Vidhyarthi Darpan %

CDS(II) Exam 2017 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 2 2017 English

Questions: 1 – 20

Directions : In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q. 1 S1 : Egypt lies in the north-rant corner of Africa.

S6: The whole country depends on the water of the Nile.

P : Most of it is desert or semi-desert.

Q : It has very little rainfall.

R : It is four times as big as Great Britain in size.

S : Only a twenty-fifth of the total area is cultivable.

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. RPSQ

D. QPRS

Q. 2 S1 : In mechanical efforts, you improve by perpetual practice.

S6: There is neither excuse nor tempta-tion for the latter.

P : He cannot go on shooting wide or falling short, and still fancy that he is making progress.

Q : This is so because the object to be attained is a matter of actual experiment in which you either succeed or fail.

R: He must either correct his aim, or persevere in his error with his eyes open.

S : If a man aims at a mark with bow and arrow, he must either hit it or aim it.

The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. SQRP

D. QSPR

Q. 3 S1 : Isaac’s tnuthet nianied again.

S6 : He had a set of little tools and saw of various sizes made by himself.

P : But he was known to be very clever at making things.

Q : She sent him to school.

R : Isaac was left to the care of his good old grandmother.

S : In his early years Isaac did not appear to be a very bright student. The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. QRSP

C. SQRP

D. RPQS

Q. 4 S1 : The examination system must be regarded as the chief wrecker of young nerves.

S6: If I become a Vice-Chancellor, my first act would be to abolish all examinations in my university.

P : It makes me jump out of the bed, all in a sweat.

Q : It does this by building up a tension, for a part of the year, all through one’s youth.

R : And after four decades, the same nervousness sometimes recurs to me in nightmares.

S : I remember the desperate nervous-ness that used to grip me from January to April every year. The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RSPQ

C. RQPS

D. QSRP

Q. 5 S1 : History is a subject that is so little valued today that it is almost impossible to win world fame as a historian; yet that is exactly what Toynbec was able to.

S6: Among the civilizations that he studied was that of India.

P : We usually think of history as a chronological account of the development of various states and empires under ruler.

Q : Toynbec’s view of history was different.

R : He tries to find the pattern behind the birth, growth and decay of civilization.

S : Though he used the recorded history of mankind, but he was interested not merely in the chronology of single states or group but in the rise and fall of whole civilizations. The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QSPR

C. SQRP

D. PQSR

Q. 6 S1 : Science first began to become important after A.D. 1500.

S6: Men read them, became inquisitive again, and began to want to find things out.

P : As a result of this, books came to be circulated.

Q: During the Middle Ages the coming of Science was hindered by the Church.

R : In the middle of the fifteenth century, however, the Turks cap-tured the city of Constantinople and the Greek books were scattered far and wide.

S : It considered free inquiry into the nature of things to be wicked. The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. QSRP

C. SRPQ

D. RPQS

Q. 7 S1 : Phatik was a mischievous boy of fourteen.

S6: Ultimately he distinguished himself as a scholar.

P : It was then that Phatik’s uncle offered to take the boy to Kolkata.

Q : She was much worried about his education.

R : His mother found it difficult to bring him up.

S : Away from his home Phatik became sober and industrious. Thc correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRQP

C. RSPQ

D. RQPS

Q. 8 S1 : Whenever I met Baba Amte I was reminded of an anecdote my grand-mother used to tell me.

S6: He forgot that he had made it. P : He once made an idol of God.

Q : As the idol was nearing completion, the sculptor was becoming more and more withdrawn into himself.

R : And the moment it was complete, he threw away his chisel and hammer and bowed to the idol of God he had just created.

S : There was a sculptor.

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. SPQR

D. QPRS

Q. 9 S1 : Ross sent an account of his work, together with slide and specimens to Manson.

S6: Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in 1901.

P : They produced a profound sensa-tion.

Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross’s results to the British Medical Association.

R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson’s house and inspected Ross’s materials and said that ‘it was of remarkable interest and value’.

S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered.

ThE correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. PSRQ

C. QPSR

D. SPQR

Q. 10 S1 : Civilization dawned when early man learnt how to produce heat and energy by burning wood.

S6: When they have been used, they cannot be replaced.

P : Then steam was used to produce electricity.

Q : In this century great use has been made of oil and natural gas and the use of atomic reactors also bas provided another source of energy.

R : Much later, the first industrial revolution was based on the production of steam by burning coal.

S : But none of these fuels is renewable. The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. RQSP

C. RPQS

D. RPSQ

Q. 11 S1 : Ghost is a subject which battles everyone everywhere throughout the world.

S6: Yet it is a subject which has held people spellbound and the belief in them continues to flourish.

P : But human beings have always been curious to know more about them.

Q : Needless to say, such attempts have proved to be useless.

R : There have been attempts even to photograph these creatures of darkness.

S : Even after the advancement of science, the reality of ghosts remains a mystery till this day. The correct sequence should be

A. QRPS

B. SQPR

C. SPRQ

D. SQRP

Q. 12 S1 : There have been two schools of thought which deal with the errors of learners.

S6: Both views are popular today but the second is gaining wound fast.

P : The philosophy of the second school is that errors are natural and they will occur in any learning.

Q : So. errors, they say, is a sign of faulty teaching methods.

R : The first school maintains that if teaching methods are perfect, errors will never occur.

S : They argue that we should con-centrate on how to deal with errors, instead of on

method of teaching. The correct sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. PSQR

C. QPSR

D. RQPS

Q. 13 S1 : Down the stairway of the Holiday Inn hotel, I. enter the conference hall.

S6: Some are leaning against the sidewall.

P : I take a scat in the back row as more chairs are quietly slipped in for late comers.

Q : The hall is already packed with delegates. It

R: Still quite a few people are left standing.

S : Most of the delegates arc execu-tives of Indian or Indo-US com-panies. The correct sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. PRQS

C. SRQP

D. QSPR

Q. 14 SI : A sportsman is noted for his sense of discipline.

S6: Once discipline is accrued in the play field, it can be applied and practised in other spheres of life.

P : The first lesson in discipline is to win without pride and to lose Without bitterness.

Q : One is no longer swayed by the sudden gusts of passion.

R : Then, one must learn that error or selfishness will disgrace and endanger the rest.

S : A sense of equanimity brings order and method into the life of the People. The correct sequence should be

A. QPRS

B. RQSP

C. PQSR

D. PRSQ

Q. 15 S1 : Mr. and Mrs. Robert went home late last night.

S6: Mr. Robert rushed to the police station immediately.

P : Somebody had broken open the lock.

Q : To their dismay they found all their things missing.

R : They got into the house with a lot of fear.

S : When they reached home they found the front door open. The correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. SPRQ

C. QSRP

D. RQPS

Q. 16 S1 : The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only.

S6: Then alone will misery ease in the world.

P : Let men have light, let them be strong and educated.

Q : No amount of physical help will remove them completely.

R :,Until nun’s nature changes, his physical needs will always rise, and miseries will always be felt.

S : The only solution is to make mankind enlightened.

The correct sequence should be

A. QPRS

B. RQSP

C. SPQR

D. PQRS

Q. 17 S1 : Aristotle worked under limitations.

S6: The age was not a period of experiment.

P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention of God.

Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful.

R: The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments.

S : The facts on which modem theories of science have been based had not been discovered.

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RSPQ

C. QSRP

D. SQRP

Q. 18 S1 : The bus sped along the road.

S6: The dog wailed for a long time.

P : But the bus could stop only after covering a few yards.

Q : It injured the dog in the leg. It

R : The driver applied the brake.

S : Suddenly a stray dog ran on to the middle of the road.

The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SRPQ

C. RPQS

D. PRSQ

Q. 19 S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole, far from high.

S6: Education can lift women out of the depths of misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.

P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable.

Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the men folk.

R: The movement for the Cnxdom and right of women has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.

S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RQPS

C. SQPR

D. SPQR

Q. 20 S1 : Hiuen-tsang became a Buddhist monk at the age of twelve and soon discovered that the Buddhist texts available in China were insufficient.

S6: But he was on a quest and returned after a while to his motherland with a rich

collection of texts, documents and relics.

P : Wherever he went, he was asked by the local rulers and monks to stay in the place.

Q : He entered India through Kashmir, where he spent some time in Srinagar.

R : He therefore decided to go on a pilgrimage to India to collect further material.

S : From India, he attempted to go to Ceylon, but gave up the attempt. The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. RSPQ

C. QSRP

D. RQSP

Questions: 21 – 30

Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 21 With the less rapid expansion of the economy, we should make ___________ progress toward stable price levels.

A. detailed

B. substantial

C. definite

D. infinite

Q. 22 At times he gets very angry, and then no one can ___________ him.

A. prevent

B. humour

C. mollify

D. satisfy

Q. 23 Many people today have fallen into utter confusion of values with the result that they cannot __________ the bad the good from

A. divide

B. differentiate

C. see

D. alter

Q. 24 If Mohan ___________ at 5 a.m., he would not have missed the train

A. started

B. had started

C. would start

D. has started

Q. 25 His property was divided___________his daughters and sons.

A. between

B. among

C. from

D. with

Q. 26 His persistence in his misdemeanours has lowered him in the _____________ of everyone who knows him.

A. eyes

B. estimation

C. estimated

D. esteem

Q. 27 The clouds of suspicion will clear_________soon.

A. up

B. away

C. off

D. by

Q. 28 The teachers said that they were no longer prepared to ___________ the ways of the new Headmaster.

A. put over with

B. put on with

C. put up with

D. put up to

Q. 29 _____________the construction of new housing units at the rate of one every month, there is still a shortage of accommodation.

A. Through

B. Despite

C. By

D. For

Q. 30 Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature has ___________ them with.

A. presented

B. endowed

C. fortified

D. replenished

Questions: 31 – 50

Directions :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the pans of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P. Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. 31 My unmarred aunt P. is creating a lot of problems for us Q. who stays with us R. because of her interfering nature in our personal lives S. and there is a misunderstanding among family mambas. The correct sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. QPSR

C. PQSR

D. SPQR

Q. 32 No criminal proceeding P.in any Court during his term of office Q. whatsoever shall be initiated R. or continued against the President S. or a Governor The correct sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. PQRS

C. QPSR

D. SQPR

Q. 33 The dentist P. with a severe tooth-ache Q. when he was brought to hospital R. extracted Manish’s tooth S. and relieved his pain

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. RSPQ

D. RQPS

Q. 34 The actress P. has been selected Q. as the best heroine R. who is the daughter S. of a famous nude singer of the year

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QPSR

C. RSPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 35 Last summer P. everyday Q. kept pestering a pretty girl R.one persistent admirer S. with phone calls.

The correct sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RSQP

C. RQSP

D. PQRS

Q. 36 In many cultures P. to make wishes come true Q. that blue has the power R. people believe S. and be successful in life.

select the correct sequence should be

A. PSRQ

B. RSPQ

C. RQPS

D. SQPR

Q. 37 From a picnic table P. through the playground Q. while we unpacked a basket R. we watched them laugh and leap S. bulging with sandwiches and cookies.

The correct sequence should be

A. RSQP

B. QPRS

C. RPQS

D. QSRP

Q. 38 My father retired at the age of 68, P. where he had served, Q. in South Carolina R. as Pastor for 12 years, S. from a Baptist Church.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. SQPR

C. SPQR

D. QPRS

Q. 39 the completion P. it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment Q. and makes them take pride in their work R. of high quality products S. also enhances employee satisfaction, because

The correct sequence should he

A. PQRS

B. RQPS

C. PSRQ

D. RSPQ

Q. 40 But, Kuala Lumpur P. where modem Malay executives Q. but will never miss Friday prayers R. might have a cellular phone in hand, S. is a city firmly rooted in tradition The comm sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SPKQ

C. RPSQ

D. SQRP

Q. 41 Perhaps the most significant factor P. is a failure of planning and Q. in the growth of all metropolitan crimes, R. governance in the urban sprawl S. including crimes against the elderly,

The correct sequence should be

A. QSPR

B. PRQS

C. QRPS

D. PSQR

Q. 42 He said that P. a small college Q. he’d rather go to R. not studying at all S. instead of The correct sequence should be

A. QSPR

B. PRQS

C. QPRS

D. QPSR

Q. 43 Teaching a child P. since there are few Q. is becoming difficult and expensive R.open ponds around S. how to swim.

The correct sequence should be

A. SQPR

B. QRSP

C. SRQP

D. PRQS

Q. 44 The doctor P. able to find out Q. what had caused R. the food poisoning S. had not been. The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. PRQS

C. PRSQ

D. SPQR

Q. 45 The officer P. was suspended Q. being corrupt R. from service S. before his dismissal The correct sequence should be

A. QPSR

B. QPRS

C. RSQP

D. RSPQ

Q. 46 She gave P. her old coat Q. to a beggar R. the one with the brown fur on it S. shivering with cold.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. SQPR

C. PQRS

D. RPQS

Q. 47 The medical teams P. at the ground said that the injured Q. by the surging crowds, R. included women and children S. who were trampled.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. PQRS

C. QPRS

D. PSQR

Q. 48 He P. at the hurdles on his way Q. who has his eyes R. does not look S. fixed on the goal. The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. QSRP

D. RQPS

Q. 49 We do not know when P. but we know R. the exact date or his death R. for certain S. Shakespeare was born S The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. PQRS

C. PSQR

D. SRQP

Q. 50 P. The purpose is to advance knowledge Q. the two have to work together R. and disseminate it S. a university is essentially a community of students and teachers. The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. SPQR

C. PQRS

D. SQPR

Questions: 51 – 54

Directions :

In this section you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find sonic items basal on the passage. first, read a passage and answer the items basal on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Passage For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica have been intrigued by sightings of anciald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. There icebags arc turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their green appearance results from sea water that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the (nab antes ‘ice shell’ above has a blue tinge. When the iceberg turns upside down, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below.

Q. 51 What is the meaning of ‘intrigued’ ?

A. Surprised

B. Fascinated

C. Muffled

D. Repulsed

Q. 52 What are ice shelves ?

A. They are huge pieces of chunks of ire

B. They are frozen sea water

C. They arc pieces of ice which look like shelves

D. They are huge pieces of ice which are very old

Q. 53 What are icebergs ?

A. Huge chunks of ice floating on water

B. Frozen sea water

C. Green ice

D. Green yellow water below and blue above

Q. 54 When the iceberg sums upside down, it appears

A. green

B. yellow

C. blue

D. white

Questions: 55 – 59

In its simple form. science has helped man to protect himself from Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature’s own gifts, nut only of metal but even the human brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt in climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him.

Q. 55 The use of science in its simple form has helped man to

A. do such things as building shelter and make CartS, boats. etc

B. make bombs and missiles

C. build factories using machinery

D. make planes

Q. 56 Nature now needs to be protected from man because

A. nature has become weak

B. man is rapidly destroying Nature

C. man is cruel to animals

D. man has become irrational

Q. 57 Forests arc being destroyed in order to

A. provide land for agriculture

B. provide wood for fuel

C. kill dangerous animals

D. provide necessities as well as need-less comforts and pleasures

Q. 58 The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it is seen in

A. the fall in production of our factories

B. the fall in our standard of living

C. the unfavourable changes in climate

D. frequent occurrence of epidemics

Q. 59 Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

A. scientific developments

B. nuclear explosion

C. natural calamity

D. deforestation

Questions: 60 – 63

According to the civil laws of most countries obedience is no longer the duty of a wife; every woman has the political right to vote; but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful employment that woman has travelled most of the distance that separated her from the male; and nothing else can guarantee her liberty in practice. I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone Boor of a hotel lobby, “I never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self-sufficiency as a Rockefeller. Ford or Birla. However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete liberation : working, today, is not a liberty. A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men.

Q. 60 Which of the following helps women most to achieve equality with men ?

A. The right to vote

B. Civil liberties

C. A job

D. Wealthy husbands

Q. 61 Why does the writer talk about the maidservant in the hotel lobby ?

A. The servants of today will one day he freed from their rich masters

B. A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

C. Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

D. Economic independence is necessary for women’s liberation

Q. 62 In which paragraph does the writer say that it is revealed that some women would not like to work in the factory ?

A. In paragraph tour

B. In paragraph three

C. In paragraph two

D. In paragraph one

Q. 63 “These liberties” in the first paragraph refer to

A. The right to vote, not to obey and right to a job

B. The right to vote and not to obey

C. The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

D. Women’s right to vote and earn money

Questions: 64 – 66

During the past three generations the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis; and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death are now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide. These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone kvdievet that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is in fact no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sicknesses on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors take pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new diseases in the last fifteen years are themselves the result for medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatmgenic.

Q. 64 In the western societies, the occurrence of polio, diphtheria and tuberculosis has (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. increased

B. completely stopped

C. decreased

D. continued without changes

Q. 65 More death are now associated with old age than in the past because

A. iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

B. deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

C. accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

D. political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

Q. 66 The writer probably is arguing for

A. stopping the practice of western medicines completely

B. stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

C. rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

D. giving greater attention to new. iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio, diphtheria and pneumonia

Questions: 67 – 71

Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economical condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances, including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care and education. It results into a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalised and suffer from exploitation and loss of human dignity.

Q. 67 Which of the following sentences comes close to the lured g of the sentence, “Poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances.”

A. There are lot of angles to poverty

B. There are several section in the society which are poor

C. There are several types of poverty

D. Poverty is solely an economic issue

Q. 68 What way do you think ‘lack of access to information’ affects poor people ?

A. They don’t get information about how to improve their conditions

B. They didn’t get newspapers to read at all

C. They can’t go to school and read books

D. They don’t get information about schemes of getting rich

Q. 69 Why do you think ‘cultural identity’ is important ?

A. A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

B. Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

C. It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

D. It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

Q. 70 Which of the following sentences comes closest to the sentence ‘Poor people become marginalised’ ?

A. They ale not given any benefit of any government schemes

B. They are ignored by the rich people

C. They are the most ignored elements of the society

D. They are the most disposed elements of the society

Q. 71 What do you think is the tone of the passage ?

A. Objective but querulous

B. Descriptive and impassioned

C. Argumentative and critical

D. Objective and critical

Questions: 72 – 96

Directions :

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. 72 (a)It is identification with the audience (b) that makes one come home from the play so much mom (c) satisfied than one ever is after merely passive enjoyment of the show No error. (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 73 (a) CV Raman was one of the greatest sons of India (b)who has earned everlasting fame (c) for scientific researches.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 74 (a)This box (b)is heavy than (c)the other one.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 75 The (a)writer does not have the freedom (b) to choose his own themes, (c) society thrusts them on him. (d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 76 (a)No one knows (b)as to why he did it,(c) or who was behind his dub% it.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 77 (a)How long (b)you are (c)in this profession. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 78 (a)I know that (b)ignorance is not bliss, (c)yet l am ignorant in many things. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 79 (a)You are (b)just sixteen years old, (c)isn’t it ? .(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 (a)The old widower, (b)living in remittances from his sons, (d)could not make both ends meet. (d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 81 (a)Debate about biotechnology and genetic engineering (b)is under way around the world, (c)and India is fully engrossed with the discussion. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 82 (a)I like to (b)listen the song of the nightingale (c)in the evening. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 83 (a)Each student (b)from amongst the hundred students in the class (c)want to watch this movie.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 84 (a)Although there is virtually no production in India, (b)the Encyclopaedia Britannica estimate (c)that India has perhaps the largest accumulated stocks of silver in the world. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 85 (a)We have to reach (b)there at ten (c)will you please walk little faster. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 86 (a)It is almost difficult,(b) in case impossible, (c)to keep awake late after dinner.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 87 (a)What most students need, above all else (b)is practice in writing (c) and particularly in writing things that matter to them. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 88 (a)She was out of the mind, (b)when she made that plan to go abroad (c)without taking into consideration ha present family position.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 89 (a)Are you (b)through with (c)that newspaper? (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 90 (a)My college (b)is besides (c)the lake.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 91 (a)The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised (b)for not having much required courses (c)scheduled for this semester. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 92 (a)If you have thought about the alternatives, (b)you would not have chosen (c)such a difficult topic for the term paper.(d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 93 (a)The duties of the secretary an (b)to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence, (c) and calling the members before meeting.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 94 (a)If I was you, (b)I would not go to film (c)in my mother’s absence. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 95 (a)Those of us who have a family history of heart disease (b)should make a yearly appointment (c)with their doctors. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 96 (a)The old fumitures (b)was disposed of (c)and the new ones were placed. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 97 – 106

Directions :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 97 Whenever I go into a hank. I feel scared. Everybody and everything that I see there .

(a) pleases me.

(b) frightens

(d) terrifies

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 98 As for the manager the sight (a) of him simply (b) at (c) by (d) on

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 99 terrifies me and (a) shapes (b)makes (c)shields (d) asks

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 100 (a) as slow as (b) as fast as (c) as steadily as (d) as actively as I can.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 101 As soon as I (a) open the door of the bank I lose my head (b) close (c) shut (d) sec

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 (a) or (b) and (c) either (d) neither when I try to do any

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 (a) service there, (b) business (c) deed (d)act I behave like an idiot. I cannot explain

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 (a) the reasons for this but that (b) the responses (c) the answers (d) the causes

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 is how it _ (a) always (b) no time (c) any time (d) many times has been that is how it is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 has been that is how it is (a) then. (b) now (c) later (d) after

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 107 – 112

Directions : For the expression which has been kept in between // in each of the following sentences, choose the response (a), (b). (c) or (d) which most nearly expresses its meaning.

Q. 107 The institution decided to give Mrs. Roy’s 110. Though he was arrogant, I could not job to her son not because she was a social dispense with his services. worker, but because the /had died in harness/.

A. died alter retirement

B. died before retirement

C. died while riding a horse

D. died for a great cause

Q. 108 Your ambition should be /in consonance with/ your capabilities.

A. parallel to

B. in accordance with

C. in harmony with

D. in tune with

Q. 109 I could not go up in life /for want of/ proper guidance.

A. for lack of

B. for need of

C. for the desire of

D. for the necessity of

Q. 110 Though he was arrogant, I could not /dispense with/ his services.

A. terminate

B. align with

C. claim

D. disregard with

Q. 111 In spite of his hard work, he was /made a scapegoat/ for the failure of the project.

A. freed from any responsibility for

B. lamed without reason for

C. suspected of causing b

D. was severely punished for

Q. 112 If food supply fails /to keep pace with/ population, civilization will collapse.

A. to grow along with

B. to walk side by side

C. to gain momentum

D. to move at the same speed as

Questions: 113 – 120

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with a word in between // followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 113 Whether the rewards are /in commensurate with/ the efforts or not, a society will always have workaholics and the shirk work groups.

A. disproportionate

B. equal to

C. matched

D. unparalleledWars leave behind a large number of emaciated soldiers in the camps of both the (a) trivial victorious and the vanquished. (b) futile (a) hefty (c) vain (b) thin (d) useless (c) disillusioned

Q. 114 Wars leave behind a large number of /emaciated/ soldiers in the camps of both the victorious and vanquished.

A. hefty

B. thin

C. disillusioned

D. determined

Q. 115 There was a /mammoth/ gathering to listen involvement in the case, but how he feels to the leader. about it.

A. negligible

B. lifty

C. poor

D. large

Q. 116 The audience thoroughly enjoyed the /hilarious/ drama.

A. amusing

B. delightful

C. serious

D. momentous

Q. 117 The writer’s /erudition/ in science is revealed in every page of the book.

A. unenlighted

B. ignorence

C. intelligence

D. hollowness

Q. 118 The seminar which Ravi organised proved to be /momentous/ event.

A. trivial

B. futile

C. vain

D. useless

Q. 119 The question is not whether the court /vindicates/ him with regard to his involvement in the case, but how he feels about it.

A. reprieves

B. absolves

C. indicts

D. summons

Q. 120 In those days many monarchs enjoyed vast /ecclesiastical/ powers.

A. permanent

B. temporal

C. contemporary

D. constitutional

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	B	B	C	A	C	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	C	B	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	C	D	D	B	D	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	A	A	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	D	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	D	A	C	A	A	C	B	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	D	A	C	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	D	D	D	D	C	D	D	B

CDS(I) Exam 2017 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2017 English

Q. 1 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he

Q: almost

R: planned the entire strategy of operation

S: single-handed

The correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. PRQS

C. SQRP

D. QPSR

Q. 2 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: it is a fact that rice is one of the most prolific

Q: than almost any other crop

R: yielding a greater return per acre

S: of food crops

The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PSRQ

Q. 3 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: up to the end of the eighteenth century, not only because it was often fatal,

Q: smallpox was a particularly dreaded disease,

R: but also because those who recovered

S: were permanently disfigured

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QRSP

C. PRSQ

D. QPRS

Q. 4 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: a person bitten by a rabid dog

Q: would be seized by violent symptoms

R: after an incubation period of a month or two

S: and die an agonizing death

The correct sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. SRQP

C. PRQS

D. PQRS

Q. 5 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The traveller,

P: sat down

Q: to rest

R: by the roadside

S: being weary,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. SPQR

D. RPQS

Q. 6 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the house was

Q: away

R: with its liveliest member

S: gloomy

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. PSRQ

C. RSPQ

D. QRPS

Q. 7 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he was a tiny man

Q: with a sprinkly walk

R: tall

S: barely five feet

The correct sequence should be

A. RSQP

B. SRQP

C. QSPR

D. PSRQ

Q. 8 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: rules and regulations

Q: he cheerfully ignored its demands

R: a life of

S: unaccustomed to

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QRPS

C. SRPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 9 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The man

P: for a moment,

Q: looked at me

R: and thus emptied my pockets

S: turned me upside down

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. QPSR

D. PQSR

Q. 10 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The lady

P: today

Q: is visiting

R: us

S: who composed this poem

The correct sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. QRPS

D. SQRP

Q. 11 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Animals

P: able to measure

Q: the passing of seasons

R: changes in day-length

S: by recognizing

The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. SQPR

C. PRSQ

D. SRPQ

Q. 12 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Many people

P: inaudible to others

Q: in the ears or head

R: suffer persistent noises

S: with hearing problems

The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. SRQP

D. RSQP

Q. 13 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Researchers

P: found that allergic reactions are brought about

Q: in the bloodstream

R: in the 1940s

S: by the liberation of small quantities of a substance called histamine

The correct sequence should be

A. RPSQ

B. QRPS

C. RQSP

D. PSQR

Q. 14 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Attempts at transplanting other organs,

P: but that which most caught the public fancy

Q: was the heart transplant

R: such as the lungs or the liver,

S: have been made

The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. RSPQ

C. RPSQ

D. QRPS

Q. 15 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: sports cars

Q: appeal

R: to some motorists only

S: with noisy exhausts

The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. RSPQ

D. PQSR

Q. 16 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Friendship has its place

P: in

Q: truth and justice

R: but it cannot override

S: life,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. PSRQ

D. RQPS

Q. 17 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the workaholic often

Q: becomes a prisoner of success

R: inadvertently

S: reaping greater and greater rewards

The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SPQR

C. RPQS

D. PQRS

Q. 18 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the schoolmasters and the professors tend to believe

Q: that innate intelligence is a quality

R: but that you can’t do much about it except measure it

S: which varies very gently from one individual to another

The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. PRSQ

C. PQSR

D. QSRP

Q. 19 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

People

P: do not realize

Q: that modern society

R: who object to driver education

S: is built around the automobile

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QRSP

C. RSPQ

D. SPQR

Q. 20 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: with an idea to reach the deprived child

Q: by the United Nations Organization

R: the year 1979 has been declared as

S: the International Year of the Child

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. PSQR

C. PRSQ

D. RSPQ

Q. 21 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error

I waited for her return with growing unease.

A. I waited

B. for her return

C. with growing unease.

D. No error

Q. 22 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I do not understand why in spite of my best efforts to please him my boss is so angry at me.

A. I do not understand why

B. in spite of my best efforts to please him

C. my boss is so angry at me.

D. No error

Q. 23 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Being a rainy day, we did not feel like going out or doing anything except playing chess in our room.

A. Being a rainy day,

B. we did not feel like going out or doing anything

C. except playing chess in our room.

D. No error

Q. 24 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

It is not difficult to believe that a man who has lived in this city for a long time he will never feel at home anywhere else in the world.

A. It is not difficult to believe that a man

B. who has lived in this city for a long time

C. he will never feel at home anywhere in the world.

D. No error

Q. 25 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Although we reached his house on time he was left for the airport.

A. Although we reached his house on time

B. he was left

C. for the airport.

D. No error

Q. 26 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

If a thing is worth doing at all it is worth done well.

A. If a thing

B. is worth doing at all

C. it is worth done well.

D. No error

Q. 27 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All the boys returned back home well in time for lunch.

A. All the boys

B. returned back home

C. well in time for lunch.

D. No error

Q. 28 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell me the name of a country where every citizen is law-abiding and no trouble is there.

A. Tell me the name of

B. a country where every citizen is law-abiding

C. and no trouble is there.

D. No error

Q. 29 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Considering about these acts the principal has offered him a seat.

A. Considering about these facts

B. the principal has offered

C. him a seat.

D. No error

Q. 30 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

His friends feel that he will be suspended unless he does not report for duty immediately.

A. His friends feel that

B. he will be suspended

C. unless he does not report for duty immediately.

D. No error

Q. 31 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is the large number of travellers’ lodges provided by the State Government.

A. One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is

B. the large number of travellers’ lodges

C. provided by the State Government.

D. No error

Q. 32 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

It was raining cats and dogs.

A. It

B. was raining

C. cats and dogs.

D. No error

Q. 33 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I prefer this book than that one.

A. I prefer

B. this book

C. than that one.

D. No error

Q. 34 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Their belongings were lost in the fire.

A. Their belongings

B. were lost

C. in the fire.

D. No error

Q. 35 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell him to take another photograph of the group.

A. Tell him to take

B. another photograph

C. of the group.

D. No error

Q. 36 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I courteously asked him where he was going but he did not reply.

A. I courteously asked him

B. where he was going

C. but he did not reply.

D. No error

Q. 37 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The memoranda are on the table.

A. The memoranda

B. are

C. on the table.

D. No error

Q. 38 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Nandita asked me if I was working hardly these days.

A. Nandita asked me

B. if I was working

C. hardly these days.

D. No error

Q. 39 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

He couldn’t find an answer.

A. He couldn’t

B. find

C. an answer.

D. No error.

Q. 40 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Whom you think will be dismissed first?

A. Whom you think

B. will be dismissed

C. first?

D. No error

Q. 41 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world none are of grave consequence than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

A. Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world

B. none are of grave consequence

C. than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

D. No error

Q. 42 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All of them speak good English.

A. All of them

B. speak

C. good English.

D. No error

Q. 43 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The peon has not sweeped the floor today.

A. The peon

B. has not sweeped

C. the floor today.

D. No error

Q. 44 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Her parents has not permitted her to marry Sunil.

A. Her parents

B. has not permitted her

C. to marry Sunil.

D. No error

Q. 45 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Emperor Ashoka have conquered Kalinga before he embraced Buddhism.

A. Emperor Ashoka

B. have conquered KAlinga

C. before he embraced Buddhism.

D. No error

Q. 46 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Every student should be asked to give their ideas on the subject.

A. Every student

B. should be asked

C. to give their ideas on the subject.

D. No error

Q. 47 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: According to the legend it was during a famine in China many thousands of years ago that rice first came into the lives of the Asians.

S6: And the little girl gathered a harvest of rice.

P: the golden sunbeams dropped through the meshes and transformed themselves into golden grains.

Q: A little girl went fishing.

R: But instead of catching fish she netted the King of Frogs.

S: The King told her to hold out the net to the sunbeams while he sang a magic song.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PQSR

Q. 48 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Ramu was in a great hurry.

S6: Fortunately, it wasn’t a very serious one.

P: As a result of this carelessness, he met with an accident.

Q: The examination was to begin in five minutes time.

R: He just rushed across the road

S: So he forgot to look to the left or right as he always did.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SRPQ

C. RSPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 49 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Chandran was terribly angry.

S6: Saro ran screaming.

P: His pen was in her hand and Chandran rushed at her.

Q: Just then his sister, Saro, appeared at the door-step.

R: His pen was missing from the place where he had left it.

S: He thought it was lost

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. PSQR

D. SQPR

Q. 50 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: One fine morning, I heard a sound of fire engines with loud alarm bells.

S6: It was a terrible scene, as huge flames of fire were coming out of the house.

P: I thought, perhaps a house was on fire.

Q: They were regulating the crowd.

R: The policemen were standing around a big house.

S: I immediately rushed out to see what was happening.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSQP

C. SRPQ

D. PSRQ

Q. 51 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The sun-dried stalks of rice had caught fire and burst into flames.

S6: Even those who were too feeble to keep up with the first rush were on their feet, eager to join the fire-fighters.

P: Then came most of the older people, and mothers with babies at their backs.

Q: And all the active women and girls followed them to assist them in fighting the fire.

R: All the young men and boys were soon on the spot.

S: Staring wildly at the blazing fire, the people of the village ran to extinguish the fire.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QPRS

C. SRPQ

D. SRQP

Q. 52 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: People’s fear of snakes seems to be based on a series of misconceptions.

S6: Yet people will insist that they cannot touch a snake because of its sliminess.

P: The most common one is the conviction that all the creatures are poisonous.

Q: Another very popular idea is that these reptiles are slimy to touch.

R: Snakes are really dry and cold; not slimy like a wet cake of soap but rather like a

crocodile-skin handbag to the touch.

S: In fact, the non-poisonous ones outnumber the poisonous ones by about ten to one.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. PSQR

D. RQSP

Q. 53 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

S6: The animals were not clever enough to learn anything from this.

P: Fires sometimes occur by themselves in the forests perhaps by rubbing together of flints or something else.

Q: We light a fire now by a match.

R: In olden times fires were made by striking two flints against each other till a spark came for setting fire to a dry thing.

S: But matches are quite recent things.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. QSPR

C. PQSR

D. RPQS

Q. 54 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A common disease of the eye is conjunctivitis or ‘pink eye’, which often occurs in school-children.

S6: Students with this condition should be sent to the doctor.

P: This disease spreads rapidly among school-children.

Q: A white discharge also appears in the corner of the eyes.

R: One or both eyeballs turn quite red and have a feeling of irritation.

S: This discharge forms a crust which can often be seen in the morning after the eyes have been shut all night.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RSPQ

C. RQSP

D. QSRP

Q. 55 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: My office sent a message with a terrific urgency asking me to return.

S6: It was the evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would join them soon.

P: I immediately sent a message requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return ticket and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q: On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R: Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reservations for my return journey.

S: From the shop next to it, I bought a strong box to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RQPS

C. SPQR

D. PRQS

Q. 56 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Harsten’s theory was that plants definitely react to music.

S6: He found that this plant grew faster and 70 percent taller than the other plant.

P: In his experiment, he used two banana plants.

Q: The music was, in fact, a high-pitched humming sound.

R: He gave both plants the same light, heat, and water.

S: But for about an hour a day, one of the plants ‘listened’ to some music.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. PQRS

C. PRSQ

D. QRPS

Q. 57 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Some students may feel that fast readers do not understand as much as slow readers.

S6: This statement, however, needs to be made with caution.

P: Some slow readers will have good comprehension and others poor.

Q: A quick glance at the scores will show that fast readers sometimes have very good comprehension and sometimes poor.

R: This fallacy can easily be disproved when you give the first reading test in a class.

S: In short, there is little relation between reading speed and comprehension.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. SQRP

C. PQRS

D. QSRP

Q. 58 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: There isn’t a cricketer worth his salt who does not aspire for captaincy.

S6: It is against this background that any emotions surrounding the captaincy should be viewed.

P: Even parents are proud when their sons become the captain.

Q: At lower levels, it is the best players who gets to lead the team.

R: In cricket, the greatest honour any player can get is the captaincy.

S: Right from school days, boys dream of leading the team.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRQP

C. PQSR

D. SQPR

Q. 59 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Systematic and ceaseless efforts are being made to tap scientifically the abundant solar energy available in the country.

S6: Installation of solar thermal systems and devices has helped to save or generate energy to the extent of 350kWh per annum.

P: These include cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, etc.

Q: A large number of applications in the area have already become commercial.

R: Efforts are also afoot to develop economically viable solar collectors for high temperature applications.

S: A simple and common mode in solar energy utilization is solar thermal conversion.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. QPRS

C. SQPR

D. RQSP

Q. 60 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The houses in the Indus Valley were built of baked bricks.

S6: They led outside into covered sewers which ran down the side of the streets.

P: This staircase sometimes continued upwards on to the roof.

Q: Access to the upstairs rooms was by a narrow stone staircase at the back of the house.

R: The drains were built in the walls.

S: The houses had bathrooms and water closets, rubbish chutes and excellent drainage systems.

The proper sequence should be

A. SPQR

B. PSQR

C. QRPS

D. QPSR

Q. 61 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: I remember, some years ago, the library of a famous divine and literary critic, who had died, being sold.

S6: Yet, he was a holy man and preached admirable sermons.

P: Multitudes of the books had the marks of libraries all over the country.

Q: It was a splendid library of rare books, chiefly concerned with seventeenth-century writers.

R: Evidently, he was very possessive about the books he borrowed.

S: He had borrowed them and never found a convenient opportunity of returning them.

The proper sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QPSR

C. SPQR

D. PSRQ

Q. 62 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Of course, it is silly to try to overcome fears that keep us from destroying ourselves.

S6: The only fears you need to avoid are silly fears which prevent you from doing what you should do.

P: This is sensible.

Q: You wait until it is out of the way before crossing.

R: You need some fears to keep you from doing foolish things.

S: You are afraid of an automobile coming rapidly down the street you wish to cross.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. RPSQ

D. PQRS

Q. 63 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Nobody likes staying at home on a public holiday-especially if the weather is fine.

S6: It was very peaceful in the cool grass-until we heard bells ringing at the top of the hill.

P: We had brought plenty of food with us and we got it out of the car.

Q: The only difficulty was that millions of other people had the same idea.

R: Now everything was ready so we sat down near a path at the foot of a hill.

S: We moved out of the city slowly behind a long line of cars but at last we came to a quiet country road and after some time, stopped at a lonely farm.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QSPR

C. PQRS

D. SPQR

Q. 64 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The teaching work for the term is over.

S6: For this, weekend trips do not suffice, and a longer stay is necessary.

P: That will end on October 13 and the Diwali vacation will begin from October 14.

Q: After I complete the assessment of examination papers, I plan to go and stay at our

house in Lonavla for at least a week.

R: Next week the terminal examination begins.

S: There is a lot of repair work that needs to be carried out in the house.

The proper sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. QSPR

C. RPSQ

D. RPQS

Q. 65 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A proposal to remove from circulation 5 paise coins has been given up by the Centre on the advice of the Reserve Bank of India.

S6: It is, however, proposed to reduce the costs of minting these coins by changing their metallic content.

P: The Government had been thinking of removing from circulation even the 10 paise coin.

Q: The cost of minting a 5 paise coin is said to be 7 paise while the cost of minting a 10 paise coin in 10.5 paise.

R: Moreover their removal would cause tremendous hardship to some people.

S: The RBI had opposed this saying that they figure largely in public transactions.

The proper sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. QPSR

C. PSRQ

D. PQSR

Q. 66 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: It is common knowledge that people go after different objects in the world to get

happiness.

S6: He is conscious of the fact that happiness is within and not without.

P: The wise man with a properly attuned mind is happy with them, in spite of them and without them too.

Q: Can a condemned prisoner, awaiting execution on the morrow, relish food, however delicious?

R: But a little reflection will prove that in reality these sense-objects, by themselves, can never make a person happy.

S: It is a folly to equate objects with happiness.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SQRP

C. SPQR

D. RSQP

Q. 67 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. Go north-east across the mountains till you ‘will reach’ an island.

A. reached

B. reach

C. have reached

D. No improvement

Q. 68 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. It is hard these days to ‘cope with’ the rising prices.

A. cope by

B. cope up with

C. to be coped with

D. No improvement

Q. 69 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He took a ‘loan’ of hundred rupees from me.

A. debt

B. demand

C. advance

D. No improvement

Q. 70 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. ‘From the last’ five days it has been raining torrentially.

A. Since the last

B. For the last

C. Since last

D. No improvement

Q. 71 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The teacher, along with her three children, ‘were taken’ to hospital.

A. was taken

B. had taken

C. had being taken

D. No improvement

Q. 72 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The Prime Minister had ‘wide-ranging’ discussions on the international situation.

A. widely-ranging

B. wide-ranged

C. wide-range

D. No improvement

Q. 73 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The man disappeared after he ‘was rescuing’ a boy from drowning.

A. was rescued

B. has been rescued

C. had rescued

D. No improvement

Q. 74 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. I shall be obliged if you ‘could grant’ me an interview.

A. give

B. allow

C. permit

D. No improvement

Q. 75 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. By 8.00 in the morning he ‘wrote’ four letters to his friends.

A. had written

B. had been writing

C. was writing

D. No improvement

Q. 76 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. But for one witness the accused ‘ought to have’ ben sent to jail.

A. would have

B. had

C. should have

D. No improvement

Q. 77 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He is now looking ‘about’ a job.

A. for

B. after

C. into

D. No improvement

Q. 78 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He did not abide ‘with’ my decision.

A. to

B. by

C. for

D. No improvement

Q. 79 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I ‘was living’ in Chennai for ten years when I was a child.

A. had lived

B. lived

C. had been living

D. No improvement

Q. 80 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I didn’t feel like going out yesterday, but on account of my son’s illness I ‘had’ to go to the doctor.

A. have

B. might have

C. ought

D. No improvement

Q. 81 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Your services are dispensed ‘for’.

A. from

B. with

C. off

D. No improvement

Q. 82 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I didn’t go to office because I ‘was’ ill.

A. felt

B. had become

C. had felt

D. No improvement

Q. 83 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The angry neighbours never ‘passed from’ each other without making rude remarks.

A. passed on

B. passed against

C. passed

D. No improvement

Q. 84 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The chairman with the other members of the board ‘are touring’ Europe these days.

A. have been on touring

B. is touring

C. have toured

D. No improvement

Q. 85 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Mahatma Gandhi is ‘called as the Father of the Nation’.

A. called Father of the Nation

B. called the Father of the Nation

C. Father of the Nation

D. No improvement

Q. 86 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Poor Tom ‘laid’ in the shade of a tree before he could walk further.

A. lied

B. lain

C. lay

D. No improvement

Q. 87 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

You must ‘accustom yourself with’ new ideas.

A. accustomed with

B. accustom to

C. accustom yourself to

D. No improvement

Q. 88 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

This telephone number ‘is not existing’.

A. does not exist

B. has not been existing

C. has had no existence

D. No improvement

Questions: 89 – 92

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. When Jonathan (the seagull) came, it was well after dark, and he floated in moonlight on the surface of the ocean. His wings were ragged bars of lead, but the weight of failure was even heavier on his back. He wished, feebly, that the weight would be just enough to drag him gently down to the bottom, and end it all. But soon he came back to normal. He pushed wearily away from the dark water and he flew towards the land, grateful for what he had learned about worksaving low-altitude flying.

Q. 89 The word ‘wearily’ means

A. tireless

B. exhausted

C. sadly

D. unconscious

Q. 90 The seagull suffered because

A. he had tried to do something that other seagulls had not done.

B. probably he had been attacked by a stronger bird.

C. probably he had been attacked by some strong creatures in the sea.

D. he had swooned and fallen into the water

Q. 91 ‘His wings were ragged bars of lead’ means that

A. his wings were damaged and supported by bars of lead.

B. his wings were damaged and therefore very heavy.

C. he had rags and bars of lead on his wings.

D. his wings were broken like pieces of lead.

Q. 92 The lesson that he had learnt that day was about

A. not fighting with stronger birds.

B. flying carrying bars of lead on his wings.

C. diving too deep into the sea.

D. flying at low altitudes.

Questions: 93 – 97

Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that through that car window everything you see is just more TV. You are a passive observer and it is all moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming.

Q. 93 The writer likes traveling on the motorcycle. What is the most likely reason for this?

A. The motorcycle has no windows.

B. The motorcycle does not go as fast as a car.

C. As the traveller is used to cars, travelling by motorcycle is a change.

D. Travelling by motorcycle, the writer feels that he is a part of the scenery.

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is closest to the truth?

A. The writer does not like TV as it gives a narrow view of things.

B. The writer likes TV but he does not like watching it from car windows.

C. The writer does not like TV because the picture is in a frame.

D. The writer does not like TV because the programs are boring.

Q. 95 “In a car, you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that…… .” In this sentence, ‘it’ refers to

A. travelling in a car.

B. always being in a compartment, e.g. one’s room, office.

C. seeing the scenery through the window frame.

D. seeing so much TV at home.

Q. 96 In the last sentence, the writer talks of a ‘sense of presence’. He is referring to the presence of

A. his own self as part of the scene.

B. the time that is now passing.

C. the scene and the beauty.

D. senses with which one feels.

Q. 97 The word ‘overwhelming’ means

A. very strong

B. unavoidable

C. interesting

D. humorous

Questions: 98 – 100

I was lying down in a dark, lonely compartment of the speeding train, trying to sleep. But, quite unusually, sleep eluded me. A vague uneasiness gripped me. It was pitch dark outside. A few points of light flashed by as we sped through a small station and in the dim light I thought I saw a hand gripping the bars of my window. Once again the train was swallowed up by the impenetrable darkness. My heart pounded. My mouth was parched. I could not get up. I do not know how long I remained thus before the train began to slow down. The reassuring bright lights of the station we were entering revealed no intruder. I breathed again.

Q. 98 The narrator could not sleep because

A. he usually found it difficult to fall asleep.

B. he could not find a place to lie down.

C. he was disturbed by some unspecified thoughts.

D. the people near him were disturbing him.

Q. 99 In the dim light he saw

A. someone trying to climb into the train.

B. someone clinging to the bars of the window.

C. someone was attempting to steal his bag.

D. someone standing outside the window.

Q. 100 Which of the following words best describes the condition of the traveler?

A. Cautious

B. Imaginative

C. Observant

D. Nervous

Questions: 101 – 103

I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the gray half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand, he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.

Q. 101 When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was

A. extremely delighted.

B. very much helpless.

C. rather surprised.

D. absolutely shocked.

Q. 102 From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

A. calm and courageous.

B. cunning and crafty.

C. noisy and dangerous

D. active and jumpy.

Q. 103 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The incident took place early in the morning.

2. Yuri threw the snake away.

Which of these assumptions is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

Questions: 104 – 107

Urbanization and industrialization have often resulted in whole areas of forests being cleared to gain new land and to obtain timber for the various building projects. Large areas of fields and forests have disappeared to make way for concrete jungles many of which are fitted with huge plants and chimney stacks. Industrial growth has necessitated the increased demand for fuel oil to run the machines and in doing so produces industrial gases and fumes which belch through the chimney and pollute the atmosphere. The most evident elements in the contamination of the atmosphere are dust, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide.

Q. 104 The writer expresses the belief that

A. there is plenty of scope for further industrialization.

B. unplanned growth of industry has done more harm than good.

C. the change from rural to urban growth is a change for the better.

D. the timber obtained from the forests has been beneficially used.

Q. 105 The effect on forest areas produced by the activity described in the first sentence is called

A. devastation

B. deforestation

C. disfiguration

D. devaluation

Q. 106 The results of industrial development, according to the writer, are

A. urbanization.

B. no shortage of fuel oil.

C. greater availability of domestic gas.

D. greater fuel consumption and pollution.

Q. 107 The phrase ‘concrete jungle’ in the paragraph refers to the factories and houses built as a result of urbanization and industrialization. This phrase suggests that the author

A. regrets that fields and forests have been replaced by city buildings.

B. believes that too much cement has been used in building factories.

C. disapproves of modern industrial expansion.

D. would like to back to life in the jungle.

Questions: 108 – 110

I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, in as much as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. So long as were are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.

Q. 108 Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?

1. Man was foolish to build it.

2. Huge man-made structure did not appeal to him.

3. Men flocked to see it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 109 Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?

A. Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.

B. Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.

C. People who commit crimes are invariably addicted to tobacco.

D. Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.

Q. 110 Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?

A. Men were attracted to the castles built in the air.

B. Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.

C. Men were attracted to childish things.

D. Men were attracted to things of no value.

Q. 111 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

In this University, there is no ____________ for awarding scholarships on the basis of merit in examination alone.

A. precedent

B. opportunity

C. chance

D. possibility

Q. 112 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Can you pay ____________ all these articles?

A. out

B. of

C. for

D. off

Q. 113 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He may not come, but we’ll get ready in case he __________.

A. may

B. will

C. shall

D. does

Q. 114 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is quite ____________; you can never count on him in matters of secrecy.

A. unjust

B. unbearable

C. inefficient

D. unreliable

Q. 115 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Governor will ____________ the oath of office to the thirty-five new ministers at 9.30 p.m. tomorrow.

A. confer

B. present

C. execute

D. administer

Q. 116 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Most of the students have forgotten to bring their certificates; they will be ____________ by the Principal for this reason.

A. reproached

B. abused

C. accused

D. reprimanded

Q. 117 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The consequences of economic growth have now __________ to the lowest level.

A. drawn

B. slipped

C. percolated

D. crept

Q. 118 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Mrs. Ramsay did not know whether Miss Jane knew ____________.

A. swimming

B. to swim

C. how to swim

D. how to swimming

Q. 119 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He ____________ the role of the organization in creating environmental awareness among the people.

A. collaborated

B. commanded

C. contrasted

D. commended

Q. 120 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

We should give everyone training in citizenship but we have __________ this aspect till now.

A. denied

B. neglected

C. refused

D. disallowed

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	B	B	C	A	C	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	C	B	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	C	D	D	B	D	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	A	B	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	D	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	D	A	C	A	A	C	B	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	D	A	C	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	D	D	D	D	C	C	D	B

AIPMT 2012 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2012 Mains

Q. 1 The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as i = 1/√2 sin (100 πt) ampere

e =1/√2 sin (100 πt + π/3) volt

The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is –

A. √3/4

B. 1/2

C. 1/8

D. 1/4

Q. 2 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is –

A. 15 Ω

B. 10 Ω

C. 30 Ω

D. 20 Ω

Q. 3 The dimensions of (μ0ε0)^–1/2 are –

A. [L–1T]

B. [LT–1]

C. [L1/2T1/2]

D. [L1/2T–1/2]

Q. 4 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the PV diagram –

If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and ΔU1, ΔU2, ΔU3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then –

A. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3

B. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

C. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU

D. Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3

Q. 5 To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of –1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C, respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is –

A. 3 × 10–2 C

B. 4 × 10–2 C

C. 1 × 10–2 C

D. 2 × 10–2 C

Q. 7 Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a

photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds

of the emitted electrons is –

A. 1 : 2

B. 1 : 1

C. 1 : 5

D. 1 : 4

Q. 8 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through –

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

Q. 9 A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is – (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)

A. 4000 Hz

B. 5000 Hz

C. 3000 Hz

D. 3500 Hz

Q. 10 The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is –

A. 50 days

B. 60 days

C. 15 days

D. 30 days

Q. 11 A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If μs represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 12 A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1ms–1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is –

A. s 2 3π/2 s

B. 2π s

C. s π/ 2 s

D. π s

Q. 13 If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be

A. 400 P

B. P/200

C. `100P

D. 200P

Q. 14 If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s surface, then these are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 15 The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by

y = 3 sin π/ 2 (50t – x)

where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is –

A. 3/2π

B. 3π

C. 2/3π

D. 2π

Q. 16 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an α-particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field ?

A. 1 MeV

B. 0.5 MeV

C. 4 MeV

D. 2 MeV

Q. 17 Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is –

A. 45 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 40 cm

Q. 18 In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is –

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Q. 19 A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is –

A. E^2Ad/ε0

B. 1/2 ε0E^2Ad

C. ε0EAd

D. 1/2 ε0E^2

Q. 20 A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to –

A. t^1/2

B. t^–1/2

C. t/√m

D. t²p0

Q. 21 Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 Ω. Base current is changed by 40 μA which results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 KΩ. The voltage gain of the amplifier is-

A. 3000

B. 4000

C. 1000

D. 2000

Q. 23 For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index –

A. lies between 2 and 2

B. is less than 1

C. is greater than 2

D. lies between 2 and 1

Q. 24 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from –

A. 3 → 2

B. 4 → 2

C. 4 → 3

D. 2 → 1

Q. 25 A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is –

A. 15 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 10 cm

Q. 26 A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100ºC. A block of ice at 0ºC rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is- (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)

A. 1.29 J/m/s/ºC

B. 2.05 J/m/s/ºC

C. 1.02 J/m/s/ºC

D. 1.24 J/m/s/ºC

Q. 27 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100 % more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by –

A. 41 %

B. 200 %

C. 100 %

D. 68 %

Q. 28 A cell having an emf ε and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 29 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it through 60º. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be-

A. 3 J

B. √ 3 J

C. 3/2 J

D. 2√3 J

Q. 30 The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an

electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to –

A. reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

B. the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

C. unity

D. the speed of light in vacuum

Q. 31 Read the following four statements (A – D) :

(A) In transcription adenosine pairs with uracil

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation

(D) Haemophilia is a sex – linked recessive disease.

How many of the above statements are right?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q. 32 How man organisms in the list given below are autotrophs ? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia

A. Five

B. Six

C. THree

D. Four

Q. 33 How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, arhar, Sun,nemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong,Pea, Tobacco

A. Five

B. Six

C. Three

D. Four

Q. 34 As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

A. Many xylem bundles

B. Inconspicous annual rings

C. Relatively thicker periderm

D. More aboundant secondary xylem

Q. 35 A test cross is carried out to :

A. Predict whether two traits are linked

B. Assess the number of alleles of a gene

C. Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully

D. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2

Q. 36 Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it ?

A. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side

B. All sponges are marine and have collared cells

C. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi

D. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi

Q. 37 The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called :

A. Secondary productivity

B. Net primary productivit

C. Gross primary productivity

D. Net productivity

Q. 38 In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used :

A. To select healthy vectors

B. As sequences from where replication starts

C. To keep the cultures free of infection

D. As selectable markers

Q. 39 The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

A. Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

B. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

C. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

D. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

Q. 40 In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :

A. Methane

B. Propane

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Butane

Q. 41 Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants ?

A. Flowering

B. Closure of stomata

C. Fruit elongation

D. Apical dominance

Q. 42 Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs?

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Gall bladder

Q. 43 Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them ?

A. Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart

B. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation

C. Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)

D. Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – Viviparity

Q. 44 The idea of mutations was brought forth by :

A. Gregor Mendol, who worked on Pisum sativum

B. Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

C. Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage

D. Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose

Q. 45 Select the correct statement about biodiversity :

A. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

B. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

C. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries

D. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal pecies as well as numerous rare animal

Q. 46 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

A. Butterflies

B. Birds

C. Wind

D. Bees

Q. 47 Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only :

(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc.

(b) Body weight-wise the microorganisms Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cow per day

(d) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium

A. Statements (a), (c) and (d)

B. Statements (b), (c) and (d)

C. Statements (a), (b)

D. Statements (a), (b)

Q. 48 Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?

A. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms

B. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

C. Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

D. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane

Q. 49 For its action, nitrogenase requires :

A. Light

B. Mn2+

C. Super oxygen radicals

D. High input of energy

Q. 50 Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells) :

A. A particular hormone

B. An antifeedant

C. A toxic protein

D. Both sense and anti-sense RNA

Q. 51 Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body ?

A. Oral lining and tongue surface

B. Vermiform appendix and rectum

C. Duodenum

D. Caecum

Q. 52 Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres :

A. Metaphase-II

B. Anaphase-I

C. Anaphase-II

D. Metaphase-I

Q. 53 Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

A. Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis

B. Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)

C. Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

D. Thylakoids – flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts

Q. 54 Cuscuta is an example of

A. Brood parasitism

B. Predation

C. Endoparasitism

D. Ectoparasitism

Q. 55 The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of :

A. Areolar tissue

B. Bone

C. Cartilage

D. Ligament

Q. 56 Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them.

(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent

(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous

(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls

How many of the above statements are correct ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q. 57 Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use

Molecule	Source	Use
(1)	(b) Heroin	Cannabis Sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
(2)	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladonna	Produces hallucinations
(3)	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller
(4)	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 58 The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

A. A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50ºC

B. C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

C. A – Annealing with two sets of primers

D. B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98ºC separating the two DNA strands

Q. 59 Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the food web shown below :

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(1)	Dog	Squirrel	Bat	Deer
(2)	Rat	Dog	Tortoise	Crow
(3)	Squirrel	Cat	Rat	Pigeon
(4)	Deer	Rabbit	Frog	Rat

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 60 Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categarised ?

A. Pepsin and prolactin – Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach

B. Troponin and myosin – Complex proteins in striated muscles

C. Secretin and rhodopsin – Polypeptide hormones

D. Calcitonin and thymosin – Thyroid hormones

Q. 61 Vernalisation stimulates flowering in –

A. Turmeric

B. Carrot

C. Ginger

D. Zamikand

Q. 62 Green revolution in India occurred during –

A. 1970’s

B. 1980’s

C. 1950’s

D. 1960’s

Q. 63 A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates –

A. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

B. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

C. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

D. Juxta glomerular cells to release renin

Q. 64 What is the function of germ pore ?

A. Absorption of water for seed germination

B. Initiation of pollen tube

C. Release of male gametes

D. Emergence of radicle

Q. 65 Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C,), they give out ?

AAMMONOTELIC	BUREOTELIC	CURICOTELIC
(1)	Frog, Lizards	Aquatic, Amphibia, Humans	Cockroach Pigeon
(2)	Aquatic Amphibia	Frog, Humans	Pigeon, Lizards Cockroach
(3)	Aquatic	Cockroach Humans	Frog, Pigeon Lizards
(4)	Pigeon Humans	Aquatic Amphibia Lizards	Cockroach Frog

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 66 Which one of the following sets of items in the option 1 – 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 67 Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

A. Ethylene

B. ABA

C. IAA

D. Zeatin

Q. 68 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described ?

A. Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria

B. Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.

C. E.Coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human Intestine

D. Musca domestica – The common house lizards, a reptil

Q. 69 Read the following four statements (A-D) :

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigen

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice

How many of the above statements are wrong ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two

Q. 70 Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics ?

A. Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry

B. Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

C. Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum

D. Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vaxillary aestivation

Q. 71 The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

A. Typha

B. Salix

C. Vallisneria

D. Azolla

Q. 72 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

A. The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

B. Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains

C. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes

D. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake

Q. 73 Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA ?

A. 5′-CCAATG-3′ 3′-GAATCC-5′

B. 5′-CATTAG-3′ 3′-GATAAC-5′

C. 5′-GATACC-3′ 3′-CCTAAG-5

D. 5′-GAATTC-3′ 3′-CTTAAG-5′

Q. 74 For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires :

A. Iron

B. Niacin

C. Copper

D. Zinc

Q. 75 Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. identify the parts labeled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them

Part – A	Part – B	Part – C	Part – D
(1)	Mast Cell	Marco – Phage	Fibroblast	Collagen Fibreso
(2)	Macro – phage	Collagen fibres	Fibroblast	Mast Cell
(3)	Mast Cell	Collagen Fibers	Fibroblast	Macro Phage
(4)	Macro Phage	Fibroblast	Collagen Fibers	Mast Cell

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 76 In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

A. Algae

B. Plantae

C. Monera

D. Protista

Q. 77 Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil

How many of the above statements are right

A. THree

B. Four

C. one

D. Two

Q. 78 The domestic sewage in large cities :

A. is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)

B. When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

C. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

D. has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.

Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Salvinia – Prothallus

B. Viroids – RNA

C. Mustard-Synergids

D. Ginkgo-Archegonia

Q. 80 What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting ?

A. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva

B. , The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

C. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

D. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA

Q. 81 Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs ?

A. Internal fertilization

B. Nucleated RBCs

C. Ureotelic mode of excretion

D. Four – chambered heart

Q. 82 Represented below is the inheritance pattern of the certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern ?

A. Sickel cell anaemia

B. Haemophilia

C. Thalassemia

D. Phenylketonuria

Q. 83 The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 84 Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

A. Peroxisome

B. ER

C. Mesosome

D. Ribosome

Q. 85 The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating –

A. Chicken pox

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. Diabetes mellitus

Q. 86 Sacred groves are specially useful in –

A. preventing soil erosion

B. year-round flow of water in rivers

C. conserving rare and threatened species

D. generating environmental awareness

Q. 87 Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

A. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations

B. UV and Gamma rays are mutagens

C. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

D. Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations

Q. 88 Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

A. Transformation of plant cells

B. ) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

C. ) DNA finger printing

D. Disarming pathogen vectors

Q. 89 Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

A. Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell

B. Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months

C. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin

D. When pollen is shed at two-called stage, double fertilization does not take place

Q. 90 Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant women and select the right option for the two together –

Developmental Stage	Site of occurrence
(1)	Blastula	End part of Fallopian tube
(2)	Blastocyst	Uterine wall
(3)	8 – Celled morula	Starting point of fallopian tube
(4)	Late morula	Middle part of Fallopian tube

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 91 Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not rue ?

A. Complex has symmetrical H-bonding

B. Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

C. Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand

D. Red complex has a square planar geometry

Q. 92 During change of O2 to O ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ? − 2

A. π orbital

B. σ*orbital

C. σ orbital

D. π*orbital

Q. 93 Consider the reaction:

RCHO + NH2NH2→ RCH = N – NH2

What sort of reaction is it ?

A. Free radical addition – elimination reaction

B. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction

C. Nucleophilic addition – elimination reaction

D. Electrophilic addition – elimination reaction

Q. 94 In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it ?

A. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa values

B. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic character

C. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power

D. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength

Q. 95 The Gibbs’ energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500ºC is as follows:

2/3 Al2O3→4/3Al + O2; ΔrG = + 960 kJ mol–1.

The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500ºC is at least :

A. 3.0 V

B. 2.5 V

C. 5.0 V

D. 4.5 V

Q. 96 Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction

2SO2(g) + O2(g)⇒ 2SO3(g)

has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium

constant for the following reaction at the same temperature ?

SO3(g)⇒ SO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)

A. 3.6 × 10–3

B. 6.0 × 10–2

C. 1.3 × 10–5

D. 1.8 × 10–3

Q. 97 Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators ?

A. Glycol

B. Nitrophenol

C. Ethyl alcohol

D. Methyl alcohol

Q. 98 Molar conductivities ) (Λºm at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 Scm^2mol–1 respectively. Λºm for CH3COOH will be:

A. 180.5 S cm2 mol–1

B. 290.8 S cm2 mol–1

C. 390.5 S cm2 mol–1

D. 425.5 S cm2 mol–1

Q. 99 Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25ºC are 200 mmHg and 41.5 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be: (Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)

A. 615.0 mm Hg

B. 347.9 mm Hg

C. 285.5 mm Hg

D. 173.9 mm Hg

Q. 100 A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be:

A. 36 u

B. 64 u

C. 9 u

D. 27 u

Q. 101 Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer ?sni

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 102 The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to:

A. their unfilled d-orbitals

B. their ability of adopt variable oxidation states

C. their chemical reactivity

D. their magnetic behaviour

Q. 103 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇒ 2 AB(g)

At equilibrium, the concentration

of A2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M

of B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M

of AB = 2.8 × 10–3 M

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527ºC, then the value of KC will be :

A. 1.9

B. 0.62

C. 4.5

D. 2.0

Q. 104 Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :

F2(g) + 2e– → 2F–(aq) ; Eº = + 2.85 V

Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–(aq); Eº = + 1.36 V

Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq) ; Eº = + 1.06 V

I2(g) + e– → 2I–(aq) ; Eº = + 0.53 V

The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are –

A. Br2 and Cl–

B. Cl2 and Br–

C. Cl2 and I2

D. F2 and I

Q. 105 Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them –

A. O2– < NO < C22– < He2+

B. C22– < He2+< O2– < NO

C. He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–

D. NO < O2– < C22– < He2

Q. 106 Low spin complex of d6-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy :

A. 5 −12 -12/5Δ0 + 3P

B. -2/5Δ0 + 2P

C. -2/5Δ0 + P

D. -12/5Δ0 + P

Q. 107 Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali ?

A. Methyl acetate

B. Acetamide

C. 2-Hydroxypropane

D. Acetophenone

Q. 108 The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 109 Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it ?

A. Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+; increasing magnetic moment

B. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting point

C. Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

D. ) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states

Q. 110 Chloroamphenicol is an :

A. antihistaminic

B. antiseptic and disinfectant

C. antibiotic-broad spectrum

D. antifertility drug

Q. 111 Consider the following reaction :

The product ‘A’ is –

A. C6H5OH

B. C6H5COCH3

C. C6H5Cl

D. C6H5CHO

Q. 112 Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?

A. HCL

B. O2

C. Br2

D. NaNH2

Q. 113 For real gases van der Waals equation is written as

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He (II) CH4, O2 and H2

The gases given in set-I in increasing order of ‘b’ and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ‘a’, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following :

A. (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4

B. (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2

C. (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2(II) O2 > CH4 > H2

D. (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2

Q. 114 Activation energy (Ea) and rate constant (k1 and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 115 Which of the following exhibits only + 3 oxidation state ?

A. Th

B. Ac

C. Pa

D. U

Q. 116 Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) of the mixture will be –

A. 1.50

B. 3.3

C. 1.67

D. 0.83

Q. 117 Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (c.c.p.). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed ofoxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is –

A. A2BO2

B. A2B3O4

C. AB2O2

D. AB O2

Q. 118 our successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below.For which one of the them the standard potential ( ) EoM2+ / M value has a positive sign ?

A. Ni (Z = 28)

B. Cu (Z = 29)

C. Fe (Z = 26)

D. Co (Z = 27)

Q. 119 In the replacement reaction

CI + MF → CF + MI

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be –

A. K

B. Rb

C. Li

D. Na

Q. 120 An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	B	D	A	A	A	D	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	D	C	A	A	D	A	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	A	C	C	D	A	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	B	A	D	A	A	D	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	C	C	D	D	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	D	D	C	C	C	B	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	B	B	A	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	D	D	D	D	D	A	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	D	D	C	C	C	A	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	B	A	C	D	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	B	D	C	A	C	D	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	D	B	C	B	C	C	B	B	D

AIPMT 2011 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2011 Mains

Q. 1 The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm^3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be

A. 0.04

B. 0.4

C. 40

D. 400

Q. 2 A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v₁ and the rest half distance with speed v₂. Its average speed during the complete journey is :

A. v₁+v₂/2

B. v₁v₂/(v₁+v₂)

C. 2v₁v₂/(v₁+v₂)

D. v₁²v₂²/v₁² + v₂²

Q. 3 A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2 v. The final velocity of the combination is :

A. 3vi/2 + vj/4

B. vi/4 + 3vj/2

C. vi/3 + 2vj/3

D. 2vi/3 + vj/3

Q. 4 A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 1 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 ms^-2 is

A. 0.4 m

B. 1.2 m

C. 0.6 m

D. Zero

Q. 5 A small mass attached to a string rotates on a frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will

A. decrease by a factor of 2

B. remain constant

C. increase by a factor of 2

D. increase by a factor of 4

Q. 6 A particle of mass is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth is :

A. Root of (2GM/R^2)

B. Root of (2GM/R)

C. Root of (2gM/R^2)

D. Root of (2gR^2)

Q. 7 A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre will be :

A. GM/a

B. 2GM/a

C. 3GM/a

D. 4GM/a

Q. 8 A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 degrees with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection, is :

A. 45 degrees

B. 60 degrees

C. tan^-1 (1/2)

D. tan^-1 (root of 3/2)

Q. 9 A mass of diatomic gas (lambda = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rises from 27 degrees C to 927 degrees C. The pressure of the gas in the final state is

A. 8 atm

B. 28 atm

C. 68.7 atm

D. 256 atm

Q. 10 Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is

A. pi/6

B. 0

C. 2pi/3

D. pi

Q. 11 Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :

A. 0.01

B. 0.02

C. 0.03

D. 0.04

Q. 12 A thin prism of angle 15 degrees made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index 1.75. The combination of the prism produced dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be :

A. 5 degrees

B. 7 degrees

C. 10 degrees

D. 12 degrees

Q. 13 A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :

A. 5 cm

B. -10 cm

C. 20 cm

D. -30 cm

Q. 14 Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 15 The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) all in meters in space is given by V = 4x^2 volt. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is :

A. 8 along negative X-axis

B. 8 along positive X-axis

C. 16 along negative X-axis

D. 16 along positive X-axis

Q. 16 In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is

A. +1 V

B. -1 V

C. +2 V

D. -2 V

Q. 17 A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is

A. G/(S+G)

B. S^2/(S+G)

C. SG/(S+G)

D. G^2/(S+G)

Q. 18 A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f of 40 uV/degree C in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1 uA/division, is employed with the thermocouple. The smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be :

A. 0.25 degrees C

B. 0.5 degrees C

C. 1 degrees C

D. 0.1 degrees C

Q. 19 Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the center of the ring is

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 20 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J/T is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in a stable equilibrium when the potential energy is :

A. 0.064 J

B. -0.064 J

C. Zero

D. -0.082 J

Q. 21 A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1, at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience :

A. a net attractive force towards the conductor

B. a net repulsive force away from the conductor

C. a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane

D. a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane

Q. 22 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :

A. V0/(root of 3)

B. V0

C. V0/(root of 2)

D. V0(root of 2)

Q. 23 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

A. 2.0 A

B. 4.0 A

C. 8.0 A

D. 20/root of 13 A

Q. 24 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 x 10^14 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 x 10^14 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly :

A. 1 V

B. 2 V

C. 3 V

D. 4 V

Q. 25 An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10V, then the value of n is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 26 Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t=0, number of P species are 4N₀ and that of Q are N₀. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute whereas that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be :

A. 2N₀

B. 3N₀

C. 9N₀/2

D. 5N₀/2

Q. 27 Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model?

A. 0.65 eV

B. 1.9 eV

C. 11.1 eV

D. 13.6 eV

Q. 28 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is :

A. 5 mA

B. 10 mA

C. 15 mA

D. 20 mA

Q. 29 In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased are :

A. (a), (b) and (d)

B. (c) only

C. (c) and (a)

D. (b) and (d)

Q. 30 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 x 10^16 (m)^-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 x 10^22 (m)^-3. The doped semiconductor is of :

A. P-type having electron concentrations ne = 5 x 10^9 m^-3

B. n-type with electron concentrations ne = 5 x 10^22 m^-3

C. P-type with electron concentrations ne = 2.5 x 10^10 m^-3

D. n-type with electron concentrations ne = 2.5 x 10^23 m^-3

Q. 31 The unit pf rate constant for a zero order reaction is –

A. s^-1

B. mol L^-1 s^-1

C. L mol^-1 s^-1

D. L^2 mol^-2 s^-1

Q. 32 The half life of a substance in a certain enzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from

1.28 mg (L)^-1 to 0.04 mg(L)^-1, is –

A. 276 s

B. 414 s

C. 552 s

D. 690 s

Q. 33 Consider the following processes in figure :

For B + D —-> E + 2C, change in H will be –

A. 325 kJ/mol

B. 525 kJ/mol

C. -175 kJ/mol

D. -325 kJ/mol

Q. 34 The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

A. O, O2^2- – Both paramagnetic

B. O2^-, O2^2- – Both diamagnetic

C. O^+, O2^2- – Both paramagnetic

D. O2^+, O2- – Both paramagnetic

Q. 35 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon?

A. n = 5 to n = 3

B. n = 6 to n = 1

C. n = 5 to n = 4

D. n = 6 to n = 5

Q. 36 In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag^+ and Pb^2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl^- concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag^+ and Pb ^2+ be at equilibrium?

(Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10^-10

Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 x 10^-5)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 37 A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15 degrees C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25 degrees C an the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble?

A. Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5

B. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6

C. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1

D. Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70

Q. 38 A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86 degrees C/m, the freezing point of the solution will be —

A. -0.24 degrees C

B. -0.18 degrees C

C. -0.54 degrees C

D. -0.36 degrees C

Q. 39 A solution contains Fe^2+, Fe^3+ and I^- ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35 degrees C. E degrees for Fe^3+/Fe^2+ is +0.77 V and E degrees for I2/I^- = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is —

A. Fe^2+ will be oxidized to Fe^3+

B. I2 will be reduced to I^-

C. There will be no redox reaction

D. I^- will be oxidized to I2

Q. 40 The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 —> 4NO2 + O2

can be written in three ways. The relationship between k and k’ and between k and k” are —

A. k’ = k, k” = k

B. k’ = 2k; k” = k

C. k’ = 2k, k” = k/2

D. k’ = 2k; k” = 2k

Q. 41 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 x 10^-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol^-1 K^-1):

A. 61038 g mol^-1

B. 51022 g mol^-1

C. 122044 g mol^-1

D. 31011 g mol^-1

Q. 42 Match List I with List II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer.

A. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)

B. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

C. (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(i)

D. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)

Q. 43 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

A. CO2

B. SnO2

C. CaO

D. SiO2

Q. 44 The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

A. 2C(s) + O2(g) —-> 2CO(g)

B. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) —-> 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)

C. CaCO3(s) —-> CaO(s) + CO2(g)

D. CaO(s) + SiO2(s) —-> CaSiO3(s)

Q. 45 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3

B. Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution.

C. NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate

D. Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)3

Q. 46 What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na^+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV?

A. +10.2 eV

B. -5.1 eV

C. -10.2 eV

D. +2.55 eV

Q. 47 Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?

A. 64 g SO2

B. 44 g CO2

C. 48 g O3

D. 8 g H2

Q. 48 A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y^-) will be —

A. 165.7 pm

B. 275.1 pm

C. 322.5 pm

D. 241.5 pm

Q. 49 Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy of SO3?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 50 Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond?

A. Fe(CO)5

B. Mn(CO)6^+

C. Cr(CO)6

D. V(CO)6^-

Q. 51 Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

A. [Zn(NH3)6]^2+

B. [Ti(NH3)6]^3+

C. [Cr(NH3)6]^3+

D. [Co(NH3)6]^3+

Q. 52 Which of the following compounds is most basic?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 53 Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B complex

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin E

Q. 54 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 55 The IUPAC name of the following compound is –

A. cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

B. trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

C. cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

D. trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

Q. 56 An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’, which on heating gives ‘C’. ‘C’ when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 57 Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below :

List-I List-II

(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein

(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation

(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement

A. (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

B. (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

D. (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

Q. 58 Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct?

Statements

(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein

(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 59 The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :

A. I > II > III

B. III > II > I

C. II > I > III

D. I > III > II

Q. 60 Consider the given reactions. The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 61 Examine the figure given and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d) correctly identified :

A. (a) – Antheridiophore; (b) – Male thallus; (c) – Globule; (d) – Roots

B. (a) – Archegoniophore; (b) – Female thallus; (c) – Gemmacup; (d) – Rhizoids

C. (a) – Archegoniophore; (b) – Female thallus; (c) – Bud; (d) – Foot

D. (a) – Seta; (b) – Sporophyte; (c) – Protonema; (d)Rhizoids

Q. 62 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because :

A. Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

B. Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.

C. Female gametophyte lacks archegonia

D. Megaspore possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.

Q. 63 Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong

(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(B) Salvinia is heterosporous

(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees

The two wrong statements together are :

A. Statements (A) and (B)

B. Statements (A) and (C)

C. Statements (A) and (D)

D. Statements (B) and (C)

Q. 64 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their :

A. Centromere

B. Satellites

C. Secondary constrictions

D. Kinetochores

Q. 65 Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

A. Lysosome

B. Golgi complex

C. Peroxisome

D. Vacuole

Q. 66 In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

A. Biosystematics

B. Biotechnology

C. Biomonitoring

D. Bioinformatics

Q. 67 The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a :

A. Bacterial virus

B. Bacterium

C. Fungus

D. Viroid

Q. 68 Guttation is the result of :

A. Root pressure

B. Diffusion

C. Transpiration

D. Osmosis

Q. 69 Function of companion cells is :

A. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements

B. Providing energy to sieve elements for active transport

C. Providing water to phloem

D. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport

Q. 70 Some vascular bundles are described as open because these :

A. are not surrounded by pericycle

B. are surrounded by pericycle but no endodermis

C. are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem

D. possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem

Q. 71 Which of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Dianthus?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 72 Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water?

A. Boron

B. Manganese

C. Zinc

D. Copper

Q. 73 In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :

A. thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts

B. thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts

C. thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts

D. thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts

Q. 74 Sweet potato is homologous to

A. Turnip

B. Potato

C. Colocasia

D. Ginger

Q. 75 Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?

A. Phosphorus

B. Iron

C. Manganese

D. Cadmium

Q. 76 Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in :

A. Alstonia

B. Calotropis

C. Neem

D. China Rose

Q. 77 What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis?

A. Both produces progeny identical to the parent

B. Both are applicable to only dicot plants

C. Both bypass the flowering phase

D. Both occur round the year

Q. 78 In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

A. Matrix

B. Outer membrane

C. Inner membrane

D. Intermembrane space

Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?

A. Agave – Bulbils

B. Penicillium – Conidia

C. Water hyacinth – Runner

D. Bryophyllum – Leaf buds

Q. 80 In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :

A. Pollen sac

B. Embryo sac

C. Ovule

D. Endosperm

Q. 81 Both, hydrarch and xerarch succession lead to :

A. Excessive wet conditions

B. Medium water conditions

C. Xeric conditions

D. Highly dry conditions

Q. 82 Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?

A. Frog

B. Sparrow

C. Lion

D. Goat

Q. 83 The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called :

A. Catabolism

B. Humification

C. Fragmentation

D. Mineralisation

Q. 84 “Good ozone” is found in the :

A. Ionosphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Stratosphere

Q. 85 The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

A. dN/dt = rN(N-K/N)

B. dt/dN = Nr(K-N/K)

C. dN/dt = rN(K-N/K)

D. dN/dt = rN

Q. 86 Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

A. Aspergillus niger – citric acid

B. Yeast – statins

C. Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid

D. Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid

Q. 87 Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):

“A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B)”.

The one correct option for the two blanks is :

A. (A) AIDS; (B) Pseudomonas

B. (A) Heart; (B) Penicillium

C. (A) Organ-transplant; (B) Trichoderma

D. (A) Swine flu; (B) Monascus

Q. 88 Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is :

A. not an infectious disease

B. caused by a virus

C. caused by a Gram-positive bacterium

D. caused by a Gram-negative bacterium

Q. 89 Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them :

(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.

(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-olecules

(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host

Which are the two statements having mistakes?

A. Statements (A) and (B)

B. Statements (B) and (C)

C. Statements (C) and (D)

D. Statements (A) and (C)

Q. 90 Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to :

A. Bacterial blights

B. Bollworms

C. Nematodes

D. White rusts

Q. 91 Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

A. Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally

B. Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro

C. Increase in mass from inside only

D. Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory

Q. 92 The type of muscles present in our :

A. upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape

B. heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles

C. intestine are striated and involuntary

D. thigh are striated and voluntary

Q. 93 The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristic of two of these animals.

A. (c) and (d) have a true coelom

B. (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall

C. (b) and (c) show radial symmetry

D. (a) and (b) have cnidoblasts for self defence

Q. 94 Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

A. one X and one Y chromosome

B. two X chromosomes

C. only one Y chromosome

D. only one X chromosome

Q. 95 Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing :

A. between two genotypes with dominant trait

B. between two genotypes with recessive trait

C. between two F1 hybrids

D. the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Q. 96 Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?

A. 3/3, 1/1, 3/3, 3/3

B. 3/3, 1/1, 3/2, 1/1

C. 2/2, 1/1, 3/2, 3/3

D. 2/2, 1/1, 2/2, 3/3

Q. 97 The figure shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), © and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function –

A. Part (A) : Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes

B. Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting

C. Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae

D. Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular DNA olecule and ribosome

Q. 98 Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as :

A. carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

B. bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs

C. Free CO2 in blood plasma

D. 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate

Q. 99 Given is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

A. Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only

B. Complex QRS-One complete pulse

C. Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction

D. Peak P and Peak R together-systolic and diastolic blood pressures

Q. 100 Frogs differ from humans in possessing :

A. thyroid as well as parathyroid

B. paired cerebral hemispheres

C. hepatic portal system

D. nucleated red blood cells

Q. 101 The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the category of :

A. Connective tissue

B. Smooth muscle tissue

C. Squamous epithelium

D. Columnar epithelium

Q. 102 The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone :

A. melatonin

B. calcitonin

C. prolactin

D. adrenaline

Q. 103 Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non matching pair.

A. Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles

B. Sternum and Ribs – Axial skeleton

C. Clavicle and Glenoid cavity – Pelvic girdle

D. Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton

Q. 104 Which one of the following structure in pheretima is correctly matched with its function?

A. Typhlosole-storage of extra nutrients

B. Clitellum-secretes cocoon

C. Gizzard-absorbs digested food

D. Setae-defence against predators

Q. 105 Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :

A. frog’s males

B. human males

C. human females

D. frog’s both males and females

Q. 106 One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is :

A. Enterokinase

B. Trypsinogen

C. Chymotrypsin

D. Trypsin

Q. 107 Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

A. The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them

B. One can breathe out air totally without oxygen

C. One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

D. One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.

Q. 108 What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

A. Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida

B. Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida

C. All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails

D. Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one.

Q. 109 The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females :

A. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation

B. who cannot produce an ovum

C. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus

D. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms

Q. 110 Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).

Statements :

(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days

(B) it has four-chambered heart

(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water

A. (A)-F; (B)-T; (C)-T; (D)-F

B. (A)-T; (B)-F; (C)-F; (D)-T

C. (A)-T; (B)-T; (C)-F; (D)-F

D. (A)-F; (B)-F; (C)-T; (D)-T

Q. 111 About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called LH-surge) normally occur?

A. 11th day

B. 14th day

C. 20th day

D. 5th day

Q. 112 Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks :

(A) Bears go into (1) during winter to (2) cold weather.

(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents (3) human population.

(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as (5).

Which of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements?

A. (1) – hibernation, (2) – escape, (3) – expanding, (5) – hot spot

B. (3) – stable, (4) – commensalism, (5) – marsh

C. (1) – aestivation, (2) – escape, (3) – stable, (4) – mutualism

D. (3) – expanding, (4) – commensalism, (5) – biodiversity park

Q. 113 Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming :

(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton

(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost

(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. (A) and (B) only

B. (B), (C) and (D)

C. (C) and (D) only

D. (B) and (C) only

Q. 114 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents :

A. Species endemic to the region

B. Endangered species found in the region

C. The diversity in the organisms living in the region

D. Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.

Q. 115 Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection :

A. Malaria – Plasmodium vivax – Bite of male Anopheles mosquito

B. Typhoid – Salmonella typhi – With inspired air

C. Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoniae – Droplet infection

D. Elephantiasis – Wuchereria bancrofti – With infected water and food

Q. 116 The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of organisms at that of :

A. Ascaris, a round worm

B. Taenia, a tapeworm

C. Wuchereria, a filarial worm

D. Rhizopus, a mould

Q. 117 Select the correct statement with respect to disease and immunisation :

A. Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

B. If due to some reason B- and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen.

C. Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity

D. Certain protozoans have been used to mass produces hepatitis B vaccine

Q. 118 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticide protein. This protein :

A. does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

B. binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

C. is coded by several genes including the gene cry

D. is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.

Q. 119 Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?

A. Hybridization

B. Recombinant DNA techniques

C. X-ray diffraction

D. Heavier isotope labeling

Q. 120 Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?

A. It is present throughout life in Amphioxus

B. It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians

C. It is replaced by vertebral column in adult frog

D. It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	B	A	D	B	C	C	D	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	D	D	A	A	D	A	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	B	B	B	C	C	A	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	C	D	D	D	B	A	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	B	D	D	B	D	D	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	B	B	B	A	A	D	A	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	D	C	D	A	A	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	C	A	D	A	A	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	C	D	C	D	C	B	A	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	D	A	B	D	D	C	B	B	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	B	D	B	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	D	C	C	D	B	B	B	D

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2011 Prelims

Q. 1 The dimension of (μ∘ε∘)^-1/2 are:

A. L^(-1/2)T^(-1/2)

B. L^(1/2)T^(-1/2)

C. L^(-1)T

D. LT^(-1)

Q. 2 The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I∘. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is:

A. I∘+ML²

B. I∘+ML²/2

C. I∘+ML²/4

D. I∘+2ML

Q. 3 A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s², the velocity with which it hits the ground is :

A. 5 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. 20 m/s

D. 40 m/s

Q. 4 A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s², the tension in the supporting cable is :

A. 1200 N

B. 8600 N

C. 9680 N

D. 11000 N

Q. 5 A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

A. at the instant just after the body is projected

B. at the highest position of the body

C. at the instant just before the body hits the earth.

D. it remains constant all through

Q. 6 The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t) = 2t³ – 6t² The torque on the wheel becomes zero at :

A. t=2s

B. t=1s

C. t=0.5s

D. t=0.25s

Q. 7 A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2 π s. The acceleration of the particle is :

A. 5 m/s²

B. 1 5 m/s²

C. 25 m/s²

D. 36 m/s²

Q. 8 A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is –

A. zero

B. MV

C. 1.5 MV

D. 2 MV

Q. 9 A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio V1/V2 is:

A. r1/r2

B. (r1/r2)²

C. r2/r1

D. (r2/r1)²

Q. 10 A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency ν and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be –

A. hv

B. Mc²-hv

C. h²v²/2Mc²

D. zero

Q. 11 The potential energy of a system increases if work is done :

A. Upon the system by a conservative force.

B. Upon the system by a nonconservative force

C. by the system against a conservative force.

D. by the system against a nonconservative force

Q. 12 A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :

A. 5 m/s²

B. 1 m/s²

C. 7 m/s²

D. √7 m/s²

Q. 13 A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2 , the range of the missile is :

A. 20 m

B. 40 m

C. 50 m

D. 60 m

Q. 14 Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is :

A. 13 J

B. 18 J

C. 21 J

D. 26 J

Q. 15 A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will :

A. be doubled

B. increase four time

C. be reduced to half

D. remain the same

Q. 16 Four electric charge + q, + q, – q and – q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L. (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charge + q and + q, is :

A. zero

B. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1+√5)

C. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1+1/√5)

D. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1-1/√5)

Q. 17 A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A (m² ) the energy (joules) stored in the condenser is :

A. 1/2 ε∘E²Ad

B. E²Ad/ε∘

C. 1/2 ε∘E²

D. ε∘EAd

Q. 18 If power dissipated in the 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across the 2 Ω resistor is :

A. 2 volt

B. 4 volt

C. 8 volt

D. 10 volt

Q. 19 A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is :

A. 1Ω

B. 0.5Ω

C. 1/3Ω

D. 1/4Ω

Q. 20 The rate of increase of thermo-e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature of a thermocouple :

A. is negative

B. is positive

C. is zero

D. depends upon the choice of the two materials of the thermocouple

Q. 21 A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F̅ , the force on the arm AC is :

A. √2F̅

B. -√2F̅

C. -F̅

D. F̅

Q. 22 The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is :

A. 1 microgram

B. 10 microgram

C. 20 microgram

D. 40 microgram

Q. 23 There are four light-weight-rod samples A,B,C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted :

(a) A is feebly repelled

(b) B is feebly attracted

(d) D remains unaffected

Which one of the following is true ?

A. A is of a non-magnetic material

B. B is of a paramagnetic material

C. C is of a diamagnetic material

D. D is of a ferromagnetic material

Q. 24 The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +zaxis, can be represented by :

A. [E̅=E∘ĵ, B̅=B∘k̂]

B. [E̅=E∘î, B̅=B∘ĵ]

C. [E̅=E∘k̂, B̅=B∘î]

D. [E̅=E∘ĵ, B̅=B∘î]

Q. 25 A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the :direction of fields, then the electron :

A. will turn towards left of direction of motion

B. will turn towards right of direction of motion

C. speed will decrease

D. speed will increase

Q. 26 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 27 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200√2 sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1 μF. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is

A. 20 mA

B. 10mA

C. 100 mA

D. 200 mA

Q. 28 An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is :

A. zero

B. Π/6

C. Π/4

D. Π/2

Q. 29 When 1 kg of ice at 0ºC melts to water at 0ºC, the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to be 80 Cal/gm, is :

A. 293 Cal /K

B. 273 Cal/K

C. 8 × 10^4 Cal/K

D. 80 Cal/K

Q. 30 During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does – 150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that :

A. 150 J of heat has been added to the gas

B. 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas

C. 300 J of heat has been added to the gas

D. no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal.

Q. 31 A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small which graph correctly depicts the position of the particles as a function of time ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 32 Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = a sin (ωt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos (ωt +kx)m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between them is :

A. 0.57 radian

B. 1 radian

C. 1.25 radian

D. 1.57 radian

Q. 33 Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM : (A) y = sin ωt – cos ωt (B) y = sin³ ωt (C) y = 5 cos (3Π/4-3ωt) (D) y=1+ωt+ω²t²

A. Only (A) and (B)

B. Only (A)

C. Only (D) does not represent SHM

D. Only (A) and (C)

Q. 34 Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air :

A. decreases by a factor 20

B. decreases by a factor 10

C. increases by a factor 20

D. increases by a factor 10

Q. 35 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is :

A. infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

B. microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

C. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves

D. microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet

Q. 36 The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 37 Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection ?

A. brilliance of diamond

B. working of optical fibre

C. difference between apparent and real depth of a pond

D. mirage on hot summer days

Q. 38 A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?

A. Real, inverted, height = 1 cm

B. Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm

C. Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm

D. Real, inverted, height = 4 cm

Q. 39 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is :

A. 2.3 V

B. 1.8 V

C. 1.3 V

D. 0.5 V

Q. 40 Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would

A. increase by 4 times

B. increase by 2 times

C. decrease by 2 times

D. decrease by 4 times

Q. 41 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be :

A. 1:5

B. 1:4

C. 1:2

D. 1:1

Q. 42 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by :

A. decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament

B. increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament

C. increasing the filament current

D. decreasing the filament current

Q. 43 The half life of radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 50 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be :

A. 100 years

B. 150 years

C. 200 years

D. 250 years

Q. 44 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum:

A. frequency

B. power

C. wavelength

D. intensity

Q. 45 Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because :

A. molecules break up at high temperature

B. nuclei break up at high temperature

C. atomic get ionised at high temperature

D. kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei

Q. 46 choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 47 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at Vc = 2V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 300 μA produces a change in the collector current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is :

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100

Q. 48 If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal :

A. its resistance is increased

B. it becomes a p-type semiconductor

C. the antimony becomes an acceptor atom

D. there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor

Q. 49 In forward biasing of the p-n junction :

A. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thin

B. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thick

C. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thin

D. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.

Q. 50 Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as :Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively :

A. (ii), (iv) and (iii)

B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

C. (iii), (ii) and (i)

D. (iii), (ii) and (iv)

Q. 51 The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is :

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 32

Q. 52 choose the correct option

A. 0.150 V

B. 0.500 V

C. 0.325 V

D. 0.650 V

Q. 53 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is :

A. 1.7700

B. 0.1770

C. 0.0177

D. 0.0344

Q. 54 By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled ?

A. 1.4

B. 2.0

C. 2.8

D. 4.0

Q. 55 A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10^–5, what is the pH of this solution? (log 2.7 = 0.43)

A. 8.73

B. 9.08

C. 9.43

D. 11.72

Q. 56 Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be :

A. 25.00 u

B. 50.00 u

C. 12.25 u

D. 6.50 u

Q. 57 Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition ?

A. q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0

B. q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0

C. q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

D. q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

Q. 58 For the reaction N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇔2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K₁. The equilibrium constant is K₂ for the reaction 2NO(g) + O₂(g)⇔2NO₂(g). What is K for the reaction NO₂(g)⇔ 1/2 N₂(g)+ O₂(g)?

A. 1/(K₁K₂)

B. 1/(2 K₁K₂)

C. 1/(4 K₁K₂)

D. [1/K₁K₂]

Q. 59 If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process ?

A. x/m=pxT

B. x/m=f(p) at constant T

C. x/m=f(T) at constant p

D. p = f(T) at constant(x/m)

Q. 60 If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ/mol at 27ºC, the entropy change for the process would be :

A. 100 J/mol K

B. 10 J/mol K

C. 1 J/mol K

D. 0.1 J/mol K

Q. 61 The Van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively

A. greater than one and greater than one

B. less than one and greater than one

C. less than one and less than one

D. greater than one and less than one

Q. 62 Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/ Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be :

A. + 1.83 V

B. + 1.19 V

C. + 0.89 V

D. + 0.18 V

Q. 63 A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is

A. 1 atm

B. 0.5 atm

C. 0.8 atm

D. 0.9 atm

Q. 64 If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ΔGº and Keq ?

A. ΔGº > 0; Keq < 1

B. ΔG° > 0; Keq > 1

C. ΔGº < 0; Keq > 1

D. ΔG°< 0; Keq < 1

Q. 65 The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86ºC/m. If 5.00 g Na₂SO₄ is dissolved in 45.0g H₂O, the freezing point is changed by –3.82ºC. Calculate the Van’t Hoff factor for Na₂SO₄.

A. 0.381

B. 2.05

C. 2.63

D. 3.11

Q. 66 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be:

A. λ1 = 1/2 λ2

B. λ1 = λ2

C. λ1 = 2 λ2

D. λ1 = 4 λ2

Q. 67 Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, + 0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be :

A. X > Y > Z

B. Y > Z > X

C. Y > X > Z

D. Z > X > Y

Q. 68 Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect ?

A. Order of reaction is always whole number

B. Order can be determined only experimentally

C. Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.

D. Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction

Q. 69 Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6kJ The dissociation energy of H – H bond is

A. +217.4 kJ

B. –434.8 kJ

C. –869.6 kJ

D. +434.8 kJ

Q. 70 If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be :

A. ns → np(n – 1)d → (n – 2)f

B. ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np

C. ns → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f → np

D. ns → (n – 2)f → np → (n – 1)d

Q. 71 Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point ?

A. CaF₂

B. CaCl₂

C. CaBr₂

D. Cal₂

Q. 72 Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method ?

A. Ni and Fe

B. Ga and In

C. Zr and Ti

D. Ag and Au

Q. 73 The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is :

A. C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

B. C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

C. C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H

D. C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

Q. 74 Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution turns green when Na₂SO₃ is added to it. This is due to the formation of :

A. CrSO₄

B. Cr₂(SO₄)₃

C. CrO₄²⁻

D. Cr₂(SO₃)₃

Q. 75 For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (At nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

A. Cr > Mn > Co > Fe

B. Mn > Fe > Cr > Co

C. Fe > Mn > Co > Cr

D. Co > Mn > Fe > Cr

Q. 76 choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 77 Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron ?

A. Phosphorus

B. Manganese

C. Carbon

D. Silicon

Q. 78 Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base ?

A. OH–

B. H2O

C. NH3

D. BF3

Q. 79 Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action ?

A. CaCl2

B. CaOCl2

C. Ca(OCl)2

D. CaO2Cl

Q. 80 The complex [Pt (Py) (NH₃) Br Cl] will have how many geometrical isomers ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 0

Q. 81 Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4](4–) is shared ?

A. Three dimensional

B. Linear chain silicate

C. Sheet silicate

D. Pyrosilicate

Q. 82 The complexes [Co(NH₃)₆] [Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆] [Co(CN)₆] are the examples of which type of isomerism ?

A. Geometrical isomerism

B. Linkage isomerism

C. Ionization isomerism

D. Coordination isomerism

Q. 83 The d-electron configurations of Cr²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Co²⁺ are d⁴ , d⁵, d⁶ and d⁷ respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour ? (At. Nos. Cr= 24, Mn= 25, Fe= 26, Co = 27)

A. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺

B. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺

C. [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Q. 84 Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature ?

A. [CoF6](3)

B. [NiCl4]2–

C. [Ni(CN)4]2–

D. [CuCl4]2–

Q. 85 Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 86 The value of ΔH for the reaction X2(g) + 4Y2(g)⇔ 2XY4(g) is less than zero.

Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at :

A. High pressure and low temperature

B. High temperature and high pressure

C. Low pressure and low temperature

D. High temperature and low pressure

Q. 87 Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer ?

A. Nylon – 66

B. Terylene

C. Bakelite

D. Melamine

Q. 88 What is the product obtained in the following reaction :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 89 In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 90 In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

A. 14.45

B. 15.45

C. 16.45

D. 17.45

Q. 91 Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 92 Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 93 Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?

A. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

B. CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

C. CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3

D. CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH

Q. 94 In the following reactions, the major products (A) & (C) are respectively:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 95 The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it:

A. increases the concentration of NO3– ions

B. decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

C. helps in the precipitation of AgCl

D. increases the solubility product of AgCl

Q. 96 The correct IUPAC name of the compound as in figure is:

A. 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1 ene

B. 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene

C. 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane

D. 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene

Q. 97 Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following ?

A. H₂ and Pt as catalyst

B. Glycol with KOH

C. Zn-Hg with HCl

D. Li Al H₄

Q. 98 Which one of the following is employed as Antihistamine ?

A. Omeprazole

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Diphenhydramine

D. Norethindrone

Q. 99 Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose ?

A. (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups

B. On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose

C. (+) Lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose

D. (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation

Q. 100 Which one of the following statement is not true ?

A. Oxide of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant

B. pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5

C. Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish

D. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5ppm

Q. 101 The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are :

A. axillary buds

B. root buds

C. flower buds

D. shoot buds

Q. 102 Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a :

A. Hot spring

B. Sulphur rock

C. Cattle yard

D. Polluted stream

Q. 103 Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?

A. Angiosperms

B. Fungi

C. Insects

D. Birds

Q. 104 Archegoniophore is present in :

A. Funaria

B. Marchantia

C. Chara

D. Adiantum

Q. 105 Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

A. smaller and to have smaller sex organs

B. smaller but to have larger sex organs

C. larger but to have smaller sex organs

D. larger and to have larger sex organs

Q. 106 The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in :

A. Pinus

B. Polytrichum

C. Adiantum

D. Marchantia

Q. 107 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is :

A. Lysosome

B. Vacuole

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Plastid

Q. 108 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

A. Ribosomes

B. Chloroplast

C. Mitochondria

D. Chromoplast

Q. 109 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

A. Cell wall

B. Plasma membrane

C. Nucleus

D. Ribosomes

Q. 110 Mutations can be induced with :

A. Gamma radiation

B. Infra Red radiations

C. IAA

D. Ethylene

Q. 111 A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :

A. Genome

B. Herbarium

C. Germplasm

D. Gene library

Q. 112 Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell ?

A. 23 s RNA

B. 5 s RNA

C. sn RNA

D. hn RNA

Q. 113 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot

B. In tomato, fruit is a capsule

C. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm

D. Placentation in primrose is basal

Q. 114 The correct floral formula of chilli is :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 115 Nitrifying bacteria :

A. reduce nitrates to free nitrogen

B. oxidize ammonia to nitrates

C. convert free nitrogen to nitrogen to compounds

D. convert proteins into ammonia

Q. 116 The function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is :

A. expression of nif gene

B. inhibition of nitrogenase activity

C. oxygen removal

D. nodule differentiation

Q. 117 Which one of the following elements is plants is not remobilized ?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Calcium

D. Potassium

Q. 118 A drupe develops in :

A. Tomato

B. Mango

C. Wheat

D. Pea

Q. 119 Ground tissue includes :

A. All tissues internal to endodermis

B. All tissues external to endodermis

C. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

D. Epidermis and cortex

Q. 120 In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having :

A. Chloroplasts

B. Cytoskeleton

C. Mitochondria

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Q. 121 The ovary is half inferior in flower of :

A. guava

B. peach

C. cucumber

D. cotton

Q. 122 The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called :

A. Phellem

B. Phelloderm

C. Phellogen

D. Periderm

Q. 123 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

A. Cassia – imbricate aestivation

B. Root pressure-Guttation

C. Puccinia – Smut

D. Root –Exarch protoxylem

Q. 124 Flowers are Zygomorphic in :

A. Datura

B. Mustard

C. Mustard

D. Mustard

Q. 125 CAM helps the plants in :

A. Reproduction

B. Conserving water

C. Secondary growth

D. Disease resistance

Q. 126 Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

A. More than 80%

B. About 70%

C. About 60%

D. Less than 50%

Q. 127 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in

A. Pisum

B. Alnus

C. Cycas

D. Cicer

Q. 128 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

A. Brassica

B. Citrus

C. Gossypium

D. Triticum

Q. 129 Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

A. Zygote

B. Suspensor

C. Egg

D. Synergid

Q. 130 What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells ?

A. 21

B. 42

C. 63

D. 84

Q. 131 Wind pollination is common in :

A. Orchids

B. Legumes

C. Lilies

D. Grasses

Q. 132 In which one of the following pollination is autogamous ?

A. Cleistogamy

B. Geitonogamy

C. Xenogamy

D. Chasmogamy

Q. 133 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called :

A. Standing state

B. Standing crop

C. Detritus

D. Humus

Q. 134 Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?

A. It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984

B. Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place

C. Thousands of human beings died

D. Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal

Q. 135 Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :

A. Biological process

B. Physical process

C. Mechanical process

D. Chemical process

Q. 136 Eutrophication is often seen in :

A. Mountains

B. Deserts

C. Fresh water lakes

D. Ocean

Q. 137 Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in :

A. Alpine forests

B. Temperate forests

C. Mangroves

D. Tropical rainforests

Q. 138 Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct ?

A. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

B. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change

C. UNEP = United Nations Environmental policy

D. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency

Q. 139 Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?

A. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.

B. It begins on a bare rock.

C. It occurs on deforested site

D. It follows primary succession

Q. 140 Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India ?

A. Mango

B. Groundnut

C. rice

D. maize

Q. 141 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?

A. Mycorrhiza

B. Agrobacterium

C. Rhizobium

D. Nostoc

Q. 142 Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of

microorganisms in human body ?

A. skin

B. Epithelium of Urogenital tract

C. tears

D. monocytes

Q. 143 Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants ?

A. Anabaena

B. Glomus

C. Rhizobium

D. Frankia

Q. 144 ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :

A. wheat

B. chilli

C. maize

D. sugarcane

Q. 145 Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ?

A. marsh gas

B. laughing gas

C. propane

D. mustard gas

Q. 146 Agarose extracted from seaweeds finds use in

A. Gel electrophoresis

B. Spectrophotometry

C. Tissue Culture

D. PCR

Q. 147 Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :

A. pig

B. fish

C. mice

D. cow

Q. 148 Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to :

A. degrade sewage

B. produce methane

C. obtain antibiotics

D. purify enzymes

Q. 149 The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to :

A. insects

B. nematodes

C. fungi

D. viruses

Q. 150 “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of :

A. bajra

B. maize

C. rice

D. wheat

Q. 151 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells ?

A. Amoeba proteus

B. Paramecium caudatum

C. Escherichia coli

D. Euglena viridis

Q. 152 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ?

A. Housefly – Musca, an order

B. Tiger –tigris, the species

C. Cuttlefish- Mollusca, a class

D. Humans – Primata, the family

Q. 153 In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 154 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception ?

A. Mammalia : give birth to young ones.

B. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle

C. Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw

D. Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton

Q. 155 What will you look for to identify the sex of the following ?

A. Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins

B. Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior end

C. Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hindlimb

D. Female cockroach – Anal cerci

Q. 156 The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration).What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 157 The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :

A. Fallopian tubes and urethra

B. Eustachian tube and stomach lining

C. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

D. Bile duct and oesophagus

Q. 158 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

A. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

B. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase

C. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase

D. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase

Q. 159 Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function ?

A. A : Lecithin-a component of cell membrane

B. B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

C. A : Triglyceride-major source of energy

D. B : Uracil-a component of DNA

Q. 160 What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?

A. Increasing brain capacity

B. Upright posture

C. Shortening of jaws

D. Binocular vision

Q. 161 Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given examples ?

A. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

B. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds

C. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper

D. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex

Q. 162 A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type AB

D. Type O

Q. 163 What are those structures that appear as ‘beadson-string’ in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope ?

A. Base pairs

B. Genes

C. Nucleotides

D. Nucleosomes

Q. 164 Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 165 Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach ?

A. The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard

B. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon

C. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood

D. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea

Q. 166 A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptakes by the body tissues. This O2 :

A. helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues

B. acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

C. raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg

D. is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%

Q. 167 Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans

A. Trypsin

B. Pepsin

C. Rennin

D. Lipase

Q. 168 Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid ?

A. Loops of Henle

B. Peritubular capillaries

C. Convoluted tubules

D. Collecting ducts

Q. 169 One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that :

A. It has a long dorsal tubular heart

B. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body

C. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine

D. The S-shaped state embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies

Q. 170 Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of:

A. tongue

B. Epiglottis

C. Diaphragm

D. neck

Q. 171 Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :

A. carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ

B. supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

C. carry blood away from the heart to different organs

D. break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein

Q. 172 ‘Bundle of Hiss’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans ?

A. pancreas

B. brain

C. heart

D. kidney

Q. 173 The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of :

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B1

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

Q. 174 Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood ?

A. Fibrinogen

B. an albumin

C. serum amylase

D. a globulin

Q. 175 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is :

A. Comparatively more permeable of K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

B. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions

C. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

D. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

Q. 176 Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron ?

A. Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein

B. Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

C. Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate

D. Distal convoluted tubule : re-absorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries

Q. 177 Given below is an incomplete table certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 178 Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in :

A. Insects and Amphibians

B. Reptiles and Birds

C. Birds and Annelids

D. Amphibians and Reptiles

Q. 179 The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function,

A. B : red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly

B. C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues

C. A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases

D. D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here

Q. 180 Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure :

A. 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney

B. 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment

C. 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure

D. 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active

Q. 181 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation ?

A. During summer when body loses of lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed

B. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed

C. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release

D. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.

Q. 182 The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified ?

A. (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

B. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriage

C. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix

D. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix

Q. 183 The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for :

A. providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex

B. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

C. escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs

D. providing more space for the growth of epididymis

Q. 184 Which one of the following is the most wide accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ?

A. IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices)

B. Cervical caps

C. Tubectomy

D. Diaphragms

Q. 185 If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from :

A. Vagina to uterus

B. Testes to epididymis

C. Epididymis to vas deferens

D. Ovary to uterus

Q. 186 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?

A. Six weeks

B. Eight weeks

C. Twelve weeks

D. Eighteen weeks

Q. 187 Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?

A. The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest

B. The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

C. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother

D. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair

Q. 188 What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

A. Expanding population

B. Vanishing population

C. Stable population

D. Declining population

Q. 189 Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct ?

A. It is upright in shape

B. Its base is broad

C. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms

D. It is inverted in shape

Q. 190 Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular special of :

A. Aspergillus

B. Sanccharomyces

C. Clostridium

D. Trichoderma

Q. 191 Consider the following four conditions (a – d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions :

(a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature

(b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature

(d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis

A. (a), (b)

B. (c), (d)

C. (a), (c)

D. (b), (d)

Q. 192 Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of “Green house effect”?

A. CO2 and N2O

B. CO2 and O3

C. CO2 and CO

D. CFCs and SO2

Q. 193 Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ?

A. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito

B. Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito

C. red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria

D. spleen of infected humans

Q. 194 When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called

A. Metamorphosis

B. Heterosis

C. Transformation

D. Sphcing

Q. 195 A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection ?

A. WIDAL

B. ELISA

C. MRI

D. Ultrasound

Q. 196 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shown symptoms of AIDS ?

A. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

B. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells

C. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

D. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes damages larger number of these

Q. 197 Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ?

5′ ………….. GAATTC ……………. 3′

3′ ………….. CTTAAG …………….. 5′

A. Palindromic sequence of base pairs

B. Replication completed

C. Deletion mutation

D. Start codon at the 5′ end

Q. 198 The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is :

A. Molasses

B. Corn meal

C. Soyabean

D. Ground gram

Q. 199 An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is :

A. Nostoc

B. Azotobacter

C. Azospirillum

D. Rhizobium

Q. 200 There is a restriction endonuclease called coliEcoRl. What does “co” part in it stand for ?

A. coli

B. colon

C. coelom

D. coenzyme

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	C	D	C	B	A	D	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	B	A	D	D	A	D	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	B	B	C	B	A	C	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	B	D	D	B	A	C	D	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	C	A	D	D	B	D	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	A	C	C	D	D	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	B	A	C	C	D	A	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	B	B	B	C	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	D	C	B	A	B	B	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	C	C	B	B	C	C	D	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	C	B	A	A	C	A	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	A	C	B	C	C	B	C	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	C	C	B	D	C	B	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	B	D	A	C	D	A	A	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	C	B	A	A	A	C	C	B	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	C	D	A	C	C	A	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	D	D	C	A	B	C	C	C	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	B	B	B	C	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	C	D	D	D	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	A	B	B	B	D	A	A	D	A

AIPMT 2010 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2010 Mains

Q. 1 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity ω. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular velocity given by

A. 2Mω/M+2m

B. (M+2m)ω/M

C. Mω/M+2m

D. (M+2m)ω/2m

Q. 2 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius R / 3 is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

A. MR²

B. 4 MR²

C. 4/9 MR²

D. 40/9 MR²

Q. 3 A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

A. MV²/2T²

B. MV²/T²

C. MV²/2T

D. MV²/T

Q. 4 A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first

A. Both together

B. Hollow cylinder

C. Solid cylinder

D. Both together only when angle of inclination of plane is 45º

Q. 5 The dependence of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the distance ‘r’ from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figure below.The correct figure is+

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 6 The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is

A. GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

B. 2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

C. 1/2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

D. GmM(1/R1²-1/R2²)

Q. 7 A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

A. e1 + 2e2

B. e1 + e2

C. e1 – 2e2

D. e2 – e1

Q. 8 The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

A. 15º

B. 30º

C. 45º

D. 60º

Q. 9 (a) Centre of gravity (C, G) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.

(b) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to have infinitely large radius.

(c) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G

(d) The radius of gyration of any body rotation about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (d) and (a)

Q. 10 The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by – E̅ = 10 cos (10^7t + kx) ĵ V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that

(a) The wavelength λ is 188.4 m

(b) The wave number k is 0.33 rad / m

(d) The wave is propagating along + x direction

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b ) and (c)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 11 A particle moves in x – y plane according to rule x = a sin ωt and y = a cos ωt. The particle

follows

A. a circular path

B. a parabolic path

C. a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

D. an elliptical path

Q. 12 The speed of light in media M1 and M2 is 1.5 × 10^8 m/s and 2.0 × 10^8 m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection the value of i is

Equal to or less than sin-135
Equal to or greater than sin-134
less than sin-123
Equal to sin-123

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a 60º prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e. incident face) of the prism is

A. 30º

B. 45º

C. 60º

D. zero

Q. 14 A monatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to 1/8th its

original volume. What is the final pressure of gas –

A. P1

B. 16P1

C. 32P1

D. 64P1

Q. 15 If Cp and Cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M.Where R is the molar gas constant-

A. Cp – Cv = R

B. Cp – Cv = R / M

C. Cp – Cv = MR

D. Cp – Cv = R / M²

Q. 16 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

A. 1

B. between zero and one

C. equal to zero

D. much greater than one

Q. 17 A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is –

A. μ∘i/2R

B. μ∘i/4R

C. μ∘i/√2R

D. μ∘i/2√2R

Q. 18 Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure.The force on the charge Q is –

A. direction along OP

B. direction along PQ

C. directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

D. zero

Q. 19 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 Tesla making an angle of 30º With the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A. 1.5 × 10^–3 N.m

B. 1.5 × 10^–2 N.m

C. 3 × 10^–2 N.m

D. 3 × 10^–3 N.m

Q. 20 A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is

A. C(V1²-V2²)/L

B. C(V1²+V2²)/L

C. (C(V1²-V2²)/L)^1/2

D. (C(V1-V2)²/L)^1/2

Q. 21 Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and –Q face each each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will –

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain same

D. become zero

Q. 22 The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere is –

A. E

B. E/2

C. E/3

D. zero

Q. 23 The thermo e.m.f E in volts of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with temperature difference θ in ºC between the two junctions according to the relation E = 30 θ – θ²/15 The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be

A. 400ºC

B. 225ºC

C. 30ºC

D. 450ºC

Q. 24 A particle having a mass of 10^–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10^–8-C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 10^5 m/s in the presence of electric field E̅ and magnetic field B̅ . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that –

(a) B̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(b) Both B̅ and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(d)B̅ should be along the direction of velocity and E̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible ?

A. (c) and (d)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (a) and (c)

Q. 25 When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectron and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

A. 2N and T

B. 2N and 2T

C. N and T

D. N and 2T

Q. 26 The electrons in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state En=-13.6/n² eV)

A. 12.1 V

B. 17.2 V

C. 7 V

D. 5.1 V

Q. 27 The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

A. 2.2 MeV

B. 28.0 MeV

C. 30.2 MeV

D. 23.6 MeV

Q. 28 The decay constant of a radio isotope is λ. If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1 – t2) –

A. A1-A2

B. (A1 – A2) / λ

C. λ (A1 – A2)

D. A1t1 – A2t2

Q. 29 For transistor action –

(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.

(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(c)The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.

(d)Both the emitter-base junctions as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A. (a), (b)

B. (b), (c)

C. (c), (d)

D. (d), (a)

Q. 30 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B the output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given .The logic gate is –

A. OR gate

B. AND gate

C. NAND gate

D. NOR gate

Q. 31 For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ/mol and 108.8 J/K mol, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is –

A. 393.4 K

B. 373.4 K

C. 293.4 K

D. 273.4 K

Q. 32 A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 ×

10^–34 Js)-

A. 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 1.0 × 10 m

C. 1.0 × 10⁻³² m

D. 6.6 × 10⁻³² m

Q. 33 Three moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

A. 3 Joules

B. 9 Joules

C. zero

D. Infinite

Q. 34 The following two reactions are known

Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); ΔH = – 26.8 kJ

FeO(s) + CO (g) → Fe(s) + CO2(g); ΔH = – 16.5 kJ

The value of ΔH for the following reaction

Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) → 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) is

A. – 43.3 kJ

B. – 10.3 kJ

C. + 6.2 kJ

D. + 10.3 kJ

Q. 35 The reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ⇔ 3C(g) + D(g) is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression

A. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.75)]

B. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.25)]

C. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75)² (0.25)]

D. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00)² (1.00)]

Q. 36 The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m³ vessel at 129 ºC is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J/Kmol)

A. 13409 Pa

B. 41648 Pa

C. 31684 Pa

D. 215216 Pa

Q. 37 Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3 ? Given that ΛºAl3+ and ΛºSO4(2−) are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 38 How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10 ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 39 Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

A. CsF

B. LiF

C. NaF

D. CsI

Q. 40 Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids ?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 41 Some of the properties of the two species, NO3− and H3O+ are described below. Which one

of them is correct?

A. Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom

B. Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom

C. Similar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures

D. Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures.

Q. 42 The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is

A. Na2CO3

B. K2CO3

C. CaSO4.2H2O

D. CaCO3

Q. 43 Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

A. Cl < P < Mg < Ca

B. P < Cl < Ca < Mg

C. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

D. Mg < Ca < Cl < P

Q. 44 Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism ?

A. [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]

B. [Ni (NH3)2Cl2]

C. [Ni (en)3]2+

D. [Ni (NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+

Q. 45 Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 46 Among the following four compounds

(a) Phenol (b) methyl phenol

the acidity order is –

A. c > d > a > b

B. a > d > c > b

C. b > a > c > d

D. d > c > a > b

Q. 47 Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to –

A. primary alcoholic group

B. secondary alcoholic group

C. enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base

D. asymmetric carbons

Q. 48 Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 49 The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is –

A. Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne

B. Pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne

C. Pent – 1 – yn – 3 – ene

D. Pent – 4 – yn – 2 – ene

Q. 50 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

A. allyl iodide

B. propene

C. glycerol triiodide

D. 2-iodopropane

Q. 51 Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following reaction, The product ‘X’ is

A. C6H5CH2OH

B. C6H5CH3

C. C6H5CH2CH2C6H5

D. C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5

Q. 53 In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp³ hybridization ?

A. SF4

B. BF4¯

C. NH4+

D. CH4

Q. 54 The rate of the reaction 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]²[Cl2]

The value of the rate constant can be increased by –

A. increasing the concentration of NO

B. increasing the concentration of the Cl2

C. increasing the temperature

D. doing all of these

Q. 55 Match List – I (Equations) with List – II (Type of processes) and select the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 56 Match List-I (substances) with List-II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the

substances and select the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 57 Match the compounds given in List -I with their characteristic reactions given in List -II.

Select the correct option.

List – I

Compounds

(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2

(b) CH3C≡CH

(d) CH3CH(OH)CH3

List – II

Reactions

(i) alkaline hydrolysis

(ii) with KOH (alcohol) and CHCl3 produces bad smell

(iii) gives white ppt. with ammoniacal AgNO3

(iv) with Lucas reagent cloudiness appears after 5 minutes

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 58 Some statements about water are given below:

(a) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors

(b) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water

Which of the above statements are correct ?

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a)and (c)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 59 Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell :

(a) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)

(b) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)

(d) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)

Which of the above relations are correct ?

A. (a) and (b)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (c) and (a)

Q. 60 Following compounds a,b,c,d are given.Which of the above compounds(s), on being

warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform ?

A. Only (b)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (a), (c) and (d)

Q. 61 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four

parts A, B, C and D are correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 62 Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and

D are correct ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 63 In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the

A. Nucleus

B. Dictyosomes

C. ER

D. Ribosomes

Q. 64 The figure given below shows the conversions of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 65 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm

which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called

A. Endoplasmic Reticulum

B. Plasmalemma

C. Cytoskeleton

D. Thylakoid

Q. 66 In antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization ? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and White by rr genes

A. RR

B. Rr

C. rr

D. rrrr

Q. 67 The lac Operon consists of

A. One regulatory gene and three structural genes

B. Two regulatory genes and two structural genes

C. Three regulatory genes and three structure genes

D. Four regulatory genes only

Q. 68 A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype in crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

A. Back cross

B. Test cross

C. Dihybrid cross

D. Monohybrid cross

Q. 69 Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through –

A. Transfusion tissue

B. Tracheids

C. Sieve elements

D. Companion cells

Q. 70 Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

A. Wheat

B. sugarcane

C. mustard

D. potato

Q. 71 Consider the following four statement A, B, C & D and select the right option for two correct statement.The correct statements are

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. A and C

Q. 72 Vegetative propagation in pistia occurs by

A. offset

B. Runner

C. Sucker

D. Stolon

Q. 73 Which one of the following is monoecious ?

A. Cycas

B. Pinus

C. Date palm

D. Marchantia

Q. 74 The correct floral formula of soybean is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 75 Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 76 Study the pathway given below.In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 77 Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four

parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified

	A	B	C	D
1	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture	Subsidiary Cell	Epidermal cell
2	Epidermal cell	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture	Subsidiary Cell
3	Epidermal cell	Subsidiary Cell	Stomatal aperture	Guard cell
4	Subsidiary Cell	Epidermal cell	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 78 Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both

correct statements – STATEMENTS

(A) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only

(B) Only PSI functional in cyclic photophosphorylation

(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. B and D

Q. 79 One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantations is

A. Abscisic acid

B. Zeatin

C. Indole-3- acetic acid

D. Ethylene

Q. 80 Root development is promoted by

A. Auxin

B. Gibberellin

C. Ethylene

D. Abscisic acid

Q. 81 Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the

four structures A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 82 Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest

Ecosystem

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 83 Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the

four blanks A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 84 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into a flat

green and succulent structure

A. Casuarina

B. Hydrilla

C. Acacia

D. Opuntia

Q. 85 An example of endomycorrhiza is

A. Glomus

B. Agaricus

C. Rhizobium

D. Nostoc

Q. 86 Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation

A. Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation

B. The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3

C. Nitrogen is insensitive to oxygen

D. Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour

Q. 87 Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by

A. Ustilago nuda

B. Puccinia graminis

C. Xanthomonas oryzae

D. Alternaria solani

Q. 88 Which of the following are used in gene cloning

A. Lomasomes

B. Mesosomes

C. Plasmids

D. Nucleoids

Q. 89 Which one of the following can not be used for preparation of vaccines against plague

A. A virulent live bacteria

B. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

C. Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria

D. Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria

Q. 90 Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological

procedures

A. Morphine

B. Quinine

C. Insulin

D. Nicotine

Q. 91 Crocodile and Penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following

features ?

A. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch

B. Possess bony skeleton

C. Have gill slits at some stage

D. Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system

Q. 92 Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of

certain organisms –

(a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen

The correct statements are

A. (a), (b) (c)

B. (b), (c), (d)

C. (a), (b) (d)

D. (b), (c)

Q. 93 Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given along with

Components :

(i) Cristae of mitochondria

(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria

(iii) Cytoplasm

(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(vi) Mitochondrial matrix

(vii) Cell vacuole

(viii) Nucleus

The correct components are :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 94 Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong

A. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures 80º – 90ºC

B. Enzymes are highly specific

C. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids

D. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity

Q. 95 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion

which can be drawn for the character

A. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character

B. The trait under study could not be colourblindness

C. The male parent is homozygous dominant

D. The female parent is heterozygous

Q. 96 The most apparent changes during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

A. Walking upright

B. Shortening of the jaws

C. Remarkable increase in the brain size

D. Loss of body hair

Q. 97 Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which

correctly fills up the blanks in two statements

A. (A) – (i) convergent, (B) – (ii) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides

B. (B) – (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, (C) – (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical

C. (C) – (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, (D) – (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication

D. (D) – (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (A) – (i) convergent

Q. 98 Fastest distribution of some injectable material / medicine and with no risk of any kind can

be achieved by injecting it into the

A. arteries

B. veins

C. lymph vessels

D. muscles

Q. 99 Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function

A	B	C
1	Cerebellum	Mid brain	Controls respirationand gastric secretions
2	Hypothalamus	Fore brain	Controls bodytemperature, urge foreating and drinking
3	Blind spot	Near the placewhere opticnerve leaves theeye	Rods and cones arepresent but inactivehere
4	Eustachian tube	Anterior part ofinternal ear	Equalizes airpressure on eithersides of tympanicmembrane

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 100 ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show codominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

Q. 101 Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human

Skeleton

A. First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles

B. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs

C. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates

D. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint

Q. 102 In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated ?

A. Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia

B. Cockroach – Malpighian tubules and entire caeca

C. Frog – Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

D. Humans – Kidney, sebaceous glands and fear glands

Q. 103 Select the correct matching of a hormone its source and functional

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 104 Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system

(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins

(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced

(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting

Which two of the above statements are correct ?

A. a and b

B. b and c

C. c and d

D. a and d

Q. 105 Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true

A. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell

B. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides

C. DNA consists of a core of eight histones

D. Centromere is found in animals cells, which produces aster during cell division

Q. 106 Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 107 If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional,

what is likely to happen

A. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly

B. Steapsin will be more effective

C. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

D. The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently

Q. 108 In human female the blastocyst

A. gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation

B. gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

C. gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells

D. forms placenta even before implantation

Q. 109 Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Salivary glands

D. Male accessory glands

Q. 110 When domestic sewage mixes with river water

A. The increased microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron

B. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

C. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

D. Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water

Q. 111 Which one of the following is most appropriately defined

A. Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected

B. Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food

C. Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it

D. Host is an organism which provides food to another organism

Q. 112 Jaundice is a disorder of

A. Skin and eyes

B. Digestive system

C. Circulatory system

D. Excretory system

Q. 113 A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

A. the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

B. the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the

stage to enter fresh RBCs

C. the microgametophytes and megagametophytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

D. the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen

Q. 114 Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers

A. Radiography (X-ray)

B. Computed tomography (CT)

C. Histopathological studies

D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Q. 115 The 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join

A. One nucleoside with another nucleoside

B. One nucleotide with another nucleotide

C. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar

D. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand

Q. 116 In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest,is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector / vectors

(A) a bacterium (B) plasmid

A. (A) only

B. (A) and (C) only

C. (B) and (D) only

D. (A), (B) and (D) only

Q. 117 The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because

A. a single mating produces two young flies

B. smaller female is easily recognizable from large male

C. it completes life cycle in about two weeks

D. it reproduces parthenogenetically

Q. 118 Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which

requires the release of

A. Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

B. Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

C. Relaxin from placenta

D. Estrogen from placenta

Q. 119 The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Assam

D. Uttarakhand

Q. 120 The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is

A. 25-30 g

B. 17-20g

C. 12-16 g

D. 5-11 kg

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	C	C	D	C	A	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	A	C	B	C	D	D	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	B	A	C	D	B	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	B	A	D	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	D	A	B	B	D	C	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	A	C	B	C	B	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	A	A	C	B	A	B	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	B	C	D	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	D	C	D	C	D	B	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	D	A	A	C	C	D	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	C	C	A	C	C