Vidhyarthi Darpan %

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2010 Prelims

Q. 1 A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in figure (1). The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is μ. The acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:

A. α > mg/μ

B. α > g/μm

C. α ≥ g/μ

D. α < g/μ

Q. 2 The mass of a ⁷₃Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li nucleus is nearly

A. 46 Mev

B. 5.6 Mev

C. 3.9 Mev

D. 23 Mev

Q. 3 A circular disk of moment of inertia it is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a constant angular speed ωi. Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed ωf. The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is –

A. 1/2 Ib²/(It + Ib) ωi²

B. 1/2 It²/(It + Ib) ωi²

C. (Ib – It)/(It + Ib) ωi²

D. 1/2 (Ib . It)/(It + Ib) ωi²

Q. 4 Which one of the following statement is FALSE ?

A. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor

B. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

C. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons

D. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature

Q. 5 The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = a sin² ωt. The motion of the particle corresponds to –

A. simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π

B. simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π

C. non simple harmonic motion

D. simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π

Q. 6 The radii of circular orbits of two satellite A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed satellite B will be –

A. 3V/4

B. 6V

C. 12 V

D. 3 V/2

Q. 7 A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed. Electric (E) and Magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by

A. B^2/2VE^2

B. 2VB^2/E^2

C. 2VE^2/B^2

D. E^2/2VB^2

Q. 8 A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting for rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v ? (take g = 10 m/s²)

A. 75 m/s

B. 55 m/s

C. 40 m/s

D. 60 m/s

Q. 9 A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index μ, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following value of μ the ray can undergo total internal reflection:

A. μ = 1.33

B. μ = 1.40

C. μ = 1.50

D. μ = 1.25

Q. 10 The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be

A. T

B. T/√2

C. 2T

D. √2T

Q. 11 A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t ?

A. Q/4

B. Q/16

C. 2Q

D. Q/2

Q. 12 A ball moving with velocity 2m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, the their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be –

A. 0, 1

B. 1, 1

C. 1, 0.5

D. 0, 2

Q. 13 A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin (ωt – kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity –

A. πA/2

B. πA

C. 2πA

D. A

Q. 14 A particle has initial velocity (3î + 4ĵ) and has acceleration (0.4î + 0.3ĵ). Its speed after 10 s is –

A. 7 units

B. 7 √2 units

C. 8.5 units

D. 10 units

Q. 15 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 /s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine –

A. 400 W

B. 200 W

C. 100 W

D. 800 W

Q. 16 A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with a constant frequency of f revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in Wb/m² at the centre of the ring is –

A. (μₒqf)/2πR

B. (μₒq)/2πfR

C. (μₒq)/2fR

D. (μₒqf)/2R

Q. 17 Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point ?

A. metallic bonding

B. vander Waal’s bonding

C. ionic bonding

D. covalent bonding

Q. 18 A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)⁻¹. The acceleration of particle is proportional to –

A. (velocity)³/²

B. (distance)²

C. (distance)⁻²

D. (velocity)²/³

Q. 19 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = .025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mms⁻¹. The induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is –

A. 2 πμV

B. πμV

C. π/2 μV

D. 2 μV

Q. 20 The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as Nₒ counts per minute at t = 0 and Nₒ/e counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is –

A. logₑ 2/5

B. 5 / logₑ 2

C. 5 log₁₀ 2

D. 5 logₑ 2

Q. 21 Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will be –

A. 2 v

B. zero

C. 1.5 v

D. v

Q. 22 A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be –

A. -3GM/a

B. -2GM/a

C. -GM/a

D. -4GM/a

Q. 23 The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is –

A. Junction diode

B. Integrated circuit

C. Junction transistor

D. Zener diode

Q. 24 A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown in figure (1). The potential gradient across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at lengths l1 cm and l2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal respectively to –

A. k(l2 – l1) and kl2

B. kl1 and k(l2 – l1)

C. k(l2 – l1) and kl1

D. kli and kl2

Q. 25 A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second, when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was –

A. 510 Hz

B. 514 Hz

C. 516 Hz

D. 508 Hz

Q. 26 Six vectors, a through vector f have magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure . Which of the following statements is true?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 27 A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 Ω and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be –

A. 900 Ω

B. 1800 Ω

C. 500 Ω

D. 1000 Ω

Q. 28 A gramophone record is revolving with angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is μ. The coin will revolve with the record if –

A. r = μgω²

B. r < ω²/μg

C. r ≤ μg/ω²

D. r ≥ μg/ω²

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?

A. both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time

B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors

C. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave

D. These waves do not require any material medium for propagation

Q. 30 The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of He⁺ ion in the first excited state will be –

A. – 13.6 eV

B. – 27.2 eV

C. – 54.4 eV

D. – 6.8 eV

Q. 31 The dimension of 1/2 ∈oE², where ∈o is permittivity of free space and E is an electric field, is –

A. ML² T⁻²

B. ML⁻¹T⁻²

C. ML² T ⁻¹

D. MLT⁻¹

Q. 32 In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated (E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367 × 10⁻⁶kg/C) –

A. 1.76 × 10⁻³ kg

B. 9.67 × 10⁻³ kg

C. 17.6 1× 10⁻³ kg

D. 3.67 × 10⁻³ kg

Q. 33 A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be –

A. 9.9 m

B. 10.1 m

C. 10 m

D. 20 m

Q. 34 An alpha nucleus of energy 1/2 mv² bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to –

A. 1/Ze

B. v²

C. 1/m

D. 1/v⁴

Q. 35 A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter d/2 in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively –

A. f and I/4

B. 3f/4 and I/2

C. f and 3I/4

D. f/4 and I/2

Q. 36 If ΔU and ΔW represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamic process, which of the following is true ?

A. ΔU = – ΔW, in a adiabatic process

B. ΔU = ΔW, in a isothermal process

C. ΔU = ΔW, in a adiabatic process

D. ΔU = – ΔW, in a isothermal process

Q. 37 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature TK is given by –

(Where σ is Stefan’s Constant)

A. (σ r²T⁴)/R²

B. (σ r²T⁴)/4πr²

C. (σ r²T⁴)/r⁴

D. (4π σ r²T⁴)/R²

Q. 38 In the circuit given in figure (1) the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively –

A. 150 V, 2.2 A

B. 220 V, 2.2 A

C. 220 V, 2.0 A

D. 100 V, 2.0 A

Q. 39 A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is –

A. 3.6 ampere

B. 2.8 ampere

C. 2.5 ampere

D. 5.0 ampere

Q. 40 A source S₁ is producing, 10¹⁵ photons per second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S₂ is producing 1.02 × 10¹⁵ photons per second of wavelength 5100 Å. Then, (power of S₂)/(power of S₁) is equal to

A. 1.00

B. 1.02

C. 1.04

D. 0.98

Q. 41 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is –

A. 500

B. 1000

C. 1250

D. 50

Q. 42 A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth’s horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth’s field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of magnet will be –

A. 1s

B. 2s

C. 3s

D. 4s

Q. 43 Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron) –

A. 4πεₒFd²/e²

B. √4πεₒFe²/d²

C. √4πεₒFd²/e²

D. 4πεₒFd²/q²

Q. 44 The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photo electrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be –

A. 2.4 V

B. – 1.2 V

C. – 2.4 V

D. 1.2 V

Q. 45 A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle θ with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt-m, is –

A. EL²

B. EL² cos θ

C. EL² sin θ

D. Zero

Q. 46 A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it is has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is then –

A. 2C1/n1n2

B. 16n2/n1 C1

C. 2 n2/n1 C1

D. 16C1/n1n2

Q. 47 Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has –

A. low retentivity and high coercive force

B. high retentivity and high coercive force

C. low retentivity and low coercive force

D. high retentivity and low coercive force

Q. 48 A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F^→, the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is –

Note :- F^→ is a vector

A. 3F^→

B. -F^→

C. -3F^→

D. F^→

Q. 49 Consider the following two statements –

(A) Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from the conservation of charge

(B) Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of energy

Which of the following is correct ?

A. Both (A) and (B) are wrong

B. (A) is correct and (B) is wrong

C. (A) is wrong and (B) is correct

D. Both (A) and (B) are correct

Q. 50 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown in figure (1), the input must be –

A. 0(A), 1(B), 0(C)

B. 0(A), 0(B), 1(C)

C. 1(A), 0(B), 1(C)

D. 1(A), 0(B), 0(C)

Q. 51 For the reaction N₂O₅(g) → 2NO₂(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is given as 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹. The rate of formation of NO₂ and O₂ is given respectively as:

A. 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

B. 1.25 x 10⁻² mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 3.125 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

C. 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 3.125 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

D. 1.25 x 10⁻² mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

Q. 52 Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by

A. Oxidation

B. Cracking

C. Distillation under reduced pressure

D. Hydrolysis

Q. 53 In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp² hybridisation?

A. NO₂⁻ and NH₃

B. BF₃ and NO₂⁻

C. NH₂⁻ and H₂O

D. BF₃ and NH₂⁻

Q. 54 Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?

A. (+) Sucrose

B. (+) Lactose

C. (+) Maltose

D. (–) Fructose

Q. 55 Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

A. Be₂⁺

B. Be₂

C. B₂

D. Li₂

Q. 56 Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light?

A. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻

B. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

C. [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Q. 57 Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be

A. III > II > IV > I

B. II > III > I > IV

C. II > III > IV > I

D. III > IV > II > I

Q. 58 If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)₂ is 12, the value of its K(SP) is

A. 4.00 × 10⁻⁶ M³

B. 4.00 × 10⁻⁷ M³

C. 5.00 × 10⁻⁶ M³

D. 5.00 × 10⁻⁷ M³

Q. 59 The reaction of toluene with Cl₂ in presence of FeCl₃ gives ‘X’ and reaction in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

A. X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene

B. X = m– chlorotoluene, Y = p- chlorotoluene

C. X = o-and p- chlorotoluene Y = Trichloromethyl benzene

D. X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m- chlorotoluene

Q. 60 Which one of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 61 In a set of reactions given in figure (A), ethyl benzene yielded a product D. Which of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) would be :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 62 What is [H⁺] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH₃COONa and 0.10 M in CH₃COOH? Kₐ for CH₃COOH = 1.8 × 10⁻⁵

A. 3.5 × 10⁻⁴

B. 1.1 × 10⁻⁵

C. 1.8 × 10⁻⁵

D. 9.0 × 10⁻⁶

Q. 63 For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is ΔH (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea will be:

A. less than ΔH

B. equal to ΔH

C. more than ΔH

D. equal to zero

Q. 64 The correct order of increasing reactivity of C–X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds (I), (II), (III), (IV) is:

A. I < II < IV < III

B. II < III < I < IV

C. IV < III < I < II

D. III < II < I < IV

Q. 65 For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be +0.46 V at 25°C. The value of standard Gibbs energy. ΔG° will be (F = 96500 C mol⁻¹).

A. –89.0 kJ

B. –89.0 J

C. –44.5 kJ

D. –98.0 kJ

Q. 66 In which of the following equilibrium K􀀂 and Kₚ are not equal?

A. 2NO (g) ⇔ N₂ (g) + O₂ (g)

B. SO₂ (g) + NO₂ (g) ⇔ SO₃ (g) + NO (g)

C. H₂ (g) + I₂ (g) ⇔ 2HI (g)

D. 2C (s) + O₂ (g) ⇔ 2CO₂ (g)

Q. 67 Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?

A. La³⁺ (z = 57)

B. Ti³⁺ (z = 22)

C. Lu³⁺ (z = 71)

D. Sc³⁺ (z =21)

Q. 68 Aniline in a set of the following reactions given in figure (A) yielded a coloured product ‘Y’. The structure of ‘Y’ would be (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 69 Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?

A. NaOH – Br₂

B. Sodalime

C. Hot conc. H₂SO₄

D. PCl₅

Q. 70 An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?

A. addition of NaCl

B. addition of Na₂SO₄

C. addition of 1.00 molal KI

D. addition of water

Q. 71 A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol⁻¹) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be : (K􀀃 for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)

A. –0.372°C

B. –0.520°C

C. + 0.372°C

D. – 0.570°C

Q. 72 Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy?

A. CaSO₄

B. BeSO₄

C. BaSO₄

D. SeSO₄

Q. 73 Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶?

A. Ni³⁺

B. Mn³⁺

C. Fe³⁺

D. Co³⁺

Q. 74 An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:

A. increase in ionic mobility of ions

B. 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution

C. increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions

D. increase in number of ions

Q. 75 Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d⁴ octahedral complex is

A. -1.8 Δₒ

B. -1.6 Δₒ + P

C. -1.2 Δₒ

D. -0.6 Δₒ

Q. 76 Oxidation states of P in H₄P₂0₅, H₄P₂O₆, H₄P₂O₇, are respectively:

A. +3, +5, + 4

B. +5, +3, +4

C. +5, +4, +3

D. +3, +4, +5

Q. 77 Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘False’?

A. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines

B. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols

C. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols

D. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia

Q. 78 The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is

A. Cl₂O < ClO₂ < ClO₂⁻

B. ClO₂ < Cl₂O < ClO₂⁻

C. Cl₂O < ClO₂⁻ < ClO₂

D. ClO₂⁻ < Cl₂O < ClO₂

Q. 79 Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is :

A. CH3COOCH3

B. CH3CONH2

C. CH3COOCOCH3

D. CH3COCl

Q. 80 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃ is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na⁺ and carbonate ions, CO₃²⁻ are respectively (Molar mass of Na₂CO₃= 106 g mol⁻¹)

A. 0.955 M and 1.910 M

B. 1.910 M and 0.955 M

C. 1.90 M and 1.910 M

D. 0.477 and 0.477 M

Q. 81 In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B⁻ and HB, the Kᵦ for B⁻ is 10⁻¹⁰. The pH of buffer solution is:

A. 10

B. 7

C. 6

D. 4

Q. 82 The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is due to

A. linkage isomerism

B. geometrical isomerism

C. coordination isomerism

D. ionization isomerism

Q. 83 Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number:

A. Solubility of their hydroxides in water

B. Solubility of their sulphates in water

C. Ionization energy

D. Electronegativity

Q. 84 During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B → C + D, following results were obtained: Based on the data in figure which one of the following is correct?

A. rate = k [A]²[B]

B. rate = k [A] [B]

C. rate = k [A]² [B]²

D. rate = k [A] [B]²

Q. 85 Which of the following pairs has the same size?

A. Fe²⁺, Ni²⁺

B. Zn⁴⁺, Ti⁴⁺

C. Zn⁴⁺, Hf⁴⁺

D. Zn²⁺, Hf⁴⁺

Q. 86 The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is :

A. Ca²⁺ > K⁺ > S²⁻ > Cl⁻

B. Cl⁻ > S²⁻ > Ca²⁺ > K⁺

C. S²⁻ > Cl⁻ > K⁺ > Ca²⁺

D. K⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Cl⁻ > S²⁻

Q. 87 In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three?

A. SF₄

B. I₃⁻

C. SbCl₅²⁻

D. PCl₅

Q. 88 Standard entropies of X₂, Y₂ and XY₃ are 60, 40 and 50 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. For the reaction 1/2 X₂ + 3/2 Y₂ ⇔ XY₃, ΔH = -30 kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be:

A. 750 K

B. 1000 K

C. 1250 K

D. 500 K

Q. 89 Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?

A. Cl < F < O < S

B. O < S < F < Cl

C. F < S < O < Cl

D. S < O < Cl < F

Q. 90 Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide?

A. KO₂

B. BaO₂

C. MnO₂

D. NO₂

Q. 91 Which one among (1), (2), (3), (4) is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent among (A), (B), (C), (D)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 92 Which one of the following is employed as a Tranquilizer drug?

A. Promethazine

B. Valium

C. Naproxen

D. Mifepristone

Q. 93 In the following figures, (1), (2), (3), (4), the most stable conformation of n – butane is:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 94 Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?

A. Reimer-Tiemann reaction

B. Cannizzaro reaction

C. Wurtz reaction

D. Friedel-Crafts acylation

Q. 95 Which of the following structures (1), (2), (3), (4), represents Neoprene polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 96 Which one is most reactive towards Sn₁ reaction?

A. C₆H₅CH(C₆H₅)Br

B. C₆H₅CH(CH₃)Br

C. C₆H₅C(CH₃)(C₆H₅)Br

D. C₆H₅CH₂Br

Q. 97 AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is:

A. 335 pm

B. 250 pm

C. 200 pm

D. 300 pm

Q. 98 The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is: (NA = 6.02 x 10²³ mol⁻¹)

A. 6.026 x 10²²

B. 1.806 x 10²³

C. 3.600 x 10²³

D. 1.800 x 10²²

Q. 99 Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?

A. NH₃

B. H₂O

C. B₂H₆

D. CH₄

Q. 100 The tendency of BF3₃, BCl₃ and BBr₃ to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:

A. BCl₃ > BF₃ > BBr₃

B. BBr₃ > BCl₃ > BF₃

C. BBr₃ > BF₃ > BCl₃

D. BF₃ > BCl₃ > BBr₃

Q. 101 In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

A. Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage

B. Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

C. Embryo of 32 cell stage

D. Zygote only

Q. 102 Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

A. Plasmodesmata

B. Plastoquinones

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Plasmalemma

Q. 103 Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:

A. Protista

B. Fungi

C. Archaea

D. Monera

Q. 104 The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:

A. Insect-resistance

B. Enhancing shelf life

C. Enhancing mineral content

D. Drought-resistance

Q. 105 In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is:

A. Marginal

B. Basal

C. Free Central

D. Axile

Q. 106 An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:

A. Molybdenum

B. Copper

C. Manganese

D. Zinc

Q. 107 Sertoli cells are found in :

A. ovaries and secrete progesterone

B. adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline

C. seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells

D. pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin

Q. 108 Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?

A. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor

B. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive

C. Alleles do not show any blending and both he characters recover as such in F2 generation

D. Factors occur in pairs

Q. 109 Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from :

A. Synergids

B. Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule

C. Antipodal cell

D. Diploid egg

Q. 110 One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:

A. Octopus

B. Asterias

C. Ascidia

D. Fasciola

Q. 111 Select the correct statement from the ones given below :

A. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth

B. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller

C. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

D. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery

Q. 112 Listed in figure (1) are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult:

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

A. (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL

B. (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL

C. (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL

D. (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL

Q. 113 The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are :

A. Vessels

B. Fibres

C. Transfusion tissue

D. Tracheids

Q. 114 Ringworm in humans is caused by :

A. Bacteria

B. Fungi

C. Nematodes

D. Viruses

Q. 115 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

A. Molybdenum

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Boron

Q. 116 Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:

A. Saccharomyces

B. Streptococcus

C. Chalamydomonas

D. Plasmodium

Q. 117 Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:

A. Testicular lobules to rete testis

B. Rete testis to vas deferens

C. Vas deferens to epididymis

D. Epididymis to urethra

Q. 118 Select the correct statement from the following:

A. Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste

B. Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle

C. Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane

D. Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria

Q. 119 Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon.

(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it

(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region

(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod

The correct statements are :

A. (b) and (c)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 120 Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:

A. Gulmohar

B. Cassia

C. Calotropis

D. Bean

Q. 121 The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:

A. cuboidal epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated columnar epithelium

D. squamous epithelium

Q. 122 Which one of the following has its own DNA?

A. Mitochondria

B. Dictyosome

C. Lysosome

D. Peroxisome

Q. 123 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called :

A. Xenogamy

B. Geitonogamy

C. Karyogamy

D. Autogamy

Q. 124 The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by –

A. Test cross

B. Dihybrid cross

C. Pedigree analysis

D. Back cross

Q. 125 PGA as the first CO₂ fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of –

A. Bryophyte

B. Gymnosperm

C. Angiosperm

D. Algae

Q. 126 Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them

(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers

(b) Predatory starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates

(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic Disorders The two correct statement are:

A. a and d

B. a and b

C. b and c

D. c and d

Q. 127 Seminal plasma in human males is rich in –

A. fructose and calcium

B. glucose and calcium

C. DNA and testosterone

D. ribose and potassium

Q. 128 ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – I^A, I^B and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur –

A. Three

B. One

C. Four

D. Two

Q. 129 Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called –

A. Somatic hybridisation

B. Biofortification

C. Biomagnification

D. Micropropagation

Q. 130 A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is –

A. Baculovirus

B. Bacillus thuringiensis

C. Glomus

D. Trichoderma

Q. 131 Widal test is used for the diagnosis of –

A. Malaria

B. Pneumonia

C. Tuberculosis

D. Typhoid

Q. 132 Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following ?

A. Aldosterone

B. Both Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone

C. Adrenaline

D. Cortisol

Q. 133 Low Ca⁺⁺ in the body fluid may be the cause of

A. Tetany

B. Anaemia

C. Angina pectoris

D. Gout

Q. 134 Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched –

A. Glucagon – Beta cells (source)

B. Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)

C. Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)

D. Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)

Q. 135 Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross –

A. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations

B. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations

C. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones

D. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombination

Q. 136 Which one of the following statements regards to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct

A. Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water

B. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable in reabsorbing HCO3

C. nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tube

D. Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes

Q. 137 The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in

A. Hypothalamus

B. Pons

C. Cerebellum

D. Thalamus

Q. 138 The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called –

A. Net primary productivity

B. Secondary productivity

C. Standing crop

D. Gross primary productivity

Q. 139 If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid value of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect

A. The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down

B. The pacemaker will stop working

C. The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

D. The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

Q. 140 Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of –

A. Guava

B. Plum

C. Brinjal

D. Cucumber

Q. 141 which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?

A. Baculovirus

B. Salmonella typhimurium

C. Rhizopus nigricans

D. Retrovirus

Q. 142 The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being –

A. Degenerate

B. Ambiguous

C. Universal

D. Specific

Q. 143 Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ?

A. Wild life sanctuary

B. Seed bank

C. Sacred groves

D. National park

Q. 144 Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 145 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS ?

A. The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person

B. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection

C. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition

D. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers

Q. 146 Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of –

A. Gibberellin

B. Phytochrome

C. Cytokinins

D. Auxin

Q. 147 The figure (1) is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent respectively

A. conformer(a), regulator(b), partial regulator(c)

B. regulator(a), partial regulator(b), conformer(c)

C. partial regulator(a), regulator(b), conformer(c)

D. regulator(a), conformer(b), partial regulator(c)

Q. 148 Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in –

A. Mustard

B. Castor

C. Pinus

D. sphagnum

Q. 149 The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus

rosasinensis) is

A. Monoadelphous

B. Diadelphous

C. Polyandrous

D. Polyadelphous

Q. 150 Virus envelope is known as –

A. Capsid

B. Virion

C. Nucleoprotein

D. Core

Q. 151 The permissible use of the technique aminocentesis is for –

A. detecting sex of the unborn foetus

B. artificial insemination

C. transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother

D. Detecting any genetic abnormality

Q. 152 During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at –

A. Late prophase

B. Early metaphase

C. Late metaphase

D. Early prophase

Q. 153 One of the free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is

A. Beijernickia

B. Rhodospirillum

C. Rhizobium

D. Azotobacter

Q. 154 DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called –

A. Vector

B. Probe

C. Clone

D. Plasmid

Q. 155 Darwin’s finches are a good example of –

A. Industrial melanism

B. Connecting link

C. Adaptive radiation

D. Convergent evolution

Q. 156 The signals for parturition originate from –

A. placenta only

B. placenta as well as fully developed foetus

C. oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

D. fully developed foetus only

Q. 157 What is true about RBCs in humans ?

A. They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2

B. They transport 99.5 percent of O2

C. They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of its

transported in dissolved state in blood plasma

D. They do not carry CO2 at all

Q. 158 Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively ?

A. Metaphase – Telophase

B. Telophase – Metaphase

C. Late Anaphase – Prophase

D. Prophase – Anaphase

Q. 159 The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

A. Plasma membrane

B. Mitochondria

C. Cytoplasm

D. Nucleus

Q. 160 The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is –

A. Rhizobium

B. Azospirillum

C. Oscillatoria

D. Frankia

Q. 161 The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in human is synthesised –

A. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver

B. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys

C. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile

D. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys

Q. 162 Carrier ions like Na⁺ facilitate the absorption of substances like –

A. amino acids and glucose

B. glucose and fatty acids

C. fatty acids and glycerol

D. fructose and some amino acids

Q. 163 Which one of the following symbols (1), (2), (3), (4) and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 164 Which two of the following changes (a – d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more) ?

(a) Increase in red blood cell size

(b) Increase in red blood cell production

(d) Increase in thrombocyte count

A. (b) and (c)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (d)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 165 Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the

development of –

A. toxic goitre

B. cretinism

C. simple goitre

D. thyrotoxicosis

Q. 166 If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect:

A. production of somatostatin

B. secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

C. maturation of sperms

D. smooth movement of food down the intestine

Q. 167 The plasma membrane consists mainly of –

A. phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer

B. proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

C. proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

D. proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

Q. 168 Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct –

A. Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic

B. Leech is fresh water form while all others are marine

C. Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three

D. All are bilaterally symmetrical

Q. 169 The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?

A. Fourth month

B. Fifth month

C. Sixth month

D. Third month

Q. 170 The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?

A. Cotyledon

B. Endosperm

C. Aleurone layer

D. Plumule

Q. 171 Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?

A. Flat worms

B. Sponges

C. Ctenophores

D. Corals

Q. 172 Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct –

A. Roundworms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates pseudocoelomates

B. Molluscs are acoelomates

C. Insects are pseudocoelomates

D. Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

Q. 173 Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

A. make uterus unsuitable for implantation

B. increase phagocytosis of sperms

C. suppress sperm motility

D. prevent ovulation

Q. 174 The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called –

A. Glycolysis

B. Fermentation

C. Aerobic respiration

D. Photorespiration

Q. 175 Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –

A. make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

B. recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

C. restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

D. remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

Q. 176 Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem ?

A. Intrafascicular cambium

B. Interfascicular cambium

C. Phellogen

D. Intercalary meristem

Q. 177 A renewable exhaustible natural resource is –

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Minerals

D. Forest

Q. 178 Photoperiodism was first characterised in –

A. Tobacco

B. Potato

C. Tomato

D. Cotton

Q. 179 C₄ plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C₃ plants due to –

A. Higher leaf area

B. Presence of large number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells

C. Presence of thin cuticle

D. Lower rate of photorespiration

Q. 180 Algae have cell wall made up of –

A. Cellulose, galactans and mannans

B. Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins

C. Pectins, cellulose and proteins

D. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

Q. 181 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH₂) habitats belong to the two groups –

A. Eubacteria and archaea

B. Cyanobacteria and diatoms

C. Protists and mosses

D. Liverworts and yeasts

Q. 182 Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing –

A. transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

B. transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac disease

C. transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

D. Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

Q. 183 Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are –

A. Long fibre and resistance to aphids

B. Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests

C. High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

D. High yield and resistance to bollworms

Q. 184 Heartwood differs from sapwood in –

A. Presence of rays and fibres

B. Absence of vessels and parenchyma

C. Having dead and non-conducting elements

D. Being susceptible to pests and pathogens

Q. 185 Satellite DNA is useful tool in –

A. Organ transplantation

B. Sex determination

C. Forensic science

D. Genetic engineering

Q. 186 The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs –

A. Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube

B. Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm

C. Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

D. in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

Q. 187 Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology ?

A. Pea

B. Mucor

C. Chlamydomonas

D. HIV

Q. 188 Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct –

A. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg,

resulting in fertilisation.

B. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation.

C. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum.

D. Acrosome serves no particular function

Q. 189 Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these:

(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take

immune suppressants for a long time.

(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.

(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

The two correct statements are –

A. (b) and (c)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 190 Wind pollinated flowers are –

A. small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains

B. small, producing large number of dry pollen grains

C. large producing abundant nectar and pollen

D. small, producing nectar and dry pollen

Q. 191 dB is a standard abbreviation used of the quantitative expression of –

A. the density of bacteria in a medium

B. a particular pollutant

C. the dominant Bacillus in a culture

D. a certain pesticide

Q. 192 Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

A. Stratification

B. Natality

C. Mortality

D. Sex-ratio

Q. 193 Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct –

A. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA

B. It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote

C. It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

D. It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote

Q. 194 Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of –

A. Thigmotaxis

B. Thigmonasty

C. Thigmotropism

D. Thermotaxis

Q. 195 The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are –

A. CO₂ and CH₄

B. CH₄ and N₂O

C. CFC₅ and N₂O

D. CO₂ and N₂O

Q. 196 Which one of the following not used in organic farming?

A. Glomus

B. Earthworm

C. Oscillatoria

D. Snail

Q. 197 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for –

A. Addition of preservatives to the product

B. Purification of the product

C. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

D. Availability of oxygen throughout the process

Q. 198 The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

A. Isthmus

B. Infundibulum

C. Cervix

D. Ampulla

Q. 199 An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice

A. Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones

B. gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

C. is completely resistant to all insect pests and disease of paddy

D. gives high yield but has no characteristic atoms

Q. 200 Infectious proteins are present in –

A. Gemini viruses

B. Prions

C. Viroids

D. Satellite viruses

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	D	B	C	B	D	A	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	C	B	D	D	A	A	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	B	B	D	C	A	C	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	B	C	C	A	A	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	B	D	D	C	B	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	B	A	B	A	A	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	C	A	A	D	B	A	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	D	A	D	D	C	C	D	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	A	D	C	C	C	A	B	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	B	B	B	A	C	A	B	C	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	A	A	A	B	A	C	C	B	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	B	B	B	B	D	C	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	A	B	A	D	D	A	C	B	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	C	A	A	D	C	A	A	D	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	B	C	D	D	D	D	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	B	B	C	B	A	C	C	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	D	A	A	C	D	B	C	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	A	C	B	A	D	D	A	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	A	D	C	C	B	D	B	D	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	A	A	C	A	D	D	B	B	B

AIPMT 2009 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2009 Prelims

Q. 1 In the nuclear decay given in figure 1, the particles emitted in the sequence are:

A. γ, β, α

B. β, γ, α

C. α, β, γ

D. β, α, γ

Q. 2 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity If two objects each of mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:

A. ωM/(M + 2m)

B. (ω(M + 2m))/M

C. ωM/(M + m)

D. (ω(M – 2m))/(M + 2m)

Q. 3 In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?

A. In an isochoric process pressure remains constant

B. In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant

C. In an adiabatic process PVγ = constant

D. In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings

Q. 4 The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of a frequency v (higher than the threshold frequency v0) is proportional to:

A. Threshold frequency (v0)

B. Intensity of light

C. Frequency of light (v)

D. v – v0

Q. 5 A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of pendulum at x = a/2 will be :

A. πa/T

B. (3π2a)/T

C. (πa√(3))/T

D. (πa√(3))/2T

Q. 6 See the electric circuit shown in this figure (1). Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?

A. ε 2 – i2 r2 – ε 1 – i1 r1 = 0

B. – ε 2 – (i1 + i2) R + i2 r2 = 0

C. ε 1 – (i1+ i2) R + i1 r1 = 0

D. ε 1 – (i1+ i2) R – i1 r1 = 0

Q. 7 A body, under the action of a force F⃗ = 6 î – 8 ĵ + 10 k⃗ , acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be:

A. 10 kg

B. 20 kg

C. 10√2 kg

D. 2√10 kg

Q. 8 The symbolic representation of four logic gates are given in figure (i), (ii), (iii), (iv). The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively:

A. (iv), (i), (iii)

B. (iv), (ii), (i)

C. (i), (iii), (iv)

D. (iii), (iv), (ii)

Q. 9 If F is the force acting on a particle having position vector r and r be the torque of this force about the origin, then:

Q. 10 The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T 1 and T 2 (T 1 > T 2). The rate of heat transfer, (dQ/dt) through the rod in a steady state is given by:

A. dQ/dt = (k(T 1 – T 2))/LA

B. dQ/dt = kLA(T 1 – T 2)

C. dQ/dt = (kA(T 1 – T 2))/L

D. dQ/dt = (kL(T 1 – T 2))/A

Q. 11 A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:

A. 4000 nm

B. 6000 nm

C. 4000 Å

D. 6000 Å

Q. 12 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by M a L b T c, then the physical quantity will be:

A. Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1

B. Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2

C. Force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2

D. Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2

Q. 13 A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100μA to 200μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is:

A. 100

B. 150

C. 50

D. 75

Q. 14 The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is:

A. 4 ms^−2 upwards.

B. 4 ms^−2 downwards.

C. 14 ms^−2 upwards.

D. 30 ms^−2 downwards.

Q. 15 Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is :

A. (2/3) Ml2

B. (13/3) Ml2

C. (1/3) Ml2

D. (4/3) Ml2

Q. 16 Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is:

A. 7

B. 8

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 17 The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an:

A. isomer of parent

B. isotone of parent

C. isotope of parent

D. isobar of parent

Q. 18 The Figure (1) shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photosensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

A. curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.

B. curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.

C. curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.

D. curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.

Q. 19 The Figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sum S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet of move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then:

A. t1 = 4t2

B. t1 = 2t2

C. t1 = t2

D. t1 > t2

Q. 20 A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 Cals/cm 2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be:

A. 50

B. 112

C. 80

D. 60

Q. 21 The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is:

A. 555.5 Hz

B. 720 Hz

C. 500 Hz

D. 550 Hz

Q. 22 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the Figure (1) is:

A. 3 Ω

B. 6 πΩ

C. 6 Ω

D. 0.6 πΩ

Q. 23 A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, V⃗ = v î. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for:

A. the circular and the elliptical loops.

B. only the elliptical loop.

C. any of the four loops.

D. the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops.

Q. 24 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by:

A. putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω

B. putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω

C. putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω

D. putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω

Q. 25 Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c source of emf ε is:

A. ε^2 √(R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2) / R

B. ε^2 [R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2] / R

C. ε^2R / √(R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2)

D. ε^2R / [R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2]

Q. 26 Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge densities σ, – σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then for c = a + b, we have:

A. VC = VB ≠ VA

B. VC ≠ VB ≠ VA

C. VC = VB = VA

D. VC = VA ≠ VB

Q. 27 An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

A. mv2

B. (1/2)mv2

C. (1/2)m 2v2

D. (1/2)mv3

Q. 28 A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 104 JT^-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10^-4 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is:

A. 12 J

B. 6 J

C. 2 J

D. 0.6 J

Q. 29 In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of charge z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is:

A. directly proportional to z1 z2

B. inversely proportional to z1

C. directly proportional to mass M1

D. directly proportional to M1 × M2

Q. 30 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving per sec. On the average at a target irradiated by this beam is

A. 3 × 10^16

B. 9 × 10^15

C. 3 × 10^19

D. 9 × 10^17

Q. 31 A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis with a speed of 128 m/sec. and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is:

A. y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x – 2010t)

B. y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x + 2010t)

C. y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x – 1005t)

D. y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t)

Q. 32 Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion? Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive.,

A. acceleration = – k(x + a)

B. acceleration = k(x + a)

C. acceleration = kx

D. acceleration = – k0x + k1x2

Q. 33 A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf ε and internal resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:

A. – r and ε

B. r and – ε

C. – ε and r

D. ε and – r

Q. 34 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is:

A. repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole

B. attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole

C. attracted by both the poles

D. repelled by both the poles

Q. 35 A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms^v-1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?

A. 40 ms^-1

B. 25 ms^-1

C. 10 ms^-1

D. 20 ms^-1

Q. 36 Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice parameter is:

A. 4.3 Å

B. 3.0 Å

C. 8.6 Å

D. 6.8 Å

Q. 37 The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is:

A. 6400 J

B. 5400 J

C. 7900 J

D. 8900 J

Q. 38 Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:

A. 3C, V/3

B. C/3, 3V

C. 3C, 3V

D. C/3, V/3

Q. 39 An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms^-1 and 2kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms^-1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms^-1, its mass would be:

A. 7 kg

B. 17 kg

C. 3 kg

D. 5 kg

Q. 40 A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then:

A. S2 = 3S1

B. S2 = 4S1

C. S2 = S1

D. S2 = 2S1

Q. 41 A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s^2)

A. 30 J

B. 40 J

C. 10 J

D. 20 J

Q. 42 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:

A. 4.8 π μV

B. 0.8 π μV

C. 1.6 π μV

D. 3.2 π μV

Q. 43 The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge -2 μC in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is

(2î + 3ĵ) × 106 ms^-1, is:

A. 4 N is z direction

B. 8 N is y direction

C. 8 N in z direction

D. 8 N in – z direction

Q. 44 Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors î + 2ĵ + k^→ and – 3î – 2ĵ + k^→ respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:

A. – 2î – ĵ + k^→

B. 2î – ĵ – 2k^→

C. – î + ĵ + k^→

D. – 2î + 2k^→

Q. 45 The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2y – xz3+ 4 The electric field E⃗ at that point is:

A. E^→ ̂= î 2xy + ĵ(x^2 + y^2) + k̂(3xz – y^2)

B. E^→ ̂= î z^3 + ĵ xyz + k̂z^2

C. E^→ ̂= î (2xy – z^3) + ĵxy^2 + k̂3z^2 x

D. E^→ ̂= î (2xy + z^3) + ĵx2 + k̂3xz^2

Q. 46 The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 × 10^-8 m. The electric field which can given on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m:

A. 5 × 10^-11

B. 8 × 10^-11

C. 5 × 10^7

D. 8 × 10^7

Q. 47 The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths.

Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between:

A. n = 3 to n = 1 states

B. n = 2 to n = 1 states

C. n = 4 to n = 3 states

D. n = 3 to n = 2 states

Q. 48 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed V in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle:

A. depends on R and not on V

B. is independent of both V and R

C. depends on both V and R

D. depends on V and not on R

Q. 49 The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0; Ez = 0; Ey is given in figure (1). The wave is:

A. moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 100 m.

B. moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

C. moving along – x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

D. moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

Q. 50 A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be:

A. 2 Mg/k

B. 4 Mg/k

C. Mg/2k

D. Mg/k

Q. 51 Which one of the following (given in figure ) is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is:

A. Glandular

B. Ciliated

C. Squamous

D. Cuboidal

Q. 53 Study the pedigree chart given in figure 1. What does it show ?

A. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

B. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

C. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

D. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria

Q. 54 Manganese is required in:

A. Plant cell wall formation

B. Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

C. Chlorophyll synthesis

D. Nucleic acid synthesis

Q. 55 Polyethylene glycol method is used for:

A. Biodiesel production

B. Seedless fruit production

C. Energy production from sewage

D. Gene transfer without a vector

Q. 56 The floral formula given in figure 1 is that of:

A. Soybean

B. Sunn Hemp

C. Tobacco

D. Tulip

Q. 57 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

A. Aschelminthes (roundworms)

B. Ctenophores

C. Sponges

D. Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

Q. 58 Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ?

A. Meloidogyne incognita

B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

C. Penicillium expansum

D. Trichoderma harzianum

Q. 59 Which one of the following (given in figure 1) is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 60 Which one is the wrong pairing (given in figure 1) for the disease and its causal organism ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 61 Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by:

A. The Montreal Protocol

B. The Koyoto Protocol

C. The Vienna Convention

D. Rio de Janeiro Conference

Q. 62 What is true about Bt toxin ?

A. Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.

B. The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication.

C. The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.

D. The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.

Q. 63 Peripatus is a connecting link between:

A. Mollusca and Echinodermata

B. Annelida and Arthropoda

C. Coelenterata and Porifera

D. Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis

Q. 64 T.O. Diener discovered a:

A. Free infectious DNA

B. Infectious protein

C. Bacteriophage

D. Free infectious RNA

Q. 65 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:

A. fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

B. glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

C. fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

D. fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

Q. 66 A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called:

A. Sorosis

B. Syconus

C. Caryopsis

D. Hesperidium

Q. 67 The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in:

A. Connective tissue

B. Epithelial tissue

C. Neural tissue

D. Muscular tissue

Q. 68 What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?

A. Micturition will continue

B. Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

C. There will be no micturition

D. Urine will not collect in the bladder

Q. 69 If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is:

A. coelomic fluid

B. haemolymph

C. slimy mucus

D. excretory fluid

Q. 70 The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:

A. overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types

B. one antibody only – either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs

C. no antigens A and B on RBCs

D. other antigens besides A and B on RBCs

Q. 71 One of the synthetic auxin is:

A. IAA

B. GA

C. IBA

D. NAA

Q. 72 A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering:

A. Preformed antibodies

B. Wide spectrum antibiotics

C. Weakened germs

D. Dead germs

Q. 73 Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of:

A. glutamic acid

B. acetylcholine

C. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

D. dopamine

Q. 74 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water:

A. has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water.

B. gives a measure of salmonella in the water.

C. increases when sewage gets mixed with river water.

D. remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.

Q. 75 The genetic defect – adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

A. administering adenosine deaminase activators.

B. introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.

C. enzyme replacement therapy.

D. periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA.

Q. 76 Compared to blood our lymph has:

A. plasma without proteins

B. more WBCs and no RBCs

C. more RBCs and less WBCs

D. no plasma

Q. 77 Sickle cell anemia is:

A. caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin

B. caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

C. characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

D. an autosomal linked dominant trait

Q. 78 Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol ?

A. Zea mays

B. Pongamia

C. Jatropha

D. Brassica

Q. 79 When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from:

A. Rickets

B. Kwashiorkor

C. Pellagra

D. Marasmus

Q. 80 A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?

A. Bile pigments passed through bile juice

B. Undigested milk protein casein

C. Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum

D. Intestinal juice

Q. 81 Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

A. Mango

B. Wheat

C. Tea

D. Teak

Q. 82 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in:

A. Oscillatoria

B. Rhodospirillum

C. Chlorobium

D. Chromatium

Q. 83 There is no DNA in:

A. Mature RBCs

B. A mature spermatozoan

C. Hair root

D. An enucleated ovum

Q. 84 Given in figure (1) is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle ?

A. C-Karyokinesis

B. D-Synthetic phase

C. A-Cytokinesis

D. B-Metaphase

Q. 85 Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park ?

A. Sunderbans

B. Gir

C. Jim Corbett

D. Ranthambhor

Q. 86 Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans ?

A. Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.

B. Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.

C. About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mout.

D. Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.

Q. 87 Synapsis occurs between:

A. mRNA and ribosomes

B. spindle fibres and centromere

C. two homologous chromosomes

D. a male and a female gamete

Q. 88 Given in figure (1) is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 89 What is not true for genetic code?

A. It is nearly universal

B. It is degenerate

C. It is unambiguous

D. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion

Q. 90 Which one of the following plants is monoecious?

A. Pinus

B. Cycas

C. Papaya

D. Marchantia

Q. 91 Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of

A. ATP and NADPH

B. ATP, NADPH and O2

C. ATP

D. NADPH

Q. 92 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to:

A. Thalamus

B. Tonsil

C. Thymus

D. Thyroid

Q. 93 Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by:

A. release of oxytocin from pituitary

B. fully developed foetus and placenta

C. differentiation of mammary glands

D. pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

Q. 94 Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by

A. Absence of secondary phloem

B. Presence of cortex

C. Position of protoxylem

D. Absence of secondary xylem

Q. 95 Plasmodesmata are :

A. Locomotary structures

B. Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

C. Connections between adjacent cells

D. Lignified cemented layers between cells

Q. 96 Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:

A. Tailing

B. Transformation

C. Capping

D. Splicing

Q. 97 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on :

A. Morphological features

B. Chemical constituents

C. Floral characters

D. Evolutionary relationships

Q. 98 Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

A. Cerebellum

B. Cerebrum

C. Hypothalamus

D. Medulla Oblongata

Q. 99 Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:

A. Escherichia coli

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Salmonella typhimurium

D. Drosophila melanogaster

Q. 100 Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?

A. Mackerals and Rohu

B. Lampreys and hag fishes

C. Guppies and hag fishes

D. Lampreys and eels

Q. 101 Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases ?

A. Common Cold, AIDS

B. Dysentery, Common Cold

C. Typhoid, Tuberculosis

D. Ringworm, AIDS

Q. 102 Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed:

A. Parabolic

B. Amphibolic

C. Anabolic

D. Catabolic

Q. 103 A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The Figure 1 shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them:

A. “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate.

B. “B” is more recent showing that population is very young.

C. “A” is the earlier pyramid and nochange has occurred in the growth rate.

D. “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate.

Q. 104 Cytoskeleton is made up of:

A. Callose deposits

B. Cellulosic microfibrils

C. Proteinaceous filaments

D. Calcium carbonate granules

Q. 105 An example of axile placentation is:

A. Dianthus

B. Lemon

C. Marigold

D. Argemone

Q. 106 Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle ?

A. Polytrichum

B. Ustilago

C. Wheat

D. Funaria

Q. 107 Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include:

A. compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.

B. permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.

C. use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks.

D. compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel.

Q. 108 Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

A. Heterospory

B. Haplontic life cycle

C. Free-living gametophyte

D. Dependent sporophyte

Q. 109 The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is:

A. elongating

B. widening

C. differentiating

D. maturing

Q. 110 The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is:

A. Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus → Lantana → Oak

B. Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana

C. Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus

D. Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia → Hydrilla → Volvox

Q. 111 Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:

A. Light-dependent reaction enzymes

B. Ribosomes

C. Chlorophyll

D. Light-independent reaction enzymes

Q. 112 A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is:

A. simple goitre

B. myxoedema

C. cretinism

D. hypothyroidism

Q. 113 Mannitol is the stored food in:

A. Porphyra

B. Fucus

C. Gracillaria

D. Chara

Q. 114 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Alcohol – nitrogenase

B. Fruit juice – pectinase

C. Textile – amylase

D. Detergents – lipase

Q. 115 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?

A. Trichoderma harzianum

B. Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)

C. Xanthomonas campestris

D. Bacillus thuringiensis

Q. 116 Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?

A. Ginkgo

B. Marchantia

C. Cedrus

D. Equisetum

Q. 117 In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

A. S – start of systole

B. T – end of diastole

C. P – depolarisation of the atria

D. R – repolarisation of ventricles

Q. 118 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of:

A. Earthworm

B. Cockroach

C. Frog

D. Man

Q. 119 Guard cells help in:

A. Transpiration

B. Guttation

C. Fighting against infection

D. Protection against grazing

Q. 120 Montreal Protocol aims at:

A. Biodiversity conservation

B. Control of water pollution

C. Control of CO2 emission

D. Reduction of ozone depleting substances

Q. 121 DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is:

A. moderately toxic

B. non-toxic to aquatic animals

C. water soluble

D. lipo soluble

Q. 122 Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:

A. Offset

B. Rhizome

C. Sucker

D. Runner

Q. 123 Select the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism

B. Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population

C. Baldness is a sex-limited trait

D. Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity

Q. 124 Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in:

A. walnut and tamarind

B. french bean and coconut

C. cashew nut and litchi

D. groundnut and pomegranate

Q. 125 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.

B. Heroin accelerates body functions.

C. Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.

D. Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.

Q. 126 The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:

A. spermatogonia – spermatocyte – spermatid – sperms

B. spermatid – spermatocyte – spermatogonia – sperms

C. spermatogonia – spermatid – spermatocyte – sperms

D. spermatocyte – spermatogonia – spermatid – sperms

Q. 127 Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from:

A. Nausea

B. Cough

C. Headache

D. Allergy

Q. 128 Chipko movement was launched for the protection of:

A. Forests

B. Livestock

C. Wet lands

D. Grasslands

Q. 129 Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female ?

A. maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining

B. maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream

C. retention of well-developed corpus luteum

D. fertilisation of the ovum

Q. 130 Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in:

A. osmotic balance of body fluids

B. oxygen transport in the blood

C. clotting of blood

D. defence mechanisms of body

Q. 131 Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of :

A. Mustard

B. Soybean

C. Gram

D. Sorghum

Q. 132 In barley stem vascular bundles are:

A. closed and scattered

B. open and in a ring

C. closed and radial

D. open and scattered

Q. 133 Which one of the following given in figure (1) is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category ?

Items	Group
(1)	Lium, ischium, pubis	Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(2)	Actin, myosin, rhodopsin	Muscle proteins
(3)	Cytosine, uracil, thiamine	pyrimidines
(4)	Malleus, incus, cochlea	Ear ossicles

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 134 Somaclones are obtained by

A. Plant breeding

B. Irradiation

C. Genetic engineering

D. Tissue culture

Q. 135 In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of :

A. appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight

B. protective mimicry

C. inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment

D. natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected

Q. 136 Transgenic plants are the ones:

A. generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.

B. produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.

C. grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field.

D. produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.

Q. 137 Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

A. Starch and fat

B. Fat and cellulose

C. Starch and cellulose

D. Protein and starch

Q. 138 A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect:

A. Pattern of cleavage

B. Number of blastomeres produced

C. Fertilization

D. Formation of zygote

Q. 139 Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

A. Muramic acid

B. Calcium pectate

C. Phosphoglycerides

D. Hemicellulose

Q. 140 Elbow joint is an example of:

A. hinge joint

B. gliding joint

C. ball and socket joint

D. pivot joint

Q. 141 Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer ?

A. Azotobacter

B. Frankia

C. Azolla

D. Glomus

Q. 142 Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?

A. Hershey and Chase

B. Morgan and Sturtevant

C. Beadle and Tatum

D. Nirenberg and Mathaei

Q. 143 Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem ?

A. Fish

B. Zooplankton

C. Frog

D. Phytoplankton

Q. 144 Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

A. Indole-3-acetic acid

B. Gibberellic acid

C. Abscisic acid

D. Indole butyric acid

Q. 145 The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as:

A. Insecticide

B. Agent for production of dairy products

C. Source of industrial enzyme

D. Indicator of water pollution

Q. 146 An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is:

A. coffee

B. lily

C. castor

D. cotton

Q. 147 Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of :

A. Mesophytes

B. Epiphytes

C. Hydrophytes

D. Xerophytes

Q. 148 Point mutation involves:

A. Change in single base pair

B. Duplication

C. Deletion

D. Insertion

Q. 149 Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima ?

A. Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 – 7 segments.

B. One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments.

C. Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments.

D. Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 – 18 segments.

Q. 150 The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in:

A. nails

B. ear ossicles

C. tip of the nose

D. vertebrae

Q. 151 The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon, given in figure (1), is in the following sequence:

A. sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp

B. sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3

C. sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2

D. sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3

Q. 152 Oxidation numbers of P in PO4^3-, of S in SO4^2- and that of Cr in Cr2O7^2-, are respectively :

A. + 3, + 6 and + 5

B. + 5, + 3 and + 6

C. – 3, + 6 and + 6

D. + 5, + 6 and + 6

Q. 153 Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be:

A. 151.8 pm

B. 75.5 pm

C. 300.5 pm

D. 240.8 pm

Q. 154 Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic susbtitution reaction?

A. 2 RX + 2 Na → R – R + 2 NaX

B. RX + H2 → RH + HX

C. RX + Mg → RMgX

D. RX + KOH → ROH + KX

Q. 155 In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order:

A. MF > MCl > MBr > MI

B. MF > MCl > MI > MBr

C. MI > MBr > MCl > MF

D. MCl > MI > MBr > MF

Q. 156 Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states?

A. 3d54s1

B. 3d54s2

C. 3d24s2

D. 3d34s2

Q. 157 The stability of + 1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

A. Tl < In < Ga < Al

B. In < Tl < Ga < Al

C. Ga < In < Al < Tl

D. Al < Ga < In < T

Q. 158 Given:

(i) Cu^2+ + 2e^− → Cu, E° = 0.337 V

(ii) Cu^2+ + e^− → Cu^+, E° = 0.153 V

Electrode potential, E° for the reaction, Cu^++ e− → Cu, will be:

A. 0.90 V

B. 0.30 V

C. 0.38 V

D. 0.52 V

Q. 159 For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if (d[NH3])/dt = 2 x 10-4 mol L^-1 s^-1, the value of (d[H2])/dt would be :

A. 4 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

B. 6 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

C. 1 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

D. 3 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

Q. 160 Consider the following reaction, given in figure 1, the product Z is:

A. CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

B. CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H

C. CH3CH2OH

D. CH2 = CH2

Q. 161 The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4 × 10^-19 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 × 10^-19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be:

A. 2.2 × 10^-19 J

B. 2.0 × 10^-19 J

C. 4.0 × 10^-20 J

D. 2.0 × 10^-20 J

Q. 162 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy?

A. Ne [3s23p2]

B. Ar [3d104s24p3]

C. Ne [3s23p1]

D. Ne [3s23p3]

Q. 163 In the reaction BrO^-3 (aq) + 5 Br^-(aq) + 6H+ → 3 Br2(l) + 3 H2O(l). The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following :

A. d(Br2)/dt = -5/3 d(Br^-)/dt

B. d(Br2)/dt = 5/3 d(Br^-)/dt

C. d(Br2)/dt = 3/5 d(Br^-)/dt

D. d(Br2)/dt = -3/5 d(Br^-)/dt

Q. 164 A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3)5 (NO2)Cl freezes at 0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (kf = – 1.86°C/m)

A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 165 What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas?

A. Dipole-dipole interaction

B. Covalent bonds

C. London dispersion force

D. Hydrogen bonding

Q. 166 Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?

A. CaO

B. SiO2

C. BeO

D. B2O3

Q. 167 The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:

A. ribose

B. gene

C. nucleoside

D. nucleotide

Q. 168 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:

A. 2 l + 1

B. 4 l – 2

C. 2 n2

D. 4 l + 2

Q. 169 Half life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is:

A. 0.5 × 10^-2 s^-1

B. 0.5 × 10^-3 s^-1

C. 5.0 × 10^-2 s^-1

D. 5.0 × 10^-3 s^-1

Q. 170 Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer?

A. Naproxen

B. Tetracycline

C. Chlorpheninamine

D. Equanil

Q. 171 Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 × 10^4 amperes of current is passed through molten Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% current efficiency. At. mass of Al = 27 g mol^-1 )

A. 8.1 × 10^4 g

B. 2.4 × 10^5 g

C. 1.3 × 10^4 g

D. 9.0 × 10^3 g

Q. 172 Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form:

A. Chlorobenzene

B. Benzylchloride

C. Xylene

D. Toluene

Q. 173 Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

A. n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2

B. n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = – 1/2

C. n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = – 1/2

D. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – ?

Q. 174 The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are 1.5 × 10^−5 and 4.5 × 10^−10 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium CN− + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO − would be:

A. 3.0 × 10^−5

B. 3.0 × 10^−4

C. 3.0 × 10^4

D. 3.0 × 10^5

Q. 175 Propionic acid with Br2| P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be (among (1), (2), (3), (4):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 176 The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO2 (g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK^−1, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

A. 910 K

B. 1110 K

C. 510 K

D. 710 K

Q. 177 Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?

A. 157

B. 181

C. 108

D. 128

Q. 178 Predict the product (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) formed from the reaction (A):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 179 H2COH . CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 180 According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?

A. N2^2- < N^2- < N2

B. N2 < N2^2- < N^2-

C. N^2- < N2^2- < N2

D. N^2- < N2 < N22-^

Q. 181 Out of TiF 6^2-, COF 6^3-, Cu2 Cl2 and NiCl4^2- (Z of Ti = 22, CO = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are :

A. Cu2Cl2 and NiCl4^2-

B. TiF 6^2- and Cu2Cl2

C. COF 6^3- and NiCl4^2-

D. TiF 6^2- and COF 63

Q. 182 Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

A. (CH3)2O

B. (CH3)3P

C. (CH3)3N

D. (CH3)3B

Q. 183 The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH ≡ C – CH = CH2 is:

A. 1-butyn-3-ene

B. but-1-yne-3-ene

C. 1-butene-3-yne

D. 3-butene-1-yne

Q. 184 Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?

A. Butanol

B. 2-Butyne

C. 2-Butenol

D. 2-Butene

Q. 185 Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?

A. [CO(NH3)3Cl3]0

B. [CO (en) Cl2 (NH3)2]+

C. [CO (en)3]3+

D. [CO (en)2Cl2]+ (en = ethylenediamine)

Q. 186 Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?

A. Neoprene

B. Terylene

C. Nylon 66

D. Teflon

Q. 187 The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 × 10^-5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride is:

A. 6.50 × 10^-12

B. 5.65 × 10^-13

C. 5.65 × 10^-12

D. 5.65 × 10^-10

Q. 188 Consider the following reaction given in figure 1:

The product Z is:

A. Benzaldehyde

B. Benzoic acid

C. Benzene

D. Toluene

Q. 189 The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mhos cm^2 and at infinite dilution is 400 mhos cm^2. The dissociation constant of this acid is :

A. 1.25 × 10^-6

B. 6.25 × 10^-4

C. 1.25 × 10^-4

D. 1.25 × 10^-5

Q. 190 The straight chain polymer is formed by:

A. hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation

B. hydrolysis of (CH3)4 Si by addition polymerisation

C. hydrolysis of (CH3)2 SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerisation

D. hydrolysis of (CH3)3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation

Q. 191 From the following bond energies:

H − H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol^-1

C = C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol^-1

C − C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol^-1

C − H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy for the reaction given in figure (1) will be:

A. -243.6 kJ mol^-1

B. -120.0 kJ mol^-1

C. -553.0 kJ mol^-1

D. -1523.6 kJ mol^-1

Q. 192 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be:

A. 3 mol

B. 4 mol

C. 1 mol

D. 2 mil

Q. 193 Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent?

A. Br2

B. I2

C. Cl2

D. F2

Q. 194 In which of the following molecules / ions BF 3, NO2-, NH2^- and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridized?

A. NH2^- and H2O

B. NO2^– and H2O

C. BF 3 and NO2^-

D. NO2^- and NH2-

Q. 195 Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 in the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an:

A. acid

B. base

C. catalyst

D. reducing agent

Q. 196 Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light?

A. [Ti (en)2 (NH3)2]4+

B. [Cr (NH3)6]3+

C. [Zn (NH3)6]2+

D. [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+

Q. 197 What is the [OH -] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2?

A. 0.40 M

B. 0.0050 M

C. 0.12 M

D. 0.10 M

Q. 198 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 199 For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed that:

(a) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and

(b) on doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction. The rate of this reaction is given by:

A. rate = k [A] [B]2

B. rate = k [A]2 [B]2

C. rate = k [A] [B]

D. rate = k [A]2 [B]

Q. 200 Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

A. testosterone

B. adrenaline

C. thyroxine

D. insulin

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	A	B	C	D	C	B	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	A	C	A	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	C	D	D	D	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	A	D	D	A	C	B	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	D	D	A	D	C	C	B	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	A	B	D	C	A	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	D	B	D	C	B	B	C	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	B	B	C	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	A	B	B	A	C	A	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	C	C	D	D	C	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	D	C	B	B	A	A	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	B	A	C	D	C	B	A	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	C	C	D	C	A	D	A	D	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	A	D	B	A	B	A	B	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	C	C	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	D	A	D	C	B	D	D	D	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	D	D	D	D	A	B	D	B	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	B	D	D	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	C	D	A	A	D	B	D	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	B	D	C	A	C

AIPMT 2007 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2007 Prelims

Q. 1 The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

A. 120 volts

B. 220 volts

C. 30 volts

D. 90 volts

Q. 2 A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move

A. in a circular orbit

B. along a parabolic path

C. along a straight line

D. in an elliptical orbit

Q. 3 The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t^2 – t^3 where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?

A. 54 m

B. 81 m

C. 24 m

D. 32 m

Q. 4 A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 0°

D. 30°

Q. 5 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is

A. √(vu vd)

B. (vd vu)/(vd + vu)

C. (vu + vd)/2

D. (2vd vu)/(vd + vu)

Q. 6 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)^2 after a time interval

A. 4λ

B. 2λ

C. 1/2λ

D. 1/4λ

Q. 7 In the following circuit given in figure (1), the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table given as (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 8 In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β – particles are

A. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of collisions between atoms

C. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

D. the electrons present inside the nucleus

Q. 9 The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

A. π

B. 0.707 π

C. zero

D. 0.5 π

Q. 10 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to

A. I/R^2

B. R^2

C. R

D. 1/R

Q. 11 A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec^2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

A. 10

B. 12

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 12 A hollow cylinder given in figure has a charge q coulomb within i. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

A. q/2εo

B. φ/3

C. q/εo – φ

D. 1/2 (q/εo – φ)

Q. 13 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10^14 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.50

B. 3.00

C. 1.33

D. 1.40

Q. 14 A nucleus ⁿᵢX has mass represented by M(n,i). If M₁ and M₂ denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in Mev, then

A. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₁ – M(n,i)]c²

B. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₂ – M(n,i)]c²

C. B.E. = M(n,i) – ZM₁ – (n-i) M₂

D. B.E. = [M(n,i) – Z M₁ – (n-i) M₂] c²

Q. 15 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown in figure (1) is

A. 40

B. 54

C. 4

D. 16

Q. 16 If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃ Al has nucleus radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as

A. 9.6 fm

B. 12.0 fm

C. 4.8 fm

D. 6.0 fm

Q. 17 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V (given in figure (1)). If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A. gμ/V

B. g/V

C. V/g

D. V/(gμ )

Q. 18 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = fo (1 – t/T), where fo and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (Vx) is

A. 1/2 foT^2

B. foT^2

C. 1/2foT

D. foT

Q. 19 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is

A. 1000

B. 1250

C. 100

D. 500

Q. 20 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

A. 3Ω

B. 6Ω

C. 1Ω

D. 2Ω

Q. 21 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltmeter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10^-5 g coulomb^-1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A. 0.50 g

B. 0.67 g

C. 0.27 g

D. 0.40 g

Q. 22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?

A. 2.4 × 10^8 m/s

B. 3.0 × 10^8 m/s

C. 1.2 × 10^8 m/s

D. 1.8 × 10^8 m/s

Q. 23 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

A. 50%

B. 90%

C. 10%

D. 30%.

Q. 24 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

A. ML^2T^-2

B. ML^2T^-1I^-1

C. ML^2T^-3I^-2

D. ML^2T^-3I^-1

Q. 25 A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A (shown in figure (1)). The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml^2/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be

A. mgl/2

B. 3/2gl

C. 3g/2l

D. 2g/3l

Q. 26 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then

A. LA = LB

B. the relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB

C. LA < LB

D. LA > LB

Q. 27 The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos^2 ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively

A. K0/2 and K0

B. K0 and 2K0

C. K0 and K0

D. 0 and 2K0

Q. 28 Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively (shown in figure (1)) which are a distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is

A. qQ/2πεoL

B. qQ/6πεoL

C. -qQ/6πεoL

D. qQ/4πεoL

Q. 29 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10^14 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10^-3 ω. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is

A. 5 × l 0^16

B. 5 × 10^17

C. 5 × 10^14

D. 5 × 10^15

Q. 30 Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

A. √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

B. qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

C. √2qa along +ve x direction

D. √2qa along +ve y direction

Q. 31 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The potential energies of earth satellites in the two cases are equal.

B. S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed

C. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

D. The time period of S is four times that of S2

Q. 32 A→ and B→ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them , if |A→ x B→ | = √3(A→ . B→ ), the value of θ is

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 90°

D. 60°

Q. 33 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on t1he ground as shown in the figure(1). The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 m/s^2)?

A. 10.0 cm

B. any value less than 12.0 cm

C. 4.0 cm

D. 8.0 cm

Q. 34 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

A. qvR^2

B. qvR^2/2

C. qvR

D. qvR/2

Q. 35 The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is

A. 6.8 eV

B. 13.6 eV

C. 1.7 eV

D. 3.4 eV

Q. 36 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of

A. 8

B. 16

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 37 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

A. T/8

B. T/12

C. T/2

D. T/4

Q. 38 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?

A. a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°

B. a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°

C. a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°

D. a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°

Q. 39 Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown in figure:

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

A. 1/4CV^2

B. 3/4CV^2

C. 1/2CV^2

D. 2CV^2

Q. 40 A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to

A. (1000)^4

B. (1000)^2

C. (727)^4

D. (727)^2

Q. 41 The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is

A. 2 Ω

B. 0.2 Ω

C. 2 k Ω

D. 20 Ω

Q. 42 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature os sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is

A. 37°C

B. 62°C

C. 99°C

D. 124°C

Q. 43 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are

A. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other

B. in opposite phase and parallel to each other

C. in phase and perpendicular to each other

D. in phase and parallel to each other

Q. 44 What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with

C = 10 μF and ω = 1000s^-1

A. 1 mH

B. cannot be calculated unless R is known

C. 10 mH

D. 100 mH

Q. 45 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

A. anti ferromagnetism

B. no magnetic property

C. diamagnetism

D. paramagnetism

Q. 46 A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is

A. mg(h + d) – 1/2 kd^2

B. mg(h – d) – 1/2 kd^2

C. mg(h – d) + 1/2 kd^2

D. mg(h + d) + 1/2 kd^2

Q. 47 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

A. depends on both R and v

B. is independent of both R and v

C. depends on R and not on v

D. depends on v and not on R

Q. 48 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is

A. Tn = 2Ti

B. Tn = Ti – T

C. Tn = Ti + T

D. Tn = Ti/2

Q. 49 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is

A. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/4πR^2

B. 16π^2r^2σt^4/R^2

C. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/R^2

D. 4πr^2σt^4/R^2

Q. 50 In the energy band diagram of a material shown in figure (1), the open circles and filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is

A. an insulator

B. a metal

C. an n-type semiconductor

D. a p-type semiconductor

Q. 51 Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?

A. Methyl isocyanide

B. Acetamide

C. Methyl cyanide

D. Nitroethane

Q. 52 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

A. chiral bases

B. chiral phosphate ester units

C. D-sugar component

D. L-sugar component

Q. 53 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption

A. the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles

B. the heat of adsorption varies with coverage

C. the adsorbed molecules interact with each other

D. the adsorption takes place in multilayers

Q. 54 A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10^-5. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to

A. 1.00%

B. 99.9%

C. 0.100%

D. 99.0%

Q. 55 The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and ICI(g), following mechanisms were proposed.

Mechanism A:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

Mechanism B:

H2(g) + ICl(g) →HI(g) ;slow

HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I(g) ;fast

Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?

A. A and B both

B. neither A nor B

C. A only

D. B only

Q. 56 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

A. ΔG/ΔS

B. ΔG/ΔH

C. ΔS/ΔG

D. ΔH/ΔG

Q. 57 Consider the following reactions:

(i) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X1 kJ mol^-1

(ii) H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X2 kJ mol^-1

(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O, ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

(iv) C2H5(g) + 5/2O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l), ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is

A. +X3 kJ mol^-1

B. -X4 kJ mol^-1

C. +X1 kJ mol^-1

D. -X2 kJ mol^-1

Q. 58 The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is

A. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

B. MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

C. K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3

D. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3

Q. 59 In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?

A. SO3^2- and NO3^-

B. BF3 anD NF3

C. BrO^3- and XeO3

D. SF4 and XeF4

Q. 60 Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?

A. + 2, + 4

B. + 4, + 4

C. + 2, + 2

D. + 4, + 2

Q. 61 Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

A. The ΔGf°of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2 S.

B. The ΔGf° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide

C. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible

D. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides

Q. 62 In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is

A. log2/k

B. log2/k√o.5

C. ln2/k

D. 0.693/0.5k

Q. 63 Consider the following compounds given as (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is

A. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

B. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

C. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

D. (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)

Q. 64 Predict the product C among (a), (b), (c), (d), obtained in the following reaction given in figure (1) of butyne-1.

CH subscript 3 CH subscript 2 space minus space straight C identical to CH space plus space HCl space rightwards arrow straight B space rightwards arrow with HI on top space straight C

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 65 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL^-1. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M H2SO4 solution is

A. 16.65 mL

B. 22.20 mL

C. 5.55 mL

D. 11.10 mL

Q. 66 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called

A. Cope reduction

B. Dow reduction

C. Wolf-Kishner reduction

D. Clemmensen redcution

Q. 67 Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol-^1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCl is -90 kJ mol^-1, bond enthalpy of HCl is

A. 380 kJ mol^-1

B. 425 kJ mol^-1

C. 245 kJ mol^-1

D. 290 kJ mol^-1

Q. 68 Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?

A. FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

B. BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH

C. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH

D. CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH

Q. 69 If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that

A. the compound is certainly meso

B. there is no compound in the solvent

C. the compound may be a racemic mixture

D. the compound is certainly a chiral

Q. 70 CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its Rconfiguration among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 71 Which of the following is water-soluble?

A. Vitamin E

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin A

D. Vitamin B

Q. 72 Identify the correct order of the size of the following:

A. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < Cl^- < S^2-

B. Ar < Ca^2+ < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

C. Ca^2+ < Ar < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

D. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < S^2- < Cl^-

Q. 73 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is

A. 0.56 K

B. 1.12 K

C. -0.56 K

D. -1.12 K

Q. 74 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offer an exception and its concentrated by chemical leaching?

A. Galena

B. Copper pyrite

C. Sphalerite

D. Argentite

Q. 75 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately ?

(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

A. 45 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 50 minutes

Q. 76 Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?

(en =NH2CH2CH2NH2)

A. [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

B. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

C. [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]

D. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2

Q. 77 If NaCl is doped with 10^-4 mol % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)

A. 6.02 × 10^16 mol^-1

B. 6.02 × 10^17 mol^-1

C. 6.02 × 10^14 mol^-1

D. 6.02 × 10^15 mol^-1

Q. 78 The d electron configurations of Cr^2+, Mn^2+, Fe^2+ and Ni^2+ are 3d^4, 3d^5, 3d^6 and 3d^8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

A. [Fe(H2O)6]^2+

B. [Ni(H2O)6^2+

C. [Cr(H2O)6]^2+

D. [Mn(H2O)6]^2+

Q. 79 In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?

A. MgSO4

B. RaSO4

C. SrSO4

D. BaSO4

Q. 80 Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis?

A. 3-methyl-1-butene

B. cyclopentane

C. 2-methyl-1-butene

D. 2-methyl-2-butene

Q. 81 With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy?

A. 1s^2 2s^2 sp^3

B. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1

C. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6

D. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5

Q. 82 Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?

A. NH2^-

B. F^-

C. I^-

D. HS^-

Q. 83 The following equilibrium constants are given:

N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3; K1

N2 + O2 ⇔ 2NO; K2

H2 + 1/2 O2 ⇔ H2O; K3

The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is

A. K2K3^2/K1

B. K2^2K3/K1

C. K1K2/K3

D. K2K3^3/K1

Q. 84 Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?

(At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)

A. V^3+

B. Ti^3+

C. Mn^3+

D. Cr^3+

Q. 85 The correct order of C – O bond length among

CO, CO3^2-, CO2 is

A. CO < CO3^2- < CO2

B. CO3^2- < CO2 < CO

C. CO < CO2 < CO3^2-

D. CO2 < CO3^2- < CO

Q. 86 Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?

A. HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2

B. HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

C. HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

D. HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3

Q. 87 Which one of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 88 For (i) I^-, (ii) Cl^-, (iii) Br^-, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be

A. Cl^- < Br^- < I^-

B. I^- < Cl^- < Br^-

C. Br^- < Cl^- < I^-

D. I^- < Br^- < Cl^-

Q. 89 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1× 10^10 M of hydronium ions, i.e.

H3O^+.

A. 4.000

B. 9.0000

C. 1.000

D. 7.000

Q. 90 Consider the following sets given in figure (1) of quantum numbers:

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (ii), (iv) and (v)

C. (i) and (iii)

D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 91 The equilibrium constant of the reaction:

Cu(s) + 2Ag^+ → Cu^2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);

E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is

A. 2.0 × 10^10

B. 4.0 × 10^10

C. 4.0 × 10^15

D. 2.4 × 10^10

Q. 92 Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?

A. Teflon

B. Natural rubber

C. Styrene

D. Nylon-66

Q. 93 The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be

(i) benzene

(ii) toluene

(iii) chlorobenzene

(iv) phenol

A. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

B. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

C. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

D. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

Q. 94 Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?

A. (Si2O5^2–)n

B. (SiO3^2–)n

C. SiO4^4–

D. Si2O7^6–

Q. 95 An element, X has the following isotopic composition :

²⁰⁰X : 90% ¹⁹⁹X : 8.0% ²⁰²X : 2.0%

The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is Closest to

A. 201 amu

B. 202 amu

C. 199 amu

D. 200 amu

Q. 96 The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is

A. π/3√2

B. π/4√2

C. π/4

D. π/6

Q. 97 In the reaction given in figure (1):

Which of the following compounds will be formed among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 98 The product formed in Aldol condensation is

A. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxyketone

B. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone

C. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester

D. a beta-hydroxy acid

Q. 99 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is,

A. 4/5

B. 2/5

C. 1

D. 3/5

Q. 100 Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

A. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages

B. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements

C. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak

D. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu

Q. 101 ICBN stands for

A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

B. International congress of Biological Names

C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

D. Indian Congress of Biological Names

Q. 102 Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes

A. Puffballs and Claviceps

B. Peziza and stink borns

C. Morchella and mushrooms

D. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Q. 103 Biological organisation starts with

A. cellular level

B. organismic level

C. atomic level

D. submicroscopic molecular level

Q. 104 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.

A. Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger

B. Periyar – Elephant

C. Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass

D. Dachigam National park – Snow Leopard

Q. 105 If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

A. serum globulins

B. fibrinogen in the plasma

C. haemocytes

D. serum albumins

Q. 106 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

A. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent

B. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies

C. crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

D. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent

Q. 107 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

A. polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork

B. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

C. polymerize in the 5’ – to – 3’ direction and explain 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication

D. result in transcription

Q. 108 Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. there is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogensis of mammals

B. all plant and animal cells are totipotent

C. ontogeny repeats phylogeny

D. stem cells are specialize cells

Q. 109 In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order ?

A. SE < PE < S < DE

B. PE < S < SE < DE

C. S < DE < PE < SE

D. SE < S < PE < DE

Q. 110 The concept of chemical evolution is based on

A. interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat

B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals

C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

D. crystallization of chemicals

Q. 111 Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?

A. male gamete

B. egg

C. pollen grain

D. microspore mother cell

Q. 112 Probiotics are

A. cancer inducing microbes

B. new kind of food allergens

C. live microbial food supplement

D. safe antibiotics

Q. 113 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of plants is that of

A. ocimum

B. garlic

C. nepenthes

D. podophyllum

Q. 114 What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish ?

A. they all posses dorsal heart

B. none of them is aquatic

C. they all belong to the same phylum

D. they all have jointed paired appendages

Q. 115 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for

A. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution

B. reproduction

C. growth and movement

D. responsiveness to touch

Q. 116 A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

A. less amino acids in his urine

B. more glucose in his blood

C. less urea in his urine

D. more sodium in his urine

Q. 117 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

A. super-coiling in nucleosomes

B. DNA digestion

C. through elimination of repetitive DNA

D. deletion of non-essential genes

Q. 118 A sequential expression of a set of human genes

A. messenger RNA

B. DNA sequence

C. ribosome

D. transfer RNA

Q. 119 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

A. NO×

B. SPM

C. CO

D. SO2

Q. 120 Select the wrong statement fom the following.

A. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thyllakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane

B. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA

C. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria

D. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane

Q. 121 Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of

A. population

B. landscape

C. ecosystem

D. biotic community

Q. 122 During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?

A. AATT

B. CACC

C. TATA

D. TTAA

Q. 123 A plant requires magnesium for

A. protein synthesis

B. chlorophyll synthesis

C. cell wall development

D. holding cells together

Q. 124 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.

As a result

A. there is high degree of sterility

B. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic

C. self-fertilization is prevented

D. there is no change in success rate of fertilization

Q. 125 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of

A. uncimula

B. ustilago

C. claviceps

D. phytophthora

Q. 126 The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of

A. evolution due to mutation

B. retrogressive evolution

C. biogeographical evolution

D. special creation

Q. 127 Which one of the following is a slime mould?

A. physarum

B. Thiobacillus

C. Anabaena

D. Rhizopus

Q. 128 The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

A. the food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season

B. its population growth curve is of J-type

C. the population of its predators increases enormously

D. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

Q. 129 Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing micro-organism

A. Crotalaria juncea

B. Cycas revoluta

C. Cicer arietinum

D. Casuarina equisetifolia

Q. 130 Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?

A. betroot

B. sugarcane

C. pongamia

D. euphorbia

Q. 131 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants. which one of the following pairs is suitable?

A. teak and pine

B. deodar and fern

C. wheat and maiden hair fern

D. sugarcane and sunflower

Q. 132 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

A. Retinol – Xerophtahalmia

B. Cobalamine – Beri-beri

C. Calciferol – Pellagra

D. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

Q. 133 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will

A. no movement of water

B. equilibrium between the two

C. movement of water from cell A to B

D. movement of water from cell B to A

Q. 134 In which one of the following preparations are your likely to come across cell junctions most frequently ?

A. thrombocytes

B. tendon

C. hyaline cartilage

D. ciliated epithelium

Q. 135 If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

A. nature of stored food materials in the cell

B. structural organization of thallus

C. chemical composition of the cell wall

D. types of pigments present in the cell

Q. 136 About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six element including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and

A. sulphur and magnesium

B. magnesium and sodium

C. calcium and phosphorus

D. phosphorus and sulphur

Q. 137 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants

B. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil

C. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers

D. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies

Q. 138 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are

A. n = 21 and x = 21

B. n = 21 and x = 14

C. n = 21 and x = 7

D. n = 7 and x = 21

Q. 139 Passage cells are thin walled cells found in

A. Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport to other plants parts

B. testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination

C. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary

D. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle

Q. 140 What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?

A. toothless jaws

B. functional post-end tail

C. ovoparity

D. homoiothermy

Q. 141 Bowman’s glands are located in the

A. anterior pituitary

B. female reproductive system of cockroach

C. olfactory epithelium of our nose

D. proximal end of uriniferous tubules

Q. 142 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

A. yeast – ethanol

B. streptomycetes – antibiotic

C. coliforms – vinegar

D. methanogens – gobar gas

Q. 143 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ?

A. stroma

B. germinal epithelium

C. vitelline membrane

D. Graafian follicle

Q. 144 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of

A. autonomic movement of variation

B. paratonic movement of growth

C. autonomic movement of growth

D. autonomic movement of locomotion

Q. 145 Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?

A. ventral central nervous system – Leech

B. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon

C. Ventral heart – Scorpion

D. Post – end tail – Octopus

Q. 146 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

A. isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. malate dehydrogenase

C. succinate dehydrogenase

D. lactate dehydrogenase

Q. 147 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is

A. iron-sulphur protein

B. ferredoxin

C. quinone

D. cytochrome

Q. 148 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

A. differential expession of genes

B. lethal mutations

C. deletion of genes

D. developmental mutations

Q. 149 Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong ?

A. They are pleomorphic

B. They are sensitive to penicillin

C. They cause diseases in plants

D. They are also called PPLO

Q. 150 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

A. Apis indica – honey

B. Kenia lacca – lac

C. Bombyx mori – silk

D. Pila globosa – pearl

Q. 151 A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly ?

A. parotid

B. pancreas

C. thyroid

D. parathyroid

Q. 152 A genetically engineered micro-organism use successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

A. Trichoderma

B. Xanthomonas

C. Bacillus

D. Pseudomonas

Q. 153 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of

A. bundle sheath

B. phloem

C. epidermis

D. mesophyll

Q. 154 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets ?

A. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla

B. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis

C. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas

D. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra

Q. 155 In the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur

A. a bi-modal distribution

B. a T-shaped curve

C. a skewed curve

D. a normal distribution

Q. 156 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Escherichia coli

C. Diplocococcus pneumoniae

D. Neurospora crassa

Q. 157 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show

A. segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

B. segregation in 3 : 1 ratio

C. higher number of the parental types

D. higher number of the recombinant types

Q. 158 In cloning of cattle, a fertillized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and

A. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cow

B. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media

C. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced

D. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows

Q. 159 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?

A. 15 – 30 MHZ

B. 1 – 15 MHZ

C. 45 – 70 MHZ

D. 30 – 45 MHZ.

Q. 160 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they.

A. have more than 90 per cent similar genes

B. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites

C. have same number of chromosomes

D. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.

Q. 161 Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of

A. point mutation

B. polygenic inheritance

C. codominance

D. chromosomal aberration

Q. 162 When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed

A. microevolution

B. co-evolution

C. convergent evolution

D. divergent evolution

Q. 163 Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to

A. eating fruits preserved in tin containers

B. inhalation of seasonal pollen

C. low temperature

D. hot and humid environment

Q. 164 Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in

A. Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus

C. Homo habilis

D. Homo neanderthalensis

Q. 165 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that

A. the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area

B. the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area

C. melanism is a pollution-generated feature

D. the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation

Q. 166 A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

A. intra specific competition

B. inter specific competition

C. predation on one another

D. mutualism

Q. 167 A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

A. blood serum

B. sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

C. Whole blood from pulmonary vein

D. blood plasma

Q. 168 Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

A. tropical deciduous forest

B. temperate evergreen forest

C. temperate deciduous forest

D. tropical rain forest

Q. 169 In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

A. Collar bones – 3 pairs

B. Salivary glands – 1 pairs

C. Cranial nerves – 10 pairs

D. Floating ribs – 2 pairs

Q. 170 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they

A. are RNA transcription initiator

B. help chromosome pairing

C. prevent chromosome loss

D. act as replicons

Q. 171 Spore diseminiation in some liverworts is aided by

A. indusium

B. calyptra

C. peristome teeth

D. elaters

Q. 172 Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?

A. Zn

B. Cu

C. Ca

D. Mn

Q. 173 The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of

A. ATP in one large oxidation reaction

B. Sugar

C. nucleic acids

D. ATP in small stepwise units

Q. 174 Adaptive radiation refers to

A. evolution of different species from a common ancestor

B. migration of members of a species to different geographical areas

C. power of adaptation in an individual to a different geographical areas

D. adaptations due to geographical isolation

Q. 175 Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

A. Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

B. Cytokinin – Cell wall elongation

C. IAA – Cell wall elongation

D. Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure

Q. 176 Select the correct statement from the following?

A. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

B. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae

C. Mutations are random and directional

D. Darwinian variations are small and directionless

Q. 177 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

A. generative cell

B. vegetative cell

C. microspore mother cell

D. microspore

Q. 178 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?

A. 9 : 1

B. 1 : 3

C. 3 : 1

D. 50 : 50

Q. 179 Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

A. unstraited muscle cells

B. liver cells

C. red blood cells

D. white blood

Q. 180 A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

A. AaBB

B. AABb

C. AABB

D. AaBb

Q. 181 What is common to whale, seal and shark?

A. thick subcutaneous fat

B. convergent evolution

C. homoiothermy

D. seasonal migration

Q. 182 One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

A. preventing speciation

B. speciation through reproductive isolation

C. random creation of new species

D. no change in the isolated fauna

Q. 183 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

A. certain types of bacteria

B. all viruses

C. most virus-infected cells

D. certain fungi

Q. 184 In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

A. combination of FSH and LH

B. combination of estrogen and progesterone

C. FSH only

D. LH only

Q. 185 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

A. glycolipids

B. proline

C. phospholipids

D. cholesterol

Q. 186 Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

A. higher levels of cortisone

B. lower levels of blood testosterone

C. lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood

D. higher levels of thyroxine

Q. 187 During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

A. first positive, then negative and continue to be positive

B. first negative, then positive and continue to be positive

C. first positive, then negative and again back to positive

D. first negative, then positive and again back to negative

Q. 188 Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic introduced in India?

A. lantana camara, water hyacinth

B. water hyacinth, prosopis cinereria

C. nile perch, licus religiosa

D. ficus religiosa, lantana camara

Q. 189 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

A. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

B. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg

C. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

D. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

Q. 190 Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by

A. ribosome

B. transcription factor

C. anticodon

D. RNA polymerase

Q. 191 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

A. secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye

B. salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food

C. secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot

D. constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal mucles when it is too cold

Q. 192 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

A. discontinuous

B. antiparallel

C. semiconservative

D. parallel

Q. 193 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Animals – Morphological features

(i) Crocodile – 4-chambered heart

(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia

(iii) Obelia – Thecodont

(iv) Lemur _ Thecodont

A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. only (i) and (iv)

C. only (i) and (ii)

D. (i), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 194 Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

A. vacuoles and fibres

B. flagellum and modulloary sheath

C. nucleus and mitochondria

D. perikaryon and dendrites

Q. 195 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by

A. crossing of two inbred parental lines

B. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

C. inducing mutations

D. bombarding the seeds with DNA

Q. 196 Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry ?

A. coryza

B. new castle disease

C. pasteurellosis

D. salmonellosis

Q. 197 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is

A. 680 nm

B. 720 nm

C. 620 nm

D. 640 nm

Q. 198 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

A. blood-worms

B. stone flies

C. sewage fungus

D. sludge-worms

Q. 199 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?

A. adrenaline

B. glucagon

C. gastrin

D. thyroxine

Q. 200 “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the discovery of

A. ABA

B. 2, 4-D

C. IAA

D. GA

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	B	D	C	C	A	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	B	A	B	D	D	C	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	D	D	D	B	C	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	C	D	D	A	B	D	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	A	D	B	D	A	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	D	B	C	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	D	A	B	B	B	A	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	D	D	C	D	A	A	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	C	B	D	D	C	A	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	D	D	D	A	C	C	C	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	A	B	C	A	B	B	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	A	B	C	C	C	A	B	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	C	D	D	C	D	C	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	C	D	C	A	C	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	D	D	C	D	D	C	A	B	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	B	D	D	A	A	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	D	A	A	A	A	D	C	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	B	A	B	B	B	D	A	C	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	B	D	D	A	B	A	B	A	D

AIPMT 2006 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2006 Prelims

Q. 1 In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100W power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per min is liberated ? ECE of chlorine is 0.367 x 10⁻⁶ kg/C :

A. 17.6 mg

B. 34.3 mg

C. 24.3 mg

D. 39.6 mg

Q. 2 In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will :

A. flow from A to B

B. flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of V

C. be zero

D. flow from B to A

Q. 3 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of densityρ. If it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then :

A. T ∝√ρ

B. T ∝ (1/√A)

C. T ∝ (1/ρ)

D. T ∝ (1/√m)

Q. 4 A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency ?

A. 275 K

B. 175 K

C. 250 K

D. 225 K

Q. 5 When a charged particle moving with velocity v̅ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B̅, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that :

A. angle between v̅ & B̅ is necessarily 90°

B. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than 90°

C. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than zero and 180°

D. angle between v̅ & B̅ is either zero or 180°

Q. 6 Two cells, having the same emf, are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero, The value of R is :

A. r₁ – r₂

B. (r₁ + r₂)/2

C. (r₁ – r₂)/2

D. r₁ + r₂

Q. 7 A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 Ȧ. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed at :

A. 7500 Ȧ

B. 1500 Ȧ

C. 6000 Ȧ

D. 3000 Ȧ

Q. 8 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same ?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 7

D. 2

Q. 9 A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be :

A. f/4

B. 8f

C. f/2√2

D. 2f

Q. 10 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 42He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one 42He then the energy released is :

A. 21.6 MeV

B. 23.6 MeV

C. 17.2 MeV

D. 28.2 MeV

Q. 11 In a radioactive material the activity at time t₁ is R₁ and at a later time t₂, it is R₂. If the dacay constant of the material is λ, then :

A. R₁ = R₂ e-λ(t₁ -t₂)

B. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₁ -t₂)

C. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₂/t₁)

D. R₁ = R₂

Q. 12 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be :

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. one

Q. 13 The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8cm the potential energy stored in it is :

A. 4U

B. U/8

C. 16U

D. U/4

Q. 14 For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45°θ) and (45° +-θ), the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of :

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 3 : 2

Q. 15 A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = (1/3) t₂, where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is :

A. (17/3)J

B. (3/8)J

C. (8/3)J

D. (3/17)J

Q. 16 A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3 How long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?

A. 14 m

B. 28 m

C. 56 m

D. 70 m

Q. 17 The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + (b/t + c), where a, b and c are constants, The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :

A. [LT⁻²], [L] and [T]

B. [L], [T] and [LT²]

C. [L²T²], [LT] and [L]

D. [L], [LT] and [T²]

Q. 18 A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the

microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again ?

A. 1 cm upward

B. 0.5 cm downward

C. 1 cm downward

D. 0.5 cm upward

Q. 19 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g =10 m/s², work done against friction is :

A. 50 J

B. 100 J

C. zero

D. 150 J

Q. 20 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 150 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain (β) is:

A. 50

B. 75

C. 100

D. 125

Q. 21 A forward biased diode is :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 22 A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to convert :

A. change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage

B. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current

C. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photocathode

D. change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current

Q. 23 The core of a transformer is laminated because :

A. energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimised

B. the weight of the transformer may be reduced

C. rusting of the core may be prevented

D. ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased

Q. 24 Two coils of self-inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :

A. 8 mH

B. 12 mH

C. 4 mH

D. 16 mH

Q. 25 In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between :

A. positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules

B. negative electrons and neutral atoms/molecules

C. photons and neutral atoms/molecules

D. neutral gas atoms/molecules

Q. 26 When photons of energy hv fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E₀), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be :

A. K + E₀

B. 2K

C. K

D. k + hv

Q. 27 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below :

The logic circuit gate is :

A. AND gate

B. NAND gate

C. NOR gate

D. OR gate

Q. 28 A coil of inductive reactance 31 has a resistance of Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitative reactance 25Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is :

A. 0.40

B. 0.128

C. 0.80

D. 0.66

Q. 29 A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall is :

A. 8 N

B. 24 N

C. 16 N

D. 96 N

Q. 30 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is :

A. MR²

B. (2/5)MR²

C. (3/5)MR²

D. (5/6)MR²

Q. 31 The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s, will be :

A. 0.33 x 10⁶

B. 8 x 10⁻²⁴

C. 5 x 10⁻²³

D. 5 x 10⁻²²

Q. 32 The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of ₉₄Be. The number of nucleons in Ge are :

A. 73

B. 74

C. 76

D. 72

Q. 33 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is :

A. 7/5

B. 6/7

C. 9/7

D. 4/7

Q. 34 The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fvₑ, where vₑ is its escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of f is :

A. 2

B. 1/√2

C. 1/3

D. 1

Q. 35 Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second :

A. 12

B. 0

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 36 Power dissipated across the 8 resistor Ω in the circuit shown here is 2W. The power dissipated in watt units across the 3 Ω resistor is :

A. 6.0

B. 1.5

C. 0.45

D. 3.0

Q. 37 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of :

A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of electric charge and energy respectively

C. conservation of electric charge

D. conservation of energy and electric charge respectively

Q. 38 A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by :

y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – (π/4))

where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is :

A. 8π m/s

B. 0.5π m/s

C. (π/4) m/s

D. 8 m/s

Q. 39 The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1/2

D. 8

Q. 40 Which one of the following statements is true ?

A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudina

D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

Q. 41 Above Curie temperature :

A. a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

B. a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic

C. a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

D. a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic

Q. 42 A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is :

A. 25

B. 50

C. infinite

D. zero

Q. 43 An electric dipole of moment p̅ is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in rotating the dipole by 90° is :

A. √2 pE

B. pE/2

C. 2pE

D. pE

Q. 44 A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After

disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates :

A. decreases

B. does not change

C. becomes zero

D. increases

Q. 45 A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is :

A. 0, 0

B. 0, 10 m/s

C. 10 m/s, 20 m/s

D. 20 m/s, 0

Q. 46 A square surface of side L m is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field E̅ (v/m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is :

A. EL2/(2ε₀)

B. EL2/2

C. zero

D. EL2

Q. 47 A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :

A. (MLω 2)/(2)

B. (ML2ω)/(2)

C. 2MLω 2

D. (ML2ω 2)/(2)

Q. 48 A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially in horizontal position is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is :

(Moment of inertia of rod about A is (ml2/3))

A. 3g/2l

B. 2l/3g

C. 3g/2l₂

D. mg(l/2)

Q. 49 The vectors A̅ & B̅ are such that a :

|A̅ + B̅| = |A̅ – B̅|

The angle between the two vectors is :

A. 90°

B. 60°

C. 30°

D. 0°

Q. 50 Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is :

A. 5/4

B. 8/5

C. 5/8

D. 4/5

Q. 51 Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔGsystem) at constant temperature and pressure :

A. If ΔGsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous

B. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system has attained equilibrium

C. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system is still moving in a particular direction

D. If ΔGsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous

Q. 52 A solution containing 10g per dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol⁻¹) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is :

A. 200 g mol⁻¹

B. 300 g mol⁻¹

C. 400 g mol⁻¹

D. 500 g mol⁻¹

Q. 53 A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to :

A. – log k

B. n

C. 1/n

D. log k

Q. 54 Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will ΔH = ΔE ?

A. H₂(g) + Br₂(g) → 2HBr(g)

B. C(s) + 2H₂O(g) → 2H₂(g) + CO₂(g)

C. PCl₅(g) → PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)

D. 2CO(g) + O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g)

Q. 55 In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.

The structure of D would be :

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂

B. CH₃CH₂CONH₂

C. CH₃CH₂NHCH₃

D. CH₃CH₂NH₂

Q. 56 During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process

A. amylase and maltase

B. diastase and lipase

C. pepsin and trypsin

D. invertase and zymase

Q. 57 The human body does not produce :

A. DNA

B. vitamins

C. hormones

D. enzymes

Q. 58 CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02 x 1023 mo1⁻¹, the density of CsBr is :

A. 42.5 g/cm³

B. 2.25 g/cm³

C. 0.225 g/cm³

D. 4.25 g/cm³

Q. 59 More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids.

The main reason for this is :

A. more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

B. lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

C. greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

D. more active nature of the actinoids

Q. 60 Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

Planck constant is 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js, the uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Ȧ is :

A. 5.79 x 10⁶ ms⁻¹

B. 5.79 x 10⁷ ms⁻¹

C. 5.79 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹

D. 5.79 x 10⁹ ms⁻¹

Q. 61 Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give :

A. CuCN

B. [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻

C. [Cu(CN)₄]²⁻

D. Cu(CN)₂

Q. 62 In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ?

(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)

A. Ni²⁺, Ti³⁺

B. Sc³⁺, Ti³⁺

C. Sc³⁺, Co²⁺

D. Ni²⁺, Cu⁺

Q. 63 Al₂O₃ can be converted to anhydrous AlCl₃ by heating :

A. Al₂O₃ with HCl gas

B. Al₂O₃ with NaCl in solid state

C. a mixture of Al₂O₃ and carbon in dry Cl₂ gas

D. Al₂O₃with Cl₂ gas

Q. 64 The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction :

Br₂(l) + Cl₂(g) → 2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol⁻¹ and 105 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is :

A. 285.7 K

B. 373 K

C. 250 K

D. 400 K

Q. 65 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to :

A. F-centres

B. Schottky defect

C. Frenkel defect

D. Interstitial positions

Q. 66 The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :

A. CnH₂nO₂

B. CnH₂nO

C. CnH₂n₊₁O

D. CnH₂n₊₂O

Q. 67 See the given figure, then Fe + 2Fe³⁺ → 3Fe²⁺ will be :

A. 0.441 V

B. 1.753 V

C. 1.212 V

D. 0.211 V

Q. 68 For the reaction 2A + B → 3C + D

which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?

A. -(d[C]/3dt)

B. -(d[B]/dt

C. d[D]/dt

D. -d[A]/2dt

Q. 69 For the reaction,

CH₄(g) + 2O₂ (g) CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l), ΔrH = -170.8 kJ mol⁻¹ Which of the following statements is not true ?

A. At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO₂ (g) and H₂O (l)are not equal

B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp = [CO₂]/[CH₄][O₂]

C. Addition of CH₄(g) or O₂(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right

D. The reaction is exothermic

Q. 70 [NH(CH₂)NHCO(CH₂)4CO]n is a :

A. co-polymer

B. addition polymer

C. thermo-setting polymer

D. homopolymer

Q. 71 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is :

A. acetaldehyde

B. acetone

C. diethyl ketone

D. formaldehyde

Q. 72 Which one of the following is a peptide hormone ?

A. Glucagon

B. Testosterone

C. Thyroxin

D. Adrenaline

Q. 73 The major organic product in the reaction,

CH₃ – O – CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → Product is :

A. CH₃OH + (CH₃)₂CHI

B. ICH₂OCH (CH₃)₂

C. CH₃O C(CH₃)₂

D. CH₃I + (CH₃)₂CHOH

Q. 74 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 75 The enthalpy of combustion of H₂, cyclohexene (C₆H₁₀) and cyclohexene (C₆H₁₂) are – 241, -3800 and -3920 kJ per mol respectively. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is :

A. – 121 kJ per mo

B. + 121 kJ per mol

C. + 484 kJ per mol

D. – 484 kJ per mol

Q. 76 Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields :

A. ethyl butyrate

B. acetoacetic ester

C. methyl acetoacetate

D. ethyl propionate

Q. 77 Consider the reaction

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)

The equality relationship between (d[NH₃]/dt) and -(d[H₂]/dt) is :

A. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(1/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

B. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(2/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

C. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(3/2)(d[H₂]/dt)

D. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(d[H₂]/dt)

Q. 78 Which of the following is not chiral ?

A. 2-butanol

B. 2, 3-dibromopentane

C. 3-bromopentane

D. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

Q. 79 [Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]Cl exhibits :

A. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism

C. ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

D. linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

Q. 80 [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (at. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 81 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250g mol⁻¹) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by :

A. 0.4 K

B. 0.8 K

C. 0.12 K

D. 0.24 K

Q. 82 Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer ?

A. HNO₂ and NaNO₂

B. NaOH and NaCl

C. HNO₃ and NH₄NO₃

D. HCl and KCl

Q. 83 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10⁻⁸ M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10⁻¹⁴) is :

A. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁶ M

B. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁷ M

C. 8.525 x 10⁻⁸ M

D. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁸ M

Q. 84 A solution of acetone in ethanol :

A. shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law

B. shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law

C. behaves like a near ideal solution

D. obeys Raoult’s law

Q. 85 A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below

A|A+ (xM)|| B+ (yM)| B

The emf measured is +0.20V. The cell reaction is :

A. A⁺ + B → A + B+

B. A⁺ + e- → A; B⁺ + e- → B

C. the cell reaction cannot be predicted

D. A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B

Q. 86 Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields :

A. secondary alcohol

B. tertiary alcohol

C. cyclopropyl alcoho

D. primary alcohol

Q. 87 During osmosis, flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is :

A. from solution having higher concentration only

B. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates

C. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates

D. from solution having lower concentration only

Q. 88 Which of the following is more basic than aniline ?

A. Diphenylamine

B. Triphenylamine

C. p-nitroaniline

D. Benzylamine

Q. 89 In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?

A. ClF₃

B. BF₃

C. AlF₃

D. NF₃

Q. 90 The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃ (0.2 D). This is because :

A. in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction

B. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions

C. in NH₃ as well as NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions

D. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in

NF₃ these are in the same directions

Q. 91 The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is :

A. Li⁺ > Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺

B. Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Li⁺

C. K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

D. Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

Q. 92 The corect order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :

A. sp > sp² < sp³

B. sp > sp² > sp³

C. sp < sp² > sp³

D. sp < sp² < sp³

Q. 93 Which of the following species has a linear shape ?

A. NO⁻²

B. SO₂

C. NO⁺²

D. O₃

Q. 94 Which of the following is the most basic oxide ?

A. Al₂O₃

B. Sb₂O₃

C. Bi₂O₃

D. SeO₂

Q. 95 The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :

A. azimuthal quantum number

B. spin quantum number

C. magnetic quantum number

D. principal quantum number

Q. 96 Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

A. The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids

B. The canonical structures have no real existence

C. Every AB₅ molecule does in fact have square pyramid structure

D. Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds

Q. 97 The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 98 Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?

A. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Oxidising power

B. HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Acidic property in water

C. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Electronegativity

D. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Bond dissociation energy

Q. 99 Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄ ?

A. SCl₄

B. SO₂⁻⁴

C. PO₃⁻⁴

D. NH⁺⁴

Q. 100 The IUPAC name of the given figure is

A. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

B. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane

C. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride

D. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

Q. 101 What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8chromosomes in its synergids ?

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 8

Q. 102 Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from :

A. a unilocular polycarpillary flower

B. a multipistillate syncarpous flower

C. a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis

D. a multilocular monocarpillary flower

Q. 103 Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :

A. alleviation of vitamin-A deficiency

B. pest resistance

C. herbicide tolerance

D. producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

Q. 104 Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by :

A. removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released

B. treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins

C. raising the plants from vernalized seeds

D. treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate

Q. 105 How does pruning help in making the hedge dense ?

A. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock

B. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

C. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

D. It releases wound hormones

Q. 106 The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from :

A. excess fo chloride

B. methaemoglobin

C. excess of dissolved oxygen

D. excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

Q. 107 Praying mentis is a good example of :

A. mullerian mimicry

B. warning colouration

C. social insects

D. camouflage

Q. 108 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa

B. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands

C. Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity

D. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa

Q. 109 Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?

A. Thiamine

B. Folic acid and cobalamine

C. Riboflavin

D. Iron compounds

Q. 110 Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield ?

A. Frequent irrigation of the crop

B. Treatment of the paints with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer

C. Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid

D. Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

Q. 111 In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril ?

A. Custard apple

B. Pomegranate

C. Orange

D. Litchi

Q. 112 Which one of the following aminoacids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?

A. Glycine

B. Aspartic acid

C. Glutamic acid

D. Alanine

Q. 113 Crop plants grown in monoculture are :

A. low in yield

B. free from intraspecific competition

C. characterised by poor root system

D. highly prone to pests

Q. 114 Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year :

A. 1986

B. 1987

C. 1988

D. 1985

Q. 115 The formula for exponential population growth is :

A. dt/dN = rN

B. dN/rN = dt

C. rN/dN = dt

D. dN/dt = rN

Q. 116 Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids ?

A. Dry weight

B. Number of individuals

C. Rate of energy flow

D. Fresh weight

Q. 117 Niche overlap indicates :

A. active co-operation between two species

B. two different parasites on the same host

C. sharing of one or more resources between the two species

D. mutualism between two species

Q. 118 In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is :

A. ferredoxin

B. cytochrome

C. plastocyanin

D. an iron-sulphur protein

Q. 119 Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :

A. scarification

B. vernalization

C. chelation

D. stratification

Q. 120 Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?

A. Moist bread

B. Agar agar

C. Ripe banana

D. Cow dung

Q. 121 Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?

A. Sanctuary

B. Botanical garden

C. Biosphere reserve

D. National park

Q. 122 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between t-RNA and m-RNA during bacterial protein synthesis ?

A. Erythromycin

B. Neomycin

C. Streptomycin

D. Tetracycline

Q. 123 Phenotype of an organism is the result of :

A. mutations and linkages

B. cytoplasmic effects and nutrition

C. environmental changes and sexual dimorphism

D. genotype and environment interactions

Q. 124 Photochemical smog pollution does not contain :

A. ozone

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. PAN (Peroxy Acyl Nitrate)

Q. 125 Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because :

A. it is easily available

B. it is hygroscopic

C. it reduces transpiration

D. it serves as a disinfectant

Q. 126 A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is :

A. thick secondary walls

B. pores on lateral walls

C. presence of P-protein

D. enucleate condition

Q. 127 The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as :

A. protonema

B. Plasmodium

C. fruiting body

D. mycelium

Q. 128 In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the off spring ?

A. Autosomal

B. Cytoplasmic

C. Y-linked

D. X-linked

Q. 129 What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?

A. Basal

B. Axile

C. Free central

D. Marginal

Q. 130 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are :

A. anthers

B. styles

C. ovaries

D. hairs

Q. 131 Conifers differ from grasses in the :

A. production of seeds from ovules

B. lack of xylem tracheids

C. absence of pollen tubes

D. formation of endosperm before fertilization

Q. 132 How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Nine

D. Two

Q. 133 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :

A. bombarding the protoplast with DNA

B. crossing of two inbreed parental lines

C. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

D. inducing mutations

Q. 134 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?

A. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules

B. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane

C. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings

D. The outer membrane resembles a sieve

Q. 135 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of :

A. t-RNA

B. m-RNA

C. c-DNA

D. r-RNA

Q. 136 How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?

A. Two

B. Thirty

C. Fifty seven

D. One

Q. 137 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its acvity is called :

A. coenzyme

B. holoenzyme

C. apoenzyme

D. isoenzyme

Q. 138 Bowman’s glands are found in :

A. olfactory epithelium

B. external auditory canal

C. cortical nephrons only

D. juxtamedullary nephrons

Q. 139 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is :

A. a facultative anaerobe

B. an obligate anaerobe

C. a facultative aerobe

D. an obligate aerobe

Q. 140 Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park ?

A. Lion — Corbett National Park

B. Rhinoceros — Kaziranga National Park

C. Wild ass — Dudhwa National Park

D. Great Indian bustard —Keoladeo National Park

Q. 141 A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from :

A. schizophrenia

B. borderline personality disorder (BPD)

C. mood disorders

D. addictive disorders

Q. 142 Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in :

A. pulse crops

B. cereals

C. fibre crops

D. oilseed crops

Q. 143 Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of :

A. Asteraceae

B. Brassicaceae

C. Solanaceae

D. Liliaceae

Q. 144 In a moss the sporophyte :

A. is partially parasitic on the gametophyte

B. produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte

C. arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

D. manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

Q. 145 Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of :

A. bacteria

B. mycorrhiza

C. viruses

D. fungi

Q. 146 People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude :

A. people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available

B. atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive

C. there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production

D. people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed

Q. 147 An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of :

A. homologous and vestigial organs

B. analogous and vestigial organs

C. homologous organs only

D. homologous and analogous organs

Q. 148 Which one of the following is not a living fossil ?

A. King crab

B. Sphenodon

C. Archaeopteryx

D. Peripatus

Q. 149 Annual migration does not occur in the case of :

A. salmon

B. Siberian crane

C. salamander

D. arctic tern

Q. 150 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because :

A. the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope

B. the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared to 0.1 – 0.2 nm for the light microscope

C. electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections

D. the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons

Q. 151 Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples ?

A. Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia

B. Platyhelminthes — Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius

C. Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus

D. Porifera — Spongilla, Euplectella, pennatula

Q. 152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of :

A. Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda

B. Echinodermata and Annelida

C. Annelida and Arthropoda

D. Mollusca and Chordata

Q. 153 Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India ?

A. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

B. Tamarind and rhesus monkey

C. Cinchona and leopard

D. Banyan and black buck

Q. 154 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterized by :

A. gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

B. radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles

C. dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear

D. flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear

Q. 155 What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ?

A. These are all unicellular protists

B. They have flagella

C. They produce spores

D. These are all parasites

Q. 156 Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct ?

A. The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane

B. Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages

C. Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin

D. Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules

Q. 157 Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are :

A. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

B. Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage

C. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp

D. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans

Q. 158 Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ?

A. Temperature of about 25°C

B. Temperature of about 5°C

C. Relative humidity of about 5%

D. Relative humidity of about 95%

E. A shady place

F. A brightly illuminated place

Choose the answer from the following options :

A. A, C and E only

B. A, D and E only

C. B, D and E only

D. B, C and F only

Q. 159 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as :

A. Phylogeny

B. Ancestry

C. Paleontology

D. Ontogeny

Q. 160 Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

A. Western ghats

B. Indo-Gangetic plain

C. Eastern ghats

D. Aravalli hills

Q. 161 During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in :

A. stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria

B. stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

C. grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

D. stroma of chloroplasts

Q. 162 Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?

A. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

B. Production of male honey bee

C. Pod shape in garden pea

D. Skin colour in humans

Q. 163 Which one of the following not act as a neurotransmitter ?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Epinephrine

C. Nor epinephrine

D. Cortisone

Q. 164 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as :

A. FSH

B. GH

C. Prolactin

D. LH

Q. 165 A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is :

A. cortisol

B. corticosterone

C. 11-deoxycorticosterone

D. cortisone

Q. 166 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is :

A. tropomyosin

B. myosin

C. α-actinin

D. troponin

Q. 167 Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?

A. cGMP

B. Calcium

C. Sodium

D. cAMP

Q. 168 In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY x rryy ?

A. Only round seeds with green cotyledons

B. Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

C. Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons

D. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

Q. 169 One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by :

A. R. Franklin

B. Hershey and Chase

C. A. Garrod

D. Beadle and Tatum

Q. 170 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately :

A. 20 nm

B. 0.34 nm

C. 3.4 nm

D. 2 nm

Q. 171 Test cross involves :

A. crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait

B. crossing between two F₁ hybrids

C. crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

D. crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

Q. 172 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that :

A. one strand turns anti-clockwise

B. the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

C. the phosphate groups at thestart of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)

D. one strand turns clockwise

Q. 173 Areolar connective tissue joins :

A. fat body with muscles

B. integument with muscles

C. bones with muscles

D. bones with bones

Q. 174 Mast cells secrete :

A. hippurin

B. myoglobin

C. histamine

D. haemoglobin

Q. 175 If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be :

A. all normal visioned

B. one-half colourblind and one-half normal

C. three-fourths colourbling and one-fourth normal

D. all colourblind

Q. 176 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the :

A. fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm

B. loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

C. loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5

D. trisomy of 21st chromosome

Q. 177 Restriction endonuclease :

A. cuts the DNA molecule randomly

B. cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

C. restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

D. synthesizes DNA

Q. 178 Antibodies in our body are complex :

A. lipoproteins

B. steroids

C. prostaglandins

D. glycoproteins

Q. 179 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste water into natural surface water, is :

A. < 3.0 ppm

B. < 10 ppm

C. < 100 ppm

D. < 30 ppm

Q. 180 Earthworms are :

A. ureotelic when plenty of water is available

B. uricotelic when plenty of water is available

C. uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity

D. ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

Q. 181 Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones ?

A. Posterior pituitary lobe

B. Intermediate lobe of the pituitary

C. Hypothalamus

D. Anterior pituitary lobe

Q. 182 Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation ?

A. Eastrogens

B. FSH

C. FSH-RH

D. Progesterone

Q. 183 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals

B. The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds

C. In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

D. The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes

Q. 184 Which one of the following has an open circulatory system ?

A. Pheretima

B. Periplaneta

C. Hirudinaria

D. Octopus

Q. 185 Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glycogenolysis ?

A. ACTH

B. Insulin

C. Adrenalin

D. Glucagon

Q. 186 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a :

A. bacterium

B. prion

C. worm

D. virus

Q. 187 The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by :

A. root pressure and transpiration pull

B. P-proteins

C. mass flow involving a carrier and ATP

D. cytoplasmic streaming

Q. 188 Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of :

A. Starfish and sea anemone

B. Ctenoplana and Beroe

C. Aurelia and Paramecium

D. Hydra and starfish

Q. 189 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is :

A. 2 + 4 + 2

B. 3 + 2 + 3

C. 2 + 3 + 3

D. 3 + 3 + 2

Q. 190 An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is :

A. α-amylase

B. lipase

C. protease

D. invertase

Q. 191 In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by :

A. coleorhiza

B. scutellum

C. prophyll

D. coleoptile

Q. 192 The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs :

A. dissolved in the blood

B. as bircarbonates

C. as carbonates

D. attached to haemoglobin

Q. 193 Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with :

A. rye

B. pearl millet

C. sugarcane

D. barley

Q. 194 In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is :

A. protoplast culture

B. embryo rescue

C. anther culture

D. meristem culture

Q. 195 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying :

A. B-lymphocytes

B. leucocytes

C. thrombocytes

D. helper T-lymphocytes

Q. 196 In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones ?

A. Lion, bat, whale, ostrich

B. Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus

C. Shrew, bat, cat, kiw

D. Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris

Q. 197 Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because :

A. it is controlled by recessive genes

B. it is not a fatal disease

C. it provides immunity against malaria

D. it is controlled by dominant genes

Q. 198 Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are :

A. compound eyes and anal cerci

B. jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

C. green gland and tracheae

D. book lungs and antennae

Q. 199 Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are :

A. bacteria-related diseases

B. congenital disorders

C. pollutant-induced disorders

D. virus-related diseases

Q. 200 Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :

A. macula densa cells

B. endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)

C. liver cells

D. juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	A	D	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	A	C	C	A	A	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	D	A	C	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	A	B	D	D	B	D	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	D	D	B	C	A	A	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	C	B	D	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	A	A	D	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	B	B	C	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	B	B	D	D	D	D	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	C	C	C	A	D	A	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	C	A	B	B	B	C	A	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	B	D	D	B	D	D	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	D	C	B	B	B	B	D	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	D	B	B	B	B	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	C	A	A	B	A	C	C	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	C	A	B	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	D	D	A	A	B	C	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	C	B	C	D	B	B	D	B	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	D	A	B	C	B	C	B	B	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	A	D	D	D	C	B	B	C

CLAT 2017 Previous Year Paper

CLAT 2017

Q. 1 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

We shall fail ________ we are industrious.

A. whether

B. unless

C. until

D. though

Q. 2 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Sunita decided to set ______ some time every day for prayers.

A. up

B. aside

C. on

D. in

Q. 3 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

If they want to succeed, they ______ have to work very hard

A. ought

B. should

C. must

D. will

Q. 4 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

She stood ______ Amit, but could not utter a single word for quite some time.

A. for

B. to

C. before

D. about

Q. 5 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The passengers were very happy _______ the friendly and warm treatment.

A. from

B. to

C. about

D. by

Q. 6 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The doctor advised him to go ______ several medical tests.

A. through

B. about

C. under

D. into

Q. 7 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Would anybody ______ a mother have risked her life for the baby?

A. however

B. rather

C. than

D. but

Q. 8 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option

The minister flew ______ the flooded areas in a helicopter

A. in

B. about

C. over

D. along

Q. 9 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Kanak is endowed _______ many great qualities.

A. of

B. in

C. by

D. with

Q. 10 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option

You have played a great role, for _______ your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.

A. despite

B. although

C. after

D. without

Questions: 11 – 15

Direction for Questions 11 – 15: Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions given below.

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round negotiation. However, it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s, since negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’ of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s? One factor was the pattern of multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want a new organization, the disputed settlement part of the WTO package achieved its longstanding goal of a more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms add more as a regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted by the expansion of a rulebased system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization, both of which inherently support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning unilateral measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rule-based system with those gains. This reasoning – replicated in many countries – was contained in U. S. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO, and it announced to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment. A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists but the matter went deeper than Aglasem Admission that. The GATT, and the WTO, are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an organization creating a further rule will in turn be influenced by legal process. Robert Hudee has written of the ‘momentum of legal development’, but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values of consistency, clarity (or certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute settlement procedures and institutional provisions. Concern for these values is inherent in any rule-based system of co-operation, since without these value rules would be meaningless in the first place, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfilment. The moment of legal development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU). Over the past two decades the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition’ handed down in Cassis de Dijon case in 1979 was a key turning point. The court is now widely recognized as a major player in European integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of interpretation’, whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most elementary goals set forth in the Preamble to the (Rome) treaty. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with slated goals, and it is analogous to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with slated rules. In both cases legal concerns and procedures are an independent force for further co-operation. In the large part the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near-revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement: these are the concerns of conservatives and not revolutionaries, that is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.

Q. 11 In the statement ‘… it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated Aglasem Admission rule-based environment’, it refers to:

A. .The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.

B. The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round.

C. The provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.

D. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO.

Q. 12 What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?

A. The US government did not like it.

B. Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.

C. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.

D. The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform

Q. 13 In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:

A. Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

B. Enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized

C. Current policies need to be consistent with stated goals.

D. Contracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules.

Q. 14 According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly Through.

A. Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.

B. Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.

C. Ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

D. Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures

Q. 15 The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

A. It has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.

B. Its rule-based system leads to export gains.

C. It settles disputes more legally and more effectively

D. They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.

Q. 16 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. will allow laws on be proposed, passed, as well as repealed by voters

B. allows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws

C. will allow voter to propose, pass, as well as to repeal laws

D. allows voters to propose to pass, and repeal laws

Q. 17 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

B. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of which are chiselled from solid rock centuries ago

C. chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, the mountainous regions are dotted with many hundreds of monasteries,

D. Hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, are dotting the mountainous regions.

Q. 18 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. even though it sounds plausible, the weakness of the hypothesis

B. the weakness of the hypothesis which sounds plausible.

C. though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness

D. though plausible, the hypothesis’ weakness

Q. 19 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. With everyone attending not knowledgeable.

B. For everyone in attendance did not know.

C. For not everyone attending knew.

D. With everyone in attendance not knowing.

Q. 20 Direction for questions 16 – 20:

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. he other one a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

B. the other with a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

C. the other with a deficit of six, occurs in Nature and contributes

D. one with six occurs in Nature and contributes

Q. 21 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Bleshphemy

B. Blasphamy

C. Blasphemy

D. Blashphemy

Q. 22 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Gallows

B. Ghellows

C. Gellows

D. Ghallows

Q. 23 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Remuneration

B. Remunaration

C. Renumeration

D. Renumaration

Q. 24 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Accommedation

B. Accomadation

C. Accommodation

D. Accomedation

Q. 25 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Annulment

B. Annulmant

C. Anulment

D. Annulement

Q. 26 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Gratuitous

B. Gratuitus

C. Gratitious

D. Gratetious

Q. 27 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Hypothecation

B. Hyphothecation

C. Hypathecation

D. Hypthacation

Q. 28 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Interrogation

B. Interagation

C. Interogetion

D. Interogation

Q. 29 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Maratorium

B. Moretorium

C. Moratarium

D. Moratorium

Q. 30 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Abeyance

B. Abhayence

C. Abeyence

D. Abheyance

Q. 31 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 32 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. B

C. D

D. C

Q. 33 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 34 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 35 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. B

Q. 36 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. B

Q. 37 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. A

C. B

D. D

Q. 38 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 39 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. B

C. D

D. A

Q. 40 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. A

C. B

D. D

Q. 41 Choose the most appropriate option.

Donald Trump is _____________ President of the United States.

A. 46th

B. 43rd

C. 45th

D. 44th

Q. 42 Choose the most appropriate option

With the development of Terahertz (THz) transmitter, it is expected to be faster than 5G

mobile networks by:

A. Four Times

B. Five Times

C. Two TImes

D. Ten TImes

Q. 43 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following professors of Indian origin who has received Knighthood for the work as a co-inventor of next generation DNA Sequencing called Solexa Sequencing is?

A. P. C. Mahalanobis

B. Mehnad Saha

C. Shankar Balasubramanian

D. Satyendra Nath Bose

Q. 44 Choose the most appropriate option

Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?

A. Pakistan

B. Iran

C. Saudi Arabia

D. Afghanistan

Q. 45 Choose the most appropriate option

The top destination for domestic tourists in India for the past three consecutive years has been:

A. Orissa

B. Rajasthan

C. Kerala

D. Tamil Nadu

Q. 46 Choose the most appropriate option

The Japanese Prime Minister who offered ‘sincere and everlasting condolences’ to the people of the United States for killing more than 2,400 soldiers in the attack on Pearl harbour was:

A. Hayato Ikeda

B. Kakuei Tanaka

C. Juniciro Koizumi

D. Shinzo Abe

Q. 47 Choose the most appropriate option

NASA rediscovered India’s lunar spacecraft that was lost in the space during the past eight years known as:

A. Mangalayaan – II

B. Mangalayaan – I

C. Chandrayan – II

D. Chandrayan – I

Q. 48 Choose the most appropriate option

India’s third largest trading partner during 2016 is

A. Kuwait

B. Saudi Arabia

C. Dubai

D. U.A.E.

Q. 49 Choose the most appropriate option

Who called the immigration the ‘Trojan horse of Terrorism’?

A. Theresa May, Prime Minister of U.K

B. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany

C. Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary

D. Donald Trump, President of the U.S

Q. 50 Choose the most appropriate option

The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is:

A. Belgium

B. Norway

C. Denmark

D. Finland

Q. 51 Choose the most appropriate option

The bowler who has claimed the fastest 250 wickets in Cricket test matches is:

A. Dennis Likee

B. Rangana Herath

C. Anil Kumble

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

Q. 52 Choose the most appropriate option

Volvo has launched the world’s largest bus that can carry up to:

A. 300 passengers

B. 150 passengers

C. 260 passengers

D. 320 passengers

Q. 53 Choose the most appropriate option

According to the Survey Report released by Transparency International during March 2017 on India, the most corrupt are

A. Police

B. Local Councilors

C. Business Executives

D. Government Officials

Q. 54 Choose the most appropriate option

Name the President elect of France who is likely to take the oath on 14 May 2017.

A. Emmanuel Macron

B. Marine Le Pen

C. Francois Holland

D. Francois Fillon

Q. 55 Choose the most appropriate option

The 2016 Nobel Peace Prize was won by the President of :

A. South Africa

B. United States of America

C. Sri Lanka

D. Columbia

Q. 56 Choose the most appropriate option

Japan is threatening to drag India to W.T.O on issues relating to the export of its:

A. Steel

B. Electronic Goods

C. Tea

D. Small Ships

Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate option

In terms of steel production in the world during 2015 – 2016, India stood at:

A. Second

B. Third

C. Fourth

D. Fifth

Q. 58 Choose the most appropriate option

India’s voting rights at the International Monetary Fund increased from 2.3 % to

A. 2.5%

B. 2.8%

C. 2.6%

D. 2.4%

Q. 59 Choose the most appropriate option

The first elected civilian President in Myanmar is:

A. Aung San Suu Kyi

B. Khin Ayi

C. Htin Kyaw

D. Aung San

Q. 60 Choose the most appropriate option

Prithvi Defence Vehicle is

A. The name of an amphibious Naval vessel

B. The name of a newly developed tank

C. The name of a single seated aircraft developed by HAL

D. The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile

Q. 61 Choose the most appropriate option

Which shoe company in the United States of America has won an IPR dispute against China recently for using their logo?

A. Reebok

B. Adidas

C. Nike

D. New Balance

Q. 62 Choose the most appropriate option

Who has been selected for 2016 BC Roy Award?

A. Dr. N. Bhaskaran

B. Dr. J. Rajendra

C. Dr. Jagat Ram

D. Dr. P. Raghu Ram

Q. 63 Choose the most appropriate option

The world’s first artificial intelligence lawyer, a robot, is named as:

A. IDM-LaBrain

B. Boss

C. Ross

D. Watson

Q. 64 Choose the most appropriate option

The Hubble telescope of NASA is located in

A. NASA Headquaters

B. Canada

C. Space

D. Iceland

Q. 65 Choose the most appropriate option

Which court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?

A. International Court of Justice

B. Supreme Court of Pakistan

C. Supreme Court of India

D. International Criminal Court

Q. 66 Choose the most appropriate option

Till the end of 2016, the total number of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India is:

A. 18

B. 21

C. 42

D. 35

Q. 67 Choose the most appropriate option

Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in

A. Rajasthan

B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Maharastra

Q. 68 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following, who has won the maximum number of titles?

A. Gopichand

B. P. V. Sindhu

C. Saina Nehwal

D. Srikant

Q. 69 Choose the most appropriate option

How many billionaires India has lost since demonetization on November 8, 2016?

A. Two

B. Eleven

C. Eighteen

D. Eight

Q. 70 Choose the most appropriate option

Juno is the name of a:

A. Hydrogen fuelled submarine

B. Hydrogen fuelled space craft

C. Solar powered space craft

D. Atomic powered submarine

Q. 71 Choose the most appropriate option

The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving:

A. Complaints from three services

B. Inter-state water disputes

C. Inter-state boundary disputes

D. Election disputes

Q. 72 Choose the most appropriate option

World’s longest rail tunnel is about:

A. 23 kms

B. 35 kms

C. 47 kms

D. 57 kms

Q. 73 Choose the most appropriate option

The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at

A. Visakapatinam, Andhra Pradesh

B. Mumbai, Maharastra

C. Raipur, Chattisgarh

D. Ahmedabad, Gujarat

Q. 74 Choose the most appropriate option

Solar Impulse–2 is:

A. Hybrid airplane

B. Solar powered ship

C. Impact of climate change for overall increase of 2º C a year

D. Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world

Q. 75 Choose the most appropriate option

During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?

A. Afghanistan

B. Bhutan

C. Nepal

D. Sri Lanka

Q. 76 Choose the most appropriate option

‘World’s longest-all women Non-stop flight’ from New Delhi to San Francisco covering

14,500 kms was operated by:

A. Jet Airways

B. Air India

C. United AIrlines

D. American Airlines

Q. 77 Choose the most appropriate option

‘Scorpion kick’ is a phrase used in

A. Kung Fu

B. Kabaddi

C. Kalari Fight

D. Kick Boxing

Q. 78 Choose the most appropriate option

Which country offered asylum seekers 1,200 Euros to leave by withdrawing their application for protection?

A. Denmark

B. France

C. Germany

D. Italy

Q. 79 Choose the most appropriate option

The Happiness Index Department or a Wing has been established in the states of:

A. Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh and Goa

C. Mashya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh and Sikkim

Q. 80 Choose the most appropriate option

Which of the following individuals was called a ‘deceptive actor’ by China’s foreign ministry during March 2017?

A. Narendra Modi

B. Dalai Lama

C. Donald Trump

D. Sirisena

Q. 81 Choose the most appropriate option

The World Bank had cut India’s GDP growth for 2016 – 2017 to:

A. 8%

B. 7.6%

C. 8.6%

D. 7%

Q. 82 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following who was crowned as ‘Miss Supernational’ during 2016?

A. Srinidhi Shetty

B. Shilpa Shetty

C. Alia Bhat

D. Aishwarya Rai

Q. 83 Choose the most appropriate option

COIN, a software programme developed by J. P. Morgan supports:

A. Interpreting Commercial Documents

B. Financial Accounting

C. Robotic Surgery

D. Bitcoin

Q. 84 Choose the most appropriate option

The first country in the world to have begun shutting down the entire Frequency Modulation (FM) radio network to be replaced by Digital Audio Broadcasting is:

A. China

B. United States of America

C. Norway

D. Switzerland

Q. 85 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following M.L.As, who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?

A. Srinivas Prasad of Karnataka

B. Jayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu

C. Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar

D. P.C. George of Kerala

Q. 86 Choose the most appropriate option

India emerged as ___________ largest holder of the U.S Government Securities at the end of 2016:

A. Twelfth

B. Twenty Eight

C. Twenty Fourth

D. Fifteenth

Q. 87 Choose the most appropriate option

The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of:

A. Margaret Thatcher

B. Queen Elizabeth – II

C. Mother Theresa

D. Millicent Fawcett

Q. 88 Choose the most appropriate option

Which country 3D – Printed a home of 37 sq.mts?

A. Spain

B. Russia

C. South Korera

D. Taiwan

Q. 89 Choose the most appropriate option

As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in:

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

Q. 90 Choose the most appropriate option

Immediately before Antonio Guterres was appointed the U.N Secretary General in October 2016, he was:

A. Commissioner General of UNRWA

B. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

C. The Prime Minister of Portugueses

D. United States High Commissioner for Human Rights

Q. 91 Age of father 10 years ago was three times the age of his son. After 10 years, father’s age is twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:

A. 11:7

B. 7:4

C. 9:5

D. 7:3

Q. 92 A clock was set correct at 12 O’ clock. It loses 10 minutes per hour.What will be the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock after one hour?

A. 90º

B. 85º

C. 75º

D. 105º

Q. 93 The Banker’s discount on a sum of money for 18 months is Rs. 600 and the true discount on the same sum for 3 years is Rs. 750/-. The rate percentage is:

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 15%

D. 12%

Q. 94 The average weight of three men ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 75 kgs. Another man ‘A’ joins the group and the average weight now becomes 80 kgs. If another person ‘B’ whose weight is 5 kgs more than ‘A’ replaces ‘X’, then the average weight of ‘Y’, ‘Z’, ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be 85 kgs. What is the weight of ‘X’?

A. 84 kgs.

B. 82 kgs.

C. 78 kgs.

D. 80 kgs.

Q. 95 In an office, 1/3 of the workers are Men, ½ of the men are married and 1/3 of the married men have children. If ¾ of the women are married and 2/3 of the 2/3 of the married women have children, then the part of workers without children are:

A. 11/18

B. 17/36

C. 5/18

D. 4/9

Q. 96 The difference between simple interest and compound interest at the same rate for rupees 5,000 for two years is rupees 98. The rate of interest is:

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 10 ½ %

D. 12%

Q. 97 A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. How much of the mixture must be siphoned off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half milk and half water?

A. 1/7

B. 1/4

C. 1/5

D. 1/3

Q. 98 Praveen has Rs. 4,662 in the form of 2, 5 and 10 rupee notes. If these notes are in the ratio of 3:5:8, the number of five rupees notes with him is:

A. 336

B. 250

C. 84

D. 210

Q. 99 ‘A’ and ‘B’ complete a work in 12 days, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in 8 days and ‘C’ and ‘A’ in 16 days. ‘A’ left after working for 3 days. In how many days more will ‘B’ and ‘C’ finish the remaining work?

A. 7 ¾

B. 6 ⅚

C. 4 ¾

D. 3 ¾

Q. 100 A train ‘X’ leaves station ‘A’ at 3 p.m and reaches station ‘B’ at 4.30 p.m., while another train ‘Y’ leaves station ‘B’ at 3.00 p.m and reaches station ‘A’ at 4.00 p.m. These two trains cross each other at:

A. 3.36 p.m.

B. 3.30 p.m

C. 3.20 p.m.

D. 3.40 p.m

Q. 101 A trader sells rice at a profit of 20% and uses weights which are 10% less than the correct weight. The total gain earned by him is:

A. 22 2/9%

B. 35%

C. 33 1/3%

D. 30%

Q. 102 Keerthi’s father gave him some money to buy books. He spent half of the money equally to buy books and entertaining his friends. Whatever amount left with him, he deposited half in his savings account and gave Rs. 5 to a poor person as charity. Finally, Keerthi was left with Rs. 20 which he returned to his father. What amount did his father give him initially?

A. Rs. 160

B. Rs. 120

C. Rs. 200

D. Rs. 100

Q. 103 Taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 37 ½ minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both taps are opened and after some time tap ‘B’ is turned off.The tank is filled completely in exactly 30 minutes, if tap ‘B’ is turned off after:

A. 15 minutes

B. 12 minutes

C. 9 minutes

D. 10 minutes

Q. 104 A man rows to a place 45 k.ms distant and back in 12 hours. He realises that he can row 5 k.ms downstream in the same time as 3 k.ms against the stream. The velocity of the stream is:

A. 4 k.ms/hr

B. 1 k.m/hr

C. 2 k.ms/hr

D. 1.5 k.ms/hr

Q. 105 There are two urns. One contains two white balls and four red balls, the other contains three white and nine red balls. All balls are of the same shape and size. From each urn, one ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting both the balls of the same colour?

A. 1/2

B. 1/12

C. 7/12

D. 1/24

Q. 106 A boat travels upstream from A to B and back from B to A in 5 hours.The speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/hour and the speed of the current is 4 km/hour. Then, the distance from A to B is:

A. 9 kms.

B. 10 kms.

C. 12 kms

D. 15 kms

Q. 107 Two men and seven boys can do a work in 14 days. Three men and eight boys can do the same work in 11 days. Further eight men and six boys can do three times the amount of this work in:

A. 18 days

B. 30 days

C. 24 days

D. 21 days

Q. 108 A piece of cloth costs rupees 75. If the piece is four meters longer and each meter costs rupees 5 less, the cost remains unchanged. What is the length of the piece?

A. 12 meters

B. 8 meters

C. 10 meters

D. 6 meters

Q. 109 A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days. A and B agreed to do the work together for Rs. 720. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. How much C is to be paid?

A. Rs. 72

B. Rs. 82

C. Rs. 70

D. Rs. 80

Q. 110 Gold and copper are as heavy as water by 19 and 9 times respectively. The ratio in which these two metals be mixed so that the mixture is 17 times as heavy as water is:

A. 2:3

B. 3:4

C. 3:2

D. 4:1

Q. 111 Questions numbers 111-145 consists of legal proposition(s)/ principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law.Therefore, to answer a question, principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the most appropriate option.

Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.

Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B’ for rupees 25,000/-. ‘B’ agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/-. ‘A’ sold his motorcycle to ‘C’ for 26,000/- the next day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for damages

A. ‘B’ can proceed against ‘C’

B. ‘B’ will get the difference of rupees 1,000/- only

C. ‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’

D. ‘B’ will get damages from ‘A’

Q. 112 Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.

Facts: ‘P’ submitted a written consent to a surgeon ‘S’ for undergoing a surgical operation

for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of ‘A’:

A. ‘P’ can claim damages from ‘S’

B. ‘P’ is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery

C. ‘P’ is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for Gall Bladder

D. ‘P’ cannot claim damages from ‘S’

Q. 113 Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.

Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court.

A. Court will punish the man for rape

B. Court will punish the police officer.

C. Court will not punish the man for rape.

D. Court will not punish the police officer.

Q. 114 Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise.

Facts: ‘A’ occasionally hands over his ATM card to ‘B’ to withdraw money for ‘A’. On one occasion ‘B’ without the knowledge of ‘A’, uses’A’s ATM card to find out the balance in ‘A’s account, but does not withdraw any money.

A. ‘B’ has committed misappropriation

B. ‘B’ has committed the act fraudulently

C. ‘B’ has committed breach of faith

D. ‘B’ has not committed the act fraudulently

Q. 115 Principle: An offer made by one party when accepted by another makes it a contract.

Transactions:

1 P offered to sell his house for Rs. 20 lakhs to R; R told P that he was interested to buy a house for 15 lakhs only.

2 C was looking for a house for not more than 25 lakhs; P informed Cthat his house was

available for 20 lakhs.

3 K wanted to buy some old furniture; L told K that he would sell his furniture for Rs. 10,000.

4 R advertised to sell his old car for a price of Rs. Three lakhs; S found the advertisement and offered to buy it for Rs. 2 lakhs 50 thousand;R agrees to sell it to S.

Which among the above is actually a contract?

A. Situation 4 only is a contract

B. Situation 3 only is a contract

C. Situations 1 and 2 are contracts

D. Situations 2 and 4 are contracts

Q. 116 Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.

Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was

coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner,started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm.They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide

A. Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.

B. As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, sh ooting it was a precautionary measure and hence within the right available to X under law.

C. There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking a nd was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.

D. The right of private defence is available to persons against assail ants or wrong-doers only and a dog does not fall in this category.

Q. 117 Principle: In criminal law, misappropriation is the intentional, illegal use of the property or funds of another person for one’s own use or other unauthorized purpose, particularly by a public official, a trustee of a trust, an executor or administrator of a dead person’s estate or by any person with a responsibility to care for and protect another’s assets. Embezzlement is misappropriation when the funds involved have been lawfully entrusted to the embezzler. On the contrary, theft is the illegal taking of another person’s property or services without that person’s permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it.

Facts: A went for swimming at the Municipal Swimming Pool. A handed over all his valuables, including some cash to X, the guard on duty for safe custody, as notified by the Municipality. After swimming for an hour, A came out and searched for X. He found another guard on duty and that guard informed A that X had gone home after completing his shift and did not hand over anything to be given to A. A register ed a complaint with the police. X was traced but he told the police that he sold all the valuables and the entire cash was used for drinking liquor. What offence, if any, was/were committed by X?

A. If at all X is liable, it is for criminal misappropriation only.

B. X is liable for theft as he took A’s property without X’s permission.

C. X is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement.

D. X is not guilty of criminal misappropriation as he did not make an y personal gain out of those items with him.

Q. 118 Principle: According to the law of trade unions in India, no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintainable in any civil court against any registered trade union or any officer or member thereof in respect of any act done in contemplation or in furtherance of a trade dispute.

Facts: Soloman, the Secretary of a registered Trade Union took a loan from a Bank for the higher education of his daughter. Soon after completing the course she was married to an NRI Engineer. Solomon did not repay the loan. The Bank demanded the payments from Soloman and warned him that the Bank will take suitable legal action against him. Identify the legal position in this regard.

A. As Soloman did not use the loan amount for his use and hence, n o action can be initiated against him.

B. The Bank cannot initiate any action against Soloman as he is the Secretary of a Registered Trade Union.

C. The Bank can recover the loan amount from the Trade Union as Soloman is the Secretary of the Union.

D. The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against S oloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no im munity will work.

Q. 119 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?

A. David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the gr eat artists.

B. David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.

C. There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signa ture has not done any alteration to the art work.

D. Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been car eful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it.

Q. 120 Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.

Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago

A. The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.

B. The act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy.

C. The act of Zameer did not amount to any misrepresentation.

D. The act of Zameer amounted to innocent misrepresentation.

Q. 121 Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party.

Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever.

The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.

A. he contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating positi on.

B. The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.

C. The contract is enforceable against the doctor.

D. The contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.

Q. 122 Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.

Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’. After this, ‘B’ requested ‘A’ to keep the car in his care on behalf ‘B’ for one month. ‘A’ agreed.

A. Sale of car is complete.

B. Sale of car is complete.Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one Month

C. Sale of car is not complete

D. Sale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car.

Q. 123 Principle: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his right in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, is void to that extent. The law also provides that nobody can confer jurisdiction to a civil court by an agreement between parties.

Facts: A and B entered into a valid contract for rendering certain service. A clause in the contract was that in case of any dispute arose out of the contract; it shall be referred to for Arbitration only. Is the contract valid?

A. The parties were trying to confer jurisdiction to some authority to decide a dispute and hence the clause would be invalid.

B. Arbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognize d by law and hence the entire contract is valid.

C. The contract is valid but the clause regarding Arbitration is void.

D. Arbitrator cannot be termed as an ordinary Tribunal. Hence, the a greement is void and would be unenforceable.

Q. 124 Principle: According to Sec. 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between work men and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour of any person’.

Facts: The employees of DK Enterprises met the management and requested half a day leave to allow them to celebrate a lunar eclipse, which was going to happen two days later. The management refused the request. Does this situation amount to an ‘industrial dispute’?

A. As the difference of opinion between the employees and employe r is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employ ment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.

B. No as Lunar eclipse is unconnected with employment.

C. Yes, because there is some difference of opinion it would be an i ndustrial dispute.

D. No as declaring holidays is a prerogative of the employer. So no i ndustrial dispute.

Q. 125 Principle: According to law, a person who find goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee. Bailee is a person or party to whom goods are delivered for a purpose, such as custody or repair, without transfer of ownership. The finder of the goods legally can sell the goods found by him under certain circumstances including the situation that the owner refuses to pay the lawful charges of the finder.

Facts: P, a college student, while coming out of a Cricket stadium found a necklace, studded with apparently precious diamonds. P kept itfor two days thinking that the owner would notify it in a local newspaper. Since he did not notice any such notification, P published a small classified advertisement in a local newspaper. In two days’ time, P was contacted by a film actor claiming that it was her Necklace and requested P to return it to her. P told her that she should compensatehim for the advertisement charges then only he would return it otherwise he will sell it and make good his expenses. The film star told P that she had advertised in a national newspaper about her lost Necklace which was lost somewhere in the Cricket Stadium. The advertisement was published for three consecutive days incurring a large expenditure for her. Mentioning all this she refuses to pay P and claims the Necklace back. Which among the following is the most appropriate answer to this?

A. The film star was right in refusing P, as she did not offer any reward for anyone who would return the Necklace.

B. As it was wrong on the part of P to bargain over a property belon ging to a celebrity and he should have accepted some gift which might hav e been given by the film star and returned the Necklace instead of threatening her that he would sell it.

C. As the film star had notified in the newspaper, P ought to have re ad it and contacted her instead of publishing another notification. So he cannot claim any compensation.

D. P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.

Q. 126 Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.

Fact: ‘X’, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by ‘Y’, a female employee of the company that ‘X’ was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen.Is the dismissal of ‘X’ valid?

A. No, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common.

B. Yes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is no violation of any principles of law

C. Yes, moral law is antique and therefore, not applicable in modern times, therefore the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred

D. No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

Q. 127 Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the right to join an association or not to join such an association.

Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU, oneof the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union, approaches the High Court of the state for a relief. Identify the most reasonable legal proposition.

A. The Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court.

B. Circular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence the High Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin

C. The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court

D. The circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High Court can issue an appropriate right.

Q. 128 Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.

Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:

A. Rightly showed his anger

B. committed an assault on Sheetal

C. insulted Sheetal

D. not committed an assault on Sheetal

Q. 129 Principle: Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is opposed to public policy, is void. An agreement which has the tendency to injure public interest or public welfare is one against public policy. What constitutes an injury to public interest or public welfare would depend upon the times and the circumstances.

Facts: ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in the public service, and ‘B’ promises to pay rupees 5,00,000/- to ‘A’.

A. The agreement is void because rupees 5,00,000/- is excessive.

B. The agreement is valid, as it is with consideration for public service.

C. The agreement is valid, as it is a contract between two parties with their free consent.

D. The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy.

Q. 130 Principle: According to law, a person is deemed to have attained the age of majority when he completes the age of 18 years, except in the case of a person where a guardian of a minor’s person or property has been appointed under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 or where the superintendence of a minor’s property is assumed by a Court of Wards. Indian law expressly forbids a minor from entering into a contract. Hence, any contract entered into by a minor is void-ab-initio regardless of whether the other party was aware of his minority or not. Further, though a minor is not competent to contract, nothing in the Contract Act prevents him from making the other party bound to the minor.

Facts: Lal executed a promissory note in favour of Gurudutt, aged 16years stating that he would pay Gurudutt a sum of Rs. 2 Lakhs when he attains the age of majority. On attaining the age of 18, Gurudutt demanded the amount from Lal, who refused to pay. Gurudutt wants to take legal action against Lal. Identify the most appropriate legal position from the following:

A. Lal was not aware of the fact that Gurudutt was a minor.

B. Gurudutt should not have entered into a contract with Lal when he was a minor

C. A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract,may yet accept a benefit

D. Lal argues that as per the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, Gurudutt can claim the money only after he attains the age of 21.

Q. 131 Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.

Facts: ‘T’ just walked over the land of ‘P’ to reach his house as it was a short cut. ‘P’ had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. ‘P’ did not cause any damage to the land.

A. T’ has committed trespass to land.

B. ‘T’ has created nuisance for ‘P’.

C. ‘T’ has not committed any trespass on the land of ‘P’.

D. ‘T’ has violated privacy of ‘P’.

Q. 132 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: John was a publisher of ancient books and papers. In one of his books on the World Wars, he gave photograph of some letters written by famous historic personalities. A researcher in history noted that in the pictures of some of the letters printed in the book, John had added some words or sentences in his own handwriting to give completeness to the sentences, so that the readers will get a clear picture of the writer’s intention. The researcher challenges the originality of those pictures and claims that the book containing the forged letters should be banned. Examine the validity of the researcher’s demand.

A. The additions in the letters were made by the publisher in his own handwriting would have made material alteration to the original meaning and hence amounted to forgery.

B. As forgery amounts to adding or deleting anything from an original document, the demand of the researcher is valid.

C. Allowing forged publications to be circulated among the public is as good as committing fraud on the public, so the publication should be banned.

D. The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

Q. 133 Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.

Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery. Is A liable?

A. A is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery.

B. Liability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely

C. A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.

D. As only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence.

Q. 134 Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person’s reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.

Facts: ‘A’ writes a letter to ‘B’ in which he uses abusive language against ‘B’ and also states that ‘B’ is a dishonest person. ‘A’ put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to ‘B’.

A. A’ has committed a moral wrong

B. ‘A’ has not committed defamation

C. A’ has not committed moral wrong

D. ‘A’ has committed defamation

Q. 135 Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.

Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.

A. The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

B. The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.

C. The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company.

D. The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.

Q. 136 Principle: Contract is a written or spoken agreement, with specific terms between two or more persons or entities in which there is a promise to do something in return for a valuable benefit known as consideration. Such an agreement is intended to be enforceable by law. A unilateral contract is one in which there is a promise to pay or give other consideration in return for actual performance.

Facts: A Toilet Soap Manufacturing Company in India in order to promote the sale of their product, published an advertisement in all the Newspapers on January 1, 2017 that the Company has kept a model ignition key of an Audi A3 Car. The advertisement also stated that whoever gets the said key before December 31, 2017 from a soap bar will be gifted with the Audi A3 Car. Mr. Martin, a foreigner who came to India as a Tourist who was staying in a Hotel found a Key similar to same Car Ignition Key. Mr. Martin brought this matter to the notice of the Hotel Manager. The Manager informed Mr. Martin about the Company’s advertisement on January 1, 2017. Mr. Martin wants to claim the Car. Will he succeed?

A. The Hotel Manager who could legally claim the Car as he was the one actually purchased the soap for the use in the Hotel.

B. No. The Soap Company has not entered into a contract with Mr.Martin as he was not in India on January 1, 2017 when the advertisement was published.

C. No. Actual intention of the Company was to promote the sale of the Soap.

D. Mr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.

Q. 137 Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.

Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S’ submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his class mates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later, ‘S’ got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. ‘S’ rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S’. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

A. The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.

B. The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.

C. The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.

D. The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.

Q. 138 Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.

Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years at the rate of rupees 12, 00, 000/- per annum provided the house was put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according to contemporary style.

A. There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.

B. There is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola.

C. It is voidable contract at the option of Bhola.

D. There is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is fixed by both of them and the term ‘present style’ only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.

Q. 139 Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female,out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.

Facts: ‘A’, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.

A. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl as well as her parents

B. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl.

C. ‘A’ committed no offence against the parents of the girl

D. ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents

Q. 140 Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that ‘When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.’

Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich man’s house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went upto the room from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the servant. They all left the house and the servantreported the matter to the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently,all three were arrested in connection with the offences of house breaking, burglary and rape. Identify the legal liability of the three.

A. All three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes.

B. Sanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.

C. Only Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were accomplice to the offence.

D. Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.

Q. 141 Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise,compensation in the form of money.

Facts: ‘X’ made a promise to ‘Y’ to repair his car engine. ‘Y’ made the payment for repair. After the repair, ‘Y’ went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, ‘Y’ met with an accident due to bursting of atyre.

A. ‘X’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘Y’ in the form of money.

B. ‘X’ will not be entitled to receive compensation.

C. ‘Y’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’ in the form of money.

D. ‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.

Q. 142 Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.

Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A’s action valid?

A. It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.

B. A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.

C. As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.

D. As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.

Q. 143 Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.

Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R,a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused. Is P justified in her action?

A. As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.

B. R can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed.

C. P is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.

D. P is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.

Q. 144 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Facts: ‘A’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ to save his life kills ‘A’.

A. ‘A’ has not committed an offence because he was mad.

B. ‘B’ has committed an offence.

C. ‘B’ has not committed any offence.

D. ‘A’ has committed the offence of attempt to murder.

Q. 145 Principle: A violation of a legal right of someone, whether results in a legal injury or not, gives rise to an action in tort for compensation. At the same time, an action by someone, which results in some loss or damage to somebody else is not actionable, if there is no violation of a right of that somebody.

Facts: AB Coaching Centre was a popular CLAT coaching academy with several good trainers. A lot of aspirants used to attend its coaching classes from all over and was making good profit. This was going on for the past several years. During a session, T, one of the very good and popular trainers of ABCC, had some difference of opinion with the owner of ABCC and left the coaching centre. In August 2016, T started another Entrance Coaching Centre closer to ABCC which resulted in a substantial drop in its students and huge financial loss. The owner of ABCC wants to file a case against T for the loss sustained by ABCC. What do you think is the right legal position?

A. T will be liable to compensate the loss to ABCC.

B. T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC.

C. ‘T’ should have consulted ABCC before starting his coaching centre.

D. T started the new coaching centre near ABCC intentionally, and s hall be liable to compensate the loss of ABCC.

Q. 146 Bona vacantia

A. Order of the court for eviction

B. Vacant land

C. Goods that have no owner

D. Vacant building

Q. 147 In pari delicto

A. Where the lawyer is at fault

B. Where the judge is at fault

C. Where the petitioner is at fault

D. Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault

Q. 148 Sine die’ means:

A. Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting

B. Adjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again.

C. Adjourned for the day and meet after one week

D. Adjourned for the day and meet after one month.

Q. 149 Malus animus

A. Good intention

B. Bad intention

C. Physical force

D. Animal farm

Q. 150 Lis pendens

A. Pending suit

B. Decided case

C. No legal issues involved

D. Facts of case proved

Q. 151 Per incuriam

A. Mistaken decision

B. Supremacy of law

C. Mistaken identity

D. Supremacy of the Constitution

Q. 152 Autrefois convict means

A. Formerly convicted

B. To be convicted

C. Failed prosecution

D. Doubtful conviction

Q. 153 Lex loci means

A. Law of a place

B. Latin regualtions

C. Domestic laws

D. Italian laws

Q. 154 Animus posssidendi’ means:

A. Intent to contract

B. Intention to harm

C. Intention to return

D. Intention to possess

Q. 155 Caveat venditor means

A. Seller beware

B. Manufacturer beware

C. Transporter beware

D. Buyer beware

Q. 156 Pari passu means

A. On an unequal status

B. On equal footing

C. Diverse nature

D. Supremacy of law

Q. 157 Faux pas means

A. Cheating

B. Tactless mistake

C. Pausing for a while

D. Passage of time

Q. 158 ‘Punctum Temporis’ means

A. Functional authority

B. Temporary position

C. Timely assistance

D. Point of time

Q. 159 ‘Jus Gentium’ means:

A. Global administrative law

B. Law of Societies

C. Law among Nations

D. Global justice

Q. 160 Turpis arbiter’ means:

A. Inefficient lawyer

B. Inefficient judge

C. Corrupt prosecutor

D. Corrupt judge

Questions: 161 – 163

Direction for Question Numbers 161 – 163 Read the following information carefully and choose the appropriate option in the questions given below.

i. There is a group of five persons – A, B, C, D and E.

ii. One of them is a Singer, one is a Dancer, one is a Painter, one is a Teacher and one is a Doctor.

iii. Three of them – A, C and Doctor prefer rice to chapatti and two of them – B and the Painter prefer chapatti to rice.

iv. The Teacher, D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer chapatti to rice.

v. The Singer is C’s brother.

Q. 161 Who is a Singer?

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

Q. 162 Who is a Teacher?

A. D

B. C

C. E

D. B

Q. 163 Who is a Dancer?

A. E

B. C

C. A

D. D

Questions: 164 – 166

Direction for Question Numbers 164 – 166: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option in the questions given below

i. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.

ii. Q gets a North-facing flat and is not next to S.

iii. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

iv. R, next to U gets a South-facing flat and T gets a North-facing flat.

Q. 164 Which of the following combination gets South-facing flats?

A. U, P ,T

B. Q, T, S

C. data inadequate

D. U, R, P

Q. 165 Whose flat is between Q and S?

A. U

B. R

C. P

D. T

Q. 166 If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U?

A. T

B. P

C. R

D. Q

Questions: 167 – 168

Which alternative applies to the following Statement or Assumptions? Choose the

most appropriate option.

Q. 167 ‘There is no man that is not naturally good’ is equivalent to the proposition:

A. No men are good.

B. Some men are naturally good.

C. Some men are not naturally good.

D. All men are naturally good.

Q. 168 ‘Only ignorant people believe in witchcraft’ is equivalent to:

A. Some ignorant persons are not those who believe in witchcraft.

B. No ignorant persons are those who do not believe in witchcraft.

C. All persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant.

D. There is no link between ignorance and witchcraft.

Q. 169 Find the odd one out from the following:

A. Clearly visible

B. Exact estimate

C. Open secret

D. Only choice

Q. 170 Find the odd one out from the following:

A. Expedition

B. Crusade

C. Campaign

D. Cruise

Q. 171 Crumb : Bread is as

A. Splinter : Wood

B. Inch : Unit

C. Powder : Face

D. Water : Vessel

Q. 172 wave: crest as _________ : peak.

A. Water

B. land

C. River

D. Mountain

Q. 173 If in a certain code, the word MILITARY is written as 12324567, then in the same code, the word TAIL will be written as:

A. 2345

B. 3254

C. 4523

D. 5432

Q. 174 If 27th March, 2011 was Sunday, what was the day on 27th June, 2011?

A. Tuesday

B. Saturday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 175 ————– is a hater of knowledge and learning.

A. Misologist

B. Moroccan

C. Misogynist

D. Mystique

Q. 176 ‘Some of the valuable books are seldom read’, means:

A. All the valuable books are not read.

B. All the valuable books are read.

C. Some of the valuable books are read.

D. Some of the valuable books are not read.

Q. 177 A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl`s:

A. Son

B. Uncle

C. Son-in-law

D. Brother

Q. 178 When Ravi saw Ramesh, he recalled, ‘He is the son of the father of my daughter’. Who is Ramesh?

A. Cousin

B. Brother-in-law

C. Uncle

D. Brother

Q. 179 Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ram said, ‘Her mother`s brother is the only son of my mother’s father’. How is the girl`s mother related to Ram?

A. Mother

B. Grandmother

C. Sister

D. Aunt

Q. 180 Sunil’s school bus is facing North when it reaches his school. After starting from Sunil’s house, it turned right twice and then left before reaching the school. What direction the bus was facing when it left the bus stop in front of Sunil’s house?

A. North

B. South

C. West

D. East

Q. 181 What is meant by ‘Alliteration’?

A. Act of literary modification.

B. The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.

C. Acts of an environmentally conscious person.

D. Words which sound alike but have different meanings.

Q. 182 There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?

A. 158

B. 89

C. 152

D. 79

Q. 183 Identify the statement which cannot be accepted

A. Almost one third of the human body is made up of water

B. Odyssey is an ancient epic

C. Human race will become extinct sooner or later

D. The earth revolves around the sun in 366 days

Q. 184 Ravi was showing a photograph to his friend, Gopi. Pointing at a boy in the photograph, Ravi said: ‘The boy sitting at the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother’.What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Ravi?

A. First Cousins

B. Brothers

C. Nephew and uncle

D. Ravi’s brother-in-law

Q. 185 How many times from 4 pm to 10 pm, the hands of a clock are at right angles?

A. 10

B. 11

C. 9

D. 6

Q. 186 John wants to go the university. He starts from his house which is in the East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?

A. East

B. South

C. North

D. West

Q. 187 Coding and decoding 9: 72 : : 8 : ?

A. 34

B. 18

C. 64

D. 43

Q. 188 Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East,South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South.Which direction are the ladies facing to?

A. North and West

B. South and East

C. East and West

D. None of these.

Q. 189 A person who renounces religious or political belief or principle is called:

A. Apostle

B. Antiquarian

C. Ascetic

D. apostate

Q. 190 If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as ‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?

A. SOFIA

B. SOLID

C. NASIA

D. SOMAD

Q. 191 In a company, 60 % workers are males. If the number of female workers in the company is 800, what is the number of male workers in the company?

A. 1200

B. 1600

C. 1400

D. 1900

Q. 192 The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October 1999. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her birthday, if it was not a leap year?

A. Tuesday

B. Monday

C. Wednesday

D. Sunday

Q. 193 In a military secret service map, South-East is shown as North, North-East as West and so on. What will West become?

A. North-East

B. South-West

C. North-West

D. South-East

Q. 194 Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject?

A. History

B. Social science

C. Maths

D. Economics

Q. 195 A man walks 1 km. towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 kms. Again he turns to East and walks 2 kms. After this he turns to North and walks 9 kms. Now, how far is he from his starting point?

A. 9 kms

B. 4 kms.

C. 10 kms

D. 5 kms

Q. 196 Mare is to Horse as –

A. Deer is to Buck

B. Sow is to Boar

C. Geese is to Duck

D. Pony is to Donkey

Q. 197 Pointing to a photograph, Prakash said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son’ How is Prakash related to the girl in the photograph?

A. Uncle

B. Cousin

C. Father

D. Brother

Q. 198 In the series of alphabets given below, which is the missing alphabet series?

AX, DU, GR, ____, ML

A. HQ

B. IK

C. JO

D. JN

Q. 199 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become?

A. North-West

B. North

C. South-East

D. East

Q. 200 No parrots are black.

All crows are black.

From the above premises which one of the following conclusions is true?

A. No crows are parrots.

B. Some parrots are not crows

C. No conclusion can be drawn.

D. Some crows are not parrots.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	A	D	C	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	A	A	D	B	A	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	A	C	A	A	A	A	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	D	D	D	C	C	D	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	D	D	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	A	A	A	D	A	B	C	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	C	C	A	D	A	C	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	C	D	D	B	B	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	A	A	C	C	A	D	B	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	B	D	A	A	C	D	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	C	C	C	D	D	D	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	C	D	A	C	C	D	A	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	A	D	D	C	D	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	C	B	A	D	D	A	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	C	D	A	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	A	D	A	B	B	D	C	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	B	D	D	D	C	D	C	A	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	C	C	A	D	D	B	D	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	A	B	B	C	C	A	D	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	D	A	D	B	D	C	C	A

CLAT 2016 Previous Year Paper

CLAT 2016

Q. 1 I like reading journals _______ novels.

A. The Best

B. more than

C. most than

D. the less than

Q. 2 There isn’t _________ water in the overhead tank.

A. Lot of

B. any

C. little

D. something

Q. 3 They always give the available seats to _______ comes first

A. Whomever

B. whom

C. whichever

D. whoever

Q. 4 A fire broke _____ in the neighbourhood.

A. Off

B. out

C. away

D. from

Q. 5 If you promise _______ angry with me, I’ll tell you what I broke.

A. not to get

B. get out

C. not getting

D. not get

Q. 6 A thief does not ______ the door.

A. Knock at

B. knock on

C. knock to

D. knock

Q. 7 There is a lot of work ______ hand. Let’s cancel ______ picnic.

A. Upon,the

B. in,a

C. in,the

D. on,a

Q. 8 It’s unfortunate that he died _____ cancer.

A. By

B. of

C. whom

D. with

Q. 9 Professor Ahmed ____ teaching us _____ August, 2012.

A. Was,for

B. had been,since

C. has been,since

D. has been,for

Q. 10 The method and practice of teaching is called ____.

A. Paediatrics

B. pedagogy

C. training

D. philately

Q. 11 Her parents have arrived _____ the airport.

A. To

B. at

C. on

D. in

Q. 12 They returned home _____ a taxi.

A. In

B. from

C. on

D. with

Q. 13 I have never come _______ nay one as rude as him.

A. Across

B. to

C. around

D. at

Q. 14 I can’t bear ____ late.

A. been

B. be

C. to

D. being

Q. 15 Mani, along with his friends, _____ for basket ball practice every morning.

A. Were going

B. are going

C. goes

D. go

Q. 16 Choose the correct spelling

A. Sacribegous

B. saereligious

C. sacrilegious

D. sacrilegiuos

Q. 17 Choose the correct spelling

A. Deceive

B. deceeve

C. diecieve

D. decieve

Q. 18 Choose the correct spelling

A. Collaborate

B. colaborate

C. colabborate

D. collaborrate

Q. 19 Choose the correct spelling

A. Integrity

B. integerety

C. intigerity

D. integerity

Q. 20 Choose the correct spelling

A. Berrister

B. barrister

C. barisster

D. berister

Q. 21 “Faux pas” means:

A. Expected to happening

B. flase

C. social blunder

D. fake identity

Q. 22 “Ab initio” means:

A. In continuation with

B. from the beginning

C. in defence of a comment

D. in connection with the future

Q. 23 “To bury the hatchet” means:

A. To end a feud with an enemy

B. to cremate carcass of an animal

C. to plant grass in the field

D. to hid some treasure

Q. 24 “Amicus curiae” means:

A. One of the judges of the court

B. A friend of the court

C. One among the parties to the dispute

D. One among the expert witnesses in a case.

Q. 25 Choose the correct option.

A. Please stop interfering into my romantic life.

B. Please stop interfering in my romantic life.

C. Please stop interfering with my romantic life.

D. Please stop interfering for my romantic life.

Q. 26 Choose the correct option

A. The Titanic did not reach their destination

B. The Titanic did not reach her destination

C. The Titanic did not reach his destination

D. The Titanic did not reach it’s destination

Q. 27 Choose the correct option

A. The Film Star climbed off their car and smiled at the people.

B. The Film Star come out of the car and smiled at the people.

C. The Film Star got out of the car and smiled at the people.

D. The Film Star got off the car and smiled at the people.

Q. 28 Choose the correct option.

A. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on correcting your pronunciation.

B. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on managing your pronunciation.

C. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on repairing your pronunciation.

D. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on modifying your pronunciation.

Q. 29 When _____ is bliss, it is _____ to be wise.

A. Romance, boring

B. ignorance, folly

C. knowledge, better

D. bachelorhood, single

Q. 30 ______ waters run _____.

A. Hot, fast

B. Muddy, slow

C. Stagnant, leisurely

D. Still, deep

Questions: 31 – 40

Direction for Question 31-40: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions given after the passage:

1. Often, we passionately pursue matters that in the future appear to be contradictory to our real intention or nature; and triumph is followed by remorse or regret. There are numerous examples of such a trend in the annals of history and contemporary life.

2. Alfred Nobel was the son of Immanuel Nobel, an inventor who experimented extensively with explosives. Alfred too carried out research and experiments with a large range of chemicals; he found new methods to blast rocks for the construction of roads and bridges; he was engaged in the development of technology and different weapons; his life revolved around rockets and cannons and gun powder. The ingenuity of the scientist brought him enough wealth to buy the Bofors armament plant in Sweden.

3. Paradoxically, Nobel’s life was a busy one yet he was lonely; and as he grew older, he began suffering from guilt of having invented the dynamite that was being used for destructive purposes.He set aside a huge part of his wealth to institute Nobel Prizes. Besides honouring men and women for their extraordinary achievements in physics, chemistry, medicine and literature, he wished to honour people who worked for the promotion of peace.

4. It’s strange that the very man whose name was closely connected with explosives and inventions that helped in waging wars willed a large part of his earnings for the people who work for the promotion of peace and the benefit of mankind. The Nobel Peace Prize is intended f or a person who has accomplished the best work for fraternity among nations, for abolition or reduction of war and for promotion of peace.

5. Another example that comes to one’s mind is that of Albert Einstein. In 1939, fearing that the Nazis would win the race to build the world’s first atomic bomb, Einstein urged President Franklin D Roosevelt to launch an American programme on nuclear research. The matter was considered and a project called the Manhattan Project was initiated. The project involved intense nuclear research the construction of the world’s first atomic bomb. All this while, Einstein had the impression that the bomb would be used to protect the world from the Nazis. But in 1945, when Hiroshima was bombed to end World War II, Einstein was deeply grieved and he regretted his endorsement of the need for nuclear research.

6. He also stated that had he known that the Germans would be unsuccessful in making the atomic bomb, he would have probably never recommended making one. In 1947, Einstein began working for the cause of disarmament. But, Einstein’s name still continues to be linked with the bomb.Man’s fluctuating thoughts, changing opinions, varying opportunities keep the mind in a state of flux. Hence, the paradox of life: it’s certain t hat nothing is certain in life.

Q. 31 The Manhattan Project was intiated ______.

A. in honour of Einstein.

B. to protect the Nazis.

C. to bomb Hiroshima.

D. to carry out nuclear research

Q. 32 Alfred eastablished the Nobel Prizes to ______.

A. remind people of his achievements.

B. ease his guilt and promote work for the betterment of mankind.

C. use his wealth for hard working people.

D. honour only those people who are intelligent

Q. 33 In paragraph 4, the word ‘accomplished’ means ___________.

A. completed successfully.

B. worked hard.

C. won awards

D. made an effort to do something

Q. 34 In the fifth paragraph, the word ‘endorsement’ means

A. expressing one’s opposition.

B. expressing one’s approval or support.

C. making a promise to do something.

D. expressing one’s regret.

Q. 35 Working with arms and ammunition helped Alfred to amass _______.

A. enemies

B. intelligence

C. wealth

D. popularity

Q. 36 Immanuel’s interest in dynamites influenced Alfred’s inclination for working ___________.

A. for humanity

B. with explosives

C. for the Nobel Peace Prize

D. with contradiction

Q. 37 One of the paradoxes in Alfred’s life was that he was ___________.

A. lonely yet rich

B. hard working but a failure

C. intelligent yet lonely

D. occupied yet lonely

Q. 38 Einstein had the impression that the Germans would __________.

A. bomb Hiroshima.

B. be successful in making the world’s first atomic bomb.

C. be unsuccessful in making the atomic bomb.

D. work for humanity

Q. 39 The passage is _____________.

A. an argumentative essay

B. an expository essay.

C. a process essay.

D. a descriptive essay

Q. 40 The paradox, ‘it’s certain that nothing is certain in life’, indicates the writer’s

A. hatred for scientists

B. analytical mind

C. scientific mind

D. persuasive nature

Q. 41 India signed the “Paris Agreement on Climate Change” in April, 2016 at:

A. New York

B. Paris

C. New Delhi

D. Geneva

Q. 42 The country which cloned a buffalo calf first is:

A. India

B. U. S. A.

C. Sweden

D. Denmark

Q. 43 Mars is also known as the:

A. Blue planet

B. Brown Planet

C. Red Planet

D. Green Planet

Q. 44 In 2015, Prime Minister Mr. Narendra Modi launched a new campaign, “Start up India, Stand up India”. The campaign is aimed at:

A. Making India Digital

B. Promoting bank financing for start ups and offer incentives to boost entrepreneurship and job creation.

C. Promoting Swatch Bharat

D. Promoting free education to all children below the age of 14 years and assuring them jobs after obtaining higher education.

Q. 45 Who is the author of “Crime & Punishment”?

A. Geoffrey Chaucer

B. Fyodor Dostoevsky

C. Harold Joseph Laski

D. Karl Marx

Q. 46 Power to summon the Houses of the Parliament is vested with:

A. Vice President

B. President

C. Prime Minister

D. Speaker and Vice President

Q. 47 Which country is the first developed nation to default on debt of IMF?

A. USA

B. UK

C. Japan

D. Greece

Q. 48 Which State of India was declared in January, 2016 as the “first organic farming State of India”?

A. Punjab

B. Sikkim

C. Kerala

D. Haryana

Q. 49 Punjabi has become the ______________ most common language in the Parliament of Canada.

A. fourth

B. fifth

C. second

D. third

Q. 50 Which State has become the first State to introduce compulsory gender education at the graduate level?

A. Telangana

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q. 51 The highest peace time gallantry award Ashok Chakra was awarded posthumously during 2016 to:

A. Mohan Nath Goswami

B. Mahendra Singh

C. Jagdish Chand

D. Rajesh Atra

Q. 52 The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 was enacted to give effect to:

A. the transfer of certain territories by India to Bangladesh and transfer of certain

territories from Bangladesh to India

B. the acquiring of territories by India from Bangladesh.

C. National Judicial Appointment Commission

D. transfer of certain territories by India to Bangladesh.

Q. 53 The Currency of Thailand is:

A. Baht

B. Rupee

C. Ringgit

D. Peseta

Q. 54 Parliament of India consists of:

A. Council of States

B. House of the People

C. House of the People and Council of States

D. President, House of the People and Council of States

Q. 55 The direction to hold floor test to prove majority in the Legislative Assembly of Uttarakhand , to be held on 10th May, 2016 has been give n on 6th May, 2016 , by

A. The Supreme Court of India

B. The High Court of Uttarakhand

C. The President of India

D. The Governor of Uttarakhand

Q. 56 Which organization has the motto ‘Be Prepared’?

A. National Disaster Management Authority

B. National Cadet Corps

C. Boys’ Scout

D. National Service Scheme

Q. 57 Under the Constitution of India the official language of the Union is:

A. English and Hindi

B. English

C. Hindi

D. Hindi in Devanagari Script

Q. 58 At the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships held at Doha in February, 2016, who among women won the gold medal in Long Jump?

A. Irina Ektova of Khazagstan

B. Mayooka Johny of India

C. Prajusha of India

D. Olga Rypakova of Khazakstan

Q. 59 The “Paris Agreement” was adopted in the twenty first session of Conference of Parties in the month of:

A. December, 2015

B. January, 2016

C. November, 2015

D. February, 2016

Q. 60 Who was conferred the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award during August, 2015?

A. Dhoni

B. Virat Kohli

C. Saina Nehwal

D. Sania Mirza

Q. 61 Who is the President of Sri Lanka?

A. Jayavardane

B. K. Sripavan

C. Ranil Wickramasinghe

D. Maithripala Sirisena

Q. 62 Who has scored the fastest century in a Test Cricket match?

A. A B de Villiers, South Africa

B. Misbah Ul Haq, Pakistan

C. Brendon McCullum, New Zealand

D. Vivian Richards, West Indies

Q. 63 Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

A. Ms. Sushma Swaraj

B. Sh. Narendra Modi

C. Sh. Arun Jately

D. Ms. Sushmita Mahajan

Q. 64 Who is the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission?

A. Justice B.S. Chauhan

B. Justice Balakrishnan

C. Justice D.K. Jain

D. Justice H.L. Dattu

Q. 65 Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in framing the Indian Constitution?

A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Sir B.N. Rau

D. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Q. 66 In April 2016, The Duke and Duchess of Cambridge visited India. Their names are:

A. Prince Robert and Kateler

B. Prince Charles and Cathy

C. Prince William and Kate Middleton

D. Prince Hillery and Victoria.

Q. 67 In case the President of India wants to resign, he shall address his resignation to the:

A. Chief Justice of India

B. Vice President

C. Chief Election Commissioner

D. Prime Minister

Q. 68 Name the Indian Gymnast who has become the first female Indian Gymnast to qualify for the Olympics.

A. Dipa Karmakar

B. Anjubala

C. Bisweshwari Nandi

D. Rupinder Kaur

Q. 69 In case of death of both the President and Vice-President of India, who shall act as the President of India?

A. Prime Minister

B. The Parliament will nominate from among its Members

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Attorney General of India

Q. 70 Who is the Union Finance Minister of India?

A. Mr. D.V. Sadananda Gowda

B. Ms. Sushma Swaraj

C. Mr. Arun Jaitly

D. Mr. Rajnath Singh

Q. 71 Who is the Chairman of National Green Tribunal?

A. Justice Balakrishna Reddy

B. Justice R.C. Lahoti

C. Justice Swatanter Kumar

D. Justice Bhandhari

Q. 72 Which State has the largest number of foreign students in India?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Maharashtra

C. Haryana

D. Karnataka

Q. 73 Who lit the torch from the sun’s rays reflected in a parabolic mirrorduring the Olympic flame lighting ceremony for the Rio 2016 Olympic Games at the site of ancient Olympia in Greece on 22nd April, 2016?

A. Katerina Lehou

B. Ronaldo

C. Katerina Kaif

D. Joanie Laureh aka Chyna

Q. 74 The Parliament of which country became first Parliament in the world to run entirely on Solar Power?

A. UK

B. India

C. Pakistan

D. Japan

Q. 75 Prime Minister, Mr. Narendra Modi, in March, 2016, launched an ambitious programme “Setu Bharatam”. The programme is aimed at:

A. Linking all major cities and towns by rail, air and road by 2019.

B. Making all National Highways railway level crossing free by 2019

C. Providing travel concession to senior citizens throughout India.

D. Providing travel concession to women and children throughout India

Q. 76 How many Indian Universities/Institutes figure among the top 200 in BRICS rankings?

A. 6

B. 16

C. 26

D. 20

Q. 77 Which day is celebrated as “World Consumer Rights Day”?

A. 15th March

B. 5th September

C. 5th June

D. 15th July

Q. 78 Who was crowned as the winner of Femina Miss India 2016 and who will represent India at the Miss World pageant?

A. Sushruthi Krishna

B. Pankhuri Gidwani

C. Sushobita Kapoor

D. Priyadarshini Chatterjee

Q. 79 ___________ is the fastest planet to revolve around the Sun.

A. Mercury

B. Mars

C. Jupiter

D. Venus

Q. 80 Who has written the book “Indomitable Spirit”?

A. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

B. Justice Krishna Iyer

C. Ms. Arundhati Roy

D. Sh. Narendra Modi

Q. 81 The Rajya Sabha in April, 2016 passed two Bills, which had already been passed by the Lok Sabha earlier, repealing certain outdated/old l aws. The Bills intended to repeal:

A. 315 laws

B. 1053 laws

C. 153 laws

D. 513 laws

Q. 82 “Beyond the Lines – An Autobiography” is authored by:

A. Mr. Arun Shourie

B. Mr. Kuldip Nayar

C. Justice Krishna Iyer

D. Mr. Soli Sarab Ji

Q. 83 The maximum number of ‘Smokeless Villages’ are found in the State of:

A. Punjab

B. Rajasthan

C. Telangana

D. Karnataka

Q. 84 In an attempt to curb black money, the Government has made PAN mandatory for all financial transactions exceeding Rupees:

A. 4 lakhs

B. 3 lakhs

C. 2 lakhs

D. 1 lakhs

Q. 85 In which of the following States / Union Territories, the Election Commission has decided to hold election in a single phase on May 16, 2016?

A. Assam, Kerala and Pondicherry.

B. West Bengal, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

C. Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry.

D. West Bengal, Kerala and Assam.

Q. 86 Name the country that has six Deputy Prime Ministers

A. Nigeria

B. Nicaragua

C. Nepal

D. Maldives

Q. 87 Country’s first ‘visually challenged friendly’ railway station is:

A. New Delhi

B. Varanasi

C. Tirupathi

D. Mysuru

Q. 88 The largest diaspora in the world is from:

A. Mexico

B. South Africa

C. India

D. China

Q. 89 A Japanese maglev, which is the fastest passenger train in the world, has broken its own record in 2015. The train reached ___________ kmph in the test run.

A. 503

B. 403

C. 603

D. 453

Q. 90 In January, 2016, at the first stage, the Union Ministry of Urban Development unveiled the list of ________ cities for smart cities mission out of 98 shortlisted cities:

A. 30

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Q. 91 The number of ‘three digit numbers’ which are multiples of 9 are:

A. 98

B. 101

C. 100

D. 99

Q. 92 The value of a machine depreciates every year at the rate of 10% on its value at the beginning of that year. If the present value of the machine is Rs. 729, its worth three years ago was:

A. Rs. 947.70

B. Rs. 1,000

C. Rs. 750.87

D. Rs. 800

Q. 93 The angle subtended by the Minor segment of a circle at the center is __________ the angle subtended by the Major segment at the center of the circle.

A. greater than

B. not related to

C. equal to

D. lesser than

Q. 94 What is the sum of all the natural numbers from 1 to 100?

A. 5000

B. 5050

C. 6000

D. 5052

Q. 95 A part of monthly hostel charges is fixed and the remaining depends on the number of days one has taken food in the mess. When a student A takes food for 20 days, she has to pay Rs. 1000 ashostel char ges whereas a student B, who takes food for 26 days, pays Rs. 1180 as hostel charges.Find the fixed charges and the cost of food per day.

A. 300, 30

B. 400, 40

C. 200, 20

D. 400, 30

Q. 96 A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. What is the average number of visitors per day in the month of June beginning with a Sunday?

A. 250

B. 280

C. 285

D. 276

Q. 97 12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.

A. 7/12

B. 11/12

C. 10/12

D. 9/12

Q. 98 A man earns Rs. 20 on the first day and spends Rs. 15 on the next day. He again earns Rs. 20 on the third day and spends Rs. 15 on the fourth day. If he continues to save in this way, how soon will he have Rs. 60 in hand?

A. on 27th day

B. on 24th day

C. on 12th day

D. on 17th day

Q. 99 60 kg of an alloy X is mixed with 100 kg of an alloy Y. If alloy X has lead and tin in the ratio of 3:2 and alloy Y has tin and copper in the ratio of 1:4, then the amount of tin in the new alloy is

A. 53 kgs

B. 80 kgs

C. 36 kgs.

D. 44 kgs.

Q. 100 60 kg of an alloy X is mixed with 100 kg of an alloy Y. If alloy X has lead and tin in the ratio of 3:2 and alloy Y has tin and copper in the ratio of 1:4, then the amount of tin in the new alloy is

A. 53 kgs.

B. 80 kgs

C. 36 kgs

D. 44kgs

Q. 101 The traffic lights at three different signal points change after every 45 seconds, 75 seconds and 90 seconds respectively. If all change simultaneously at 7:20:15 hours, then they will change again simultaneously at

A. 7:27:30 hours

B. 7:28:00 hours

C. 7:27:50 hours

D. 7:27:45 hours

Q. 102 A circular park, 42 m in diameter, has a path 3.5 m wide running around it on the outside. Find the cost of gravelling the path at Rs. 4 per m2

A. Rs. 1672

B. Rs. 1652

C. Rs. 2002

D. Rs. 2048

Q. 103 A train which is moving at an average speed of 40 kmph, reaches its destination on time. When its average speed reduces to 35 kmph, then it reaches its destination 15 minutes late. The distance travelled b y the train is:

A. 80 kms

B. 40 kms

C. 70 kms

D. 30 kms

Q. 104 The mean of 72 items was found to be 63. If two of the items were misrecorded as 27 and 9 instead of 72 and 90 respectively, find the correct mean.

A. 64.75

B. 64.25

C. 63.25

D. 65.75

Q. 105 Principle: Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower reputation of a person in the estimation of other members of the society generally.

Facts: ‘A’ writes a highly offensive and derogatory letter about ‘B’, and send it directly to ‘B’ in a sealed cover.

A. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive and derogatory and is directly sent to ‘B’.

B. A’ is not liable to ‘B’ for defamation, since there is no publication to any other person in whose estimation the reputation of ‘B’ could be brought down.

C. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive a nd derogatory.

D. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as it has hurt his (B’s) self-esteem.

Q. 106 A patient in a hospital is given soup daily in a cylindrical bowl of dia meter 7 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to a height of 4 cm, how much soup the hospital has to prepare daily to serve 250 patients?

A. 40 litres

B. 38 litres

C. 38.5 litres

D. 39.5 litres

Q. 107 The angles between the hands of a clock when the time is 4:25 am is:

A. 14½ degrees

B. 12½ degrees

C. 17½ degrees

D. 13½ degrees

Q. 108 A shop gives 15% discount on the purchase of a T.V. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the marked price is Rs. 15,000, what is the price of the T.V if cash purchase is made?

A. Rs. 12,750

B. Rs. 11,220

C. Rs. 10,950

D. Rs. 11,475

Q. 109 If a boy is standing at the top of the tower and another boy is at the ground at some distance from the foot of the tower, then the angle of elevation and depression between the boys when both look at each other will be

A. Angle of elevation will be greater

B. Cannot be predicted for relation

C. Angle of depression will be greater

D. Equal

Q. 110 If the product of zeroes of the polynomial ax2 – 6x – 6 is 4, find the value of ‘a’

A. -3/2

B. -1/2

C. 3/2

D. 1/2

Question 111

Section : Legal Aptitude

This section consists of Fifty (50) questions. Follow the instructions carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

The question number 111-145 in this section consist of legal proposition(s) (hereinafter referrred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such principles may or may not be true in hte real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purpose of this section. In other words, in answering the following question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may e absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. To answer a question, the given principle is to be applied to the given facts so as to arrive at most reasonable conclusion.

Q. 111 Principle : Intentional application of force to another person is action able in law.

Facts : ‘P’ and ‘D’ are unknown to each other. When ‘P’ is about to sit on a chair, ‘D’ intentionally pulls it away as a result of which ‘P’ falls on the floor and is injured.

A. ‘D’ is not liable as ‘P’ is not seriously injured.

B. ‘D’ is liable as he intentinally caused injury to P.

C. ‘D’ is not liable as such jokes are common in the society.

D. ‘D’ is not liable as the injury is not directly caused.

Q. 112 Principle :

1. Wagering agreement are void.

2. Collateral agreement to wagering contracts are valid.

Facts : XYZ Bank lends Rs. 40,000 to Sabu in order to enable him to award as prize to

Randeep who is the winner of horse race. Later Sabu refused to pay the prize stating that horse racing is wagering agreement. Can XYZ Bank recover money from Sabu.

A. Yes it is only a collateral agreement to horse racing and there fore the bank can recover the money from Sabu.

B. Horse racing is illegal and therefore XYZ Bank cannot recover anything from Sabu.

C. No, as it is as wagering contract.

D. Bank can recover money from Sabu so that payment of prize money can be made to Randeep.

Q. 113 Principle : Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so or to provide gratuitously, and such other person takes the benifits of that; the latter is bound to compensate the former for somethind done or thing provided, or ot restore, the thing so delivered.

Facts: Trader ‘A’ delivers certain eatables at ‘B’s house by mistake. ‘B’ consmed the eatables without asking anything. Which of the following derivations is correct?

A. ‘B’ is bound to pay ‘A’ for the eatables.

B. ‘B’ can be made liable to pay for the eatables, only if ‘A’ establish as an express contract between ‘A’ and ”B’.

C. ‘B’ is not bound to pay ‘A’ for the eatables.

D. It is the discretin of ‘B’ to make payment to ‘A’

Q. 114 Principle : Consent is a good defence in a civil action for tort but the act should be the same for which consent was given.

Facts : ‘B’ was formally invited by ‘A’ to his house. ‘B’ after sitting for some time in drawing room, moved to the bed room of the house. ‘A’ sued ‘B’ for trespass.114

A. ‘B’ has interfered with privacy of ‘A’.

B. ‘B’ has committed no trespass as he entered the house with ‘A’s consent.

C. ‘B’ has offended ‘A’ by moving to bed room.

D. ‘B’ has committed trespass as there was no consent of ‘A’ for entry in the Bed room.

Q. 115 Principle : Whoever takes away any moveable thing form the land of any person without that person’s consent, he is said to have committed theft.

Facts : During his visit to the house of ‘C’, ‘A’ asked ‘B’ the son of ‘C’, to accompany ‘A’ to the forest. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ informed ‘C’ in this regard. ‘B’ accompanied ‘A’ to the forest.

A. ‘A’ has committed theft as soon as he entered the house of ‘C’.

B. ‘A’ has not committed theft.

C. ‘ A’ has committed theft

D. ‘A’ has not committed theft till ‘B’ did not accompany him.

Q. 116 Principle: The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Facts : ‘A’ sent a letter making a proposal to ‘B’ to purchase the hous e of ‘B’.

A. The communication of proposal is complete when ‘B’ reads the letter.

B. The communication of proposal is complete when A sent the letter.

C. The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife received it.

D. The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife handed over the letter to ‘B’.

Q. 117 Principle: Law does not penalise for wrongs which are of trivial nature.

Facts: In the course of a discussion, ‘A’ threw a file of papers at the t able which touched the hands of ‘B’.

A. ‘A’ is liable for his act, as the file touched ‘B’s hand.

B. ‘A’ is liable for his act, as it assaulted ‘B’.

C. ‘A’ is liable for insulting ‘B’.

D. ‘A’ is not liable for his act, as it was of trivial nature.

Q. 118 Principle: Copyright law protects only work. ‘Work’ means cinemato graphic film but does not include performance by an actor in a cine matographic film.

Facts: Alia Bhatt acted in a movie

A. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law as professional work.

B. The acting of Alia Bhatt cannot be protected under copyright law.

C. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work

D. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected as film producer’s work.

Q. 119 Principle: Import means bringing some consignment into India from a foreign country.

Facts: A consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India. However, this consignment never crossed the Indian custom barrier nor did it enter into the stream of commerce in India.

A. The consignment will only be imported into India when it enters into the stream of commerce in India.

B. The consignment was not imported into India.

C. The consignment was imported into India.

D. The consignment will only be imported into India when it crosses the Indian custom barrier

Q. 120 Principle: A person is said to have committed assault when an apprehension is caused in the mind of a person that he is about to use ph ysical force against his body.

Facts: ‘A’ abuses ‘B’ while he was sitting in a moving train, by aggressively shaking his fists when ‘B’ was standing on the railway platform at a distance.

A. ‘A’ has caused apprehension of assault in the mind of ‘B’.

B. ‘A’ has committed assault against ‘B’.

C. A has not committed assault against ‘B’.

D. ‘A’ has caused fear of assault in the mind of ‘B’

Q. 121 Principle: Sale of liquor is illegal. All agreements relating to prohibit ed items do not exist in the eyes of law.

Facts: ‘A’ entered into an agreement with ‘B’ for the sale of liquor. ‘A’ failed to supply the agreed quantity of liquor to ‘B’.

A. ‘B’ can bring a legal action against ‘B’.

B. ‘A’ can bring a legal action against ‘B’.

C. ‘B’ cannot bring any legal action against ‘A’.

D. ‘A’ and ‘B’ can initiate appropriate legal proceeding against each other.

Q. 122 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under twelve years of age, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.

Facts: Himesh, 11 years old boy, picks up a gold ring worth Rs 5000/-lying on a table in his friend’s house and immediately sells it for Rs 2000/-, and misappropriates the money.

A. Himesh would not be protected under the principle stated above because, irrespective of the age, stealing is an offence.

B. Himesh would be protected under the principle stated above because he is below 12 years of age.

C. Himesh would be protected under the principle stated above because his acts show that he was not sufficiently mature to understand the nature and consequences of his conduct.

D. Himesh would not be protected under the principle stated above because his acts show that he was sufficiently mature to understand the nature and consequences of his conduct.

Q. 123 Principle:One who dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use or sells any movable property belonging to another, is guilt y of the offence of misappropriation.

Facts: ‘A’ takes property belonging to ‘Z’ out of Z’s possession, in good faith, believing when he takes it, that the property belongs to him self. Subsequently, ‘A’, on discovering his mistake, without disclosin g the actual facts, dishonestly sells the property to a stranger.

A. ‘A’ may be guilty of theft but not for misappropriation.

B. ‘A’ is guilty of an offence of misappropriation.

C. ‘A’ is not guilty because when he took the property, he believed in good faith that it belonged to him.

D. ‘A’ is not guilty as the property can be recovered from the stranger.

Q. 124 Principle: Letters or words not describing quality of things can be registered as a trade mark.

Facts: Ram made an application for registration of alphabet ‘B’ written in a fancy style as trade mark to be applied on packets and cartons of shoes manufactured by him.

A. The alphabet ‘B’ can be registered as trade mark because it describes the quality of things.

B. The alphabet ‘B’ cannot be registered as trade mark because it is an English letter.

C. The alphabet ‘B’ can be registered as trade mark.

D. The alphabet ‘B’ cannot be registered as trade mark because it belongs to humanity.

Q. 125 Principle: Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower reputation of a person in the estimation of other members of the society generally.

Facts: ‘A’ writes a highly offensive and derogatory letter about ‘B’, and sends it directly to ‘B’ in a sealed cover.

A. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive and derogatory and is directly sent to ‘B’.

B. A’ is not liable to ‘B’ for defamation, since there is no publication to any other person

in whose estimation the reputation of ‘B’ could be brou ght down.

C. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive a nd derogatory.

D. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as it has hurt his (B’s) self-estee m.

Q. 126 Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places.

Facts: ‘A’, a citizen of England, is accused of committing murder of ‘B’ in India by taking part in a conspiracy hatched in England.

A. Only the fact that ‘A’ citizen of England is accused of committing murder of ‘B’ in India is relevant.

B. ‘A’ citizen of England cannot be tried in India.

C. Only the fact that ‘A’ is accused of conspiracy hatched in England is relevant.

D. The facts that ‘A’ citizen of England is accused of commission of murder in India and of conspiracy hatched in England are relevant facts.

Q. 127 Principle: An agreement without free consent can be enforces only at the option of the party whose consent was not free.

Facts: A obtains the consent of ‘B’ to enter into an agreement by put ting a gun on the head of B’s girl friend.

A. ‘B’ can enforce the agreement.

B. ‘B’ cannot enforce the agreement.

C. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ can enforce the aggrement.

D. ‘A’ can enforce the agreement.

Q. 128 Principle: Acceptance of proposal must be the exact mirror image of the proposal.

Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to ‘B’ to sell a chair for Rs. 500. ‘B’ expressed his desire to buy the said chair for Rs. 400.

A. It is not clear whether A made a proposal to ‘B’.

B. ‘B’ has accepted the proposal of ‘A’.

C. ‘B’ has not accepted the proposal of ‘A’.

D. It is not clear whether ‘B’ has accepted the proposal of ‘A’ or not.

Q. 129 Principle: Mere silence as to facts lakely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud.

Facts: ‘A’ sells to ‘B’ (A’s daughter who is minor) a horse which ‘A’ knows to be unsound. ‘A’ says nothing to ‘B’ about the unsoundness of the horse.

A. ‘B’ can take plea of fraud because she is minor.

B. There can not be a contract between a father and daughter.

C. ‘A’ has not committed fraud.

D. ‘A’ has committed fraud.

Q. 130 Principle: A person, who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally normal, may make a contract when he is not of unsound mind.

Facts: ‘A’ generally remains in the state of unsound mind and rarely becomes capable of understanding the things.

A. ‘A’ can make a contract when normal.

B. ‘A’ can make a contract only for his own benefit.

C. ‘A’ can never make a contract.

D. ‘A’ can make a contract at any time whenever he pleases.

Q. 131 Principle: In case where there is an infringement of legal right even without any actual loss or damage, the person whose right is Infringed has a cause of action.

Facts: ‘P’ was wrongfully prevented by the Returning officer from exercising his vote in an assembly election. Still he (‘P’) brought an action claiming damages. Which of the following derivations is correct?

A. ‘P’ would succeed in his action, as it is mandatory to cast vote.

B. ‘P’ would succeed in his action, as he was wrongfully prevented from exercising his legal right of voting in that election.

C. ‘P’ would not succeed in his action, as he did not suffer any loss in that election.

D. ‘P’ would not succeed in his action, as the candidate for whom he wanted to give his vote won the election.

Q. 132 Principle: There are certain acts which, though harmful, are not wrongful in law; therefore, do not give legal right to bring action in law, to the person who suffers from such acts.

Facts: ‘Prakash’ has a rice mill. His neighbour, Shanti, sets up another rice mill and offers a tough competition to Prakash. As a consequence, Prakash’s profits fall down. He brings a suit against Shanti for damages.

A. Prakash can succeed in his claim as it is a case of actual damages.

B. Prakash cannot succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of damage without infringement of any legal right.

C. Prakash may succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of loss to his business.

D. Prakash can succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of damage as a result of infringement of his legal right.

Q. 133 Principle: A condition to a contract can also be complied with after the happening of the event to which such a condition is attached.

Facts: ‘A’ promises to pay Rs. 5000 to ‘B’ on the condition that he shall marry with the consent of ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’. ‘B’ marries without the consent of ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’, but obtains their consent after the Marriage.

A. ‘B’s marriage is not valid.

B. ‘B’ has not fulfilled the condition.

C. The condition is illegal

D. ‘B’ has fulfilled the condition.

Q. 134 Principle: Killing is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by intense and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation.

Facts: ‘A’, a man found his girl friend sleeping, in her own bed room, with another man

named ‘B’. ‘A’ did not do anything but went to his home, picked a gun and cartridges, returned to the girl friend’s bed room with loaded gun but found the place empty. After fifteen days he saw his girl friend dining in a restaurant. Without waiting for even a second, ‘A’ fired five bullets at his girl friend who died on the spot.

A. ‘A’ could have killed ‘B’ instead of his girl friend.

B. ‘A’ could have killed both ‘B’ and his girl friend.

C. ‘A’ did not kill his girl friend under intense and sudden provocation.

D. ‘A’ killed his girl friend under intense and sudden provocation

Q. 135 Principle: Whoever by words or writing conveys to others any imputation concerning any person’s reputation is said to defame that person.

Facts: During a marriage ceremony, ‘A’ circulated a pamphlet saying that ‘S’, sister of the bride, is a thief, she has stolen the shoes of the bridegroom.

A. ‘A’ has defamed the bridegroom.

B. ‘A’ defamed the bride.

C. ‘A’ has defamed ‘S’.

D. ‘A’ did not defame ‘S’ as he never intended it.

Q. 136 Principle: Causing of an effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is an offence.

Facts: ‘A’ confined her daughter ‘D’ in a room. ‘A’ also did not provide any food to her daughter ‘D’. Consequently, ‘D’ died of starvation.

A. ‘A’ committed the offence of confining ‘D’.

B. ‘A’ committed the offence of causing death of ‘D.

C. ‘A’ committed no offence.

D. ‘A’ committed the offence of not providing food to ‘D’.

Q. 137 Principle: Whoever does not arrest the killer and report the matter to the concerned authorities commits an offence.

Facts: ‘A’, a woman, sees ‘B’ , another woman, killing a third woman ‘C’. ‘A’ neither

attempted to arrest ‘B’ nor informed the concerned authorities.

A. ‘A’ has not committed an offence.

B. ‘A’ has committed an offence.

C. ‘B’ has not committed an offence.

D. ‘B’ has committed an offence.

Q. 138 Principle: False imprisonment is a tort (wrong) which means the total restraint of a person’s liberty without lawful justification.

Facts: A part of a public road had been closed for spectators of a boat race. ‘P’ wanted to

enter but hewas prevented by ‘D’ and other policemen because he had not paid the admission fee. ‘P’ was able toenter the enclosure by other means but was unable to go where he wanted to go. The policemenrefused access to where he wanted to go but allowed him to remain where he was or to go back. ‘P’ remained within the enclosure and refused to leave. Subsequently, ‘P’ sued ‘D’ for false imprisonment.

A. It was a case of false imprisonment, but ‘D’ could not be made liable for it.

B. ‘D’ could not be made liable for false imprisonment as he has not touched him.

C. ‘D’ could be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did restrict P’s movements.

D. ‘D’ could not be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did not totally restrict P’s movements

Q. 139 Principle: An independent contractor is one who is employed to do some work of his employer. He is engaged under a contract for services. He undertakes to produce a given result, and in the actual execution of the work, he is not under the direct control or

following directions of hi semployer. He may use his own discretion in execution of the work assigned.In general, an employer is not liable for the torts (wrongful acts) of his independent contractor. But,the employer may be held liable if h e directs him to do some careless acts.

Facts: Ramesh hired a taxi-cab to go to Delhi Airport. As he started l ate from his home, he kept on urging the taxi-driver to drive at a high speed and driver followed the directions; and ultimately due to high speed an accident took place causing injuries to a person.

A. Ramesh would be held liable for damages as he exercised the control by giving directions to the driver.

B. Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because the drive r was an independent contractor and not his servant.

C. Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because Ramesh did not know the consequences of such rash driving.

D. Ramesh would not be liable as car was not owned by him.

Q. 140 Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by accident or misfortune, and without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper car e and caution.

Facts: ‘A’ takes up a gun, not knowing whether it is loaded or not, points it playfully at ‘B’ and pulls the trigger. Consequently, ‘B’ falls dead.

A. ‘B’s death is not accidental, as there was want of proper care and caution on the part of ‘A’.

B. ‘B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ had no intention to kill ‘B’.

C. ‘B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ was just pointing the gun playfully at ‘B’.

D. ‘B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ did not have the knowledge that the gun is loaded.

Q. 141 Principle: An agreement may be entered into orally or in writing, or by conduct.

Facts: ‘A’ went to the shop of ‘B’ and picked a toothbrush and gave a cheque of Rupees twenty to ‘B’ and left the shop.

A. Payment of toothbrush cannot be made through a cheque

B. ‘A’ did not enter into an agreement with ‘B’.

C. ‘A’ should have carried a currency note of Rupees twenty to make the payment.

D. There was an agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Q. 142 Principle: Law never enforces an impossible promise.

Facts: ‘A’ made a promise to ‘B’ to discover treasure by magic.

A. Law will not enforce the promise .

B. Law will enforce the promise.

C. Law will enforce the promise only at the option of ‘A’.

D. Law will enforce the promise only at the option of ‘B’

Q. 143 Principle: Consent is a good defence for civil action in tort. But consent must include both knowledge of risk and assumption of risk, i.e, readiness to bear harm.

Facts: A lady passenger was aware that the driver of the cab, in which she opted to travel was little intoxicated. The cab met with an accident and lady got injured.

A. Driver can take the plea that he was lightly intoxicated.

B. Lady is not entitled to claim compensation as she had knowledge of the risk.

C. Lady is entitled to claim compensation as she only knew about risk and there was no assumption of risk.

D. Lady can refuse to pay the fare as she had suffered injuries.

Q. 144 Principles: • A person is said to abet the doing of a thing when he instigates any other person to do that thing. • Mere acquiescence, however, does not amount to instigation.

Facts: ‘A’ says to ‘B’: I am going to kill ‘C’.” And, ‘B’ replies: “Do as you wish and take the consequences”; whereafter ‘A’ kills ‘C’.

A. ‘B’ has not abetted ‘A’ to kill ‘C’.

B. ‘B’ has abetted ‘A’ by conspiracy.

C. ‘B’ abetted ‘A’ to kill ‘C’.

D. ‘B’ is jointly liable with ‘A’ for killing ‘C’.

Q. 145 Principles: • A servant is one who is employed to do some work for his employ er (master). He is engaged under a contract of service. He works directly under the control and directions of his master. • In general, the master is vicariously liable for those torts (wrongful acts) of his servant which are done by the servant in the course of his employment.

Facts: ‘M’ appointed ‘D’ exclusively for the purpose of driving his tourist vehicle. ‘M’ also appointed ‘C’ exclusively for the purpose of performing the work of a conductor for the tourist vehicle. During one trip, at the end of the journey, ‘C’, while ‘D’ was not on the driver’s seat, and apparently for the purpose of turning the vehicle in the right direction for the next journey, drove it through the street at high speed, and negligently injured ‘P’.

A. ‘M’ could be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as his (C’s) act of driving the vehicle was within his scope of employment.

B. ‘M’ is not liable as he was not present at the time of accident.

C. ‘M’ could not be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as his (C’s) act of d riving the vehicle was not in the course of his employment.

D. ‘M’ could be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as ‘C’ was employed nder a contract of service.

Q. 146 ‘alibi’ means a plea by an accused person that he –

A. was facing trial.

B. was present elsewhere

C. underwent preventive detention.

D. remained in judicial custody

Q. 147 Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion can not be placed on the ground of –

A. Public order

B. Social justice

C. Morality

D. Health

Q. 148 If an authority is holding information about another in a ‘fiduciary capacity’, the

information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 may not be obtainable. ‘Fiduciary relationship’ is based on:

A. Authority

B. Law

C. Trust

D. Contract

Q. 149 Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution of India?

A. Promotion of adult education.

B. Promotion of International peace and security.

C. Organisation of village panchayats.

D. Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

Q. 150 ‘audi alteram partem’ means –

A. Not connected to facts.

B. Giving opportunity of hearing of the other side.

C. Following the substantive law.

D. A transferee cannot retransfer

Q. 151 Which among the following was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution of India”?

A. Right to Constitutional Remedies

B. Right to equality

C. Freedom of Religion

D. Right to move throughout the territory of India

Q. 152 obiter dicta’ means –

A. Direction by a judge.

B. Basis of judicial decision.

C. Judgment of a court in the case before it.

D. An opinion given by the court not necessary for the decision.

Q. 153 Under the Constitution of India ‘Right to Pollution Free Environment’ has emerged as a fundamental right from the right to

A. Life and personal liberty under Article 21

B. Freedom of movement under Article 19

C. Conserve culture under Article 29.

D. Equality under Article 14

Q. 154 ‘persona non grata’ means –

A. Non-person

B. An unacceptable person

C. Non-performance of promise.

D. Ungrateful person

Q. 155 The object of which one of the following writs is to prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold ?

A. Quo warranto

B. Mandamus

C. Prohibition

D. Certiorari

Q. 156 Which among the following does not belong to the ‘right to freedom of religion’?

A. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

B. Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

C. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion .

D. Freedom of speech and expression .

Q. 157 ‘lis pendens’ means –

A. A pending suit

B. On the basis of evidence

C. Awaited information

D. Decision awaited.

Q. 158 Which Indian State has prescribed minimum educational qualification for candidates contesting panchayat polls?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Haryana

Q. 159 As per law the minimum age for the marriage of a boy and a girl in India is

A. 21 years in both cases

B. 18 years and 21 years respectively

C. 21 years and 18 years respectively

D. 18 years in both cases

Q. 160 The Supreme Court of India has struck down the Constitution (Ninet yninth Amendment) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional. It is related to –

A. National Judicial Appointment Commission

B. Religious Rights

C. Land Exchange between India and Bangladesh

D. Jallikattu (Bull Fighting)

Questions: 161 – 163

Direction for Questions 161 – 163

Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

A and B are good in driving bus and car. C and A are good in driving car and scooter. C, D and E are good in driving scooter and tractor. E and C are good in driving scooter and auto rickshaw. D and B are good in driving bus and tractor.

Q. 161 Who is good in driving scooter, tractor and auto rickshaw but not good in driving car?

A. A

B. E

C. D

D. C

Q. 162 Who is good in driving scooter, tractor and bus?

A. C

B. D

C. B

D. A

Q. 163 Who is good in driving tractor, scooter, car and autorickshaw but no t bus?

A. C

B. D

C. B

D. A

Questions: 164 – 166

Direction for Questions 164 – 166

Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In each question, there is a statement and two assumptions numbered as I and II. Read the statement and find which of the given assumptions is implicit:

(A) If assumption I is implicit.

(B) If assumption II is implicit.

(D) If both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

Q. 164 Statement: The next meeting of the executive board of a company will be held after six months.

Assumptions:

I. Existing executive board will be dissolved before six months

II. The company will remain in function after six months

A. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.

B. Assumption II is implicit.

C. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

D. Assumption I is implicit.

Q. 165 Statement: In the State of Zuminisia, people prefer to travel by X airline instead of Y airline, as X airline has advanced German security system and 99% on time operations. Assumptions:

I. Airline X with advanced German security system and record on time operation is perceived better than airline Y.

II. Had advanced German security system and on time performance record of Y airline been implemented, it would have been preferred over airline X.

A. Assumption I is implicit.

B. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.

C. Assumption II is implicit.

D. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

Q. 166 Statement:To attend a convocation ceremony scheduled to be held on Thursday at GM University, Chennai, Mr X left for Chennai on Tuesday by train.

Assumptions:

I. Mr X may reach home on Saturday

II. Mr X may reach the University on Wednesday

A. Assumption I is implicit.

B. Assumption II is implicit.

C. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

D. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit

Questions: 167 – 168

Direction for Questions 167 – 168

Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In a joint family, A, B, C, D, E, and F are the members. B is the son of C. A and C are husband and wife. C is not the mother of B. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A and F is the brother of B.

Q. 167 Which of the following is a pair of females in the family?

A. AE

B. AD

C. DF

D. BD

Q. 168 Who is the mother of B?

A. D

B. F

C. A

D. E

Questions: 169 – 170

Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In each of the questions, two statements are numbered as I and II. There may be a cause and effect relationship between the two statements. The statements maybe the effect of the same cause or an independent cause. The statements may be independent causes without having any relationship.

Read both the statements and mark your answer as:

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(D) If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Q. 169 Statement I: In last two years, there is a considerable reduction in c ncellation of flights due to fog in North India.

Statement II: In last two years, there is a considerable improvement in passenger amenities on all airports of North India.

A. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

B. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

C. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

D. Both statements I and II are independent causes

Q. 170 Statement I: The Government, by legislation has decided to make all public information available to general public.

Statement II: Before passing of legislation, general public did not have access to public information.

A. Both statements I and II are independent causes.

B. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

C. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

D. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Q. 171 Identify the statement which cannot be false.

A. Democracy is the best form of government.

B. Water evaporates at 100° C.

C. All radii of any given circle are of equal length.

D. Myopia is a congenital disorder.

Q. 172 An old woman decided to divide her gold among her daughter and d aughters-in-law. She first kept exactly half of the gold for her daughter. Then she divided the rest of her gold among her daughters-in-law. The eldest one got 26 grams more than the youngest daughter-in-law. The middle one got wice as the youngest one. If the eldest daughter-in-law got 66 grams of gold, how much was recieved by the daughter.

A. 198 grams

B. 172 grams

C. 186 grams

D. 194 grams

Q. 173 Find the odd one out from the following group.

WINDSHIELD, SPARK PLUG, CLUTCH PEDAL, CAR, ENGINE

A. Car

B. Engine

C. Windshield

D. Spark Plug

Q. 174 Four statements are given below. Group two of them in such a way that one is logically incorrect and the other is verifiable as a matter of fact

(a) The Sun does not rise in the East.

(b) A straight line is the shortest distance between any two points.

(d) The maximum duration of a total solar eclipse is about 7.5 minute s

A. [a,c]

B. [c,d]

C. [a,d]

D. [a,b]

Q. 175 This question consists of a related pair of words, followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relations hip as the one expressed in the given pair of words:

SANDERLING : BIRD

A. Mastiff: Dog

B. Cat : Mare

C. Frog : Toad

D. Water : Fish

Q. 176 From among the given options, identify the statement which means t he same as the statement ‘The dual nature of light is an enigma’.

A. Two contradictory descriptions of light presuppose a third description.

B. Light has distinct properties which makes it unique.

C. Light is mysterious

D. The nature of light is an enigma.

Q. 177 Which word in the following group DOES NOT belong to the others?

17PROSPER, EXCITE, THRIVE, FLOURISH

A. Prosper

B. Excite

C. Flourish

D. Thrive

Q. 178 Examine the following numbers and identify the next number:

45; 43; 40; 36; 31; 25; ….

A. 23

B. 29

C. 17

D. 18

Q. 179 f it is true that ‘All humans are imperfect’, then which one of the following is necessarily true?

A. No humans are imperfect.

B. Some humans are not imperfect.

C. Every human is imperfect.

D. All imperfect beings are humans.

Q. 180 If it is false that ‘Men always pray to God’, then which one of the following statements is true?

A. Men seldom pray to God.

B. Men always pray to God.

C. Some men pray to God.

D. All men pray to God.

Q. 181 Geeta is twice the present age of Seema. If age of Seema is 20 years now, how many years ago Geeta was three times Seema’s age?

A. 10

B. 8

C. 12

D. 9

Q. 182 In certain code MAIL is written as ZNVY then how will FILM be written in that code?

A. SVYZ

B. MLIF

C. NORY

D. XLMP

Q. 183 You are given a 60inch long ribbon, and you are instructed to cut 60 1-inch long strips out of this ribbon. The time taken to cut one strip i s one second. So how long will it take to cut 60 strips?

A. 1 minute

B. 1 minute and 1 second

C. 30 seconds

D. 59 seconds

Q. 184 If it is true that ‘Religious fundamentalism is dangerous to the society’, then which one of the following statements can also be true?

A. Disrespect for other religions is dangerous to the society.

B. Religious pluralism is dangerous to the society.

C. Religion without reason is dangerous to the society.

D. Belief in any religion is dangerous to the society.

Q. 185 If it is true that ‘Good governance implies law and order in society’ t hen identify the statement which has to be accepted along with the given statement?

A. An able government very effectively uses laws to promote peace.

B. A healthy society is governed by maximum number of laws.

C. A strong government uses force to impose laws.

D. Law is indispensable for the society

Q. 186 If it is false that ‘There is at least one octogenarian in the room’, then which one of the following is probable?

A. No one in the room is an octogenarian.

B. All those who are in the room are octogenarians.

C. One person in the room is not an octogenarian.

D. Some people in the room are not octogenarians.

Q. 187 A, B, C and D have got some money with them. If A gives 8 rupees to B, B will have as much as C has and A will have 3 rupees less than what C has. Also if A takes 6 rupees from C, A will have twice as much money as D. If B and D together have 50 rupees, how much money does A and B have respectively ?

A. 29, 32

B. 27, 40

C. 32, 29

D. 40, 27

Q. 188 Who among the following is the odd one in the following group of persons?

Chief Justice of India, Attorney General of India, Solicitor General, Advocate General

A. Chief Justice of India.

B. Advocate General

C. Solicitor General

D. Attorney General of India

Q. 189 In a bag, there are some diamonds. In another bag, there are one fourth the number more has the number of diamonds in the first bag. If the difference in the number of diamonds in the first and second bag is 3, how many diamonds are there in the first bag?

A. 10

B. 16

C. 12

D. 8

Q. 190 Mr. X, the President of a club arrived in a meeting at 10 minutes to 12 30 hrs. Mr X came earlier by 20 minutes than the other participating members in the meeting, who arrived late by 30 minutes. At what time was the meeting scheduled?

A. 1210 hrs

B. 1220 hrs

C. 1240 hrs

D. 1250 hrs

Q. 191 In a class, student X has 8th position from the top and 84th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?

A. 96

B. 98

C. 91

D. 88

Q. 192 There is some relationship between the figures given in the series. Find out the missing one from the alternatives below:

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 193 If Oceans are Deserts, then Waves are:

A. Powerful

B. Ripples

C. Sand Dunes

D. Water

Q. 194 Assume that both premises, ‘No innocent person should be punished’ and ‘Socrates is innocent’ are true. Then which one of the following options is necessarily true?

A. Socrates may not be punished.

B. Socrates is not punished.

C. It is not proper to punish Socrates.

D. Socrates should not be punished

Q. 195 A 2100 member team consisting of Team Leaders and Athletes is attending a National Athletic Meet. For every 20 Athletes, there is one Team Leader. How many Team Leaders would be there in the team?

A. 100

B. 105

C. 110

D. 95

Q. 196 Choose the pair of words from the options that best represents a similar relationship as the one expressed in the following pair of word s.

WAITER: RESTAURANT

A. Driver : Car

B. Teacher : School

C. Author : Book

D. Actor : Acting

Q. 197 Examine the series and identify the missing number:

46, 44, 40, 38, 34, …

A. 26

B. 32

C. 28

D. 30

Q. 198 Identify the argument which cannot be accepted

A. All unmarried women are spinsters. Therefore, all spinsters are women.

B. All wives are married. Therefore, all married people are wives.

C. All equilateral triangles are equiangular. Therefore, all equiangul ar triangles are equilateral.

D. All rainy days are wet days. Therefore, all wet days are rainy day s.

Q. 199 Identify the statement which cannot be true.

A. Snow is white.

B. All bachelors are faithful to their wives.

C. Black body radiation is a physical phenomenon.

D. Every natural number has a successor

Q. 200 If it is false that ‘Animals are seldom aggressive’, then which one of t he following statements conveys the same meaning?

A. All animals are always aggressive.

B. All animals are aggressive.

C. At least one animal is aggressive.

D. Sometimes animals are aggressive.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	D	A	A	C	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	A	D	C	C	A	A	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	B	B	B	C	A	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	B	D	B	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	C	B	B	B	D	B	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	A	D	A	C	D	B	A	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	B	D	C	C	B	A	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	A	C	B	B	A	D	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	C	D	C	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	C	C	A	B	C	C	B	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	A	D	B	A	D	B	C	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	D	B	C	B	D	A	C	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	B	B	D	A	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	C	C	C	B	B	C	A	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	D	A	B	A	D	A	D	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	B	A	B	A	B	B	C	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	C	A	C	A	D	B	D	C	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	A	D	A	A	A	D	A	C	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	C	D	A	B	B	B	B	D