया था ?
(a) भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935
(गवर्नमेंट ऑफ इंडिया ऐक्ट, 1935)
(b) वाइसराय लिनलिथगो का अगस्त प्रस्ताव (ऑफर)
(c) क्रिप्स प्रस्ताव
(d) कैबिनेट मिशन
Q. 116. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, पूर्वी कनाडा में एक प्रमुख पर्यावरणीय मुद्दा है ?
(a) अम्ल अवक्षेपण (अम्ल वर्षण)
(b) भौम जल क्षीणता (रिक्तता)
(c) भूमि निम्नीकरण (अवकर्षण)
(d) मरूस्थलीकरण
Q. 117. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा पर्वत कैस्पियन सागर तथा काला सागर के बीच (मध्यस्थ) स्थित है ?
(a) काकेशस
(b) कार्पेथियन
(c) अपेनिन (एपनेइन)
(d) एलबर्ज (एल्ब्रुस)
Q. 118. निम्नलिखित में से किन नदियों पर बगलिहार, दुलहस्ती और सलाल जल विद्युत परियोजनाएं (हाइड्रो पावर प्रोजेक्ट) विकसित की गयी है ?
(a) चेनाब तथा झेलम
(b) चेनाब तथा सिन्धु
(c) रावी
(d) केवल चेनाब
Q. 119. जीवमण्डल रिजर्व (निचय) के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है ?
1. जीवमण्डल निचय के विचार की शुरूआत UNESCO द्वारा 1973-74 में की गई थी
2. भारत में 18 नामोद्दिष्ट जीवमण्डल निचय
3. भारत के सभी जीवमण्डल निचय UNESCO के जीवमण्डल निचय के विश्व नेटवर्क में शामिल किये गये हैं
नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) केवल 1 और 2
(d) 1, 2 और 3
Q. 120. निम्नलिखित में से कौन से देश की, समुद्र/ महासागर तक प्रत्यक्ष पहुँच (अभिगमन) नहीं है ?
(a) सीरिया
(b) जॉर्डन
(c) अज़रबैजान
(d) आर्मेनिया
Q. 121. एक तापदीप्त वैद्युत बल्ब में, बल्ब का तंतु किस धातु का बना होता है ?
(a) ऐलुमिनियम
(b) तांबा
(c) टंग्स्टेन
(d) चांदी (रजत)
Q. 122. दो समान प्रतिरोधक R समांतर क्रम में जुड़े हैं, तथा 12V की एक बैटरी इस संयोजन के परितः (आरपार) जुड़ी है । 100 mA की एक dc धारा इस परिपथ से होकर बहती है, जैसा कि नीचे दर्शाया गया है :
R का मान क्या है ?
(a) 120 Ω
(b) 240 Ω
(c) 60 Ω
(d) 100 Ω
Q. 123. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, ऊर्जा का मात्रक नहीं है ?
(a) जूल (Joule)
(b) वॉट-घंटा (Watt-hr)
(c) न्यूटन-मीटर (Newton-metre)
(d) कि.ग्रा.-मीटर/सेकेन्ड2 (kg-metrel sect)
Q. 124. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है ?
(a) जैव संहति (जैव मात्रा) ऊर्जा का एक नवीकरणीय स्रोत है
(b) गोबर गैस तब उत्पादित होती है जब गोबर, फसल अवशिष्ट, वानस्पतिक अपशिष्ट और गंदे पानी (मल जल) को ऑक्सीजन की अनुपस्थिति में अपघटित होने दिया जाता है
(c) बायोगैस (जैवगैस) का उत्पादन करने से मृदा एवं जल प्रदूषण कम होता है
(d) बायोगैस (जैव गैस) की तापन क्षमता बहुत कम होती है
Q. 125. प्रोकैरयोटिक जीवों में, नाभिकीय क्षेत्र एक झिल्ली द्वारा घिरा हुआ नहीं होता है । इस अपरिभाषित (अनिश्चित) नाभिकीय क्षेत्र को किस रूप में जाना जाता है ?
(a) न्यूक्लीक अम्ल
(b) केन्द्रकाभ (न्यूक्लिओइड)
(c) केन्द्रिक (न्यूक्लिओलस)
(d) केन्द्रिकाभ (न्यूक्लिओसोम)
Q. 126. निम्नलिखित में से कौन से पादप ऊतकों में मृत कोशिकाएं होती हैं ?
(a) बाह्यत्वचा (अधिचर्म)
(b) मृदूतक (पैरेन्काइमा)
(c) कॉलेन्काइमा (श्लेषोतक)
(d) दृढ़ोतक
Q. 127. उपास्थि (कार्टलिज), निम्नलिखित में से किस में नहीं पाया जाता है ?
(a) कंठ (लेरिंगक्स)
(b) नासिका (नाक)
(c) कान (कर्ण)
(d) मूत्राशय
Q. 128. दो उपग्रह वृत्तीय कक्षों (ग्रहपथों) में सूर्य की परिक्रमा करते हैं, जहाँ उनके कक्ष की त्रिज्याएं R1 = R और R2 = 4R के रूप में हैं । सूर्य के चारों ओर उनके आवर्तकालों (कालांक) का अनुपात (T1/T2) होगा
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
Q. 129. एक धात्विक तार जिसका प्रतिरोध 20Ω है, को लम्बाई में दो बराबर हिस्सों में काटा गया है । तत्पश्चात इन हिस्सों को समांतर में जोड़ा गया है । इस समान्तर (समानान्तर) संयोजन का प्रतिरोध किसके बराबर है ?
(a) 20Ω
(b) 10Ω
(c) 5Ω
(d) 15Ω
Q. 130. एक समान तीव्रता का प्रकाश किसी पूर्णतया परावर्तक सतह पर लम्बवत गिरता है । यदि सतह का क्षेत्रफल आधा कर दिया जाय, तो इस पर विकिरण बल हो जाएगा
(a) दोगुना
(b) आधा
(c) चार गुना
(d) एक चौथाई
Q. 131. मानव नेत्र का वह भाग जिस पर प्रतिबिम्ब बनता है, क्या कहलाता है ?
(a) पुतली
(b) कॉर्निया
(c) रेटिना
(d) आइरिस
Q. 132. नीचे दिए गए चित्र पर विचार कीजिए :
एक प्रोटॉन किसी चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र में इसके लम्बवत (समकोण पर) प्रवेश करता है, जैसा कि ऊपर दर्शाया गया है। प्रोटॉन पर कार्य करने वाले बल की दिशा होगी
(a) दायीं तरफ
(b) बायीं तरफ
(c) पृष्ठ के बाहर
(d) पृष्ठ के अन्दर
Q. 133. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक कथन, ध्वनि के बारे में सही नहीं है ?
(a) प्रकाश की चाल की तुलना में ध्वनि धीमी चाल से आगे बढ़ती है
(b) ध्वनि तरंगें अनुप्रस्थ तरंगें हैं
(c) ध्वनि तरंगें अनुदैर्घ्य तरंगें हैं
(d) शुष्क वायु की तुलना में आर्द्र (नमीयुक्त) वायु में ध्वनि तीव्रता से चलती है
Q. 134. जब लघु पथ (शार्ट सर्किट) की दशा घटित होती है, परिपथ में धारा –
(a) शून्य हो जाती है
(b) स्थिर बनी रहती है
(c) पर्याप्त रूप से बढ़ती है
(d) यादृच्छिक रूप से परिवर्तित होती रहती
Q. 135. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, मानव नर प्रजनन तंत्र का घटक नहीं है ?
(a) गर्भाशय (सर्विक्स)
(b) मूत्रमार्ग (युअरीथ्र)
(c) शुक्राशय (सेमनल वेसिकल)
(d) शुक्रवाहक (बैस डेफरेन्ज़)
Q. 136. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, जैवविविधता में कमी होने का कारण नहीं है ?
(a) बड़े पैमाने पर वन कटाई (निर्वनीकरण)
(b) वन उपज का दोहन
(c) पवित्र उपवनों का रखरखाव
(d) वन क्षेत्रों में अतिक्रमण (दखलंदाजी)
Q. 137. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, भूजल में कमी का कारण नहीं है ?
(a) वनरोपण
(b) वनों की हानि
(c) भूजल को अत्यधिक मात्रा में निकालना
(d) बड़े पैमाने पर कंक्रीट भवनों का निर्माण
Q. 138. निम्नलिखित में से कौन से प्रकार के विकिरण की तरंगदैर्ध्य सबसे छोटी (लघुतम) होती है ?
(a) सूक्ष्म तरंग (माइक्रोवेव)
(b) अवरक्त (इन्फ्ररेड)
(c) दृश्य प्रकाश
(d) ऐक्स-किरण
Q. 139. किसी परिपथ में विद्युत धारा की उपस्थिति का पता लगाने के लिए प्रयुक्त किया जाने वाला उपकरण है ?
(a) अपवर्तनांकमापी
(b) गैल्वनोमीटर
(c) श्यानतामापी (विस्कासितामापी)
(d) विवर्तनमापी
Q. 140. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक, बायोगैस का सबसे बड़ा घटक (कंपोजिशन) है ?
(a) कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
(b) मेथेन (मीथेन)
(c) हाइड्रोजन
(d) हाइड्रोजन सल्फाइड
Q. 141. सूर्योदय और सूर्यास्त के समय में सूर्य लाल (रक्ताभ) दिखाई देता है । प्रकाशिकी में, यह घटना जो सूर्य के इस तरह से दिखाई देने के लिए जिम्मेवार है, क्या कहलाती है ?
(a) परावर्तन
(b) पूर्ण आंतरिक परावर्तन
(c) प्रकीर्णन
(d) व्यतिकरण
Q. 142. एक लेंस की क्षमता +2.0 डायोप्टर है।
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन लेंस के बारे में सही है ?
(a) लेंस अवतल है और उसकी फोकस दूरी 0.5 मीटर है
(b) लेंस उत्तल है और उसकी फोकस दूरी 2.0 मीटर है
(c) लेंस उत्तल है और उसकी फोकस दूरी 0.5 मीटर है
(d) लेंस अवतल है और उसकी फोकस दूरी 2.0 मीटर है
Q. 143. लगभग 70°C पर सोडियम बाइ-कार्बोनेट क्रमिक अपघटन (वियोजन) का गुण प्रदर्शित करता है, जो इसे बेकरी उत्पादों के लिए उपयोगी बनाता है। सोडियम बाइ-कार्बोनेट के इस उपयोग के लिए जिम्मेवार अपघटन उत्पाद है
(a) कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
(b) हाइड्रोजन
(c) जल वाष्प
(d) ऑक्सीजन
Q. 144. कॉपर सल्फेट, सोडियम कार्बोनेट और जिप्सम में, क्रिस्टलन-जल के अणुओं की संख्या है
(a) क्रमशः 5, 10 और 2
(b) क्रमशः 10, 2 और 5
(c) क्रमशः 5, 2 और 10
(d) क्रमशः 2, 5 और 10
Q. 145. जब सफेद कपड़े पर लगे हल्दी के धब्बे को साबुन से रगड़ कर पानी से धोया जाता है, तो रंगों के बदलने का सही अनुक्रम निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा होता है ?
(a) पीला – गुलाबी – नीला
(b) पीला – लालभूरा – पीला
(c) पीला – लालभूरा – नीला
(d) पीला – नीला – गुलाबी
Q. 146. विरंजक चूर्ण और DDT के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है ?
(a) दोनों अकार्बनिक यौगिक हैं
(b) दोनों कार्बनिक यौगिक हैं
(c) दोनों में क्लोरीन होती है
(d) दोनों में कैल्सियम होता है
Q. 147. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा, जल शुष्कक का सबसे बढ़िया उदाहरण है ?
(a) सिलिका जेल
(b) पॉलिस्टाइरीन
(c) सोडियम क्लोराइड
(d) सोडियम कार्बोनेट
Q. 148. निम्नलिखित में से कौन से खनिज अम्ल की खोज सबसे पहले हुयी थी ?
(a) सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल
(b) हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल
(c) नाइट्रिक अम्ल
(d) फॉस्फोरिक अम्ल
Q. 149. संगलित स्फटिक (क्वार्टज़) का अपवर्तनांक 1-46 तथा नीलम का अपवर्तनांक 1.77 है। यदि क्वार्टज़ में प्रकाश की चाल vq है और नीलम में प्रकाश की चाल vq है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक संबंध सही है ?
(a) vq > vs
(b) vs > vq
(c) vs = vq
(d) v. = vq/2
Q. 150. एक अवतल दर्पण की स्थिति में, यदि किसी वस्तु को दर्पण के मुख्य फोकस F और ध्रुव P के बीच में रखा गया है, तो प्रतिबिम्ब के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा एक कथन सही नहीं है ?
(a) प्रतिबिम्ब आभासी होगा
(b) प्रतिबिम्ब बढ़ा हुआ अथवा आवर्धित होगा
(c) प्रतिबिम्ब अनन्त पर बनेगा
(d) प्रतिबिम्ब सीधा होगा
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Q.1 The expenditure on the project _____ as follows: equipment Rs.20 lakhs, salaries Rs.12 
which 
where is
is 
equal to ?
equal to ?
is equally inclined to both x and y axes. If the magnitude of the vector is 2 units, then what are the values of a and b respectively ?
where 
:
and 
are two vectors such that |
are coplanar, then what is (2
. The time (in second) taken by the particle to traverse a distance of 24 m is.
equal to ?
equal to 
