CAT 2014

Q. 1 If ABCD is a square and BCE is an equilateral triangle, what is the measure of ∠DEC?

A. 15°

B. 30°

C. 20°

D. 45°

Q. 2 Instead of a meter scale, a cloth merchant uses a 120 cm scale while buying, but uses an 80 cm scale while selling the same cloth. What is his overall profit percentage?

A. 50%

B. 25%

C. 40%

D. 15%

Q. 3 From a circular sheet of paper with a radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the ratio of the uncut to the cut portion?

A. 1 : 3

B. 4 : 1

C. 3 : 1

D. 4 : 3

Q. 4 The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four pieces with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got Rs. 70,000 less. Find the original price of the diamond.

A. Rs. 1.4 lakh

B. Rs. 2 lakh

C. Rs. 1 lakh

D. Rs. 2.1 lakh

Q. 5 The question is followed by two statements, I and II.

If x, y and z are real numbers, is z – x even or odd?

I. xyz is odd.

II. xy + yz + zx is even.

Mark the answer as.

A. if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

B. if the question can be answered with the help of statement II, alone.

C. if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.

D. if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

Questions: 6 – 9

Answer the questions based on following data.

The pages of a book are numbered 0, 1, 2 … upto M, M>0. There are four categories of instructions that direct a person in positioning the book at a page. The instruction types and their meanings are :

1. NEW : Position the book at page No. 1

2. END : Position the book at page No. 0

3. ONWARD, n :From the current page move forward by n pages; if, in this process, page number M is reached, stop at M.

4. REGRESS, n : From the current page, move backward by n pages; if in this process, page number 0 is reached, stop at page number 0.

In each of the following questions, you will find a sequence of instructions formed from the above categories. In each case, let n1 be the page number before the instructions are executed and n2 be the page number at which the book is positioned after the instructions are executed.

Q. 6 ONWARD, 25 ; REGRESS, 10. which of the following statements is true?

A. n1=n2 if M=10 and n1=0

B. M=20 provided n1>0

C. n1>30 provided M=900

D. n1=37 provided M=25

Q. 7 REGRESS, 5; ONWARD, 5. Which of the following statements is true about the above set of instructions?

A. n1=n2 provided n1 ≥ 5

B. n1=n2 provided n1>0

C. n2=5 provided M>0

D. n1>n2 provided M>0

Q. 8 ONWARD, 10; ONWARD, 10. Which of the following statements about the above instructions is true?

A. n2-n1=20 only if n1=0

B. n2-n1=20 if M>20 and n1=1

C. n2-n1=10 if M=21 and n1=0

D. n2>n1 if M>0

Q. 9 ONWARD, 5; REGRESS, 4. Which of the following statements about the above instructions is true?

A. n2=n1+4 Provided 1<n1<7

B. n2=n1 provided M<6

C. n2=n1+1 provided M-n1>5

D. n2-n1< 0 provided M>0

Q. 10 A circle is inscribed in a given square and another circle is circumscribed about the square. What is the ratio of the area of the inscribed circle to that of the circumscribed circle?

A. 2 : 3

B. 3 : 4

C. 1 : 4

D. 1 : 2

Q. 11 If y = f(x) and f(x) = (1-x) / (1 + x), which of the following is true?

A. f(2x) = f(x) – 1

B. x = f(2y)-1

C. f(1/x) = f(x)

D. x = f(y)

Questions: 12 – 15

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The HR Manager of the IT company recently scanned employees training results of various exams into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Navdeep’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are Vipul obtained the same grade in C Language as Amanpreet obtained in Java and

Analysis. Fazal obtained the same grade in Analysis as Utkarsh did in C Language.

Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

Q. 12 What grade did Preeti obtain in Testing?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 13 In Project Management, Tara could have received the same grade as

A. Ismet

B. Hari

C. Jagdeep

D. Manab

Q. 14 In Analysis, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtained by

A. Fazal

B. Hari

C. Navdeep

D. Rahul

Q. 15 What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Java?

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. F

Questions: 16 – 18

Answer the questions based on following data.

A dealer deals only in colour TVs and VCRs. He wants to spend up to Rs.12 lakhs to buy 100 pieces. He can purchase a colour TV at Rs.10,000 and a VCR at Rs.15,000. He can sell a colour TV at Rs.12,000 and a VCR at Rs.17,500. His objective is to maximize profits. Assume that he can sell all the items that he stocks.

Q. 16 For the maximum profit, the number of colour TVs and VCRs that he should respectively stock are

A. 80, 20

B. 20, 80

C. 60, 40

D. None of these

Q. 17 If the dealer would have managed to get an additional space to stock 20 more items, then for maximizing profit, the ratio of number of VCRs and number of TVs that he should stock is

A. 7 : 3

B. 0

C. 1 : 2

D. None of these

Q. 18 The maximum profit, in rupees lakh, the dealer can earn from his original stock if he can sell a colour TV at Rs. 12200 and VCR at Rs.18300 is

A. 2.64

B. 2.49

C. 2.72

D. 2.87

Questions: 19 – 22

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The data points in the figure below represent monthly income and expenditure data of individual members following families. For these questions, savings is defined as

Savings = Income – Expenditure

Q. 19 Which family has the lowest average income?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet

Q. 20 Which family has the highest average expenditure?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet

Q. 21 Which family has the lowest average savings?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet

Q. 22 The highest amount of savings accrues to a member of which family?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet

Q. 23 In a Tennis Open tournament 71 persons have signed up for elimination rounds. All players are to be paired up for the first round, but because 71 is an odd number one player gets a bye, which promotes him to the second round, without actually playing in the first round. The pairing continues on the next round, with a bye to any player left over. If the schedule is planned so that a minimum number of matches are required to determine the champion, the number of matches which must be played is

A. 71

B. 70

C. 69

D. 36

Q. 24 There are ten 50 paise coins placed on a table. Six of these show tails four show heads. A coin is chosen at random and flipped over (not tossed). This operation is performed seven times. One of the coins is then covered. Of the remaining nine coins, five show tails and four show heads. The covered coin shows

A. a head

B. a tail

C. more likely a head

D. more likely a tail

Q. 25 From each of the two given numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted. Of the resulting numbers the larger one is three times as large as the smaller. What is the ratio of the two numbers?

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 1

C. 3 : 2

D. None

Q. 26 Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on their bases so that each is touching the other two. The radius of the circle drawn through their vertices is

A. smaller than r.

B. equal to r

C. larger than r

D. depends on the height of the cones.

Q. 27 The line AB is 6 metres in length and is tangent to the inner one of the

two concentric circles at point C. It is known that the radii of the two circles are integers.

The radius of the outer circle is

A. 5 meters

B. 4 meters

C. 6 meters

D. 3 meters

Questions: 28 – 31

Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2012 to year 2016) to produce a particular product:

The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2016 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2016 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2017, answer the following questions.

Q. 28 What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2017?

A. 104

B. 107

C. 110

D. 114

Q. 29 What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?

A. 313

B. 350

C. 384

D. 747

Q. 30 If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?

A. 1400

B. 1600

C. 1800

D. 2000 2000

Q. 31 Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?

A. 25400

B. 24400

C. 31400

D. 32900

Questions: 32 – 33

Use the following information for next two questions: A function f(x) is said to be even if f(-x)=f(x), and odd if f(-x) = -f(x). Thus, for example, the function given by f(x) = x2 is even, while the function given by f(x) = x3 is odd. Using this definition,

answer the following questions.

Q. 32 The function given by f(x) = |x|³

A. even

B. odd

C. neither

D. both

Q. 33 The sum of two odd functions

A. is always an even function

B. is always an odd function

C. is sometimes odd and sometimes even

D. may be neither odd nor even

Q. 34 A five digit number is formed using digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repeating any one of them. What is the sum of all such possible numbers?

A. 6666600

B. 6666660

C. 6666666

D. None

Q. 35 A box contains 6 red balls, 7 green balls and 5 blue balls. Each ball is of a different size. The probability that the red ball selected is the smallest red ball, is

A. 1/18

B. 1/3

C. 1/6

D. 2/3

Q. 36 ABC forms an equilateral triangle in which B is 2 km from A. A person starts walking from B in a direction parallel to AC and stops when he reaches a point D directly east of C. He, then, reverses direction and walks till he reaches a point E directly south of C. Then D is

A. 3 km east and 1 km north of A

B. 3 km east and 3 km north of A

C. 3 km east and 1 km south of A

D. 3 km west and 3 km north of A

Q. 37 A lead cuboid of 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 2 inches thick was melted and resolidified into the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in inches, is nearest to

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5

Questions: 38 – 41

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information from an airline about their passengers (pax) in particular sectors is given below:

The proportion of males and the proportion of vegetarian pax are given below. The airline has a total of 800 passengers, 80% of whom are in the Mumbai – Delhi sector and rest are equally divided between Mumbai – Hyderabad and Mumbai – Bangalore.

Q. 38 What is the percentage of male pax in the Mumbai – Delhi sector?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 39 In Mumbai – Bangalore, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?

A. less than 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 40 What is the percentage of vegetarian pax in Mumbai – Bangalore?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 41 What is the percentage of vegetarian pax in Mumbai – Bangalore? 40 45 50 60 41. In the Mumbai – Delhi sector, 50% of the pax are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of pax.

B. Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of pax.

C. Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of pax.

D. None of these.

Questions: 42 – 43

Use the following information: Eighty five people went to a lottery shop where they could bet on the DhanLaksmi, Rajshri, and Gauri lotteries. It was known that 20 of them took all three ets, and 55 of them took at least two of the three bets. Each bet cost Re. 1, and the total receipt of the lottery shop was Rs. 145.

Q. 42 How many people did not try any of the bets?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 43 How many people took exactly one bet?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 44 John bought five toffees and ten chocolates together for forty rupees. Subsequently, he returned one toffee and got two chocolates in exchange. The price of an chocolate would be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 45 Let aᵥ₊₁= 2 aᵥ + 1 (ᵥ = 0,1,2,….) and a₀ = 0 . Then v₁₀ nearest to

A. 1023

B. 2047

C. 4095

D. 8195

Q. 46 Suppose you have a currency, named Rubble, in three denominations: 1 Rubble, 10 Rubbles and 50 Rubbles. In how many ways can you pay a bill of 95 Rubbles?

A. 15

B. 16

C. 18

D. 19

Q. 47 Consider four-digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and the last two digits are also equal. How many such numbers are perfect squares?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 48 The price of Coffee (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 100), and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of coffee and tea be equal?

A. May 21

B. April 11

C. May 20

D. April 10

Q. 49 Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?

A. Between 0 and 90

B. Between 0 and 30

C. Between 0 and 60

D. Between 0 and 75

Q. 50 A quadratic function ƒ(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value ƒ(x) at x = 10?

A. –119

B. –159

C. –110

D. –180

Questions: 51 – 54

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

More selective than most chemical pesticides in that they ordinarily destroy only unwanted species, biocontrol. agents (such as insects, fungi, and viruses) eat, infect, or parasitize targeted plant or animal pests. However, biocontrol agents can negatively affect nontarget species by, for example, competing with them for resources: a biocontrol agent might reduce the benefits conferred by a desirable animal species by consuming a plant on which the animal prefers to lay its eggs. Another example of indirect negative consequcnces occurred in England when a virus introduced to control rabbits reduced the amount of open ground (because large rabbit populations reduce the ground cover), in turn reducing underground ant nests and triggering the extinction of a blue butterfly that had depended on the nests to shelter its offspring. The paucity of known extinctions or disruptions resulting from indirect interactions may reflect not the infrequency of such mishaps but rather the failure to look for or to detect them: most organisms likely to be adversely affected by indirect interactions are of little or no known commercial value and the events linking a biocontrol agent with an adverse effect are often unclear. Moreover, determining the potential risks of biocontrol agents before they are used is difficult, especially when a nonnative agent is introduced, because, unlike a chemical pesticide, a biocontrol agent may adapt in unpredictable ways. so that it can feed on or otherwise harm new hosts.

Q. 51The passage is primarily concerned with

A. explaining why until recently scientists failed to recognize the risks presented by biocontrol agents.

B. emphasizing that biocontrol agents and chemical pesticides have more similarties than differences.

C. suggesting that only certain biocontrol agents should be used to control plant or animal pasts.

D. arguing that biocontrol agents involve risks, some of which may not be readily discerned.

Q. 52 The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the use of biocontrol agents?

A. Biocontrol agent should be used only in cases where chemical pesticides have proven ineffective or overly dangerous.

B. Extinctions and disruptions resulting from the use of biocontrol agents are likely to have increasingly severe commercial consequences.

C. The use of biocontrol agents does not require regulation as stringent as that required by the use of chemical pesticides.

D. The risks of using native biocontrol agents may be easier to predict than the risks of using nonnative biocontrol agents.

Q. 53 Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as an indirect effect of using a biocontrol agent?

A. Reduction of the commercial value of a desirable animal species

B. An unintended proliferation of a nontarget animal species

C. An unforeseen mutation in a target species

D. Diminution of the positive effects conferred by a nontarget animal species.

Q. 54 The example presented by the author in highlight text most clearly serves to illustrate

A. a situation in which a species is less vulnerable to biocontrol agents than it would have been to chemical pesticides.

B. a way in which the introduction of a biocontrol agent can affect a nontarget species.

C. a nonnative agent’s adapting in an unpredictable way that results in damage to a new host.

D. The contention that biocontrol agents can harm nontarget species by competing with them for resources

Q. 55 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. Buddhism is a way to salvation.

A. But Buddhism is more severely analytical.

B. In the Christian tradition there is also a concern for the fate of human society conceived as a whole, rather than merely as a sum or network of individuals.

C. Salvation is a property, or achievement of individuals.

D. Not only does it dissolve society into individuals, the individual in turn is dissolved into component parts and instants, a stream of events.

6. In modern terminology, Buddhist doctrine is reductionist.

A. ABDC

B. CBAD

C. BDAC

D. ABCD

Q. 56 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. The problem of improving Indian agriculture is both a sociological and an administrative one.

A. It also appears that there is a direct relationship between the size of a state and development.

B. The issues of Indian development, and the problem of India’s agricultural sector, will remain with us long into the next century.

C. Without improving Indian agriculture, no liberalisation and delicensing will be able to help India.

D. At the end of the day, there has to be a ferment and movement of life and action in the vast segment of rural India.

6. When it starts marching, India will fly.

A. DABC

B. CDBA

C. ACDB

D. ABCD

Questions: 57 – 58

Hidden Island is an obscure island which is inhabited by two types of people: the ‘Yes‘ type and the ‘No‘ type. Native of type ‘Yes‘ ask only questions the right answer to which is ‘Yes‘ while those of type ‘No‘ ask only questions the right answer to which is ‘No’. For ex., The ‘Yes‘ type will ask questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to 4?” while the ‘No‘ type will ask questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to five?” The following questions are based on your visit to the Hidden Island.

Q. 57 If an islander asks, “Do I belong to the ‘No‘ type, which of the following is correct?

A. He is a ‘No‘.

B. He is a ‘Yes‘.

C. It is impossible for him to have asked such a question.

D. His type cannot be identified.

Q. 58 Aman and Mohan are brothers from the Island. Mohan asks you, “Is at least one of us brothers of type ‘No’”? You can conclude that

A. Aman is ‘NO‘, Mohan is ‘Yes‘

B. both are ‘Yes‘.

C. Aman is ‘Yes‘, Mohan is ‘No‘.

D. both are ‘No‘.

Q. 59 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. Good literary magazines have always been good because of their editors.

A. Furthermore, to edit by committee, as it were, would prevent any magazine from finding its own identity.

B. The more quirky and idiosyncratic they have been, the better the magazine is, at least as a general rule.

C. But the number of editors one can have for a magazine should also be determined by the number of contributions to it.

D. To have four editors for an issue that contains only seven contributions, it is a bit silly to start with.

6. However, in spite of this anomaly, the magazine does acquire merit in its attempt to give a comprehensive view of the Indian literary scene as it is today.

A. ABCD

B. BCDA

C. ABDC

D. CBAD

Questions: 60 – 63

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below: Following questions are about 6 project reports of different heights from 6 different students and of 6 different colors displayed on a cupboard.

(i) There are three Project Reports on each side of the aisle.

(ii) These six Project Reports are labeled as Piyush, Qadar, Richa, Sandesh, Tanvi and Urvashi.

(iii) The Project Reports are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The Project Reports are of different heights.

(v) Tanvi, the tallest Project Report, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured Project Report.

(vi) The shortest Project Report is exactly opposite to the Green coloured Project Report.

(vii) Urvsahi, the Orange coloured Project Report, is located between Piyush and Sandesh.

(viii) Richa, the Yellow coloured Project Report, is exactly opposite to Piyush.

(ix) Qadar, the Green coloured Project Report, is exactly opposite to Urvashi.

(x) Piyush, the White coloured Project Report, is taller than Richa, but shorter than Sandesh and Qadar.

Q. 60 What is the colour of the Project Report diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured Project Report?

A. White

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Red

E. none of these

Q. 61 Which is the second tallest Project Report?

A. Piyush

B. Sandesh

C. Qadar

D. Richa

E. Can’t determine

Q. 62 What is the colour of the tallest Project Report?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Green

D. none of these

Q. 63 What is the color of the report named Richa?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Yellow

Q. 64 In the following question, a part of a sentence is left blank. Choose from among the four options given below the question, the one which would best fill the blanks.

When we call others dogmatic, what we really object to is ___.

A. their giving the dog a bad name

B. their holding beliefs that are different from our own

C. the extremism that goes along with it

D. the subversion of whatever they actually believe in concomitantly

Q. 65 Science, because people engage in it, is a socially embedded activity. It progresses by hunch, vision, and intuition. Much of its change through time does not record a closer approach to absolute truth, but the alternation of the cultural contexts that influence it so strongly. Facts are not pure and unsullied bits of information— culture influences what we see and how we see it. Theories, moreover, are not inexorable inductions from facts. The most creative theories are often imaginative visions imposed upon facts; the source of imagination is also strongly cultural. The author implies that those who rely on scientific results should

A. realize that science relies on imagination to approach absolute truth

B. insist on pure and unsullied facts rather than on theories

C. understand that theories are frequently strict inductions from facts

D. consider the cultural biases of scientists

Q. 66 Baking for winter holidays is tradition that may have a sound medical basis. In midwinter, when days are short, many people suffer from a specific type of seasonal depression caused by lack of sunlight. Carbohydrates, both sugars and starches, boost the brain‘s levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that improve the mood. In this respect, carbohydrates act on the brain in the same way as some antidepressants. Thus, eating holiday cookies may provide an effective form of self-prescribed medication. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

A. Seasonal depression is one of the most easily treated forms of depression.

B. Lack of sunlight lowers the level of serotonin in the brain.

C. People are more likely to be depressed in midwinter than at other times of the year.

D. Some antidepressants act by changing the brain‘s level of serotonin.

Questions: 67 – 70

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

When views can freely flourish in the marketplace of ideas, individuals are afforded the advantage of deciding what notions and concepts to question, support or reject. On June 8, 1789, James Madison introduced in the House of Representatives an amendment to the Constitution: ―The people shall not be deprived or abridged of their right to speak, to write, or to publish their sentiments; and the freedom of the press, as one of the great bulwarks of liberty, shall be inviolable.ǁ This commitment to a free press is a principle Americans hold firmly, because they view it as a necessary ingredient for a properly functioning political process and a critical component of a free society. Yet, since the time of America‘s founding, the politicized nature of the press has not fundamentally changed.

While conservatives and liberals alike claim that today‘s mainstream media is biased, opinionated, and devoid of objectivity and balanced analysis, American newspapers at the time of this nation‘s birth were all partisan, believing that their responsibility was not to report news, but to convey, without apology, a particular political position. Perhaps the high point of partisan newspapers was in New York during the 1920‘s, when the city had over a dozen daily papers, each geared toward a particular ethnic and political niche; people selected the paper that made the most sense of the world to them. Despite the naysayers who warn that the lack of objectivity and fair-mindedness is corrosive to society, partisan journalism can be good journalism. It produces plenty of excellent reporting and analysis and is the norm in many nations. Two centuries ago, newspapers subsidized by Andrew Jackson’s Democrats and Henry Clay’s Whigs were dependable supporters of their parties. Today‘s newspapers claim that they too are only giving their readership what it wants. Legally, the Supreme Court has tried since 1919 to clarify how free the press is. Over time, older laws that allowed publications to be punished for libel, obscenity, sedition, and publishing inflammatory material have given way to more expansive rights to publish. The First Amendment protections offered to journalists have evolved to a broader interpretation of freedom of the press. During the 1960‘s and 1970‘s, journalists exposed the government‘s mismanagement of the Vietnam War, and their investigative reporting eventually brought about the resignation of President Nixon. By the end of the twentieth century, the Constitution‘s protections were broadly held to cover the content of all papers, from the highly regarded New York Times to tabloids such as The National Enquirer.

Q. 67 According to the author, which of the following is true about partisan journalism throughout American history?

A. It has had a limited impact on the political process.

B. Its lack of objectivity is detrimental.

C. It has played an important role in reliably informing individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds.

D. It has essentially been the status quo since America‘s founding.

Q. 68 Which of the following statements about American newspapers is supported by information contained in the passage?

A. America‘s newspapers in 1789 resembled those of today in form and content.

B. The character of the press has matured since the time of America‘s founding.

C. In recent years, the press has become biased in regard to its political reporting.

D. Early American journalists did not necessarily provide a balanced analysis of events.

Q. 69 The author of the passage would disagree with which of the following statements?

A. The legal understanding of press freedoms has shifted over time.

B. Over time, the First Amendment protections offered to the press have become absolute.

C. America‘s legal evolution has given way to a more liberal understanding of press freedom.

D. First Amendment press rights today protect a broad section of the newspaper industry.

Q. 70 All of the following are examples of limitations the courts have placed on freedom of the press,

EXCEPT

A. articles deemed maliciously defamatory of individuals

B. articles viewed as offensive to society‘s views of decency

C. articles that comment negatively on a political affiliation

D. articles clearly dangerous to national security

Q. 71 Street crime can be averted through regulations mandating the lighting of streetlights during daytime. As daytime visibility is worse in nations farther from the equator, so obviously such regulations would be more successful in averting crime there. Actually, the only nations that have adopted such regulations are farther from the equator than the continental United States. Which of the following conclusions could be most properly drawn from the information given above?

A. Bystanders in the continental United States who were near lit streetlights during the day would be just as likely to become victims of a crime as would bystanders who were not near lit streetlights.

B. Inadequate daytime visibility is the single most important factor in street crime in numerous nations that are located farther from the equator than is the continental United States.

C. In nations that have daytime streetlight regulations, the percentage of street crime that happens in the daytime is greater than in the continental United States.

D. Daytime streetlight regulations would probably do less to avert street crime in the continental United States than they do in the nations that have the regulations.

Q. 72 During the construction of the Quebec Bridge in 1907, the bridge’s designer, Theodore Cooper, received word that the suspended span being built out from the bridge’s cantilever was deflecting downward by a fraction of an inch (2.54 centimeters). Before he could telegraph to freeze the project, the whole cantilever arm broke off and plunged, along with seven dozen workers, into the St. Lawrence River. It was the worst bridge construction disaster in history. As a direct result of the inquiry that followed, the engineering “rules of thumb” by which thousands of bridges had been built around the world went down with the Quebec Bridge. Twentieth-century bridge engineers would thereafter depend on far more rigorous applications of mathematical analysis. Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?

A. Prior to 1907 the mathematical analysis incorporated in engineering rules of thumb was insufficient to completely assure the safety of bridges under construction.

B. Cooper’s absence from the Quebec Bridge construction site resulted in the breaking off of the cantilever.

C. Nineteenth-century bridge engineers relied on their rules of thumb because analytical methods were inadequate to solve their design problems.

D. Only a more rigorous application of mathematical analysis to the design of the Quebec Bridge could have prevented its collapse.

Q. 73 Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

There are many and good reasons why women have left little in the way of literary monuments, especially poetry. The main reason is education, or more specifically the lack of it in most women‘s lives until well into the twentieth century. In the light of this, what is surprising is not that so few women wrote poetry, but that any women wrote poetry at all. When a woman who had never been to grammar school, never learnt Latin and did not know the rules of syntax, let alone of prosody, set herself to writing lines that rhymed, she was imitating an art that, admire it though she might, she did not understand — a male art, a male tradition. This meant she generally produced poetry that was at best imperfect, at worst, frankly bad.

A. The reason why women haven‘t created literary monuments is because until recently they were not educated. In this case, the only option for an uneducated woman was to plagiarize in order to show herself as superior.

B. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. In the absence of the knowledge of basics, she would see the male creations as ‘ideal‘ and try to copy them.

C. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. Feeling inferior to educated men, they would imitate them in every area including literature.

D. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. It suited men well since in such a scenario the women had no choice but to imitate the men.

Questions: 74 – 77

Recently, Rajesh visited the local casino where he came across a new card game. Two players, using a normal deck of 52 playing cards, play this game. One player is called the ‘dealer‘ and the other is called the ‘player‘. First, the player picks a card at random from the deck. This is called the base card. The amount in rupees equal to the face value of the base card is called the base amount. The face values of ace, king, queen and jack are ten. For other cards the face value is the number on the card. Once the ‘player‘ picks a card from the deck, the ‘dealer‘ pays him the base amount. Then the ‘dealer‘ picks a card from the deck and this card is called the top card. If the top card is of the same suit as the base card, the ‘player‘ pays twice the base amount to the ‘dealer‘. If the top card is of the same colour as the base card (but not the same suit), then the ‘player‘ pays the base amount to the ‘dealer‘. If the top card happens to be of a different colour than the base card, the ‘dealer‘ pays the base amount to the ‘player‘. Rajesh played the game four times. First time he picked eight of clubs and the ‘dealer‘ picked queen of clubs. Second time, he picked ten of hearts and the ‘dealer‘ picked two of spades. Next time, Rajesh picked six of diamonds and the ‘dealer‘ picked ace of hearts. Lastly, he picked eight of spades and the ‘dealer‘ picked jack of spades. Answer the following questions based on these four games.

Q. 74 If Rajesh stopped playing the game when his gain would be maximized, the gain in Rs. Would have been

A. 12

B. 20

C. 16

D. 4

Q. 75 The initial money Rajesh had (before the beginning of the game sessions) was Rs. X. At no point did he have to borrow any money. What is the minimum possible value of X?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 100

D. 24

Q. 76 If the final amount of money that Rajesh had with him was Rs. 100, what was the initial amount he had with him?

A. 120

B. 8

C. 4

D. 96

Q. 77 If Rajesh stopped playing the game when his loss would be maximumm, the loss in Rs. Would have been

A. -12

B. -20

C. -8

D. -4

Questions: 78 – 80

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

The communities of ants are sometimes very large, numbering even up to 500, individuals: and it is a lesson to us that no one has ever yet seen quarrel between any two ants belonging to the same community. On the other hand, it must be admitted that they are in hostility not only with most other insects, including ants of different species, but even with those of the same species if belonging to different communities. I have over and over again introduced ants from one of my nests into another nest of the same species; and they were invariably attacked, seized by a leg or an antenna, and dragged out. It is evident, therefore, that the ants of each community all recognize one another, which is very remarkable. But more than this, I several times divided a nest into two halves and found that even after separation of a year and nine months they recognize one another and were perfectly friendly, while they at once attacked ants from a different nest, although of the same species.

It has been suggested that the ant of each nest have some sign or password by which they recognize one another. To test this I made some of them insensible, first I tried chloroform; but this was fatal to them, and I did not consider the test satisfactory. I decided therefore to intoxicate them. This was less easy than I had expected. None of my ants would voluntarily degrade themselves by getting drunk. However, I got over the difficulty by putting them into whisky for a few moments. I took fifty specimens – – twenty five percent from one nest and twenty five percent from another made them dead drunk, market each with a spot of paint, and put them on a table close to where other ants from one the nests were feeding.

The table was surrounded as usual with a moat of water to prevent them from straying. The ants, which were feeding, soon noticed those, which I had made drunk. They seemed quite astonished to find their comrades in such a disgraceful condition, and as much at a loss to know what to do with their drunkards as we were. After a while, however, they carried them all away; the strangers they took to the edge of the moat and dropped into the water, while they bore their friends home into the nest, where by degrees they slept off the effects of the spirits. Thus it is evident that they know their friends even when incapable of giving any sign or password.

Q. 78 Attitudes of ants towards strangers of the same species may be categorized as

A. indifferent

B. curious

C. hostile

D. passive

Q. 79 The author’s anecdotes of the inebriated ants would support all the following inductions except the statement that

(I) ants take unwillingly to intoxicants

(II) ants aid comrades in distress

(III) ants have invariable recognition of their community members

(IV) ants recognize their comrades by a mysterious password.

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. Only III and IV

D. only IV

Q. 80 According to the passage, chloroform was less successful than alcohol for inhibiting communication because of

(I) its expense

(II) its unpredictable side effects

(III) its unavailability

(IV) its fatality

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. Only III and IV

D. only IV

Q. 81  All of the following sentences A, B, C and D are taken from a same passage and jumbled up. but one of them is incoherent. Find the incoherent statement.

A. Reliance Industries (RIL), India‘s largest company, saw its earnings before interest and taxes jump 15 per cent from the first quarter to the second, though net profits grew at a far more modest 2.6 per cent.

B. Part of the reason for this was a sharp, 8 per cent-plus fall in its refining margins, down from $8.40 per barrel in Q1 to $7.70 per barrel in Q2.

C. For RIL, refining and selling oil and making petrochemicals are not new. Investors understand these businesses and value them realistically.

D. This fall happened because the Asian demand — and, therefore, pricing — of lighter fuels like diesel and petrol was under pressure, possibly because most major emerging economies are growing slower than they were before.

Incoherent statement is:

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

Q. 82 All of the following sentences A, B, C and D are taken from a same passage and jumbled up. but one of them is incoherent. Find the incoherent statement.

Sachin did not ask for this honour.

A. There are consolation prizes which console, and some which char the soul.

B. I am not suggesting we write a condolence letter, but sympathy is certainly due to Sachin.

C. Membership of Parliament is a handsome freebie for Sachin Tendulkar

D. Nomination to the Rajya Sabha is a pretty desultory substitute for someone who has been promised the Bharat Ratna.

Delhi‘s politicians, ever eager to climb a bandwagon, led the clamour for Sachin‘s elevation to jewel of India after he got his 99th international hundred.

Incoherent statement is:

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

Q. 83 Education Secretary: Too many adults lack sufficient skills for job advancement because of the cost of higher education. Businesses should partner with educators to create curricula that are tailored to the needs of these people, thus increasing the likelihood that the cost of enrollment will be a safe investment.

Union Leader: What good is altering the curricula if students simply do not have the funds to enroll or the time to attend? What we need are more generous educational grants targeted to working adults, and more flexible work hours for working students. Both the education secretary and the union leader make the point that … ?

A. the cost of higher education for many adults is prohibitively high

B. many adult students do not have the time to attend courses in higher education

C. the cost of higher education is unfairly high

D. many adult students will not attend classes in higher education unless they are convinced that doing so will be a good investment.

Q. 84 In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed. If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

A. If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.

B. If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than onehalf of the vote.

C. A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.

D. The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.

Q. 85 It is the powerful compound capsaicin that makes a chili pepper hot; “a single drop that has no taste and odor is capable of detection” by humans at one part per million.

A. a single drop that has no taste and odor is capable of detection

B. a single drop is detectable, though without taste and odor

C. a single tasteless and odorless drop can be detected

D. single tasteless and odorless drops are capable of detection

Q. 86 Old, longstanding firms concentrate on protecting what they have already amassed. Consequently, they rarely innovate and often underestimate what consequences innovation by other companies will have. The best example of one such defensive strategy is the fact that ___.

Which of the following best completes the passage?

A. electronics and mass-produced gears eliminated the traditional market for pocket watches, clearing the way for marketing them as elegant, old-fashioned luxury items.

B. an extremely popular prefabricated house was introduced by a company that, several years before, had failed miserably with its product line of glass houses.

C. a once-leading maker of buggy whips responds to the new availability of stick shifts by attempting to make better buggy whips.

D. smoking pipes, originally designed for use by typically older, more traditional smokers of tobacco, are now bought mostly by young smokers of scented or flavored herbal blends.

Q. 87 Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D in a proper sequence so as to make a coherent paragraph.

A. After several routine elections there comes a ‘critical’ election which redefines the basic pattern of political loyalties, redraws political geography and opens up political space.

B. In psephological jargon, they call it realignment.

C. Rather, since 1989, there have been a series of semi-critical elections.

D. On a strict definition, none of the recent Indian elections qualifies as a critical election.

A. ABCD

B. ABDC

C. DBAC

D. DCBA

Q. 88  Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D in a proper sequence so as to make a coherent paragraph.

A. Trivial pursuits marketed by the Congress, is a game imported from Italy.

B. The idea is to create an imaginary saviour in times of crisis so that the party doesn’t fall flat on its collective face.

C. Closest contenders are Mani Shankar Aiyar, who still hears His Master’s Voice and V. George, who is frustrated by the fact that his political future remains Sonia and yet so far.

D. The current champion is Arjun for whom all roads lead to Rome, or in this case, 10 Janpath.

A. ABDC

B. ABCD

C. DCBA

D. CDBA

Questions: 89 – 92

Directions for questions: Answer the questions based on the following

information. A and B are two sets (e.g. A = Mothers, B = Women). C = A . B =>The elements that could belong to both the sets (e.g. women who are mothers) is given by the set C = A . B. D = A ∪ B =>The elements which could belong to either A or B, or both, is indicated by the set D = A ∪ B.

∅ => A set that does not contain any elements is known as a null set represented by ∅ (e.g. if none of the women in the set B is a mother, then C = A .B is a null set, or C = ∅ ).

Let ‘V‘ signify the set of all vertebrates,

‘M‘ the set of all mammals,

‘D‘ dogs,

‘F‘ fish

‘A‘ alsatian and

‘P‘, a dog named Pluto.

Q. 89 Given that X = M.D is such that X = D. Which of the following is true?

A. All dogs are mammals

B. Some dogs are mammals

C. X = ∅

D. All mammals are dogs

Q. 90 If Y = F . (D . V) is not a null set, it implies that

A. all fish are vertebrates

B. all dogs are vertebrates

C. some fish are dogs

D. None of these

Q. 91 If Z = (P . D) ∪M, then

A. the elements of Z consist of Pluto, the dog, or any other mammal

B. Z implies any dog or mammal

C. Z implies Pluto or any dog that is a mammal

D. Z is a null set

Q. 92 If P . A = ∅ and P ∪ A = D, then which of the following is true?

A. Pluto and alsatians are dogs

B. Pluto is an alsatian

C. Pluto is not an alsatian

D. D is a null set

Questions: 93 – 95

Read each of the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Atmospheric jet streams were discovered towards the end of World War II by U.S. bomber pilots over Japan and by German reconnaissance aircraft over the Mediterranean. The World Meteorological Organization defines a jet stream as a strong, narrow air current that is concentrated along nearly horizontal axis in the upper troposphere or stratosphere (10 to 50km altitude), characterized by wind motions that produce strong vertical lateral shearing action and featuring one of more velocity maximum. Normally a jet stream is thousands of kilometers long, hundreds of kilometers wide and several kilometers deep. The vertical wind shear is of the order of 5 to 10 m/sec per kilometer, and the lateral shear is of the order of 5 m/sec per 100 km. An arbitrary lower limit of 30m/sec is assigned to the speed of the wind along the axis of a jet stream. With abundant radio-sonic data now available over the Northern Hemisphere it is possible to map the jet streams in the upper troposphere (near 10 to 12 km) in their daily occurrence and variation and to forecast them reasonably well with numerical prediction techniques. Upper-air information from the Southern Hemisphere is still sparse. Constant-level balloons (the so-called GHOST balloons) and satellite information on temperature structure and characteristic cloud formations in the atmosphere are serving to close the data on the global jet stream distribution. The strongest winds known in jet streams have been encountered over Japan, where speeds up to 500 km/hr (close to 300 knots) occur. A persistent band of strong winds occurs during the winter season over this region, flowing from the southwest and leading tropical air northern India into juxtaposition with polar and arctic air from Siberia. A similar region of confluence of air masses with vastly different temperatures exists over the central and eastern United States, leading to a maximum frequency of occurrence of jet streams during winter and spring.

Q. 93 An atmospheric jet stream is

A. a rare phenomenon.

B. three dimensional.

C. concentrated in the northern hemisphere.

D. more common in summer.

Q. 94 Detailed studies of atmospheric streams have been made over

A. South Africa

B. Europe

C. Australia

D. Antarctica

Q. 95 The atmospheric jet stream consists of

A. cumulous clouds bearing saturated moisture.

B. debris caused by meteorites.

C. air currents.

D. effluents from speeding aircraft.

Q. 96 Some decisions will be fairly obvious — ‘no-brainers‘. Your bank account is low, but you have a two week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws‘ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.

Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative‘s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.

B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-law and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away.

C. Easy decisions are called ‘no-brainers‘ because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.

D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss‘s job when she is away.

Questions: 97 – 100

Direction for questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.

A series S₁ of five positive integers is such that the third term is half the first term and the fifth term is 20 more than the first term. In series S₂, the nth term defined as the difference between the (n+1) term and the nth term of series S₁, is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 30.

Q. 97 First term of S₁ is

A. 80

B. 90

C. 100

D. 120

Q. 98 What is the difference between second and fourth terms of S₁?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 60

Q. 99 What is the average value of the terms of series S₁?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. Average is not an integer

Q. 100 What is the sum of series S₂?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	C	C	A	A	A	B	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	D	B	C	C	B	A	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	A	A	A	C	A	B	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	A	B	A	C	B	B	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	C	B	A	A	D	C	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	D	B	B	D	C	A	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	E	B	D	B	D	D	D	D	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	A	B	D	C	C	D	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	A	C	C	C	A	B	A	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	B	B	C	A	C	A	C	B

CAT 2013

Questions: 1 – 2

Functions g and h are defined on n constants, a₀,a₁,a₂,a₃, … aₙ₋₁, as follows:

g(aₚ, aq) = a|ₚ₋q| , if |p-q| ≤ (n-4)

= aₙ₋|ₚ₋q, if |p-q|>(n-4)

h (aₚ,aq) = aₖ, where k is the remainder when p+q is divided by n.

Q. 1 If n=10, find the value of g(g(a₂,a₈),(a₁,a₇)),

A. a₉

B. a₇

C. a₂

D. a₀

Q. 2 If h(aₖ,aₘ)=aₘ for all m, where 1≤m

A. 0

B. 1

C. n-1

D. n-2

Q. 3 In a bag there are total of 150 coins in three denominators -₹1,₹2 and ₹5-with at least one coin of each denomination being present in the bag. The total value of the Re.1 coins is at least 50% of the total value of the coins in the bag. If there are 23 ₹5 coins in the bag and the total value of the ₹2 coins is at least 3% of the total value of the coins in the bag, find the number of ₹2 coins in the bag.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 4 Let P,Q,S,R,T,U and V represent the seven distinct digits from 0 to 6, not necessarily in that order. If PQ and RS are both two-digit numbers adding up to the three-digit number TUV, find the value of V.

A. 3

B. 6

C. 5

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 5 There are five cards lying on a table in one row. Five numbers from among 1 to 100 have to be written on them, one number per card, such that the difference between the numbers on any two adjacent cards is not divisible by 4 is written down on another card, i.e., a sixth card, in that order. How many sequences can be written down on the sixth card?

A. 2²3³

B. 4(3)⁴

C. 4²3³

D. 4²3⁴

Questions: 6 – 9

Summary of the estimate of memory space occupied by the information worldwide, stored in various storage media, in the year 2000

Q. 6 If the information contained in each X-Rat occupies 30MB of memory space on an average, and by using a new technology each X-Ray is now stored in magnetic media that saves 60% of the memory space required, what is the total amount of memory space of magnetic media that is required to to store all the X-Rays available in the year 2000. (1MB=10⁶ Bytes of memory space)

A. 10,170 TB

B. 6,780

C. 1,703,170 TB

D. None of these

Q. 7 The information stored in Newspapers, Books and Periodicals forms what percentage of the total information stored on paper media? Assume that the information stored per unit memory space occupied is the same for all media mentioned.

A. 37.5%

B. 45%

C. 57%

D. 54%

Q. 8 When compared to the total memory space occupied by the information stored in any single category of storage media, what is the highest percentage share of memory space occupied by the information stored in any single media within that

category(approximately)?

A. 68.75%

B. 62.5%

C. 96%

D. 98.3%

Q. 9 Due to advances in technology, the information stored per unit memory space occupied worldwide increases by 20% every year, while the total memory space available worldwide increases at the rate of 10% every year. If in the year 2000, 80% of the memory space available worldwide is occupied by the information available worldwide, and the information available worldwide were to increase by 45% every year, then which of the following years is the earliest by which there will be a shortage of memory space?

A. 2002

B. 2003

C. 2004

D. 2005

Q. 10 a,b and are the lengths of the triangle ABC and d,e and f are the lengths of the sides of the triangle DEF. If the following equations hold true:

a(a+b+c)=d²

b(a+b+c)=e²

c(a+b+c)=f²

then which of the following is always true of triangle DEF?

A. It is an acute-angled triangle

B. It is an right-angled triangle

C. It is an obtuse-angled triangle

D. None of the above

Q. 11 Sujith looked at the six-digit number on his CAT admit card and said “If I multiply the first two digits with three, I get all ones. If I multiply the last two digits 9, I get all threes.” What is the sum of the digits of the number on Sujith’s admit card?

A. 30

B. 33

C. 60

D. 45

Q. 12 Two cars P and Q start from two points A and B towards each other simultaneously. They meet for the first time 40km from B. After meeting they exchange their speeds as well as directions and proceed to their respective starting points. On reaching their starting points, they turn back with the same speeds and meet at a point 20 km from A. Find the distance between A and B.

A. 130 km

B. 100 km

C. 120 km

D. 110 km

Q. 13 Consider the following two curves in the XY plane:

y=2x³+3x²+4 and

y=3x²-2x+8

Which of the following statements is true for -3≤x≤2?

A. The two curves intersect thrice

B. The two curves intersect twice

C. The two curves intersect once

D. The two curves do not intersect

Q. 14 A cuboidal aquarium, of base dimensions 100cm*80cm and height 60cm, is filled with water to its brim. The aquarium is now tilted along one of the 80cm edges and the water begin to spill. The tilting is continued till the water surface touches a line on the base which is at a distance of one-third of the length from(and parallel to) the edge on which the aquarium is being tilted. Now the box is returned to its original position. By how many centimeters has the height of water reduced?

A. 50

B. 40

C. 20

D. 10

Q. 15 Some persons are standing at distinct points on a circle, all facing towards the center. Each possible pair of persons who are not adjacent sing a three-minute sing, one pair after another. If the total time taken by all the pairs to finish singing is 1 hour, find the number of persons standing on the circle

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 8

Q. 16 In a triangle PQR, PQ=12 cm and PR=9 cm and ∠Q+∠R=120⁰

Find the length of QR

A. 15/√2 cm

B. 3√13 cm

C. 5√5 cm

D. 5√17 cm

Q. 17 In a triangle PQR, PQ=12 cm and PR=9 cm and ∠Q+∠R=120⁰

If the angle bisector of ∠P meets QR at M, find the length of PM

A. 28√5/9 cm

B. 42√5/11 cm

C. 36√3/7 cm

D. 4√3 cm

Questions: 18 – 21

The following is the table of points drawn at the end of all matches in a six-nation Hockey tournament, in which each country played with every other country exactly once. The table gives the positions of the countries in terms of their respective total points scored(i.e., in the decreasing order of their total points). Each win was worth three points, each draw one point, and there were no points for a loss. Some information in the table has been intentionally left out. The results of none of the individual matches are known, except that Pakistan beat India and no two teams finished with the same number of points.

Q. 18 Which of the following matches was a draw?

A. India vs South Korea

B. Spain vs Netherlands

C. Netherlands vs South Korea

D. Spain vs South Korea

Q. 19 The total number of points won by India is

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 20 The total number of goals scored in the match between Netherlands and Pakistan is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 21 The number of goals scored by Australia against India is at most

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 22 Outside a sweet shop, its name “Madhu Sweet House” is displayed using blinking lights. Each word flashes at a regular interval and remains lit for 1 second. After remaining lit for 1 second, “Madhu” remains unlit for 3¹/₂seconds, “Sweet” remains unlit for 5³/₄ seconds and “House” remains until 9¹/₈ seconds. If all the words flash together at 8:00 p.m. sharp, find the time interval between the next time the first two words flash together and the next time the last two words flash together

A. 45 seconds

B. 22.5 seconds

C. 112 seconds

D. 6.75 seconds

Q. 23 If g(x)=p|x|-qx², where p and q are constants, then at x=0, g(x) will be

A. maximum when p>0,q>0

B. minimum when p<0,q<0

C. minimum when p>0,q<0

D. maximum when p>0,q<0

Q. 24 A television company manufactures two models of televisions-A and B. Each unit of model A requires four hours to manufacture and each unit of model B requires two hours to manufacture. The total time available in a month to manufacture these two models is 1600 hours. The profits generated on selling each unit of model A and each unit of model B are ₹1200 and ₹1000 respectively. Find the number of units of each of model A and model B television to be manufactured to maximize the profit.

A. 200 model as As and 600 model Bs

B. 800 model as As

C. 800 model Bs

D. None of the above

Q. 25 The age of a son, who is more than two years old, is equal to the units digit of the age of his father. After ten years, the age of the father will be thrice the age of the son. What is the sum of the present ages of the son and the father?

A. 30 years

B. 36 years

C. 40 years

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 26 Given that -3

A. max[(x+y)(x-y)]-min[(x+y)(x-y)]=57¹/₂

B. max[(x-y)²]=169/4

C. min[(x-y)²]=1

D. All of the above

Q. 27 Each side of a polygon is either parallel to the x-axis or parallel to the y-axis. A corner of the polygon is known as convex if the corresponding internal angle is 90⁰ and as concave if the corresponding internal angle is 270⁰. If the polygon has 26 convex corners, the number of its concave corners is

A. 18

B. 22

C. 26

D. 24

Q. 28 The density of a liquid us defined as the weight per unit volume of the liquid. The densities of two liquids A and B are in the ratio 2:1. The liquid B evaporates at a rate (in kg/hr) which is twice as fast compared to that of liquid A, which evaporates at a rate of 1 kg/hour. If 70 kg of liquid A is mixed with 30 kg of liquid of B to form a mixture, find the number of hours the mixture needs to be evaporated so that the density of the resultant mixture is 1.04 times that of the original mixture. Assume that there is no chemical reaction between the liquids

A. 2.5

B. 3

C. 3.5

D. 4

Q. 29 Let f(x)=1/(1+x²) and g(x)=e⁻ˣ/(1+[x]), where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then which of the following domain is truw?

I. domain of (f+g)=R-(-2,-1]

II. domain of (f+g)=R-[-1,0)

III. [range of f]∩[range of g]=[-2,1/2]

iV. [range of f]∩[range of g]=[-1/2,1/2]-{0}

A. Both II and IV

B. Both I and III

C. Both I and IV

D. Both II and III

Q. 30 The line L passing through the points (1,1) and (2,0) meets the y-axis at A. The line through the point (1/2,0) and perpendicular to L meets the y-axis at B and L at C. Find area of the triangle ABC

A. 25/16

B. 16/9

C. 32/19

D. 40/23

Q. 31  The following question presents four statements, of which three, when places in appropriate order, would form a contextually complete paragraph. Pick the statements that is not part of the context

(A) But as access to other texts is enjoyed more widely, some of the dominance textbooks now enjoy will wane.

(B) As indeed will the power of teachers-whose prejudices may often be just as ingrained as those found in textbooks, and rather harder to pin down

(C) It won’t be long before children, will be able to access, by way of smartphones, the textbooks prescribed for their courses

(D) As long as textbooks in one form or another are used and as long as they are issued or approved by the state, they will remain a political issue

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Questions: 32 – 35

Psychotherapeutic processes deal with psychological problems, ranging From mild ones like a depressed mood, to more subtle ones like interpretation of dreams to more  controversial problems like dissociative identity disorder. Denied emotions trot admitting or voicing one’s emotions to the terapist) is a root cause of many psychological problems as honest communication is the %metro uno factor for the psychotherapeutic process to work. Emotional honesty can be a difficult task for the client or patient, Psychotherapists make analysis of dreams a significant part of their work. Il is tempting to wish petulantly that the unconscious would speak to us more clearly as significance of many dreams eludes us. But dreams that can be interpreted provide helpful information like warnings of personal pitfalls; solution guides to problems; sources of necessary information and judgement; as direction-finders when we feel lost; as pointers to the way we need to go when we are floundering and the message always seems to be one designed to nurture spiritual growth The unconscious may communicate to us when we are awake with as much elegance and beneficence as when we are asleep. although in a slightly different Form of ‘idle thoughts’ or oven Fragments of thought. As with dreams. we pay these idle thoughts no attention and cast them aside as insignificant. Hence patients in psychoanalysis are instructed to say everything, however insignificant, that comes in their minds. Idle thoughts provide us with insight into ourselves and others. The seemingly alien and unwanted quality is characteristic of unconscious material and its manner of presentation to the conscious mind. This and the associated resistance of the conscious mind led Freud to perceive the unconscious as a repository of the primitive, the antisocial and the evil within us_ He tended to assume that mantel illness somehow resided in the unconscious as a demon in the subterranean depths of our mind. To Carl Jung fell the responsibility of correcting this which he did through his work The Wisdom of the Unconscious.” As he concluded, mental illness i5 not a product of the unconscious but a phenomenon or consciousness or a disordered relationship between conscious and unconscious. Consider the matter of repression_ Freud discovered in his patents sexual desires and hostile feelings of which they were unaware but which were making them ill, Because these desires and Feelings resided in the unconscious, the notion arose that it was the Unconscious that caused mental illness. But why were these desires and feelings in the unconscious in the firs’ place? Why were they repressed? The answer is that the conscious mind did not want them. And it is in this not wanting, this disowning. that the problem lies.

Q. 32 A major difference between the points of view expressed by Freud and Jung as discussed in the passage is

A. One considered ailments of the mind to be the resu:t. of conflict between the conscious and the unconscious, while the other considered them to be inherent in the unconscious

B. One considered that ailments of the mind are grounded in the conscious, while the other considered them to be triggered by the unconscious

C. One oonsidere. that the evil qualities of human beings reside in their unconscious mind, while the other considered lhat the unconscious mind repressed desires and feeling

D. One considered that ailments of the mind are grounded in the unconscious, while the other considered them to be triggered by the conscious.

Q. 33 Which of the following statements are logically consistent with the content of the paragraph?

(I) Idle thoughts can sometimes illuminate the situation of the person as valuable messages from the unconscious can be received

(III Emotionally dishonest clients are very poor communicators and suffer from psychologcal problems.

(III) Dissociative identity disorder is primarily due to denied emotions_

(IV) Dreams can help effect. in us. better understanding, and development, of file spirit within.

(V) Honest communication and open in can positively influence a psychotherapeutic decision

A. I,III,IV,V

B. I,IV,V

C. I,II,IV

D. II,IV,V

Q. 34 If a paragraph were lo be inserted between the first and the second paragraphs, it would most likely deal with which of the following?

A. Dreams can be instrumental in gauging a person’s emotional slate.

B. Emotions are, very often, the substance of a person’s idle thoughts.

C. It is very difficult to gauge emotional honesty

D. Dreams often, are indicative of emotions that re main unexpressed.

Q. 35 In saying it is tempting to wish petulantly that the unconscious would speak to us more clearly”…. (in pare 2) the author wishes to indicate that

A. the inability lo understand the unconscious can irritate psyohotherapists when pursuing their objectives.

B. the inability to understand the unconscious can guile psychotherapists in pursuit of they objectives.

C. the inability lo understand the unconscious can frustrate psychotherapists when pursuing their objectives.

D. the inability to understand the unconscious can divert psychotherapists from their objectives.

Questions: 36 – 38

Each of nine persons. P, 0, R, S. T. U, V, Ar and X. rives in a different flat in an aparimont building, which has six floors (excluding the ground floor, which is used only for parking) anc three flats on each floor, The three flats on each floor are in a row and no two adjacent flats on a floor are occupied. Al least one person lives on each floor.

Further the fcllow.ng information is known:

(i)  P and 0 live on the same floor.

(ii) R and S live on different floors.

(iii) T lives in the middle flat on the fourth Floor

(iv) U lives on the sixth floor and V lives on the first /1001.

(v) W Fives on the floor which is immediately above the floor on which X lives.

Q. 36 If W and U do not live on the same floor, then which of the following cannot be true?

A. W lives on the third floor

B. Q lives on the third floor

C. R lives on the second floor

D. P lives on the second floor.

Q. 37 If S and R are living on the first floor and the sixth floor respectively, then which of the following must be true’

A. T is living on the same floor as X

B. O is living on the second floor.

C. P is living on the third floor.

D. W is living alone on his floor.

Q. 38 If Q lives on the third floor, then how many combinations of persons could live on the second floor?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 39 there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identity the sentence(s or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage.

Then. choose the most appropriate option

(a) Leonardo da Vinci wed a self-taught man and began Leeching himself Latin at the early age.

(b) He became a great engineer and was the first to discover that blood circuleled through the body

(c) He believed that coarse people of bad habits and shallow judgments did not deserve so beautiful an instrument and such a complex anatomical equipment than the human body.

(d) They should merely have a sack for taking in food and letting it out again, for they are nothing but the alimirtary r.nnal

(e) Very fond of animals, he was himself a vegetarian and had the habit of buying caged birds from the market end setting thorn free immediately.

A. a and c

B. b and d

C. only a

D. only e

Q. 40 From among the lour choices given below the question, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.

(a) Although thoughts are primary. thoughts in themselves have no method of transmission and are therefore dependent on speech.

(b) If we were to summarize the logo-centric approach to meaning, we should state that what emerges is that speech rs the original signifier of meaning

(c) Language, the cornerstone of humanity, emerges as a process to allow our thoughts to travel across space and !between people

(d) Language can then be viewed as a system of verbal signs that signify individual thought.

(e) Language produces speech to transmit thoughts and writing to transmit speech.

A. cabed

B. baced

C. beard

D. caledb

Q. 41 The word in capitals is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

MELT

A. The crowd melted away after the prayer meeting.

B. Even the sternest mother’s heart melts at the sight of her baby crying.

C. His anxiety melted away when he received an SMS from his daughter confirming that she had reached her destination safely.

D. The cries of opposition suddenly melted to cheers when the principal agreed to the demands of the students.

Q. 42 The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled wilh a letter_ From among the four choices given below the question, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.

(a) Generally speaking, in pre-capitalist societies people produced things directly for other people, not fir sale on a market – in Marx’s Language they produced for use, not exchange.

(b) However, producing things for sale (or exchange) creates a new dynamic, different from societies That produce directly for use_

(C] Capitalism is very different from past modes of production.

(d) Under capitalism, nearly all of the products of human labor are commodities, that is, they are produced for sale,

(e) Every system of production has to regulate now much of people’s labor is spent producing one thing versus another. 5,0 that society does not expend labor on things that are useless.

(f) Marx called this -generalized commodity production’ – people obtain their needs and wants by purchasing them on a market, and people produce what other people need and want by selling thing’s. on a market.

A. dfbeac

B. abcdef

C. eacdfb

D. cdfabe

Questions: 43 – 45

Marcel Pious! ( 1871-1922) was immensely well read. ‘In search of Lost Time encapsulates within itself the main traditions in French literature: both in Fiction (from Madame de Lafayette through Stendhal, Balzac. Flaubert and Zola) and in the bellelettristic-philosophical line {from Montaigne through Pascal. La Rochefoucauld and Chamfort). Proust formed a strong long taste for generalization through these latter writers, I own a small book of his maxims, drawn from the novel and his discursive writings. and an unusually high quotient of them are dazzling. Let one example suffice: “It has been said that the greatest praise of God lies in the negation of the atheist, who considers creation sufficiently perfect to dispense with a creator.’ As an asthmatic child, Proust read more than most children. By the age of 15, he was already immersed in contemporary literature. having read the essays and novels of Anatole France and Pierre Lob. the poetry of Mallarme and Leconle de Lisle, and a number of the novels or Dostoyevsky, Tolsloy. Dickens and George Eliot. Linl4ce Henry James, who referred to their works as `baggy monsters,” Proust ‘Fully appreciated the great Russian novelists. He thought Tolstoy -a serene god”, valuing especially his ability to generalize in the form of setting down laws about human nature. For Proust, Dostoyevsky surpassed all other writers, and he found “The Idiot” the most beautiful novel he had ever read. He admired Dostoyesky’s skill with sudden twists in plot, providing the plausible surprises that propelled his novels. In his 1905 essay ‘On Reading,’ a key document in Proust’s freeing himself to write his great novel, he quoted Descartes: The reading of all Rudd books is tike a conversation with the most cultivated of men of past centuries who have been their authors.” Proust’s examinalion of ‘the original psychological act calted “reading.” that “noblest of distractions.” He stated that reading is superior to conversalion, which ‘dissipates immediately.” A book. he fell. is “a friendship… and the fact that it is directed to one who is absent, gives it something disinterested. almost moving.” Books are actually better than friends, Proust thought. because you turn to there only when you truly desire their company and can ignore them when you wish. neither of which is true of a friend. One also frequently loves people in books, -to whom one had given more of ones attention and tenderness thrill to people in real life.” In his own novel, Proust wrote-Real life, life at last laid bare and illuminated—the on’y life in consequence which can be said to be really lived—is literature.”

Q. 43 In the passage the author is primarily concerned with?

A. critically examining Proust’s in Search of Lost Time.”

B. providing a synopsis of Proust’s reading tastes

C. evaluating Proust’s position in the great literary tradition

D. discussing the intellectual influence Proust’s contemporaries had on his works.

Q. 44 The author quotes art example of Proust’s maxims to highlight his (Proust’s)

A. grasp at the metaphysical

B. penchant for the philosophical.

C. belief in a Supreme Being

D. exceptional choice of thought and word

Q. 45 The passage implies that Proust subscribes to which of the following views?

(a)Reading a good book is like having a conversation with a classical writer.

(b)Reading is a virtuous pastime and it leaves an indelible impression on one’s mind.

(c) Literature Imitates life.

(d) A reader can invest in the feelings for characters in a book.

(e) Dosloyetisky’s `The Iclibl” was appreciated by him for the unanticipated turns in the plot.

(f)) Elosloyevsky’s ‘The Idiot” was known for its aesthetics. its gapping pace and its unlikely element of surprise

A. a,c,d,e

B. a,e,f

C. a,b,c,e

D. a,b,c,d,e

Q. 46 Eight men have their first names. as Ratan. Rama. Ramesh. Rarnu, Ramesh, Rajah, Rishabh and Rohit and their surnames are Kulkarni, Anora, Jain, Dutta. Singh. Sharma. Sen and Murthy, not necessarily in the same order. These eight persons are sitting around a circular table as per the following instructions;

(i) Ramu is sitting opposite Kulkarni and to the left of Sing h.

(ii)Rajan is sitting opposite Sharma and next to Murthy, who is sitting to the left of Rama.

(iii) Arora is sitting opposite Ratan and Rohit sits adjacent to Dutta.

(iv)Rama, who is next to Rishabh and Ramesh, sits opposite Sen.

If Rishabh Arora sits between Kulkarni and Sharma. and opposite Singh, then who sits opposite of Rakesh Dutta?

A. Ramesh Murthy

B. Rama Murthy

C. Rajah Jain

D. Rishabh Arora

Questions: 47 – 49

“SOVEREIGN in tastes, steely-eyed and point-on in perception of risk, and relentless in maximization of happiness.’ This was Daniel McFadden’s memorable summation, in 20013, of the idea of Every man held by economists. That this description is unlike any real person was Mr.McFadden’s point. The Nobel prizewinning economist at the University of California, Berkeley, wryly termed homo economicus is rare species”. In his latest paper he outlines a new science of pleasure”, in which he argues that economics should draw much more heavily on Fields such as psychology, neuroscience and anthropology. He wants economists to accept that evidence from other discilplines does not just explain those bits of behavior that do not fit the standard models Rather. What economists consider anomalous is the norm, Homo economics, not his fallible counterpart, is the oddity.

To take one example, the “people” in economic models have fixed preferences which are taken as given. Vet a large body of research from cognitive psychology shows that preferences are in fad rather fluid People value mundane things much more highly when they think of them as somehow ‘Their own”: they insist on a much higher price for a coffee cup they think of as theirs, for instance. Than for an identical one that isn’t. This -endowment effect’ means that people hold on to shares well past the point where it makes sense to sell tern. Cognitive scientists have also found that people dislike losing something much more than they like gaining the same amount. Such ‘loss aversion’ can explain why people often pick insurance policies with lower deductible charges even that they are more expensive. At the moment of an accident a deductible feels like a loss, whereas all those premium payments are part of the status quo. Such tools have Implications for policy. Plenty of poor people in America are wary of programmes like the Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) because the idea of getting a handout Irom the government reinforces a sense of helpnessness. Dignity is not something mainstream economics has much truck with. 80 creating a sense of dignity turns out to be a powerful way of affecting decisions. One study by Crystal Hall, Waying Zhao and Elder Sher, a trio of psychologists, found that getting poor people in a soup kitchen to recall a time when they felt ‘successful and proud” made them almost twice as likely to accept leaflets that told them how to get an EITC refund than members of another group who were

merely asked about the Fast meal they had eaten Taking the path Mr.McFarlden urges might also lead economists to reassess some articles of faith. Economists tend to think that more choice is good Yet people with many options sometimes fail to make any choice at all: think of workers who prefer their employers to put them by “default’ into pension plans at preset contribution rates. Explicitly modelling the process of making a choice might prompt economists to take a more ambiguous view of an abundance of choices. This is undoubtedly messier than standard economics. So is real life.

Q. 47 Which of the Following most accurately represents the author’s criticism of ‘Homo economicus’?

A. It gives an inaccurate picture of consumer behavior in real economic transactions

B. The ideal person who makes choices in conservative economic models is, in fact, the opposite of ‘homo economicus

C. It is nowhere close to the unpredictable consumer in real economic situations.

D. It is the economists’ mythical EveryMan.

Q. 48 The author of the passage mentions the observations of Hall, Zhao and Sharif in order to

A. demonstrate that people take pride in their achievements even in hard times

B. demonstrate how empathy can play a significant role in persuasion.

C. provide support for the assertion that dignity is a powerful factor in decision-making.

D. illustrate that authorities would be able to implement policies more effectively if they understand their citizens.

Q. 49 The view mentioned in the last paragraph (-Taking the path… real life’) refers to which of the following?

A. People are loath to make any choice when faced with a plethora of options

B. Consumers prefer to seek expert guidance while making a choice.

C. Employers coax workers lo accept pension plans with fixed contribution rates.

D. The view that more choice is good for consumers should be regarded with skepticism.

Q. 50 The word at the top is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

PULL

A. Pull aside the curtains and let in some fresh air

B. I decided to pull away from the venture due to differences of opinion with my partners.

C. Being a charismatic leader that he is, he can certainly pull the crowds.

D. The municipal corporation has decided to pull down all illegal constructions in the city.

Q. 51 The scientst and the artist are both concerned to change the world — the one the external world of man’s objective relations with nature, the other the internal world of his subjective relations with his fellow men. The scientist discovers a contradiction in his consciousness of the external world and resolves it in a scientific hypothesis: the artist discovers a contradiction in his consciousness of the internal world and resolves it in a work of art. Both are creative acts. The scientist extends our knowledge and hence also Our control of nature_

A. The artist takes complex explanations and renders them simple.

B. In doing so, he proves that there is nothing we cannot do – everything is brought within our reach.

C. The artist heightens our sense of ourselves as social beings and so advances the class struggle.

D. The artist teaches us to think for ourselves

Q. 52 In the following question, a part of a sentence is left blank. Choose from among the four options given below the question, the one which would best fill the blanks.

When we call others dogmatic, what we really object to is ___.

A. their giving the dog a bad name

B. their holding beliefs that are different from our own

C. the extremism that goes along with it

D. the subversion of whatever they actually believe in concomitantly

Questions: 53 – 55

Four friends John. Mike. Lewis and Peter went on a picnic and they participated in four adventure sports – Paragliding, Skiing, Bungee Jumping and Rock climbing Further_the following information is known about them:

The number of persons who participated in Skiing is one more than that of those who participated in Bungee Jumping, which, in turn, is same as that of those who participated in Paragliding. which. in turn, is twice that of those who participated in Rock Climbing

(ii) Every person participated in at least one event and each sport was taken up by at least one person.

(iii) John participated in Skiing but not in Rock Climbing while Lewis participated in Bungee Jumping but not in Paragliding

(iv) None of them participated in both Bungee Jumping and Rock Climbing

(v) Peter participated in three sports.

(vi) Between Skiing and Paraglidling, Mike participated in exactly one sport

Q. 53 If Lewis participated in two sports, which of the following is definitely false?

A. Mike did not participate in Skiing

B. John participated in Paragliding

C. Lewis participated in Skiing.

D. Mike participated in Paragliding

Q. 54 If John participated in Paragliding, which of the following statements is definitely true?

A. Mike participated in Rock Climbing

B. John Participated in Bungee Jumping.

C. Lewis did not participate in Skiing

D. Peter did not participate in Rock Climbing.

Q. 55 Which of the following is not a possible combination of number of sports taken up by John, Mike and Lewis?

A. John -.1, Mike- 2, Lewis -2

B. John – 3, Mike- 1, Lewis – 1

C. John – 1, Mike – 3, Lewis

D. John – 2, Mike – 2, Lewis – 1

Questions: 56 – 59

There are ten boxes. numbered 1 to 10, each containing g gold coins. Each 01 the coins in nine of these ten boxes weighs 10 gm, whereas each of the coins in the tenth box weighs 20 gm_ A digital weighing machine is provided. Now, a logician, Mr. Kapil, is invited The task assigned to him is that he has to find out the box containing the coins weighing 20 gm each.

Q. 56 If g = 9, then what is the minimum possible number of times for which the weighing machine is to be used?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 57 If g = T. what is the minimum possible number of times For which the weighing machine is to be used’?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 58 If g = 3. what is the minimum possible number of times For which the weighing machine is to be used?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 5

D. 4

Q. 59 If g = 2. what is the minimum possible number of times for which the weighing machine is to be used?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 4

Q. 60 The following question presents four statements, of which three, when places in appropriate order, would form a contextually complete paragraph. Pick the statement that is not part of the context

(A) The trade in iron ore make it the second-largest commodity market by value after crude oil

(B) The metal provides the backbone of skyscrapers, bridges and motorways, and the carapace and internal organs of cars, fridges and washing machines

(C) Given steel’s ubiquity-it makes up 95% of global metal production-iron ore, the raw material from which it is made, attracts strangely little attention

(D) The development of a process to turn raw earth into steel merits a high spot on a list of mankind’s most ingenious achievements

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	B	A	C	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	A	D	B	C	D	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	C	C	C	B	B	D	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	D	D	C	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	B	D	D	A	B	B	B	A

CAT 2012

Q. 1 Consider a sequence S whose nth Tern is defined as 1+3/n, where n = 1, 2,… Find the product of all the consecutive terms of S starting from the 4th term to the 60th term

A. 1980.55

B. 1985.55

C. 1990.55

D. 1975.55

Q. 2 Let P = {2, 3, 4,….100} and q = {101, 102, 103,…200}. How many elements of Q are there such that they do not have any element of P as a factor?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 23

D. 21

Q. 3 What is the sum of all the 2-digit numbers which leave a remainder of 6 when divided by 8?

A. 612

B. 594

C. 324

D. 872

Q. 4 Which of the terms 2¹/³, 3¹/⁴, 4¹/⁶, 6¹/⁸ and 10¹/¹² is the largest?

A. 2¹/³

B. 3¹/⁴

C. 4¹/⁶

D. 10¹/¹²

Q. 5 If the roots of the equation (a²+b²)x²+2(b²+c²)x+(b²+c²)=0 are real, which of the following must hold true?

A. c² ≥ a²

B. c⁴ ≥ a² (b²+c²)

C. b² ≥ a²

D. a⁴ ≤ b² (a²+c²)

Q. 6 Find the remainder of 2¹⁰⁴⁰ divided by 131.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 7 In the figure below, ∠MON =∠MPO = ∠NQO = 90° and OQ is the bisector of ∠MON and QN = 10, OR=40/7. Find OP.

A. 4.8

B. 4.5

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 8 If (a²+b²),(b²+c²) and (a²+c²) are in geometric progression, which of the following holds true?

A. b²-c²=a⁴-c⁴/b²+a²

B. b²-a²=a⁴-c⁴/b²+c²

C. b²-c²=b⁴-a⁴/b²+a²

D. b²-a²=b⁴-c⁴/b²+a²

Q. 9 p is a prime and m is a positive integer. How many solutions exist for the equation p⁶-p=(m² +m+6)(p-1)?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. Infinite

Q. 10 A certain number written in a certain base is 144. Which of the following is always true?

I. Square root of the number written in the same base is 12.

II. If base is increased by 2, the number becomes 100.

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Neither I nor II

D. Both I and II

Q. 11 A rectangle is drawn such that none of its sides has length greater than ‘a’. All lengths less than ‘a’ are equally likely. The chance that the rectangle has its diagonal greater than ‘a’ is (in terms of %)

A. 29.3%

B. 21.5%

C. 66.66%

D. 33.33%

Q. 12 If x is a real number, [x] is greatest integer less than or equal to x, then 3[x]+2-[x]=0/ Will the above equation have any real root?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Will have real roots for x<0

D. Will have real roots for x>0

Q. 13 If a=x/y+z, b=y/z+y, c=z/x+y, then which of the following statements is/are true?

I. b+c-1/yz + a+c-1/xzz + a+b-1/yx = 1

II. x²/a(1-bc) = y²/b(1-ca) = z²/c(1-ab)

III. (a+b)c+(b+c)a+(a+c)b = {2(x+y+z)(xy+xz+yz)-6xyz}/(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. None of these

Q. 14 If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation x²-10x+15=0, then find the quadratic equation whose roots are (α+α/β) and (β+β/α)

A. 15x²+71x+210=0

B. 5x²-22x+56=0

C. 3x²-44x+78=0

D. Cannot be determined

Questions: 15 – 17

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17)

Read the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A cricket tournament had three teams – India, Australia and Sri Lanka taking part in it. The format of the tournament was such that in the preliminary stage each of these teams, would play the other teams four times. Four points are awarded for a win and in case a team beats another team by a huge margin, it is given a bonus point in addition to the four points. At the end of the preliminary stage, the top two teams, in terms of points scored, reaches the finals. No match in the tournament ends in a tie and if two teams end up with the same number of points at the end of the preliminary stage, the team with the better net run rate is placed higher.

Q. 15 If India reached the finals, then what is the minimum numbers of points it would have scored in the preliminary stage?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 16 If Sri Lanka was eliminated in the preliminary stage, then what is the maximum number of points it could have scored?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 20

Q. 17 If Australia had the highest number of points at the end of the preliminary stage, then at least how many points did it have?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 18

D. 20

Q. 18 A vessel has a milk station in which milk and water are in the ratio 4:1. By addition of water to it, milk solution with milk and water in the ratio 4:3 was formed. On replacing 14 L of this solution with pure milk the ratio of milk and water changed to 5:3. What is the volume of the water added?

A. 12 L

B. 60 L

C. 32 L

D. 24 L

Q. 19 A car 􀀁 starts from a point P towards another point Q. Another car 􀀂 starts (also from P) 1 h after the first car and overtakes it after covering 30% of the distance PQ. After that, the cars continue. On reaching Q, car 􀀂 reverses and meets car 􀀁, after covering 23+1/3 of the distance QP. Find the time taken by car 􀀂 to cover the distance PQ (in hours).

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 3+1/3

Q. 20 A, B and C can independently do a work in 15 days, 20 days and 30 days, respectively. They work together for some time after which C leaves. A total of ₹18000 is paid for the work and B gets ₹6000 more than C. Find how many days did A work?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 21 In the figure given, OABC is a parallelogram. The area of the parallelogram is 21 sq units and the point C lies on the line x=3. Find the coordinates of B.

A. (3, 10)

B. (10, 3)

C. (10, 10)

D. (8, 3)

Q. 22 Find the complete set of values that satisfy the relations ||x|-3|<2 and ||x|-2|<3.

A. (-5, 5)

B. (-5, -1) ∪ (1, 5)

C. (1, 5)

D. (-1, 1)

Q. 23 If ax²+bx+c=0 and 2a, b and 2c are in arithmetic progression, which of the following are roots of the equation?

A. a, c

B. -a, -c

C. -a/2, -c/2

D. -c/a, -1

Q. 24 A solid sphere of radius 12 inches is melted and cast into a right circular cone whose base diameter is √2 times its slant height. If the radius of the sphere and the cone are the same, how many such cone are the same, how many such cones can be made and how much material is left out?

A. 4 and 1 cubic inch

B. 3 and 12 cubic inches

C. 4 and 0 cubic inch

D. 3 and 6 cubic inches

Q. 25 If logₓ(a-b)-logₓ(a+b)=logₓ(b/a), find a²/b² + b²/a²

A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 26 Letters of the word “ATTRACT” are written on cards and are kept on a table. Manish is asked to lift three cards at a time, write all possible combinations of the three letters on a piece of paper and then replace the three cards. The exercise ends when all possible combinations of letters are exhausted. Then, he is asked to strike out all words in his list, which look the same when seen in a mirror. How many words is he left with?

A. 40

B. 20

C. 30

D. None of these

Q. 27 S is a set given by S={1, 2, 3,….4n}, where n is a natural number. S is partitioned into n disjoint subsets A₁, A₂, A₃,…An each containing four elements. It is given that in everyone of these subsets there is one element, which is the arithmetic mean of the other three elements of the subsets. Which of the following statements is then true?

A. n≠1 and n≠2

B. n≠1 but can be equal to 2

C. n≠2 but can be equal to 1

D. it is possible to satisfy the requirement for n =1 as well as for n = 2

Q. 28 When asked for his taxi number, the driver replied, “If you divide the number of my taxi by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 each time you will find a remainder of one. But if, you divide it by 11, the remainder is zero. You will also not find any other driver with a taxi having a lower number who can say the same.” What is the taxi number?

A. 121

B. 1001

C. 1881

D. 781

Q. 29 A student is asked to form numbers between 3000 and 9000 with digits 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9. If no digit is to be repeated, in how many ways can the student do so?

A. 24

B. 120

C. 60

D. 72

Q. 30 The side of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm long. By drawing parallels to all its sides, the distance between any two parallel lines being the same. The triangle is divided into smaller equilateral triangle, each of which has sides of length 1 cm. How many such small triangles are formed?

A. 60

B. 90

C. 120

D. None of these

Questions: 31 – 32

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32)

Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which a sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Q. 31 RD Laing developed a broad range of thought on interpersonal psychology. This deals with interactions between people, which he considered important, for an ethical action always occurs between one person and another. In books, such as The Politics of Experience, he deal with issues concerning how we should relate to persons labelled by the psychiatric establishment as “schizophrenic”.

A. He came to be seen as a champion for the rights of those considered mentally ill

B. He spoke out against (and wrote about) practices of psychiatrists which he considered inhumane or barbaric, such as electric shock treatment

C. Laing also did work in establishing true asylums as places of refuge for those who feel disturbed and want a safe place to go through whatever it is they want to explore in themselves and with others

D. He suggested that the effects of psychiatric drugs (some of which are very deleterious, such as tardive diskensia) be called just that: “effects” and not be referred to by the preferred euphesisms of the drug companies, who prefer to call them “side effects”

Q. 32 Jurisprudence is the theory and philosophy of law. Students of jurisprudence aim to understand fundamental nature of law and to analyse its purpose, structure and application. Jurisprudential scholars (sometimes confusingly referred to as “jurists”) hope to obtain a deeper understanding of the law, the kind of power that it exercises and its role in human societies.

They seek a deeper understanding behind law’s seemingly unpredictable and certain nature.

A. At a practical level, some jurists hope to improve society by studying what the Law is, what it ought to be, and how it actually operates

B. A common starting point in understanding jurisprudence is the objective of law to achieve justice

C. Hence, the arguable scientific nature of jurisprudence

D. Jurisprudence seeks to draw on unrestricted elements of life and the world to aid the critical study of law

Questions: 33 – 35

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on that.

Human reason, in one sphere of its cognition, is called upon to consider questions, which it cannot decline, as they are presented by its own nature but which it cannot answer, as they transcend every faculty of the mind. It falls into this difficulty without any fault of its own. It begins with principles which cannot be dispensed within the field of experience and the truth and sufficiency of which are, at the same time insured by experience, With these principles it rises, in obedience to the laws of its own nature, to even higher and more remote conditions. But it quickly discovers that in this way, its labours must remain ever incomplete because new questions never cease to present themselves and thus it finds itself compelled to have recourse to principled which transcend the region of experience while they are regarded by common sense without distrust. It thus falls into confusion and contradictions from which it conjectures the presence of latent errors, which however, it is unable to discover because the principles it employs transcending the limits of experience cannot be tested by that criterion. The arena of these endless contests is called Metaphysic. Time, when she was the queen of all the sciences and if we take the will for the deed, she certainly deserves, so far as regards the high importance of her objectmatter, this title of honour.

Q. 33 According to the author, ‘Metaphysic’ is best defined when human reason

A. Becomes conscious of the presence of latent errors

B. Solves pending old questions, tackles new ones that arise

C. Employs principles that transcend the limits of experience

D. Rises to higher and more remote conditions

Q. 34 If there were a paragraph succeeding the last, it would probably be about

A. The rise of Metaphysic into the realm of popular acclaim

B. Metaphysic as the final solution to human misery

C. The modern day contempt for metaphysical reasoning

D. The subjugation of science by a transcendental human consciousness

Q. 35 The passage provides an answer to which of the following questions?

A. How does experience limit the human mind’s recourse to principles in combating new questions that present themselves?

B. Why does human reason restrain its forays to within its known limitations?

C. How does the human mind attempt to resolve problems beyond its scope?

D. None of the above

Q. 36 Find the incorrect usage of the word in the following questions.

The word is SLAM –

A. I heard the door slam behind him.

B. She slammed down the phone angrily.

C. She slammed his face hard.

D. The ear skidded and slammed into a tree.

Q. 37 Find the incorrect usage of the word in the following questions.

The word is STOP –

A. The car stopped at the traffic light.

B. Shantaram immediately stopped what he was doing.

C. We need more laws to stop pollution.

D. He is stopped by law from holding a license.

Q. 38 Find the incorrect usage of the word in the following questions.

The word is TIME –

A. I can remember very few times when we had to cancel due to ill health.

B. This is the first time that I have been to London.

C. The train arrived right on time.

D. The changing seasons mark the passing of time.

Q. 39 Find the incorrect usage of the word in the following questions.

The word is SOMBRE –

A. He was dressed in sombre shades of grey and black.

B. Paul was in a sombre mood.

C. The year ended on a sombre note.

D. He is in the sombre position of not having to worry about money.

Q. 40 Find the incorrect usage of the word in the following questions.

The word is CALL –

A. She payed him a call from the pay phone near her home.

B. I will call on you tomorrow evening at 7 pm.

C. Vikram decided to call a meeting to discuss the trade fair.

D. She felt the call of religion early in her life.

Questions: 41 – 42

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

It is essential to rid ourselves of the false impressions of time, which our human limitations seem to impose upon us. Above all, we must rid ourselves of the belief that the future is in some way less determined than the past, if the borderline between past and future is illusory, then so must be the distinction between two regions of time which it is supposed to separate. The only reason we believe the future to be still undecided while the past is immutable is that we can remember the one and not the other. To avoid these prejudices we must picture the history of the universe not as a three-dimensional stage on which things change but as a static four-dimensional space time structure of which we are a part. We believe that events are not real until they “happen”, whereas in reality past, present and future are all frozen in the four dimensions of space time. Unfortunately even if all this is accepted, we have to continue using the language of a “moving” time, for we have no other but we must try to interpret this language always as a description of the unchanging space time structure of the universe. Contemplating the history of the universe in this way, it is attractive to believe that the periods of expansion and contraction could be related to each other by symmetry. Both points of view merit serious consideration and that we cannot say with any certainty that the contracting universe will or will not, differ fundamentally from the expanding phase that we observe today.

Q. 41 According to the author of the passage,

A. The time value called ‘now’ is most essential to the understanding of the universe

B. The impression of a moving time is not a false imposition of human limitation

C. There is noting with respect to which time could move

D. The future is better determined than the past

Q. 42 Which of the following best exemplifies the author’s attitude to time?

A. The impression of a moving time is false

B. ‘Now’ is a purely subjective phenomenon existing only within the human mind

C. The future is not in anyway less determined than the past

D. All of the above

Questions: 43 – 47

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Amidst the increasing clamour for a discourse on educational improvement, on budgetary allocations and retention rates, there is one crucial question which is insufficiently discussed. And the question is this what is the purpose of education today? At various times, over the past 100 yr, that question has been answered differently – in colonial India, the official answer would have been, “to create a cadre of clerks and officials to run the colonial state”, while in a newly decolonized India, the official answer could be, “to create a nationalist sensibility and the national citizen.” Today, I suspect the official answer to the question about the purpose of education would be, “to give people jobs”. Increasingly, the emphasis in education is towards vocationalisation and skills development. In a recent private conversation, the Education Minister of a North Indian state said, “we have a lot of jobs. We just don’t have the people skilled enough to do them. We need bio technologists, fitters, crane operators, nurses and lab assistants. But our education does not prepare young people for what we need. We need to change that.” Similarly, we find that the Confederation of Indian Industry is showing increasing interest in school education. The CII recently commissioned a study to look at the challenges and opportunities which face the Indian industry and this is its thesis that in the year 2025, there will be about 40 million jobs worldwide, which need to be filled. India will be one of the few countries in the world to have a labour surplus of the right age group. It, therefore believes that we need to think about the kinds of education system necessary to develop skills whereby our children will be best equipped to function in this scenario. Public consensus on the way to improve educational access is increasingly moving towards a public-private partnership. But we must be concerned about the terrible narrowness of the vision for educational improvement which characterizes our discourse. Education, in this picture, is about the implanting of useful skills – the assumption being that it will ultimately lead to both personal and national enrichment but as Martha Nussbaum writes, education is not simply a producer of wealth; it is a producer of citizens. Citizens in a democracy need, above all, freedom of mind – to learn to ask searching questions; to reject shoddy historical argument; to imagine alternative possibilities from a globalizing, service and market-driven economy, to think what it might be like to be in others’ shoes. Recently, the Israeli novelist, Amos Oz, spoke about the importance of reading novels as what he calls an antidote to hate. He said, “I believe in literature as a bridge between peoples. I believe curiosity can be a moral quality. I believe imagining the other can be an antidote to fanaticism. Imagining the other will make you not only a better businessperson or a better lover but even a better person. Part of the tragedy between Jew and Arab is the inability of so many of us, Jews and Arabs, to imagine each other – really imagine each other; the loves, the terrible fears, the anger, the passion. There is too much hostility between us, too little curiosity.” The skills and thought processes while engender the curiosity, the imagining are associated with the humanities, the arts and literature and despite the splendid interventions in the NCERT’s new textbooks for History and Political Science, these areas are terribly neglected. Our dominant conception of worthwhile education is increasingly technical and mechanistic. The thinking processes engendered by the social sciences are today seen as quaint, vaguely leftyintellectual, a kind of quixotic idealism – which has very little to do with the real business of life. It is a strange irony that in the educational world of Gandhi, Tagore and Aurobindo, there are tragically few voices which assert a more holistic vision.

Q. 43 The true purpose of education in India as inferred from the passage ?

A. Is to create a nationalist sensibility in every citizen

B. Has been a topic of debate since independence

C. Is a concept that has been changing from time to time

D. Is to teach an individual the necessary skills to earn his livelihood

Q. 44 In the author’s perception, our vision for educational improvement is narrow because our system

A. Gives importance only to vocationalisation and skills development

B. Believes in making people earn more so that they can stand up to the challenges of a globalizing economy

C. Does not acknowledge the importance of humanist concepts

D. Does not support a public-private partnership in improving educational access to everyone

Q. 45 Amos Oz believes that the world will become a peaceful place, if people

A. Become less hostile

B. Become less narrow minded

C. Become less fanatic

D. Empathise with each other

Q. 46 The Indian concept of worthwhile education is that which

I. Gives technical training

II. Makes people think

III. Has a measurable outcome

IV. Kindles our curiosity and imagination

V. Helps people become wealthy

A. I and V

B. II and III

C. I, II and IV

D. I, III and IV

Q. 47 Which of the following is not an attribute of a good citizen in a democracy?

A. Learning to ask searching questions

B. Not accepting inadequate reasons from history

C. Thinking out of the box

D. Learning to negotiate with people

Questions: 48 – 51

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-51)

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on that.

Two teams of five each must be selected from a group of ten persons – A through J – of which A, E and G are doctors; D, H and J are lawyers; B and I are engineers; C and F are managers. It is also known that

i) Every team must contain persons of each of the four professions

ii) C and H cannot be selected together

iii) I cannot be selected into a team with two lawyers

iv) J cannot be in a team with two doctors

v) A and D cannot be selected together

Q. 48 If C and G are in different teams, then who are the other team members of A?

A. C, D, E and I

B. B, F, I, and J

C. B, C, H and J

D. F, H, I and G

Q. 49 Who among the following cannot be in the same team as I?

A. H

B. J

C. C

D. F

Q. 50 Who among the following must always be in the same team as A?

A. D

B. B

C. H

D. J

Q. 51 If F and G are in the same team, which among the following statements is true?

A. B and H will be in the other team

B. E and I must be in the same team

C. H must be in the same team but B must be in the other team

D. C must be in the other team but D must be in the same team

Questions: 52 – 55

Directions (Q. Nos. 52-55)

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on that.

Two families are planning to go on a canoe trip together. The families consists of the following people : Robert and Mary Henderson and their three sons Tommy, Don and William, Jerome and Ellen Penick and their two daughters Kate and Susan. There will be three canoes with three people in each canoe. At least one of the four parents must be in each canoe. At least one person from each family must be in each canoe.

Q. 52 If the two mothers ride together in the same canoe and the three brothers each ride in a different canoe, which of the following must be true?

A. Each canoe has both males and females in it

B. One of the canoes has only females in it

C. One of the canoes has only males in it

D. The sisters ride in the same canoe

Q. 53 If Ellen and Susan are together in one of the canoes, which of the following could be a list of the people together in another canoe?

A. Dan, Jerome, Kate

B. Dan, Jerome, William

C. Dan, Kate, Tommy

D. Jerome, Kate, Mary

Q. 54 If Jerome and Mary are together in one of the canoes, each of the following could be a list of the people together in another canoe except

A. Dan, Ellen, Susan

B. Ellen, Robert, Tommy

C. Ellen, Susan, William

D. Ellen, Tommy, William

Q. 55 If each of the Henderson children rides in a different canoe, which of the following must be true?

I. The Penick children do not ride together

II. The Penick parents do not ride together

III. The Henderson parents do not ride together

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. I and III

Questions: 56 – 57

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-57)

Each question has a sentence with a part of the sentence quoted that may contain an error. Four alternative substitutes are given for the quoted portion. Identify the choice that replaces the quoted part to form a logically and grammatically correct statement and mark it as your correct answer.

Q. 56 Feminism is not simply a movement to ensure that women will have equal rights with men “but that a commitment for eradiating the ideology of domination” that permeates Indian culture at various levels

A. That is a commitment to eradicate the ideology to dominate that

B. It is a commitment to eradicating the ideology of domination that

C. Whose commitment to eradicating the ideology of domination which

D. But that a commitment for eradicating the ideology of domination that

Q. 57 It is unfortunate that the lure of visiting foreign countries still draws a very large number if our people, “who do not seem to be realizing what their own country is and how much can be seen and learnt from it?”

A. Who do not seem to realize their country and see and learn from it

B. Who are not realizing what their own country is and how much there is in it to see and learn from

C. Who do not seem to realize what their own country is and how much there is in it to see and learn from it

D. Who do not seem to realize what their own country is and how much there is in it to see and learn from

Questions: 58 – 60

Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60)

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on that.

Each of five people – A, B, C, D and E owns a different car among Maruti, Mercedes, Sierra, Fiat and Audi and the colours of these cars are Black, Green, Blue, White and Red, not necessarily in that order. No two cars are of the same colour. It is also known that

i) A’s car is not Black and it is not a Mercedes

ii) B’s car is Green and it is not a Sierra

iii) E’s car is not White and it is not an Audi

iv) C’s car is a Mercedes and it is not Blue

v) D’s car is not Red and it is a Fiat

Q. 58 If A owns a Blue Sierra, then E’s car can be a

A. Red Maruti

B. White Maruti

C. Black Audi

D. Red Audi

Q. 59 If A owns a White Audi, then E’s car can be a

A. Red Maruti

B. Blue Maruti

C. Green Audi

D. Black Sierra

Q. 60 If A’s car is a Red Maruti and D’s car is White, then E owns a

A. Black Audi

B. Blue Sierra

C. Black Sierra

D. Blue Audi

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	B	D	A	A	C	B	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	A	C	A	D	B	C	D	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	D	C	D	A	B	A	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	A	B	C	C	C	D	A	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	A	D	D	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	B	B	D	B	D	A	D	B