CDSE 1 2018 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

A. Potassium

B. Caesium

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 2 Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

A. Potassium

B. Lithium

C. Rubidium

D. Caesium

 

Q. 3 Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

 

Q. 4 Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Magnesium

D. Potassium

 

Q. 5 Consider the following chemical reaction :

aFe₂O₃ (s) + bCO(g) —> cFe (s) + dC0₂

In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?

A. 3, 2, 3, 1

B. 1, 3, 2, 3

C. 2, 3, 3, 1

D. 3, 3, 2, 1

 

Q. 6 Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

A. To increase the life of the bulb

B. To reduce the consumption of electricity

C. To make the emitted light colored

D. To reduce the cost of the bulb

 

Q. 7 Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (t꜀)?

A. These are two independent temperature scales

B. T = t꜀

C. T = t꜀ -273.15

D. T = t꜀ + 273-.15

 

Q. 8 Sound waves cannot travel through a

A. copper wire placed in air

B. silver slab placed in air

C. glass prism placed in water

D. wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum

 

Q. 9 Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

A. 10⁻⁷ cm

B. 10⁻⁶ cm

C. 10⁻⁴ cm

D. 10⁻³ cm

 

Q. 10 Consider the following statements :

1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium.

2. The momentum of a body is always conserved.

3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 11 Working of safety fuses depends upon

1. magnetic effect of the current

2 . chemical effect of the current

3. magnitude of the current

4. heating effect of the current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 4 only

 

Q. 12 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Statement II : Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 13 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.

Statement II : Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 14 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Statement II : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 15 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.

Statement II : Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 16 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.

Statement II : The Earth rotates from west to east.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 17 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.

Statement II : Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 18 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism.

Statement II : Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 19 Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

A. Silverfish

B. Jellyfish

C. Cuttlefish

D. Flying fish

 

Q. 20 In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored? 

A. Adipocyte

B. Chondrocyte

C. Osteocyte

D. Reticulocyte

 

Q. 21 Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

A. Euglena : Flagellum

B. Paramecium : Cilia

C. Nereis : Pseudopodia

D. Starfish : Tubefeet

 

Q. 22 Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

A. Nucleus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi bodies

D. Ribosomes

 

Q. 23 A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 24 Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

A. Deflection and advection

B. Latent heat of condensation

C. Expansion and compression of the air

D. Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

 

Q. 25 Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence. process of precipitation? 

A. Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level

B. Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level

C. All types of clouds

D. Cirrocumulus cloud

 

Q. 26 Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

A. Jaisalmer

B. Leh

C. Chennai

D. Guwahati

 

Q. 27 Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Hypothesis/ Theory) (Propounder)

A. Planetesimal hypothesis 1. Kober

B. Thermal contraction theory 2. Chamberlin

C. Geosynclinal Orogen theory 3. Daly

D. Hypothesis of sliding continent 4. Jeffreys

A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 28 Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

A. Argon

B. Xenon

C. Neon

D. Helium

 

Q. 29 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

A. Composition is variable.

B. All particles of compound are of only one type.

C. Particles of compound have two or more elements.

D. Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.

 

Q. 30 Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?

1. Mg(HC0₃)₂

2. Ca(HC0₃)₂

3. CaCl₂

4. MgS0₄

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 and 2

 

Q. 31 Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

A. Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons

B. Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons

C. Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons

D. Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons

 

Q. 32 Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained’?

A. Principle of thermal equilibrium

B. Principle of colors

C. Principle of calorimetry

D. Principle of vaporization

 

Q. 33 Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

A. 2R

B. R/2

C. 5/4R

D. 3/4R

 

Q. 34 When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

A. reflection of light

B. refraction of light

C. dispersion of light

D. scattering of light

 

Q. 35 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Cloud) (Characteristic)

A. Cirrus 1. Rain-giving

B. Stratus 2. Featheiy appearance

C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing

D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading

 

A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 36 Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

A. Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits

B. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing

C. Conservation and management of marine resources

D. Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables

 

Q. 37 In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

A. Gujarat, Kerala and Goa

B. Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

C. Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal

D. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 38 Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?

1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for inservice engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.

2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 39 A wire of copper having length I and area of cross-section A is taken and a current / is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

A. P

B. < P

C. > P

D. 2P

 

Q. 40 The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = Pₒ+pgh, where p is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

A. Pascal’s law

B. Newton’s law

C. Bernoulli’s principle

D. Archimedes’ principle

 

Q. 41 Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere :

1. Argon

2. Neon

3. Helium

4. Carbon dioxide

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?

 

A. 1-3-2-4

B. 1-4-2-3

C. 4-2-3-1

D. 2-4-1-3

 

Q. 42 Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population?

A. Mizoram

B. Nagaland

C. Meghalaya

D. Arunachal Pradesh

 

Q. 43 Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains?

A. Alaska

B. Rocky

C. Andes

D. Himalayas

 

Q. 44 Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposit’s of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?

A. Saffron

B. Almond

C. Walnut

D. Ling nut

 

Q. 45 Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :

1. Gandak

2. Kosi

3. Ghaghara

4. Gomti

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?

 

A. 3-4-1-2

B. 2-1-3-4

C. 2-3-1-4

D. 1-2-4-3

 

Q. 46 Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? 

1. Keoladeo National Park

2. Sundarbans National Park

3. Kaziranga National Park

4. Ranthambore National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 47 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I List-II

(Railway Zone) (Headquarters)

A. North Central 1. Secunderabad

B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur

C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur

D. South Central 4. Allahabad

 

A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

B. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

 

Q. 48 Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?

A. Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.

B. Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.

C. Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart.

D. Lymph only transports hormones

 

Q. 49 Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?

A. Pisces and Amphibia

B. Amphibia and Reptilia

C. Reptilia only

D. Amphibia only

 

Q. 50 Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?

A. Lactic acid

B. Ethanol

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Glucose

 

Q. 51 Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?

A. It is a marketable security.

B. It experiences price changes throughout the day.

C. It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.

D. An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.

 

Q. 52 Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?

A. 55 years

B. 60 years

C. 65 years

D. 70 years

 

Q. 53 The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by

A. Sekar Kamam

B. Vishakha Mulye

C. Sriram Kalyanaraman

D. Y. M. Deosthalee

 

Q. 54 In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through

A. Iran

B. Pakistan

C. Tajikistan

D. China

 

Q. 55 Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?

1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.

2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 56 Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?

1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights

2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim

3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates

4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 57 A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder

2 . is an undischarged insolvent

3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India

4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 58 According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?

A. At least two States

B. At least three States

C. At least four States

D. At least five States

 

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? 

A. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

B. It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.

C. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

D. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.

 

Q. 60 Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?

1. Bijak in Varanasi

2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan

3. Adi Granth Sahib

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 61 Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify

1. continuous link between the master and disciple

2 . unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad

3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 62 In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

A. Surya Sukta

B. Purusha Sukta

C. Dana Stutis

D. Urna Sutra

 

Q. 63 Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct? 

1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.

2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.

3 . It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.

4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 2 only

 

Q. 64 Which one of the following was a focus country of the World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

A. Germany

B. Japan

C. Denmark

D. Italy

 

Q. 65 Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Goa

D. Madhya Pradesh

 

Q. 66 The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

A. sports

B. philately

C. music

D. web designing

 

Q. 67 Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?

A. Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati

B. Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam

C. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

D. Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath

 

Q. 68 Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

A. Japan

B. China

C. South Korea

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?

A. India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.

B. 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport.

C. India has a coastline of about 7500 km.

D. In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020 .

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. India joined MTCR in 2016

B. India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.

C. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.

D. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.

 

Q. 71 Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

A. 91st Amendment

B. 87th Amendment

C. 97th Amendment

D. 90th Amendment

 

Q. 72 Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?

1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority

2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border

3. Coastal security in territorial waters

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 73 Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

A. Astra

B. Akash

C. Nirbhay

D. Shankhnaad

 

Q. 74 The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

A. Dr. L. D. Papney

B. Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar

C. Shri Subir Chakraborty

D. Shri P. D. Siwal

 

Q. 75 In November 2017, an Indian short film. The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the director of the film.

A. Anurag Kashyap

B. Dheeraj Jindal

C. Sujoy Ghosh

D. Samvida Nanda

 

Q. 76 In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

A. 48 kg

B. 51 kg

C. 54 kg

D. 57 kg

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?

A. Soils and pulses, a symbol for life

B. Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground

C. Soils, a solid ground for life

D. Soils, foundation for family farming

 

Q. 78 Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?

A. Kidambi Srikanth

B. H. S. Prannoy

C. Ajay Jayaram

D. Sai Praneeth

 

Q. 79 Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?

1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.

2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita

B. According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.

C. The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.

D. Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.

 

Q. 81 Consider the following statement :

“So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”

Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

A. Francisco Pelsaert

B. Francois Bernier

C. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

D. Niccolao Manucci

 

Q. 82 What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?

A. Ginan

B. Ziyarat

C. Raag

D. Shahada

 

Q. 83 Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham? 

A. Alvars

B. Nayanars

C. Appar

D. Sambandar

 

Q. 84 Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

A. Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General

B. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

C. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

D. Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant ‘ Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral

 

Q. 85 Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?

1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.

2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.

3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.

4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 86 Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

A. 35th

B. 36th

C. 37th

D. 38th

 

Q. 87 Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

A. Tibet

B. Hong Kong

C. Xinjiang

D. Inner Mongolia

 

Q. 88 Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

A. States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.

B. The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

C. States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.

D. The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

 

Q. 89 Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031 :

1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.

2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

3. The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 90 Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?

A. Natural gas

B. Refinery products

C. Fertilizer

D. Coal

 

Q. 91 eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Govemance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

A. Tata Consultancy Services

B. Infosys Technologies Limited

C. Wipro

D. HCL Technologies

 

Q. 92 Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?

1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 93 Consider the following statement :

“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”

The above statement is attributed to

A. Sardar Patel

B. Winston Churchill

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Baden-Powell

 

Q. 94 Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Swami Vivekananda

 

Q. 95 Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire. 

A. Mahanavami Dibba

B. Lotus Mahal

C. Hazara Rama

D. Virupaksha

 

Q. 96 The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

A. Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

B. Nizamuddin Auliya

C. Ibn al-Arabi

D. Bayazid Bistami

 

Q. 97 Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

A. Vinaya Pitaka

B. Sutta Pitaka

C. Abhidhamma Pitaka

D. Mahavamsa

 

Q. 98 Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?

A. Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.

B. They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.

C. They were located in rural areas.

D. They were located close to trade routes.

 

Q. 99 Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

A. West Bengal

B. Bihar

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 100 Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?

1. It is a discretionary power.

2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 101 Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

A. Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985

B. Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT— 1994

C. Inauguration of the World Trade Organization— 1995

D. Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)— 1971

 

Q. 102 Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :

1. ITBP was raised in 1962.

2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.

3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.

4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 103 Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

B. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

C. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

D. Declaration on the Right to Development

 

Q. 104 In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

A. Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail

B. Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail

C. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail

D. Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

 

Q. 105 Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

A. To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level

B. To expand cultivable area under irrigation

C. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water

D. To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities

 

Q. 106 Which one of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?

A. It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

B. It is a scheme for crop protection.

C. It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.

D. It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

 

Q. 107 Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

A. It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls

B. It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.

C. The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.

D. It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

 

Q. 108 Where is Hambantota Port located?

A. Iran

B. Sri Lanka

C. Japan

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 109 The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

A. Eight

B. Ten

C. Twelve

D. Fourteen

 

Q. 110 Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

A. The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.

B. This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.

C. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.

D. The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

 

Q. 111 ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and 

A. Bhutan

B. Bangladesh

C. Pakistan

D. Myanmar

 

Q. 112 The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

A. sexual harassment in the work -place

B. Sati

C. dowry death

D. rape

 

Q. 113 The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

A. Brasilia

B. Sanya

C. Yekaterinburg

D. Durban

 

Q. 114 Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?

A. Piyadassi

B. Colin Mackenzie

C. Alexander Cunningham

D. James Prinsep

 

Q. 115 Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?

1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.

2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.

3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 116 Who is the author of Manimekalai?

A. Kovalan

B. Sathanar

C. Ilango Adigal

D. Tirutakkatevar

 

Q. 117 Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

A. It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

B. It contains one large cave.

C. It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.

D. It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

 

Q. 118 Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?

1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.

2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.

3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.

4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 119 Consider the following statements about impact of tax :

1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.

2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than

demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 120 According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

A. improve

B. diminish

C. remain constant

D. first diminish and then improve

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	A	C	D	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	D	A	A	B	A	B	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	C	A	B	A	B	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	C	D	C	D	C	A	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	D	D	B	B	A	C	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	D	A	A	D	B	B	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	A	D	C	B	B	B	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	A	B	B	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	A	C	C	B	B	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	A	A	A	D	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	A	B	A	A	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	D	A	A	B	D	C	B

CDSE 1 2018 English

Q. 1 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

A truly respectable old man is a “ripe” person.

A. senior

B. mature

C. perfect

D. seasoned

 

Q. 2 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The soldiers “repulsed” the enemy.

A. defeated

B. destroyed

C. rejected

D. repelled

 

Q. 3 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

She deftly “masked” her feelings.

A. hid

B. flaunted

C. oblique

D. obscured

 

Q. 4 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

“Vendors” must have licence.

A. One who drives a car

B. One who works in a hospital

C. One who is employed in food serving

D. One engaged in selling

 

Q. 5 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

They will not “admit” children under fourteen.

A. avow

B. receive

C. accept

D. concede

 

Q. 6 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The jewels have been stolen from her bedroom.

A. embezzled

B. asserted

C. yielded

D. abdicated

 

Q. 7 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The soldier showed an “exemplary” courage.

A. flawed

B. faulty

C. ideal

D. boisterous

 

Q. 8 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

They “served” fruits after the dinner.

A. assisted

B. obliged

C. waited

D. offered

 

Q. 9 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

The committee should “recommend” his name to the government.

A. praise

B. advise

C. counsel

D. suggest

 

Q. 10 Question consists of a sentence in quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the highlighted word/words and mark your response accordingly.

Can medicines save us from death ?

A. hide

B. rescue

C. protect

D. liberate

 

Q. 11 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “the British manufacturers”/ (Q) “popularity of Indian textiles”/ (R) “were jealous of the” /(S) “from the very beginning” . The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P Q R

C. S P R Q

D. Q R S P

 

Q. 12 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “dress fashions changed and light cotton” /(Q) “of the English” /(R) “textiles began to replace” / (S) “the coarse woollens” The correct sequence should be

A. P R S Q

B. R S P Q

C. Q P R S

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 13 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “put pressure on their government” /(Q) “Indian goods in England” /(R) “the British manufacturers” /(S) “to restrict and prohibit” The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P R Q

C. R P S Q

D. Q R S P

 

Q. 14 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “however”/ (Q) “still held their own in foreign markets” / (R) “in spite of these laws” / (S) “Indian silk and cotton textiles” The correct sequence should be

A. Q P R S

B. S P R Q

C. S R P Q

D. R P S Q

 

Q. 15 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “and it led to rapid economic development” / (Q) “the Industrial Revolution” / (R)

“transformed the British” /(S) “society in a fundamental manner” The correct sequence should be

A. S P R Q

B. Q P R S

C. Q R S P

D. S R P Q

 

Q. 16 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “Muhammad Iqbal” / (Q) “the philosophical and religious outlook of people through his poetry” / (R) “profoundly influenced” / (S) “one of the greatest poets of modem India” The correct sequence should be

A. Q R S P

B. S R Q P

C. S R P Q

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 17 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “to accept any of the important” / (Q) “disillusionment” /(R) “demands of the nationalists produced” /(S) “the failure of the British government” The correct sequence should be 

A. S P R Q

B. P Q R S

C. S R Q P

D. Q R P S

 

Q. 18 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “showed that a backward” / (Q) “the rise of” / (R) “modern Japan after 1868” /(S) “Asian country could develop itself without Western control” The correct sequence should be 

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. P R Q S

D. Q R P S

 

Q. 19 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

(P) “and the current Hindu emphasis” /(Q) “and urged the people to imbibe the spirit of free-thinking” / (R) “on rituals, ceremonies and superstitions” (S) “Vivekananda condemned the caste system” The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S P R Q

C. S P Q R

D. R P S Q

 

Q. 20 Question consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Mr. John (P) “who was hardly six months old” / (Q) “Charles” / (R) “as his son” / (S) “adopted” The correct sequence should be

A. S Q R P

B. P S Q R

C. R S P Q

D. P R S Q

 

Q. 21 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

In the face of the overwhelming mass of evidence against him, we cannot _________ him of the crime.

A. punish

B. absolve

C. release

D. ignore

 

Q. 22 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

I hope that the rain will _______ for our picnic tomorrow.

A. keep off

B. put off

C. set back

D. stay out

 

Q. 23 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

After the marathon, some of the competitors felt completely________ .

A. cut up

B. done in

C. done out

D. run out

 

Q. 24 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Scarcely __________ the teacher entered the class when he heard the noise.

A. did

B. has

C. had

D. will have

 

Q. 25 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

I do not think he will ever ______ the shock of his wife’s death.

A. get by

B. get off

C. get through

D. get over

 

Q. 26 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

It is no use in crying over _______ .

A. spoiled milk

B. spirited milk

C. split milk

D. spilt milk

 

Q. 27 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

You must go to the station now, your brother_______ go just yet as his train leaves after three hours.

A. shouldn’t

B. mustn’t

C. wouldn’t

D. needn’t

 

Q. 28 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

Every rash driver becomes a _______ killer.

A. sure

B. reckless

C. potential

D. powerful

 

Q. 29 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

The country owes a deep debt of _______ for the freedom fighters.

A. patriotism

B. sincerity

C. remembrance

D. gratitude

 

Q. 30 The following sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

The whole lot of young men was very enthusiastic but your friend alone was _________ .

A. quarrelsome

B. complaining

C. a wet blanket

D. sleepy

 

Q. 31 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such a “naive” belief

A. credulous

B. childlike

C. wise

D. innocent

 

Q. 32 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It’s the only treatment “suitable” for cancer.

A. insufficient

B. impertinent

C. befitting

D. congenial

 

Q. 33 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Some of the “criticisms” which they had to put up were very unfair

A. scold

B. scorn

C. appreciation

D. censure

 

Q. 34 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

I would beg of all friends not to rush to Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be “anxious” about me.

A. certain

B. composed

C. careless

D. heedless

 

Q. 35 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

It could not have been expected that, with such a bent of mind of the people, there should have been much “activity” for the cultivation of the physical sciences in this part of the world.

A. dull

B. dormant

C. indolence

D. idle

 

Q. 36 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Indian culture has been, from time immemorial, of a “peculiar” cast and mould.

A. common

B. customary

C. natural

D. familiar

 

Q. 37 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

The princess “charming” was the centre of attraction today.

A. enchanting

B. hypnotic

C. repulsive

D. fascinating

 

Q. 38 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Macbeth is a/an “abominable” figure.

A. abhorrent

B. repugnant

C. reputable

D. attractive

 

Q. 39 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Terrorists profess “fanatical” ideology.

A. bigoted

B. militant

C. moderate

D. fervid

 

Q. 40 Question consists of a sentence with a quoted word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word/words and mark your response accordingly

Rakesh is “vulnerable” to political pressure.

A. weak

B. unguarded

C. exposed

D. resilient

 

Q. 41 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : First and foremost, there are order and safety in our civilization.

S6 : Nobody may come and break into my house and steal my goods.

P : Thus in disputes between man and man, right has taken the place of might.

Q : If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker.

R : I go to law, and the law will decide fairly between the two of us.

S : Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R Q P S

B. S R Q P

C. Q R P S

D. P R S Q

 

Q. 42 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : In democratic countries, men are equal before the law.

S6: And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.

 

P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not enough to eat, drink and wear.

Q : There are many families of five or six persons who live in a single room.

R : But the sharing-out of money – which means the sharing-out of food and clothing and houses – is still very unfair.

S : In this room they sleep and dress and wash and eat, and in this same room they die.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R P Q S

B. P R S Q

C. Q S P R

D. S P R Q

 

Q. 43 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Tomorrow it will be a year since we lost our great leader.

S6: Though he is no more with us, the qualities he possessed and the ideals he cherished remain with us.

P : To these he added a feminine sensitiveness to atmosphere.

Q : He was involved in the major events of his time.

R : He participated in them all while maintaining the highest standards of public conduct.

S : He was incomparably the greatest figure in our history – a man of dynamic force, intellectual power and profound vision.

 

The correct sequence should be

A. P S R Q

B. R Q P S

C. R P Q S

D. S P Q R

 

Q. 44 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : It would be possible to adduce many examples showing what could be done with the limited means’ at our ancestor’s disposal in the way of making life comfortable.

S6 : I hope, in this essay, to make that connection manifest.

P : What have comfort and cleanliness to do with politics, morals, and religion ?

Q : But look more closely and you will discover that there exists the closest connection between the recent growth of comfort and the recent history of ideas.

R : They show that if they lived in filth and discomfort, it was because filth and discomfort fitted in with their principles, political, moral and religious.

S : At a first glance one would say that there could be no causal connection between arm chairs and democracies, sofas and the family system, hot baths and religious orthodoxy. The correct sequence should be

 

A. P R Q S

B. R P S Q

C. Q S R P

D. Q S P R

 

Q. 45 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1: To most people, the term technology conjures up images of mills or machines.

S6 : It includes ways to make chemical reactions occur, ways to breed fish, plant forests or teach history.

P : The classic symbol of technology is still the assembly line created by Henry Ford half a century ago.

Q : The invention of the horse collar in the Middle Ages led to changes in agricultural methods and was as such a technological advance.

R : Moreover, technology includes techniques, as well as the machines that may or may not be necessary to apply them.

S : This symbol, however, has always been inadequate, for technology has always been more than factories and machines.

The correct sequence should be

A. S P R Q

B. P S Q R

C. R S P Q

D. Q S R P

 

Q. 46 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : I was the secretary of the Philosophical Society of the Patna College.

S6 : I have been to Kolkata many times since, but never has it been more pleasant than that first visit.

P : It was my first visit to the city and its impression on my mind was indelible.

Q : In that capacity, I once led a trip to Kolkata.

R : I felt I had landed in the midst of beautiful dream world of a fairy land.

S : I saw the roads, the trams, the skyscrapers and the magnificent shops at the

Chowranghee lane.

The correct sequence should be

A. Q P S R

B. P S Q R

C. S R P Q

D. S Q R P

 

Q. 47 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Union finance ministry announced a series of concessions to trade and industry last month.

S6 : Manufacturers “feel that prices of certain components may not be brought down

because of the imposition of a 30 per cent duty where there was none earlier.

P : Together, these will result in a loss of revenue of Rs. 100 crore to the exchequer.

Q : Earlier, these were attracting customs duty varying fi-om zero to 100 per cent.

R : The chunk of the relief of Rs. 60 crore has gone to the electronics industry.

S : Raw materials and piece parts now carry customs duty of 30 per cent and 40 per cent ad valorem respectively.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R S Q P

B. P R S Q

C. S Q P R

D. Q P R S

 

Q. 48 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : At four O’clock this morning, Hitler attacked and invaded Russia.

S6 : Under its cloak of false confidence, the German armies drew up in immense strength along a line which stretches fi-om the White Sea to the Black Sea.

P : No complaint had been made by Germany of its non-fulfilment.

Q : All his usual formalities of perfidy were observed with scrupulous technique.

R : No one could have expected that Hitler would do it.

S : A non-aggression treaty had been solemnly signed and was in force between the two countries.

The correct sequence should be

 

A. R Q S P

B. R S Q P

C. P S Q R

D. Q P S R

 

Q. 49  Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Roderick Usher has always been a quiet person who talked little of himself

S6 : In the part of the country where he lived, the “House of Usher” had come to mean both the family and its ancestral mansion.

P : Many of his ancestors had been famous for their artistic and musical abilities.

Q : Others were known for their exceptional generosity and charity.

R : Yet I did know that his family was an old one.

S : So I did not know too much about him.

The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. S P R Q

D. S R P Q

 

Q. 50 Each question consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly .

S1 : Mass production has increased the tendency to view things as useful rather than delightful.

 

S6 : Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.

P : These various things share nothing with the buttons except money value.

Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter, and many other things.

R : Suppose you are a manufacturer of buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use.

S : And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by lowering their quality

 

The correct sequence should be

A. P Q R S

B. R Q P S

C. S P Q R

D. Q R P S

 

Questions: 51 – 55

Over-population is the most pressing of India’s numerous and multi-faceted problems. In fact it has caused equally complex problems such as poverty, under-nourishment, unemployment and excessive fragmentation of land. Indisputably, this country has been facing a population explosion of crisis dimensions. It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress that the nation has made during the last four decades or so. The entire battle against poverty is thwarted by the rapid increase in the population. The tragedy is that while over-population accentuates poverty, the country’s stark poverty itself is in many areas a major cause of over population.

 

Q. 51 What is the irony behind the overpopulation of India ?

A. Under nourishment and unemployment are outcomes of flawed economic progress

B. Over-population gives birth to poverty, which (poverty) itself is the cause of overpopulation

C. Fragmentation of land is leading to over-population

D. Fruits of the remarkable economic progress are trickling down to the poor

 

Q. 52 What is the general tone of the passage ?

A. funny / humorous

B. sombre

C. didactic

D. tragic

 

Q. 53 What, in the author’s view, severely affects the economic growth of our country ?

A. poverty

B. illiteracy

C. over-population

D. None of the above

 

Q. 54 What, according to the author, is the biggest reason behind over-population ?

A. under-nourishment

B. unemployment

C. excessive fragmentation of land

D. poverty

 

Q. 55 “It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress”. Find antonym of the underlined word

A. coalesced

B. compounded

C. cheapened

D. consolidated

 

Questions: 56 – 60

To eat and not be eaten – that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may foul the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.

 

Q. 56 Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves ?

A. Leaf roller and aquatic larva

B. Leaf roller and jelly slug

C. Jelly slug and aquatic larva

D. Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner

 

Q. 57 Which one of the following caterpillars produces a sticky covering ?

A. Leaf roller

B. Jelly slug

C. Aquatic larva

D. Citrus leaf miner

 

Q. 58 Which one of the following pairs of words in the passage describes enemies of the caterpillar ?

A. Serpentine and host

B. Predator and marauding

C. Serpentine and marauding

D. Predator and host

 

Q. 59 Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable ?

A. Leaf roller

B. Jelly slug

C. Aquatic larva

D. Leaf miner

 

Q. 60 The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars

A. like to eat a lot

B. have to protect themselves while feeding

C. are good to eat

D. are not good to eat

 

Questions: 61 – 65

I have always opposed the idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the Occident. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the West what it is. I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century would not have been very great. Differences have been intensified by this process of industrialization which has promoted material wellbeing tremendously and which is destroying the life of the mind, which is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by it does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think. If the life of the mind is not encouraged, then inevitably civilization collapses.

 

Q. 61 The words “the Orient and the Occident” mean

A. the West and the East respectively

B. the East and the West respectively

C. the North and the South respectively

D. the South and the North respectively

 

Q. 62 The author believes that the difference between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century was not very great because

A. Indians and Europeans mixed freely

B. Indians imitated the European way of living

C. Europeans imitated the Indian way of living

D. Industrialization had not yet taken place

 

Q. 63 In the opinion of the author, Industrialization is

A. an absolute blessing

B. an absolute curse

C. neither a blessing nor a curse

D. more of a curse than a blessing

 

Q. 64 The author says that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration because the modem generation is

A. endowed with low mental powers

B. too lazy to exert its mental powers

C. taught that physical activities are more important than mental

D. brought up in an environment unfavourable to the growth of the mental life

 

Q. 65 The title that best expresses the central idea of the passage is

A. difference between the Occident and the Orient

B. impact of Industrialization on our civilization

C. advantages of Industrialization

D. disadvantages of Industrialization

 

Questions: 66 – 70

In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into a public vehicle. One day a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pickpocket; and during the journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead a pair of sharp teeth inserted into his fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise drew the attention of other passengers to him. 

 

Q. 66 Once the law in Delhi did not permit the people to

A. carry dogs into private vehicles

B. board a bus without ticket

C. carry dogs into a public vehicle

D. carry animals with them

 

Q. 67 In order to evade the law, the lady

A. hid the dog under the seat

B. got off the bus

C. gave the dog to a fellow passenger

D. put the dog in her pocket

 

Q. 68 The pick-pocket travelling with the lady

A. reported the matter to the conductor

B. put his hand in her pocket

C. took out the dog

D. asked the lady to get off

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following correctly expresses the meaning of “wishing to evade the law” ?

A. Wish to avoid following the law

B. Desire to follow the law blindly

C. Reluctance to break the law

D. Wish to change the law

 

Q. 70 Why did the pick-pocket exclaim with pain ?

A. He was hit by the lady

B. He was caught by the fellow passengers

C. He was bitten by the dog

D. He fell of the bus

 

Q. 71 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The best way in which you can”/ (a) “open the bottle is”/ (b) “by putting it into hot water first”/ (c) “No error.”/ (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 72 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Somebody” (a) “who I enjoy reading”(b) “is Tagore.”(c) “No error.”(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 73 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Electricity companies are”/(a) “working throughout”/(b) “days and nights to repair the damage.”/(c) “No error.”/(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 74 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The student’s”/(a) “test results”/(b) “were.pleasant.”/(c) “No error”/(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 75 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Two thirds of the book” /(a) “were” /(b) “rubbish.” (c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 76 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“You will be” /(a) “answerable for the court with” /(b) “any lies you have told.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 77 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“She felt” /(a) “terribly anxious for have to sing” (b) “in front of such a large audience.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 78 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“I don’t agree” /(a) “with smacking children” /(b) “if they do something wrong.” /(c) “No error” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 79 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The fruit” /(a) “can be made” /(b) “to jam.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 80 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“I asked him” /(a) “what he” /(b) “has done.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 81 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“There have been a tornado watch” /(a) “issued for Texas country” /(b) “until eleven O’clock tonight.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 82 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Although the Red Cross accepts blood from the donors” /(a) “the nurses will not leave you give blood,” /(b) “if you have just had cold.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 83 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“A prism is used to refract white light” /(a) “so it spreads out” /(b) “in a continuous

spectrum.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 84 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Because of the movement of a glacier,” /(a) “the form” /(b) “of the Great Lakes was very slow.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 85 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The new model costs” /(a) “twice more than” /(b) “last year’s model.” /(c) “No error. ” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 86 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“Gandhi ji always regretted for the fact” /(a) “that people gave him adulation while what he wanted” /(b) “was acceptance of his way of life.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 87 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“The party was” /(a) “ousted in power” /(b) “after twelve years.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“He was” /(a) “held in” /(b) “the prevention of Terrorism act.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 89 Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“He has great fascination” /(a) “for each and every thing” /(b) “that are connected with drama.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 90  Question has a sentence with three quoted parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quoted part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

“It’s no secret” /(a) “that the President wants to” /(b) “have a second term of office.” /(c) “No error.” /(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 91 – 100

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the following questions accordingly. One of India’s greatest musicians is M.S. Subbulakshmi, affectionately known to most people as M.S. Her singing has brought ___[91]___ to millions of people not only ___[92]___ all parts of India, but in ___[93]___ countries around the world as well. ___[94]___ October 1966 Subbulakshmi was invited to ___[95]___ in New York, where people of ___[96]___ countries listened to her music ___[97]___. This was one of the greatest ___[98]___ ever given to any musician. For ___[99]___ together M.S. kept that international ___[100]___ spell-bound with the beauty of her voice and her style of singing.

 

Q. 91 Fill in the blank ___[91]___

A. sorrow

B. joy

C. boredom

D. pain

 

Q. 92 Fill in the blank ___[92]___

A. over

B. on

C. in

D. with

 

Q. 93 Fill in the blank ___[93]___

A. strange

B. unknown

C. other

D. familiar

 

Q. 94 Fill in the blank ___[94]___

A. Within

B. On

C. In

D. By

 

Q. 95 Fill in the blank ___[95]___

A. dance

B. sing

C. speak

D. enjoy

 

Q. 96 Fill in the blank ___[96]___

A. many

B. few

C. backward

D. all

 

Q. 97 Fill in the blank ___[97]___

A. attentively.

B. quietly.

C. indifferently.

D. boldly.

 

Q. 98 Fill in the blank ___[98]___

A. awards

B. honours

C. prizes

D. recognitions

 

Q. 99 Fill in the blank ___[99]___

A. seconds

B. minutes

C. hours

D. days

 

Q. 100 Fill in the blank ___[100]___

A. spectator

B. audience

C. viewer

D. businessmen

 

Questions: 101 – 105

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the following questions accordingly. The Second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the __[101]__. of the Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The __[102]__. of their freedom rankled in their hearts. They made a last __[103]__. attempt to regain their independence and old __[104]__. in 1817. The lead in organizing a united front of the Maratha chiefs was taken by the Peshwa who was smarting under the __[105]__. control exercised by the British Resident. 

 

Q. 101 Fill in the blank ___[101]___

A. power

B. dignity

C. time

D. patience

 

Q. 102 Fill in the blank ___[102]___

A. disappearance

B. empowerment

C. loss

D. disappointment

 

Q. 103 Fill in the blank ___[103]___

A. horrible

B. desperate

C. poor

D. strong

 

Q. 104 Fill in the blank ___[104]___

A. prestige

B. army

C. rebellion

D. infantry

 

Q. 105 Fill in the blank ___[105]___

A. pleasant

B. satisfying

C. rigid

D. orthodox

 

Q. 106 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. “A hot potato.”

A. A dish to relish when it is hot

B. A very important person in a gathering

C. An issue which is disputed, and catching the attention of people

D. A way of thinking what someone is thinking

 

Q. 107 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“You snooze, you lose.”

A. Don’t take it lightly

B. Don’t be over-enthusiastic

C. Don’t hesitate to do it

D. Don’t be pessimistic

 

Q. 108 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“I don’t buy it.”

A. I don’t believe it

B. I have no money

C. I summarize it

D. I don’t need it

 

Q. 109 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“My two cents.”

A. My money

B. My opinion

C. My decision

D. My explanation

 

Q. 110 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“Out of the blue.”

A. Undoubtedly

B. Unexpectedly

C. Unbelievably

D. Unconcerned

 

Q. 111 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“What a small world.”

A. What a coincidence

B. What a challenging task

C. What a narrow space

D. What a beautiful place

 

Q. 112 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Down the road.”

A. In future

B. In the past

C. At present

D. No particular time

 

Q. 113 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Raising eyebrows.”

A. To show surprise

B. Criticize

C. Support

D. Instruct

 

Q. 114 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Step up the plate.”

A. Take control

B. Take a job

C. Take a responsibility

D. Take an opportunity

 

Q. 115 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“The Holy Grail.”

A. The pious place of worship

B. An important object or goal

C. A very important place

D. Someone’s destination of life

 

Q. 116 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“You scratch my back. I’ll scratch yours.”

A. Mutual favour

B. Mutual understanding

C. Mutual respect

D. Mutual disliking

 

Q. 117 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“At the drop of a hat.”

A. Without any hesitation

B. When attempt fails and it’s time to start all over

C. To further a loss with mockery

D. Judging other’s intentions too much

 

Q. 118 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Ball is in your court.”

A. Be happy at the dance / ball room

B. It’s up to you to make the decision

C. A very powerful person

D. Not speaking directly about an issue

 

Q. 119 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

“Best of both worlds.”

A. A happy person who is the best with all

B. All the advantages

C. To take on a task that is way too big

D. Someone whom everybody likes

 

Q. 120 Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

“Costs an arm and a leg.”

A. Severe punishment to someone

B. Too much consciousness about one’s body

C. Two difficult alternatives

D. Something very expensive 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	A	D	C	A	C	D	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	C	D	C	B	B	A	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	C	D	D	D	C	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	A	C	C	C	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	D	C	B	A	B	A	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	C	D	D	A	B	B	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	D	D	B	C	D	B	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	D	B	D	B	B	D	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	A	B	B	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	C	C	B	A	A	B	C	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	B	A	C	C	A	A	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	A	A	C	B	A	A	B	B	D

CDSE 2 2017 Mathematics

Q. 1 What is the value of α (α ≠ 0) for which x²− 5x + α and x² −7x + 2α have a common factor?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

 

Q. 2 How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 2, 3 , 4 and 5 ?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 32

D. None of the above

 

Q. 3 What are the factors of x³ + 4x² − 11x − 30 ?

A. (x – 2), (x + 3) and (x + 5 )

B. (x + 2 ), (x + 3) and (x – 5 )

C. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x + 5 )

D. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x – 5 )

 

Q. 4 If x = 111…1 ( 20 digits), y = 333…3 (10 digits) and z = 222…2 ( 10 digits), then what is (x – y²) ⁄ z equal to ?

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 5 What is the positive value of m for which the roots of the equation 12x² + mx + 5 = 0 are in the ratio 3 : 2 ?

A. 5√10

B. 5√10/12

C. 5/12

D. 12/5

 

Q. 6 Let f(x) and g(x) be two polynomials ( with real coefficients ) having degrees 3 and 4 respectively. What is the degree of f(x)g(x) ?

A. 12

B. 7

C. 4

D. 3

 

Q. 7 If 5x³ + 5x² − 6x + 9 is divided by (x + 3), then the remainder is

A. 135

B. − 135

C. 63

D. − 63

 

Q. 8 The product of two non -zero expressions is (x + y + z)p³. If their HCF is p² , then their LCM is
A. (x + y + z)

B. (x + y + z)p²

C. (x + y + z)p⁵

D. (x + y + z)p

 

Q. 9 If the points P and Q represent the real numbers 0.83͞ and 0.62͞ on the number line, then the distance between P and Q is

A. 21/90

B. 19/90

C. 21/100

D. 56/90

 

Q. 10 Sudhir purchased a chair with three consecutive discounts of 20%, 12.5% and 5%.The actual deduction will be

A. 33.5%

B. 30%

C. 32%

D. 35%

 

Q. 11 A fruit seller has a certain number of mangoes of which 5% are rotten. He sells 75% of the remainder and he is left with 95 mangoes. How many mangoes did he have originally ? 

A. 500

B. 450

C. 400

D. 350

 

Q. 12 If a train crosses a km-stone in 12 seconds, how long will it take to cross 91 km-stones completely if its speed is 60 km/hr?

A. 1 hr 30 min

B. 1 hr 30 min 12 sec

C. 1 hr 51 min

D. 1 hr 1 min 3 sec

 

Q. 13 In a 100 m race, A runs 6 km/hr. If A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 9 seconds , what is the speed of B ?

A. 4.6 km/hr

B. 4.8 km/hr

C. 5.2 km/hr

D. 5.4 km/hr

 

Q. 14 The quotient of 8x³ − y³ when divided by 2xy + 4x² + y² is

A. 2x + y

B. x + 2y

C. 2x – y

D. 4x – y

 

Q. 15 If (x + 2) is common factor of x² + ax + b and x² + bx + a, then the ratio a:b is equal to 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 16 Let

ƒ(x) = a₀xⁿ + a₁xⁿ⁻¹ + a₂xⁿ⁻² +….aₙ₋₁ˣ + aₙ , where a₀,a₁,a₂,….aₙ are real numbers.

If ƒ(x) is divided by (ax-b), then the remainder is

A. f(b/a)

B. f(-b/a)

C. f(a/b)

D. f(-a/b)

 

Q. 17 Consider the following numbers :

1. 2222

2. 11664

3. 343343

4. 220347

Which of the above are not perfect squares ?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1,2 and 4

C. 2,3 and 4

D. 1,3 and 4

 

Q. 18 The product of the polynomials (x + 2),(x – 2),(x³ – 2x² + 4x – 8) and (x³ + 2x² + 4x + 8) is 

A. x⁸ – 256

B. (x⁴-16)²

C. (x⁴+16)²

D. (x²-4)⁴

 

Q. 19 The factors of x (x + 2) (x + 3) (x + 5) – 72 are ?

A. x, ( x + 3), (x +4 ) and (x – 6 )

B. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² – 2x – 12)

C. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² + 5x +12)

D. (x + 1 ), ( x – 6 ) and(x² – 5x – 12)

 

Q. 20 If the HCF of polynomials

f(x) = (x – 1 )(x² + 3x + a) and

g(x) = (x +2 )(x² + 2x +b) is (x² + x – 2),

then what are the values of a and b respectively?

 

A. 2, 2

B. 2, – 3

C. – 1, – 3

D. – 2, – 3

 

Q. 21 a ,b,c,d are non-zero integers such that ( ab ) divides ( cd ). If a and c are co prime, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. a is a factor of c

B. a is a factor of b

C. a is a factor of d

D. d is a factor of a

 

Q. 22 If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x² + b(c – a)x +c(a – b) = 0 are equal, then which one of the following is correct?

A. 2b = a + c

B. b² = ac

C. 2/b = 1/a + 1/c

D. 1/b = 1/a + 1/c

 

Q. 23 The non-zero solution of the equation ((a -x²) / bx) – ((b – x)/ c) = ((c – x )/ b )) – ((b – x²) / cx )) , where b ≠ 0 ,c ≠ 0 is

A. b² + ac / b² + c²

B. b² – ac / b² – c²

C. b² – ac / b² + c²

D. b² + ac / b² – c²

 

Q. 24 If k is an integer, then x² + 7x – 14[k²-7/8] = 0 has

A. Both integral roots

B. At least one integral root

C. No integral root

D. Both positive integral roots

 

Q. 25 How many numbers between 500 and 1000 are divisible by 13?

A. 36

B. 37

C. 38

D. 39

 

Q. 26 To maintain 8 cows for 60 days, a milkman has to spend ₹ 6,400. To maintain 5 cows for n days, he has to spend ₹ 4,800. What is the value of n ?

A. 46 days

B. 50 days

C. 58 days

D. 72 days

 

Q. 27 A student has to secure 40% of marks to pass an examination. he gets only 45 marks and fails by 5 marks. The maximum marks are

A. 120

B. 125

C. 130

D. 150

 

Q. 28 What is the value of u in the system of equations 3(2u + v)= 7uv, 3(u + 3v) = 11 uv? 

A. 0

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 1

 

Q. 29 Five years ago, Ram was three times as old as Shyam. Four years from now, Ram will be only twice as old as Shyam. What is the present age of Ram?

A. 30 years

B. 32 years

C. 36 years

D. 40 years

 

Q. 30 Ram buys 4 chairs and 9 stools for ₹ 1,340. If he sells chairs at 10% profit and stools at 20% profit, he earns a total profit of ₹ 188. How much money did he have to pay for the chairs? 

A. ₹ 200

B. ₹ 400

C. ₹ 800

D. ₹ 1600

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is a correct statement ?

A. {x : x + 5 = 5} = φ

B. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {0}

C. {x : x + 5 = 5} = 0

D. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {φ}

 

Q. 32 If ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of a²/a² – bc +b² / b² – ca + c² / c² – ab ?

A. 3

B. 0

C. 1

D. – 1

 

Q. 33 In a examination, 35% students failed in Hindi , 45% students failed in English and 20% students failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students passing in both the subjects ?

A. 0

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

 

Q. 34 What is ( x – y ) ( y – z ) ( z – x ) / ( x – y )³ + ( y – z )³ + ( z – x )³ equal to ?

A. – 1/3

B. 1/3

C. 3

D. – 3

 

Q. 35 The value of √[1+√[1+√[1….]]]

A. Equals to 1

B. Lies between 0 and 1

C. Lies between 1 and 2

D. Is greater than 2

 

Q. 36 If log₁₀ 6 = 0.7782 and log₁₀ 8 = 0.9031, then what is the value of log₁₀ 8000 + log₁₀ 600 ?

A. 4.6813

B. 5.5813

C. 1.5813

D. 6.6813

 

Q. 37 30 men can complete a job in 40 days. However, after 24 days some men out of the assigned 30 left the job. The remaining people took another 40 days to complete the job. The number of men who left the job is

A. 24

B. 18

C. 12

D. 6

 

Q. 38 4 goats or 6 sheep can graze a field in 50 days. 2 goats and 3 sheep will graze it in 

A. 200 days

B. 150 days

C. 100 days

D. 50 days

 

Q. 39 A tap can fill a tub in 10 hours. After opening the tap for 5 hours it was found that a small outlet at the bottom of the tube was open and water was leaking through it. It was then immediately closed. It took 7 hours to fill the tub after closing the outlet. what time will be taken by the outlet to empty the full tub of water ?

A. 35 hours

B. 25 hours

C. 20 hours

D. 17 hours

 

Q. 40 A boy went to his school at a speed of 12km/hr and returned to his house at a speed of 8km/hr. If he has taken 50 minutes for the whole journey,what was the total distance walked?

A. 4 km

B. 8 km

C. 16 km

D. 20 km

 

Q. 41 If 78 is divided into 3 partss which are proportional to 1 , 1/3 , 1/6, then the middle part is 

A. 28/3

B. 13

C. 52/3

D. 55/3

 

Q. 42 There are 350 boys in the first three standards . The ratio of the number of boys in first and second standards is 2 : 3, while that of boys is second and third standards is 4 : 5.What is the total number of boys in first and third standards ?

A. 302

B. 280

C. 242

D. 230

 

Q. 43 The difference between the compound interest ( compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 2 years at 5% annum is ₹ 15 . What is the sum of money deposited ?

A. ₹ 6000

B. ₹ 4800

C. ₹ 3600

D. ₹ 2400

 

Q. 44 When price rise by 12%, if the expenditure is to be the same,what is the percentage of consumption to be reduced ?

A. 50/3%

B. 72/7%

C. 83/5%

D. 75/7 %

 

Q. 45 A man rows down a river 18 km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 10 hours. Consider the following statement :

1. The speed of the man against the stream is 1.8 km/hr.

2. the speed of the man in still water is 3.15 km/hr.

3. The speed of the stream is 1.35 km/hr.

which of the following statement are correct ?

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

 

Q. 46 If a triangle has side 5,13 and 12 and θ is the acute angle of the triangle, then what is the value of ( sin θ + cos θ) ?

A. 5/13

B. 7/13

C. 12/13

D. 17/13

 

Q. 47 If 0 < x < π/2, then ( sin x + cosec x ) is

A. >2

B. <2

C. ≥ 2

D. ≤ 2

 

Q. 48 If sin θ = m² + n² / m² – n² and 0 < θ < π/2 , then what is the value of cos θ ?

A. 2mn / m² + n²

B. 2mn / m² – n²

C. m² + n² / 2mn

D. m² – n² / 2mn

 

Q. 49 If angle A of the triangle ABC is 30° and the circum-radius of the triangle is 10 cm, then what is the length of side BC ?

A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 5 √3 cm

D. 10 √3 cm

 

Q. 50 If A = sin 45° – sin 30° / cos 45° + cos 60° and B = sec 45° – tan 45° / cosec 45° + cot 45°, then which one of the following is correct?

A. A=B

B. A>B>0

C. A<B

D. B<A<0

 

Q. 51 If θ measured in radians is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 4 : 36 pm, then which one of the following is correct? 

A. 3π/5< θ <4π/5

B. 2π/5< θ <3π/5

C. π/5 ≤ θ ≤ 2π/5

D. 7π/15 ≤ θ ≤ 8π/15

 

Q. 52 Consider the following statement :

1. If 45°<θ<60°, then sec²θ + cosec² θ = α² for some real number α > 1.

2. If 0°<θ<45°, then 1 + cos θ / 1 – cos θ = x² for some real number x>2.

3. If 0°<θ<45°,then cos θ/1-tan θ + sin θ/ 1 – cot θ ≥2.

What is the number of true statements?

 

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

 

Q. 53 Let AB represent a building of height h metre with A being its top, B being its bottom. Let A’B’ represent a tower of height (h + x) metre (x >0 ) with A’ being its top and B’ being its bottom. Let BB’ = d metre. Let the angle of elevation of A’ as seen from A be 45° . 

Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 : h + x > d

Statement 2 : The angle of depression of B as seen A’ is less than 45°

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

 

Q. 54 A man , standing at a point X on the bank XY of a river that cannot be crossed , observes a tower to be N α° E on the opposite parallel bank. He then walks 200 m along the bank to the point Y towards East , and finds the tower to be N β° W. From these observations , the breadth of the river will be

( Given that tan α° = 2 and tan β° = 0.5 )

A. 60 m

B. 70 m

C. 80 m

D. 90 m

 

Q. 55 The value of sin 1° / sin 1c where 1c represents 1 radian is

A. Equal to 1

B. Less than 1

C. Greater than 1 but less than 2

D. Greater than 2

 

Q. 56 The diameters of two given circles are in the ratio 12 : 5 and the sum of their areas is equal to the area of a circle of diameter 65 cm. What are their radii ?

A. 12 cm and 5 cm

B. 24 cm and 10 cm

C. 60 cm and 25 cm

D. 30 cm and 12.5 cm

 

Q. 57 A hallow cube is formed by joining six identical squares. A rectangle cello tape of length 4 cm and breadth 0.5 cm is used for joining each pair of edges. What is the total area of cello tape used ?

A. 12 square cm

B. 24 square cm

C. 36 square cm

D. 48 square cm

 

Q. 58 Two straight lines AB and AC include an angle. A circle is drawn in this angle which touches both these lines. One more circle is drawn which touches both these lines as well as the previous circle.If the area of the bigger circle is 9 times the area of the smaller circle, then what must be the angle of A?

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 75°

D. 90°

 

Q. 59 An isosceles triangle is drawn outside on one of the sides of square as base in such a way that the perimeter of the complete figure is 7/6 times the perimeter of the original square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the original square ?

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 1 : 3

 

Q. 60 What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 51 cm, 37 cm and 20 cm?

A. 300 square cm

B. 305 square cm

C. 306 square cm

D. 307 square cm

 

Q. 61 Segment QR of length r is a tangent at Q to a circle of radius r with centre at P. What is the area of the part of the triangle PQR, which is outside the circular region ?

A. πr²/16

B. r²/2 – πr²/8

C. r²/2 – πr²/16

D. r²/4 – πr²/8

 

Q. 62 In a triangle ABC,AD is perpendicular on BC,If ∠BAC = 90°,AB = c ,BC = a ,CA = b and AD=p, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. p = abc

B. p² = bc

C. p = bc/a

D. p = ab/c

 

Q. 63 AB and CD are parallel chords of circle 3 cm apart . If AB= 4 cm , CD = 10 cm, Then what is the radius of the circle ?

A. 7 cm

B. √19 cm

C. √29 cm

D. 14 cm

 

Q. 64 The diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect at P and the area of the triangle APB is 24 square cm. If AB = 8 cm and CD = 5 cm, then what is the area of the triangle CPD ?

A. 24 square cm

B. 15 square cm

C. 12.5 square cm

D. 9.375 square cm

 

Q. 65 In an equilateral triangle ABC,BD is drawn perpendicular to AC. What is BD² equal to ?

A. AD²

B. 2AD²

C. 3AD²

D. 4AD²

 

Q. 66 The distance between the centres of two circles having radii 9 cm and 4 cm is 13 cm. What is the length of the direct common tangent of these circles ?

A. 12 cm

B. 11 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 9.5 cm

 

Q. 67 If PL, QM and RN are the altitudes of the triangle PQR whose orthocentre is O, then Q is the orthocentre of the triangle

A. OPQ

B. OQR

C. PLR

D. OPR

 

Q. 68 In triangle ABC, ∠C = 90° and CD is the perpendicular from C to AB.

If (CD)⁻² = (BD)⁻² + (CA)⁻², then which one of the following is correct ?

A. BC.CD = AB.CA

B. AB.BC = CD.CA

C. CA² + CB² = 2( AD² + CD² )

D. AB.CD = BC.CA

 

Q. 69 If a point O in the interior of a rectangle ABCD is joined with each of the vertices A,B,C and D, the OB² + OD² will equal to

A. 2OC² + OA²

B. OC² – OA²

C. OC² + OA²

D. OC² + 2OA²

 

Q. 70 A cylinder of height 2x is circumscribed by a sphere of radius 2x such that the circular ends of the cylinder are two small circles on the sphere. What is the ratio of the curved surface area of the cylinder to the surface area of the sphere ?

A. √3 : 4

B. √3 : 3

C. √3 : 2

D. √3 : 1

 

Q. 71 A cylinder vessel 60 cm in diameter is partially filled with water. A sphere 30 cm in diameter is gently dropped into vessel and is completely immersed. To what further height will the water in the cylinder rise ?

A. 20 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 5 cm

 

Q. 72 The vertical angle of a right circular cone is π/2 and the slant height is √2 r cm. What is the volume of the cone in cubic cm ?

A. πr³

B. 9πr³

C. πr³/3

D. 3πr³

 

Q. 73 The radii of the frustum of a right circular cone are in the ratio 2 :1 . What is the ratio of the volume of the frustum of the cone to that of the whole cone ?

A. 1 : 8

B. 1 : 4

C. 3 : 4

D. 7 : 8

 

Q. 74 From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm , a conical cavity of height 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm is formed by hollowing out. What is the inner surface area of the cavity ?

A. 6π square cm

B. 8π square cm

C. 10π square cm

D. 60π square cm

 

Q. 75 A tent has been constructed which is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone whose axis coincides with axis of the cylinder. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 50 m , the height of the cylinder is 10 m and the total height of the tent is 15 m , then what is the capacity of the tent in cubic metres ?

A. 37500π

B. 87500π/3

C. 26500π/3

D. 25000π

 

Q. 76 Two rectangular sheets of sizes 2π * 4 π and π * 5 π are available. A hollow right circular cylinder can be formed by joining a pair of parallel sided of any sheet. What is the maximum possible volume of the circular cylinder that can be formed by this way ? 

A. 4 π²

B. 8 π²

C. 1.25 π²

D. 6.25 π²

 

Q. 77 In a triangle ABC, the medians AD and BE intersect at G. A line DF is drawn parallel to BE such that F is on AC. If AC = 9 cm, then what is CF equal to ?

A. 2.25 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 6 cm

 

Q. 78 In a triangle PQR,X is a point on PR and Y is a point on QR such that PR=10 cm, RX =4 cm, YR = 2 cm , QR = 5 cm. Which one of the following is correct ?

A. XY is parallel to PQ

B. PQ = 2XY

C. PX = QY

D. PQ = 3XY

 

Q. 79 Consider the following statements in respect of three straight lines A,B and C on a plane :

1. If A and C are parallel and B and C are parallel; then A and B are parallel.

2. If A is perpendicular to C and B is perpendicular to C; then A and B are parallel.

3. If the acute angle between A and C is equal to the acute angle between B and C; then A and B are parallel.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 80 The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 20 cm and 48 cm. What is the length of a side of the rhombus ?

A. 13 cm

B. 26 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 39 cm

 

Q. 81 An arc of a circle subtends an angle π at the centre. If the lenghth of the arc is 22 cm, then what is the radius of the circle ? (Take π = 22/7)

A. 5 cm

B. 7 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 11 cm

 

Q. 82 One – fifth of the area of a triangle ABC is cut off by line DE drawn parallel to BC such that D is on AB and E is on AC .If BC = 10 cm, then what is DE equal to ?

A. √5 cm

B. 2√5 cm

C. 3√5 cm

D. 4√5 cm

 

Q. 83 There are 8 lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel.What is the maximum number of points at which they can intersect?

A. 15

B. 21

C. 28

D. none of the above

 

Q. 84 A closed polygons has six sides and one of its angle is 30° greater than each of the other five equal angles. What is the value of one of the equal angles?

A. 55°

B. 115°

C. 150°

D. 175°

 

Q. 85 Consider the following statements :

1. The point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle may lie outside the triangle.

2.The point of intersection of the perpendicular drawn from the vertices to the opposite sides of a triangle may lie two sides.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Questions: 86 – 90

In a university there are 1200 students studying four subjects, Mathematics, Statistics,Physics and Chemistry. 20% of the total number of students are studying Mathematics, one – fourth of the total number of students are studying Physics , 320 students are studying Statistics and remaining students are studying Chemistry.Three-fifth of the total number of the students studying Chemistry are girls. 150 boys are studying Mathematics. 60% of students studying Physics are boys. 250 girls are studying Statistics.

 

Q. 86 What is the total number of boys studying Statistics and Physics ?

A. 180

B. 240

C. 250

D. 310

 

Q. 87 The number of girls studying Statistics is what percent ( approximate ) of the total number of students studying Chemistry ?

A. 58.8

B. 73.5

C. 78.7

D. 80.6

 

Q. 88 In which subjects is the difference between the number of boys and girls equal?

A. Mathematics and Chemistry

B. Statistics and Chemistry

C. Mathematics and Physics

D. Mathematics and Statistics

 

Q. 89 What is the difference between the number of boys studying Mathematics and the number of girls studying Physics ?

A. 20

B. 80

C. 60

D. 80

 

Q. 90 What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls?

A. 67:83

B. 17:26

C. 27:19

D. 189:179

 

Q. 91 Frequency density of class is computed by the ratio

A. Class frequency to the class width

B. Class frequency to total frequency

C. Class frequency to total number of classes

D. Cumulative frequency upto that class to total frequency

 

Q. 92 A small company pays each of its 5 category ‘C’ workers ₹20,000, each of its 3 category ‘B’ workers ₹25,000 and a category ‘A’ worker ₹65,000. The number of workers earning less than the mean salary is

A. 8

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

 

Q. 93 A man travelled 12 km at a speed of 4 km/hr and further 10 km at a speed of 5 km/hr. What was his average speed?

A. 4.4 km/hr

B. 4.5 km/hr

C. 5.0 km/hr

D. 2.5 km/hr

 

Q. 94 The pie diagrams on the monthly expenditure of two families A and B are drawn with radii of the two circles taken in the ratio 16 : 9 to compare their expenditures. Which one of the following is the appropriate data used for the above mentioned pie diagrams?

A. ₹ 16000 and ₹ 9000

B. ₹ 8000 and ₹ 4500

C. ₹ 25600 and ₹ 8100

D. ₹ 4000 and ₹ 3000

 

Q. 95 Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The value of a random variable having the highest frequency is mode.

Statement 2 : Mode is unique.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is not correct ?

The proportion of various items in a pie diagram is proportional to the

A. Areas of slices

B. Angles of slices

C. Lengths of the curved arcs of the slices

D. Perimeters of the slices

 

Q. 97 The geometric mean of x and y is 6 and the geometric mean of x,y and z is also 6.Then the value of z is

A. 12

B. √6

C. 6

D. ∛6

 

Q. 98 The total number of live births in a specific locality during different months of a specific year was obtained from the office of the Birth Registrar.This set of data may be called

A. Primary data

B. secondary data

C. Recorded data

D. countable data

 

Q. 99 The height (in cm ) of 5 students are 150,165,161,144 and 155. What are the values of mean and median (in cm ) respectively ?

A. 165 and 161

B. 155 and 155

C. 160 and 155

D. 155 and 161

 

Q. 100 The average height of 22 students of a class is 140 cm and the average height of 28 students of another class is 152 cm. What is the average height of students of both the classes ?

A. 144.32 cm

B. 145. 52 cm

C. 146.72 cm

D. 147.92 cm

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	B	A	A	B	A	C	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	D	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	D	D	D	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	D	B	C	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	A	A	C	D	A	C	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	CD	B	C	C	D	C	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	C	C	D	B

 

CDSE 1 2017 Mathematics

Q. 1 What is √[ (0.064 x 6.25) ∕ (0.081 x 4.84)] equal to?

A. 10/99

B. 100/99

C. 9

D. 99

 

Q. 2 If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation 2x² + 6x + k = 0, where k < 0, then what is the minimum value of α / β + β / α ?

A. 2

B. -2

C. 9

D. -9

 

Q. 3 (x+4) is a factor of which one of the following expressions?

A. x²-7x+44

B. x²+7x-44

C. x²-7x-44

D. x²+7x+44

 

Q. 4 Consider the following statements:

If a=b,c with HCF(b,c)= 1, then HCF(c,bd)=HCF(c,d)

If a=b,c with HCF(b,c)= 1, then HCF(a,d)=HCF(c,bd)

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 or 2

 

Q. 5 What is the square root of (0.35)²+0.70+1/2.25+0.19?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 6 What is the number of digits in 2⁴⁰ expressions (Given that log₁₀ 2 = 0·301)

A. 14

B. 13

C. 12

D. 11

 

Q. 7 If one ‘root of (a² – 5a + 3) x² + (3a- 1) x + 2 = 0 is twice the other, then what is the value of’a’? 

A. 2/3

B. -2/3

C. 1/3

D. -1/3

 

Q. 8 What is the remainder when the number ( 4444)⁴⁴⁴⁴ is divided by 9 ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

 

Q. 9 If x =[(√(a+b)-√(a-b))/(√(a+b)+√(a-b))] , then what is bx²- 2ax + b equal to (b * 0)?

A. 0

B. 1

C. ab

D. 2ab

 

Q. 10 What is the value of

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 11 If x = (t)^ (1/(t -1)) and y = (t)^(t/(t-1)) , t > 0, t ≠ 1, then what is the relation between x and y?

A. y^x = (x)^(1/y)

B. x^(1/y) = y^(1/x)

C. x^y = y^x

D. x^y = y^(1/x)

 

Q. 12 If A : B = 3 : 4, then what is the value of the expression [(3A²+4B)/(3A-4B²)]

A. 43/55

B. -43/55

C. 47/55

D. cannot be determined

 

Q. 13 If A= {x : xis a multiple of 7},

B = {x : x is a multiple of 5} and

C = {x: x is a multiple of35}, then which one of the following is a null set ?

A. (A-B) U C

B. (A-B)-C

C. (A∩B)∩C

D. (A∩B)-C

 

Q. 14 If x = 2 + 2^⅔ + 2^⅓, then what is the value of x³ -6x² + 6x?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

 

Q. 15 If √x/y = 24/5 +√y/x and x+y =26 , then what is the value of xy ?

A. 5

B. 15

C. 25

D. 30

 

Q. 16 What is the solution of the equation x log₁₀(10/3) + log₁₀3 = log₁₀(2 + 3ⁿ) + n ?

A. 10

B. 3

C. 1

D. 0

 

Q. 17 If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0, then what is α2 + β2 equal to? 

A. p² – 2q

B. q² – 2p

C. p² + 2q

D. q² – q

 

Q. 18 If a³ = 335 + b³ and a = 5 + b, then what is the value of a + b (given that a > 0 and b > 0)? 

A. 7

B. 9

C. 16

D. 49

 

Q. 19 If 9ⁱ 3ⁿ = 2187 and 2³ⁱ 2²ⁿ – 4ⁱ ⁿ = 0 then what is the value of (i + n) ?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

 

Q. 20 The pair of linear equations kx+3y+1 = 0 and 2x+y+3 =0 intersect each other if :

A. k= 6

B. k is not equal to 6

C. k =0

D. k is not equal to 0

 

Q. 21 The number of prime numbers which are less than 100 is

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. 27

 

Q. 22 The cost of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. A diamond broke into four pieces with their weights in the ratio of 1:2:3:4. If the loss in total value of the diamond was the ₹ 70,000, what was the price of the original diamond?

A. ₹ 1,00,000

B. ₹ 1,40,000

C. ₹ 1,50,000

D. ₹ 1,75,000

 

Q. 23 In a 100 m race , A runs at speed 5/3 m/s .If A gives a start of 4m to B and still beats him by 12 sec what is the speed of B?

A. 5/4 m/s

B. 7/5 m/s

C. 4/3 m/s

D. 6/5 m/s

 

Q. 24 If 15 men take 21 days of 8 hours each to do a piece of work, then what is the number of days of 6 hours each that 21 women would take, if 3 women would do as much work as 2 men?

A. 18

B. 20

C. 25

D. 30

 

Q. 25 What number must be substracted from both the numerator and denominator of the fraction 27/35 so that it becomes 2/3

A. 6

B. 8

C. 9

D. 11

 

Q. 26 A sum of Rs 8,400 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid in two equal instalments. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, compounded annually, then the value of each instalment is

A. Rs 4,200

B. Rs 4,480

C. Rs 4,840

D. none of the above

 

Q. 27 Leela got married 6 years ago .Today her age is 1(1/4) times at the age of her mariage .Her sons age is 1/10 times her age .What is the present age of her son ?

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 4 years

 

Q. 28 A and B working together can finish a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can finish it in 30 days. In how many days can A alone finish the work?

A. 18 days

B. 20 days

C. 24 days

D. 25 days

 

Q. 29 The value of i which satisfy the equation 5¹ ⁺ ⁱ + 5 ¹ ⁻ ⁱ = 26?

A. -1, 1

B. 0, 1

C. 1, 2

D. -1, 0

 

Q. 30 If 5 men can do a piece of work in 10 days and 12 women can do the same work in 15 days, the number of days required to complete the work by 5 men and 6 women is

A. 7 (1/2 ) days

B. 8 days

C. 9 (1/2 ) days

D. 12 days

 

Q. 31 A passenger train departs from Delhi at 6 p.m. for Mumbai. At 9 p.m., an express train, whose average speed exceeds that of the passenger train by 15 km/hour leaves Mumbai for Delhi. Two trains meet each other mid-route. At what time do they meet, given that the distance between the cities is 1080 km?

A. 4 p.m.

B. 2 a.m

C. 12 midnight

D. 6 a.m

 

Q. 32 In a class of 49 students, the ratio of girls to boys is 4 : 3. If 4 girls leave the class, the ratio of girls to boys would be

A. 11:7

B. 8:7

C. 6:5

D. 9:8

 

Q. 33 If a + b = 5 and ab = 6, then what is the value of a³ + b³ ?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 90

D. 125

 

Q. 34 Rajendra bought a mobile with 25% discount on the selling price. If the mobile cost him Rs 4,875, what is the original selling price of the mobile?

A. Rs 6,300

B. Rs 6,400

C. Rs 6,500

D. Rs 6,600

 

Q. 35 A 225 m long train is running at a speed of 30 km/hour. How much time does it take to cross a man running at 3 km/hour in the same direction?

A. 40 seconds

B. 30 seconds

C. 25 seconds

D. 15 seconds

 

Q. 36 Which one among the following is the largest?

A. 7/9

B. 11/14

C. 3/4

D. 10/13

 

Q. 37 The difference between the simple and the compound interest on a certain sum of money at 4% per annum in 2 years is Rs 10. What is the sum?

A. Rs 5,000

B. Rs 6,000

C. Rs 6,250

D. Rs 7,500

 

Q. 38 If a% of a + b% of b = 2% of ab, then what percent of a is b?

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 39 5/9th part of a village are males .If 30% males are married , the percentage of unmarried females in the population is ?

A. 20(2/9)

B. 27(2/9)

C. 27(7/9)

D. 29(2/9)

 

Q. 40 Sunil wants to spend Rs 200 on two types of sweets, costing Rs 7 and Rs 10 respectively. What is the maximum number of sweets he can get so that no money is left over?

A. 25

B. 26

C. 27

D. 28

 

Q. 41 What is the LCM of x³ + 8, x² + 5x + 6 and x³ + 4x² + 4x

A. x(x + 2)² (x + 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

B. x(x – 2)² (x – 3) (x² + 2x + 4)

C. (x + 2)² (x + 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

D. (x – 2)² (x – 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

 

Q. 42 The HCF of two expressions p and q is 1. What is the reciprocal of their LCM? 

A. p + q

B. p – q

C. pq

D. (pq)⁻¹

 

Q. 43 What is the value of ∛4(12/125)?

A. 1(3/5)

B. 1(2/5)

C. 1(4/5)

D. 2(2/5)

 

Q. 44 A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 100 m. When the policeman starts the chase, the thief also starts running. If the speed of the thief is 8 km/hour and that of the policeman is 10 km/hour, then how far will the thief have to run before he is overtaken? 

A. 200 m

B. 300 m

C. 400 m

D. 500 m

 

Q. 45 Aman and Alok attempted to solve a quadratic equation. Aman made a mistake in writing down the constant term and ended up in roots (4, 3) . Alok made a mistake in writing down the coefficient of x to get roots (3, 2). The correct roots of the equation are

A. -4, -3

B. 6,1

C. 4. 3

D. -6, -1

 

Q. 46 Consider the following statements:

1. Of two consecutive integers, one is even.

2. Square of an odd integer is of the form 8n + 1.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 47 The system of equations 2x + 4y = 6 and 4x + 8y = 8 is

A. Consistent with a unique solution

B. Consistent with infinitely many solutions

C. Inconsistent

D. None of the above

 

Q. 48 (N^p─1 ─1) is a multiple of p, if N is prime to p and p is a

A. Prime number

B. rational number

C. real number

D. composite number

 

Q. 49 The ratio of two numbers is 1 : 5 and their product is 320. What is the difference between the squares of these two numbers?

A. 1024

B. 1256

C. 1536

D. 1640

 

Q. 50 25 kg of alloy X is mixed with 125 kg of alloy Y. If the amount of lead and tin in the alloy X is in the ratio 1 : 2 and the amount of lead and tin in the alloy Y is in the ratio 2 : 3, then what is the ratio of lead to tin in the mixture?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 3:5

D. 7 :11

 

Q. 51 The mean of 5 numbers is 15. If one more number is included, the mean of the 6 numbers becomes 17. What is the included number?

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. 27

 

Q. 52 The mean marks obtained by 300 students in a subject are 60. The mean of top 100 students was found to be 80 and the mean of last 100 students was found to be 50. The mean marks of the remaining 100 students are

A. 70

B. 65

C. 60

D. 50

 

Q. 53 Consider the following distribution:

If the mean of the above distribution is 50, what is the value of f?

A. 24

B. 34

C. 56

D. 96

 

Q. 54 In a pie diagram, there are four slices with angles 150°, 90°, 60° and 60°. A new pie diagram is formed by deleting one of the slices having angle 60° in the given pie diagram. In the new pie diagram

A. The largest slice has angle 150°

B. The smallest slice has angle 70°

C. The largest slice has angle 180°

D. The smallest slice has angle 90°

 

Q. 55 In an asymmetrical distribution, if the mean and median of the distribution are 270 and 220 respectively, then the mode of the data is

A. 120

B. 220

C. 280

D. 370

 

Q. 56 Let a,b,c,d,e,f,g be consecutive even number and j,k,l,m,n be consecutive odd number. What is the average of all the numbers

A. 3(a + n)/2

B. (5l + 7d)/4

C. (a + b + m + n)/4

D. None of the above

 

Q. 57 An individual purchases three qualities of pencils. The relevant data is given below: It is known that the average price per pencil is Rs 1.25. What is the value of x?

A. Rs 10

B. Rs 30

C. Rs 40

D. Rs 60

 

Q. 58 Consider the following frequency distribution:

What are the value of f1 and f2 respectively?

A. 10 and 17

B. 17 and 10

C. 11 and 16

D. 16 and 11

 

Q. 59 If D is the number of degrees and R is the number of radius is an angle θ,then which one of the follwoing is correct ?

A. πD= 180 R

B. πD= 90 R

C. πR= 180D

D. πR= 90D

 

Q. 60 What is the minimum value of 9 tan ²θ + 4 cot ²θ

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 13

 

Q. 61 If , for the given value , what is the valur of 4z²(x²+y²) eqaul to ?

A. (x²+y²)³

B. (x²-y²)²

C. (x²-y²)³

D. (x²+y²)²

 

Q. 62 If cosθ₁+cosθ₂+cosθ₃= 3 then what is the value of sinθ₁+sinθ₂+sinθ₃ equal to ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 63 What is the value of the θ which satisfies cos θ + tan θ = 1?

A. 0°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 60°

 

Q. 64 What is the value of the given eqaution?

A. √2

B. 2√2

C. √2 tan x

D. 0

 

Q. 65 What is the given value(in the figure) equal to?

A. cos²A – sin² A

B. cosA – sin A

C. 1

D. 2

 

Q. 66 If 7 sin²x + 3 cos²x = 4, 0 < x < 90° , then what is the value of tan x ?

A. √2

B. 1

C. √3/2

D. 1/√3

 

Q. 67 An aeroplane flying at a height of 300 m above the ground passes vertically above another plane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. What is the height of the lower plane from the ground?

A. 100 √3 m

B. 100/√3 m

C. 50 √3 m

D. 150 (√3+1) m

 

Q. 68 If x = a cos θ + b sin θ and y = a sin θ – b cos θ, then what is x^2 + y^2 equal to?

A. 2ab

B. a + b

C. a² + b²

D. a² – b²

 

Q. 69 From the top of a building 90 m high, the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a tree are 30° and 45° respectively. What is the height of the tree?

A. 30√3 m

B. 90 -30√3 m

C. 90 + 30√3 m

D. 60+ 30√3 m

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following triples does not represent the sides of a triangle?

A. (3, 4, 5)

B. (4, 7, 10)

C. (3, 6, 8)

D. (2, 3, 6)

 

Q. 71 If the perimeter of a rectangle is 10 cm and the area is 4 cm2, then its length is

A. 6 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 4 cm

 

Q. 72 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3. The smallest angle of the triangle is

A. 20°

B. 40°

C. 50°

D. 60°

 

Q. 73 A ball of radius 1 cm is put into a cylindrical pipe so that it fits inside the pipe. If the length of the pipe is 14 m, what is the surface area of the pipe?

A. 2200 square cm

B. 4400 square cm

C. 8800 square cm

D. 17600 square cm

 

Q. 74 The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio 16 : 49. If the radius of the bigger field is 14 m, then what is the radius of the smaller field?

A. 4 m

B. 8 m

C. 9 m

D. 10 m

 

Q. 75 Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let P, Q, R, S be the mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD, DA respectively. Then the quadrilateral PQRS is a

A. Square

B. Rectangle, but need not be a square

C. Rhombus, but need not be a square

D. Parallelogram, but need not be a rhombus

 

Q. 76 Let P , Q , R be the mid points of AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC .If the area of the trianfgle ABC is 5 units , what is the area of traingle PQR ?

A. 5/3 sqaure units

B. 5/2√2 sqaure units

C. 5/4 sqaure units

D. 1 sqaure units

 

Q. 77 If each of the dimensions of a rectangle is increased by 200%, the area is increased by

A. 300%

B. 400%

C. 600%

D. 800%

 

Q. 78 Three circles each of radius 3.5 cm touch one another . The area subtended between them is :

A. 6(√3π−2)

B. 6(2π−√3)

C. 49/ 8 (2√3 – π )

D. 49/ 8 (√3 – π )

 

Q. 79 The area of regular hexagon of side ‘a’ is equal to

A. (√2/3) a² square units

B. (3√3/2) a² square units

C. (1/2) a² square units

D. (√3/2) a² square units

 

Q. 80 ABCDEF is a regular polygon. Two poles at C and D are standing vertically and subtend angles of elevation 30° and 60° at A respectively. What is the ratio of the height of the pole at C to that of the pole at D?

A. 1 :1

B. 1 :2√3

C. 2√3 : 1

D. 2 : √3

 

Q. 81 Two parallel chords of a circle whose diameter is 13 cm are respectively 5 cm and 12 cm in length. If both the chords are on the same side of the diameter, then the distance between these chords is

A. 5. 5 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 3.5 cm

D. 3 cm

 

Q. 82 If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by p% without increasing its height, then what is the percentage increase in the volume of the cone?

A. p²

B. 2p²

C. p²/100

D. p(2+p²/100)

 

Q. 83 A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, it encloses an area equal to

A. 121 cm².

B. 144 cm².

C. 154 cm².

D. 168 cm².

 

Q. 84 ABC is a triangle and D is the point on the side BC .IF BC = 12 cm ,BD= 9 cm and ∠ADC = ∠BAC then the length of AC is equal to

A. 5 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 9 cm

 

Q. 85 If the surface area of a sphere is reduced to one-ninth of the area, its radius reduces to 

A. 1/4th

B. 1/3rd

C. 1/5th

D. 1/9th

 

Q. 86 In a trapezium ABCD, AB is parallel to CD and the diagonals intersect each other at O. What is the ratio of OA to OC equal to?

A. Ratio of OB to OD

B. Ratio of BC to CD

C. Ratio of AD to AB

D. Ratio of AC to BD

 

Q. 87 Ice-cream, completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm, is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of persons that can be served in this way is

A. 950

B. 1000

C. 1050

D. 1100

 

Q. 88 The radius of a circle is increased so that its circumference increases by 15%. The area of the circle will increase by

A. 31.25%

B. 32.25%

C. 33.25%

D. 34.25%

 

Q. 89 ABCD is a rectangle. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If AB = 32 cm and AD = 24 cm, then what is OD equal to?

A. 22 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 18 cm

D. 16 cm

 

Q. 90 A field is divided into four regions as shown in the given figure. What is the area of the field in square metres?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 91 In the figure given below, D is the diameter of each circle. What is the diameter of the shaded circle?

A. D(√2−1)

B. D(√2+1)

C. D(√2+2)

D. D(2-√2)

 

Q. 92 In the figure given below, AC is parallel to ED and AB = DE = 5 cm and BC = 7 cm. What is the area ABDE : area BDE : area BCD equal to?

A. 10 : 5 : 7

B. 8 : 4 : 7

C. 2 : 1 : 2

D. 8 : 4 : 5

 

Q. 93 In the figure given below, PQRS is a parallelogram. PA bisects angle P and SA bisects angle S. What is angle PAS equal to?

A. 60°

B. 75°

C. 90°

D. 100°

 

Q. 94 In thefigure given below ∠A = 80° and ∠ABC = 60° BD and CD bisect angels B and C resectively .What are the values of X and y respectively /?

A. 10 and 130

B. 10 and 125

C. 20 and 130

D. 20 and 125

 

Q. 95 In the figure given below , PQR is the non -isoceles right angled triangle , right angled at Q .If LM and QT are parellel and QT = PT , thenwhats is ∠RLM equals to ? 

A. ∠PQT

B. ∠LRM

C. ∠RML

D. ∠QPT

 

Q. 96 In the figure given below, PQ is parellelto Rs and PR is parellel to QS .IF ∠LPR = 35° and ∠UST= 70° ,then what is MTP equal to ?

A. 55°

B. 70°

C. 75°

D. 80°

 

Q. 97 In the figure given below, ABC is a triangle with AB=BC and D is the interoir point of traingle ABC such that ∠DAC = ∠DCA

Consider the following statements:

1. Triangle ADC is an isosceles triangle.

2. D is the centroid of the triangle ABC.

3. Triangle ABD is congruent to the triangle CBD.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 98 In the figure given below , M is the mid point of AB and ∠DAB = ∠CBA and ∠AMC = ∠BMD then the traingle ADM is congruent to the traingle BCM by

A. SAS rule

B. SSS rule

C. ASA rule

D. AAA rule

 

Q. 99 ABCD is a sqaure and x is the mid point of AB and Y is the mid poin of Bc..Consider the following statements .

I.Triangles ADX and BAY are congreunet

II. ∠DXA = ∠AYB

III.DX is inclined to angle 60 deg at AY

IV.DX is perpendicular to AY

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, and \ 2 only

 

Q. 100 From an aeroplane vertically over a straight horizontal road, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometer-stones on the opposite sides of the aeroplane are observed to be α and β. The height of the aeroplane above the road is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	B	A	A	B	A	C	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	D	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	D	D	C	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	D	B	C	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	A	A	C	D	A	C	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	C	B	C	C	D	C	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	C	C	D	B

CDSE 2 2017 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue mountains’?

A. lambasdas

B. gonds

C. Jarawas

D. Todas

 

Q. 2 Which geographer relate to ‘primate city’ concept?

A. August Losch

B. Mark Jefferson

C. Griffith Taylor

D. W. Christaller

 

Q. 3 Which island is the largest?

A. Borneo

B. Madagascar

C. New Guinea

D. Sumatra

 

Q. 4 Arrange and select following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South:

1. Dudhwa

2. Panna

3.Pench

4.Indravati

A. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 4

 

Q. 5 Which proteins give lustrous shiny appearence to silk fibre?

A. fibrin

B. sericin

C. collagen

D. nectin

 

Q. 6 Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of

A. nitrite (NO₂⁻)

B. sulphite ( SO₃²⁻)

C. nitrate(NO₃⁻)

D. sulphate(S0₄²⁻)

 

Q. 7 Match list I and list II and select correct code:

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 8 Human insulin molecule is composed of one chain having α-21 amino acids and one chain having β-30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 9 Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which is main constituent of pearl?

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium oxide

C. calcium nitrate

D. calcium sulphate

 

Q. 10 A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean , a forest, even an aquarium is known as

A. biome

B. community

C. abiotic environment

D. ecosystem

 

Q. 11 An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one is correct statement?

A. The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.

B. The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton.

C. The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.

D. The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal.

 

Q. 12 Two wires are made having same length l and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which is correct?

A. the resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2.

B. the resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

C. the resistance will be same for both wires.

D. if same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated will be same.

 

Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of

A. 40°

B. 100°

C. 90°

D. 80°

 

Q. 14 Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which statement is incorrect?

A. the wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.

B. The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.

C. the photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light.

D. the photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

 

Q. 15 After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to fact that: 

1. current produces heat in the transformers.

2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers.

3. liquid used for cooling gets heated.

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 16 A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

A. by sneezing

B. by jumping

C. by running

D. by rolling

 

Q. 17 In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water, water acts as

A. an acid

B. a base

C. a salt

D. an inert medium

 

Q. 18 How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) ?

A. 3.01 X 10²²

B. 1.20 X 10²³

C. 2.40 X 10²³

D. 6.02 X 10²²

 

Q. 19 The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractures bone fixed in place. The white material used is called

A. bleaching powder

B. plaster of paris

C. powder of zinc oxide

D. lime powder

 

Q. 20 Which glass is used for making optical instruments?

A. pyrex glass

B. soft glass

C. hard glass

D. flint glass

 

Q. 21 Most ozone gas ( about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

A. ionosphere

B. troposhere

C. stratosphere

D. mesosphere

 

Q. 22 What are the main constituents of biogas?

A. methane, sulphur dioxide

B. methane , carbon dioxide

C. methane, hydrogen , nitric oxide

D. methane , nitric oxide

 

Q. 23 Which two Indian states of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Karnataka

4. Rajasthan

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 24 Which statements are true about delegation?

1. It is the abdication of responsibility.

2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.

3. It is subject to supervision and review.

4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

 

A. 3

B. 2, 4

C. 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

 

Q. 25 Which features were borrowed by the constitution of India from British Constitution?

1. Rule of Law

2. Law – making Procedure

3. Independence of Judiciary

4. Parliamentary System

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 , 3, 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 , 2, 4

 

Q. 26 Which Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state?

A. fifth schedule

B. third schedule

C. sixth schedule

D. fourth schedule

 

Q. 27 Which statements about various horticulture crop of India for year 2016-17 is not correct?

A. The area under horticulture crops has increased over precious year.

B. Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year.

C. Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to previous year.

D. The major tomato – growing states are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

 

Q. 28 The phenomenon of demographic dividend of a country relates to

A. a sharp decline in the total population

B. an increase in working age population

C. a decline in infant mortality rate

D. an increase in sex ratio

 

Q. 29 Arrange events in sequential order as they happened in India:

1. Mahalanobis Model

2.Plan Holiday

3. Rolling Plan

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 1,3, 2

 

Q. 30 The monetary policy in India uses which of the tools?

A. Bank rate

B. open market operations

C. public debt

D. public revenue

 

Q. 31 Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

A. domestic good remain constant

B. exports become cheaper to importers

C. imports remain constant

D. exports rise proportionately

 

Q. 32 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Statement I : Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 33 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

STATEMENT II : The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghat.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 34 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I : Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

STATEMENT II: The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 35 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

STATEMENT II: By 1928, the communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 36 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a state in either ancient or modern sense.

STATEMENT II: Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 37 Which peasant struggle was an outcome of British opium policy?

A. Phulaguri Dhawa ( 1861)

B. Birsaite Ulgulan ( 1899 – 1900)

C. Pabna Revolt ( 1873)

D. Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)

 

Q. 38 Which statement about Sayyid brothers during period of Later Mughals is not true?

A. They brought Jahandar Shah to power.

B. They wielded administrative power.

C. They followed a tolerant religious policy.

D. They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

 

Q. 39 Which statements are correct with regard to the heterdix sect between sixth and fourth century BC?

1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva.

2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.

3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captures slave woman.

4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, ,2 ,4

D. 3, 4

 

Q. 40 Which combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correct? 

A. 1789 : Napoleonic Code

B. 1791 : Tennis Court Oath

C. 1792 : National Convention

D. 1804 : New Constitution of France

 

Q. 41 Who among is the author of the book ‘The Social Contract’?

A. Voltaire

B. Hobbes

C. Locke

D. Rousseau

 

Q. 42 Who is the recipient of Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

A. Shankha Ghosh

B. Raghuveer Chaudhari

C. Pratibha Ray

D. Rehman Rahi

 

Q. 43 The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are adopted by the UNO in place of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015 aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year

A. 2020

B. 2030

C. 2040

D. 2050

 

Q. 44 Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award ,2016 is an exponent of 

A. Kannada classical vocal

B. Kajari dance

C. Bihu dance

D. Pandvani, a traditional performing art

 

Q. 45 Who is recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?

A. Nana Patekar

B. Manoj Kumar

C. Javed Akhtar

D. K. Viswanath

 

Q. 46 The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

A. David J. Thouless

B. F. Duncan M. Haldane

C. J. Michael Kosterlitz

D. All of them

 

Q. 47 Which political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?

A. People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

B. Manipur Resistance Alliance

C. Tribal Resistance Party

D. Revolutionary People’s Party

 

Q. 48 Which planet was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?

A. SUN

B. NEPTUNE

C. SATURN

D. JUPITER

 

Q. 49 Match list I with list II and select correct code

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 50 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 51 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 52 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 53 One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

A. 100 kg of carbon

B. 100 kg of carbon dioxide

C. 1000 kg of carbon

D. 1000 kg of carbon dioxide

 

Q. 54 An emulsion consists of

A. one liquid and one solid

B. one liquid and one gas

C. two liquids

D. two solids

 

Q. 55 Which radioactive substances enter the human body through food chain and cause many physiological disorders?

A. strontium – 90

B. iodine – 131

C. cesium – 137

D. all of above

 

Q. 56 ‘ Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

A. landscaping related to save water

B. landscaping related to save soil erosion

C. weathering of rock surface

D. all

 

Q. 57 Joule – Thomson is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

A. isobaric process

B. isenthalpic process

C. adiabatic process

D. isochoric process

 

Q. 58 Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

A. ferromagnetic material

B. ferrimagnetic material

C. piezoelectric material

D. pyroelectric material

 

Q. 59 A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object –

1. gravitational pull and

2. normal reaction of the surface .

According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which can be said for the motion of the object?

A. the object will move with acceleration

B. the object will move with deceleration.

C. the object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

D. the object will move with constant velocity

 

Q. 60 Select correct statements about principal of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb.

1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.

2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.

3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’ while there is no question of critically in case of a nuclear bomb.

4.Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

A. 1 , 3

B. 2, 3

C. 4

D. 1, 4

 

Q. 61 The foul smell of a urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to bacterial decomposition of

A. urea into sulphur dioxide

B. sugar into carbon dioxide

C. lipids into methane

D. urea into ammonia

 

Q. 62 Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is

A. larger than osmotic pressure

B. smaller than osmotic pressure

C. equal to osmotic pressure

D. equal to atmospheric pressure

 

Q. 63 Which polymers does not contain glucose units?

A. glycogen

B. starch

C. cellulose

D. rubber

 

Q. 64 Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain

A. water

B. acetone

C. alcohol

D. potassium iodine

 

Q. 65 The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by 

A. a proclamation of National Emergency

B. an Act passed by the Parliament

C. an amendment to the Constitution of India

D. the judicial decisions of Supreme Court

 

Q. 66 Which statements are correct about 73th and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?

1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three – tier system of Government.

2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.

3. There should be mandatory reservation of one third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 3

 

Q. 67 A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is reported to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the Bills?

1. Money Bill

2. Constitutional Amendment Bill

3. Ordinary Bill

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 68 Which statements is/are correct?

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.

2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.

3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 1 , 2

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 69 The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of following?

1. Both the Houses of the Parliament.

2. The Legislative Assemblies of States

3. The Legislative Councils of States

4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

 

A. 1, 2

B. 1, 2,3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 3, 4

 

Q. 70 Which statement are correct about the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India:

1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.

2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational aided by the State.

3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational not aided by the State.

4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

 

A. 1 , 2

B. 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Q. 71 Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes

1. Right of transgenders

2. Rights of craniopagus twins

3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

 

A. 1

B. 1, 2

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 72 Who among was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

A. N. G. Ayyangar

B. K. M. Munshi

C. B. N. Rau

D. Muhammad Saadullah

 

Q. 73 Due to which following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the 18th century?

1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits.

2. The discovery of steam power.

3. The introduction of railways.

4. The regular supply of raw materials.

 

A. 1, 2 

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2,3 , 4

 

Q. 74 Which indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016 -17?

1. Efficiency enhancer subindex

2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex

3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex

 

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 75 In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004 – 05 to

A. 2007 -08

B. 2008 -09

C. 2010 -11

D. 2011 -12

 

Q. 76 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 77 Which chronological order is correct ?

1. Tughlaqabad Fort

2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden

3. Qutub Minar

4. Fatehpur Sikri

 

A. 3, 1, 4, 2

B. 3, 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

 

Q. 78 With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among scholars that ‘ the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation’?

A. Irfan Habib

B. Satish Chandra

C. Athar Ali

D. J . F. Richards

 

Q. 79 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 Who was editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?

A. K. T. Telang

B. Veeresalingam

C. N. G. Chandavarkar

D. K. N. Natarajan

 

Q. 81 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 83 Which statements are correct with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?

1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.

2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.

3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaeon granite and gneiss rocks.

 

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 4

D. 1, 3

 

Q. 84 Which criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?

A. population

B. income distance

C. area

D. Tax effort

 

Q. 85 A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 86 Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by

A. Article 310

B. Article 311

C. Article 312

D. Article 317

 

Q. 87 A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

A. Mandamus

B. Habeas corpus

C. Certiorari

D. Prohibition

 

Q. 88 Which cannot be introduced first in Rajya Sabha?

A. constitutional Amendment

B. CAG Report

C. Annual Financial Statement

D. Bill to alter the boundaries of any State

 

Q. 89 The National Commision for Women was created by

A. an amendment in the Constitution of India

B. a decision of the Union Cabinet

C. an Act passed by the Parliament

D. an order of President of India

 

Q. 90 Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation ( PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?

A. M. Hidayatullah

B. A. S. Anand

C. A. M. Ahmadi

D. P. N. Bhagwati

 

Q. 91 Which 12th century Sanskrit scholar was responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?

A. Harsha

B. Govinda Chandra

C. Lakshmidhara

D. Kalidasa

 

Q. 92 Which scholar argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough’?

A. Bill Warren

B. Paul Baran

C. Geoffrey Kay

D. Lenin

 

Q. 93 Which river is praised in 5ht century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

A. Cauvery

B. Godavari

C. Saraswati

D. GANGES

 

Q. 94 Which statements about Harappan Culture is not correct?

A. it witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

B. it marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

C. it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

D. it marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

 

Q. 95 Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

A. Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha

B. Varman Dynasty of Assam

C. Nanda Dynasty of North India

D. None of above

 

Q. 96 Which lake are situated in Ladakh?

1. Tso Kar

2. Pangong Tso

3. Tsomgo

4. Tso Moriri

 

A. 1

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 2, 4

 

Q. 97 ‘ Tuvala’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?

A. potato plant that could grow in high altitude

B. place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found.

C. New innovative technology to meet global warming.

D. A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

 

Q. 98 Which statements related to latitude are true?

1. Rainfall , temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.

2. The difference between the longest day and shortest day increases with latitude.

3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6° 45′ N latitude.

 

A. 1,2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 99 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 100 Which statements are correct?

1.Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.

2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.

3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

A. 2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2,3

 

Q. 101 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 102 Which statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution Of India is not correct?

A. it is a Fundamental Right of every Indian Citizen.

B. The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

C. it is not enforceable by any court

D. it is not enforceable by a court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

 

Q. 103 Which was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

1. Atmiya Sabha

2. Brahmo Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

 

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 3. 4

 

Q. 104 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 105 Which statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?

A. Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

B. The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

C. Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

D. Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

 

Q. 106 Which statements about All India Services is correct?

A. The All India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament.

B. The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

C. The rules of recruitment to be the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

D. The conditioned of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

 

Q. 107 Which statement about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

A. The powers of the union executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

B. The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.

C. Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India

D. If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he ay declare financial emergency in the State.

 

Q. 108 The National Handloom Day is observed on

A. 7 June

B. 17 July

C. 7 August

D. 17 September

 

Q. 109 Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which country?

A. India

B. Russia

C. China

D. Israel

 

Q. 110 Which was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?

A. Green Economy : Doe it include you ?

B. Connecting People to Nature

C. Think, Eat, Save

D. Many Species, one planet, one future

 

Q. 111 The all – women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which is not one of them?

A. Fremantle

B. Lyttelton

C. Port Stanley

D. Durban

 

Q. 112 Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?

A. States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

B. GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 240 was inadequate for such a case.

C. The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

D. The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

 

Q. 113 Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?

A. New Delhi

B. Lahore

C. Amritsar

D. Islamabad

 

Q. 114 The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for 

A. building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

B. building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

C. building roads to connect coastal areas

D. training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

 

Q. 115 Which statement is not correct about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’ ?

A. The size of the project is about USD 25million.

B. The duration of the project is 15 years.

C. The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the Project.

 

Q. 116 UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation stands for

A. union basic income

B. undefined basic income

C. unconditional basic income

D. universal basic income

 

Q. 117 Which authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag Partener’ ?

A. Telecom Regulatory Authority

B. National Highways Authority

C. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

D. National Disaster Management Authority

 

Q. 118 ‘ Pragati’ scholarship scheme of Government of India is meant for

A. higher education of girls

B. technical education of girls

C. secondary education of girls

D. elementary education of girls

 

Q. 119 Which is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana ( SAGY) ?

A. it focuses on community participation.

B. it is to be guided by a member of the Parliament

C. it aims at creating infrastructure for the village

D. a village development plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

 

Q. 120 Which is not included in the National Air Quality Index?

A. sulphur

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. lead

D. methane

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	C	C	B	C	C	B	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	A	B	D	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	C	D	D	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	D	A	C	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	D	C	D	A	B	C	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	D	B	A	B	C	C	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	D	A	D	A	B	A	D	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	B	B	A	B	B	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	C	D	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	A	D	C	D	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	C	B	B	D	B	B	C	D

CDSE 1 2017 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains

A. a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group

B. a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate group

C. deoxyribose sugar , ribose sugar and phosphate group

D. a nitrogenous base, and phosphate group only

 

Q. 2 The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as

A. translation

B. transcription

C. replication

D. mutation

 

Q. 3 AIDS can be caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through

A. eating contaminated food and water

B. transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products

C. inhaling polluted air

D. shaking hand with infected person

 

Q. 4 In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells

A. there is a breakdown of these regulatory mechanism leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors

B. controlled cell division and over production of genetic material occur

C. RNA is mutated and produced in less amount

D. DNA is mutated and produced in less amount

 

Q. 5 Most viruses that infect plant possess

A. single stranded DNA

B. single stranded RNA

C. double stranded DNA and RNA

D. double stranded RNA only

 

Q. 6 Syngamy results in formation of

A. haploid zygote

B. diploid zygote

C. non-motile male gametes

D. motile male gametes

 

Q. 7 Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occurs due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins

A. VitaminC

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin B

 

Q. 8 When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then

A. the conductivity of the doped silicon piece will remain the same

B. the doped silicon piece will become n-type

C. the doped silicon piece will become p-type

D. the resistivity of the doped silicon piece will increase

 

Q. 9 Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R. The power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now the same voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power dissipated in the second case will be

A. P

B. 3P

C. P/3

D. 2P/3

 

Q. 10 Which one of the following is not a semiconductor

A. Silicon

B. Germanium

C. Quartz

D. Gallium arsenide

 

Q. 11 A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates, has capacitance C. Now the space between the two plates of capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become

A. C

B. C/7

C. 7C

D. 14C

 

Q. 12 For which one of the following does the centre of mass is outside the body

A. A fountain pen

B. A cricket ball

C. A ring

D. A book

 

Q. 13 Which one of the following is a physical change

A. Burning of coal

B. Burning of wood

C. Heating of a platinum crucible

D. Heating of potassium chlorate

 

Q. 14 The pH value of a sample of multiple distilled water is

A. zero

B. 14

C. very near to zero

D. very near to seven

 

Q. 15 Which one of the following is the most characteristic property of an element

A. Density

B. Boiling point

C. Mass number

D. atomic number

 

Q. 16 There are two elements- calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as

A. isotones

B. isochores

C. isobars

D. isotopes

 

Q. 17 ‘Plum Pudding Model’ for an atom was proposed by

A. Antoine Lavoisier

B. Robert Boyle

C. Ernest Rutherford

D. J. J. Thomson

 

Q. 18 What is the number of atoms in 46 g of sodium-23 (N= Avogadro constant)

A. N/2

B. N

C. 2N

D. 23N

 

Q. 19 Which one of the following statements is correct. For the purpose of Census 2011 

A. a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

B. a person aged eight and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

C. a person aged nine and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

D. a person aged ten and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

 

Q. 20 In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake situated

A. Sikkim

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Manipur

D. Meghalaya

 

Q. 21 The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is called

A. croping intensity

B. intensity of crop rotation

C. crop productivity

D. cropping diversity

 

Q. 22 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)

A. Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

B. Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

C. Pennru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

D. Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna

 

Q. 23 Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct

A. Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys but are highly resistant erosion

B. The surrounding areas can be remain highlands, lava ridges or mesas

C. Hawaiian shield volcanoes are eroded by streams that flow from deeply carved valleys with steeply sloping heads

D. The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern

 

Q. 24 Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by

A. sufficient carbohydrates but less fats in diet

B. sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet

C. sufficient vitamins but deficient fats in diet

D. sufficient fats but deficient vitamins in diet

 

Q. 25 The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by nerves. The heartbeat originates from

A. sinoatrial node

B. QRS wave

C. T wave

D. hepatic portal system

 

Q. 26 The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition. They are

A. carbohydrates, fats and proteins

B. indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpense

C. fatty acids, glucose and vitamins

D. vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose

 

Q. 27 Consider the electromagnetic radiations having wavelengths 200nm, 500nm and 1000nm. Which wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation to a human eye.

A. 200 nm and 500 nm

B. 500 nm and 1000 nm

C. 500 nm only

D. 200 nm and 1000nm

 

Q. 28 A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be

A. 5R

B. 5/4 R

C. 4/5 R

D. R/5

 

Q. 29 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C₁ is made using two gold plates. Another parallelplate capacitor of capacitance C₂ is made using two aluminium plates with same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same area. If pᵤ and pᵦ are respectively the electrical resistivities of gold and aluminium, then which one of the following relations is correct

A. C₁ > C₂

B. C₂ > C₁

C. C₁ pᵦ = C₂ pᵤ

D. C₁= C₂

 

Q. 30 A photon of X- ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct

A. The Wavelength of X- ray photon is less than the wavelength of visible radiation photon

B. both the photons have different energies

C. The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are different

D. The frequency of X- ray photon is higher than the frequency of visible radiation photon.

 

Q. 31 The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is

A. diffraction

B. interference

C. dispersion

D. reflection

 

Q. 32 With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct

A. It was launched in the year 1973

B. The objective of the project is to preserve the habitats and tigers therein as natural heritage

C. The project emphasized to ensure viable population of tigers in India

D. There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India

 

Q. 33 Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India

A. Agasthyamalai

B. Nokrek

C. Great Nicobar

D. Great Himalayan

 

Q. 34 Which of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct 

A. The Indian rail networks have been developed throughout the Konkan coast

B. There is very low density of railway lines in the Himalayan region

C. The north Indian plain has a dense network of railway

D. At present, India has the largest railway network in the world

 

Q. 35 Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct

1- The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.

2- It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.

3- It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.

4- Viticulture is a speciality of the M Mediterranean region.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4

 

Q. 36 Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solsticc is correct 

A. The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness

B. It occurs on June 21

C. The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness

D. The Sun is at aphelion

 

Q. 37 Tropical evergreen rainforest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct

A. It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year

B. The biome is also called mega thermal biome

C. The evergreen rain forest biome extends between 10⁰ N and 10⁰ S latitudes

D. The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California and north-western coastal lands of Africa

 

Q. 38 Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct

A. It often generates strong waves

B. The pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami waves.

C. Tsunami waves are also called high energy tidal waves or sesmic sea waves.

D. Tsunami is a Latin word

 

Q. 39 Which of the following statements with regard to cloudburst is/are correct

1- It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.

2- It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.

3- It result into very high intensity of rainfall i.e. 250 mm – 300 mm in a couple of hours

4- It occurs only during daytime

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 , 3 and 4

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

 

Q. 40 Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct 

A. Lack of water for plants during most part of the year

B. High organic matter

C. Large accumulation of carbonates at depth

D. Absence of deep wide crackers

 

Q. 41 What is the maximum number of states of matter

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Variable

 

Q. 42 The chemical properties of an element depend on

A. the number of isotopes of the element

B. the mass number of the element

C. the total number of neutrons in the element

D. the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element

 

Q. 43 Which one of the following statements is not correct

A. The cathode rays originate from cathode and proceed towards the anode in a cathode ray discharge tube

B. The television picture tubes are nothing but cathode ray tubes

C. the cathode rays themselves are not visible

D. the characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube

 

Q. 44 The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the acid is dissolved in water to make one litre of solution, what will be the strength of the acid

A. Two normal

B. One normal

C. 0.5 normal

D. Four normal

 

Q. 45 Which one of the following statements with regard to Jetstream, an upper level tropospheric waves, is not correct

A. It is a narrow band of high-velocity wind

B. It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 8 km to 15km

C. Jet streams are typically continuous over long distances

D. In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force

 

Q. 46 The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic ocean. which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct.

A. It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific Ocean

B. It transport warms, tropical water towards polar region

C. This current is a major factor in weather along the east coast of the USA

D. The warm water of the Gulf stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast

 

Q. 47 Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct

A. High yield per hectare of sugarcane

B. Higher sucrose content

C. Long crushing season

D. Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the east coast

 

Q. 48 ‘Rand/ZAR’ is the currency of

A. Burundi

B. Libya

C. Sudan

D. South Africa

 

Q. 49 Which one of the following ports is located on estuary

A. Kandala

B. Marmagao

C. Kolkata – Haldia

D. Tuticorin

 

Q. 50 Which one of the following statements is not correct

A. Pavo cristatus is the national bird of India

B. Nelumbo nucifera Gaertn is the national flower of India

C. Ficus benghalensis is the national tree on India

D. Mangifera indica is the national animal of India

 

Q. 51 Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the GST bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016

A. It will replace all central taxes, duties etc only by a single tax

B. It will subsume central as well as state taxes duties etc

C. GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor of human consumption at a uniform rate of 25 percent

D. Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be subjected to the levy of GST

 

Q. 52 The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns which one of the following defence platforms of India

A. Fifth Generator Fighter Aircraft

B. Combat Helicopters

C. Submarines

D. Unmanned Aerial Vehicles

 

Q. 53 How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics

A. One Silver and One Bronze

B. Two Gold

C. Two Bronze

D. None

 

Q. 54 India became a member of which one the following in 2016

A. Non – Proliferation Treaty

B. Missile Technology Control Regime

C. Nuclear Suppliers Group

D. Wassenaar Arrangement

 

Q. 55 India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port

A. Chabahar

B. Gwadar

C. Hambantota

D. Mongla

 

Q. 56 Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

A. Its headquarters is located in Kathmandu

B. China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC

C. The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka

D. The Eighteen SAARC Summit was held in Nepal

 

Q. 57 Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct

1- It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

2- It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

3- The proposed bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India

4- In spite of opposition to the bill, it was passed without any modifications.

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 and 4

 

Q. 58 Consider the following statements about Second Five Year Plan;

1- It was drafted under the leadership of K.N. Raj

2- It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.

3- The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult.

4- The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy .

which of the statements given above is/are correct

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 and 4

 

Q. 59 Consider the following statements about the different meanings of ‘SWARAJ’ as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi;

1- Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (Non-Violence) and Satyagraha (Adherence to truth).

2- Swaraj has two senses- one political and one beyond the realm of politics

3- Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire

4- With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 , 2 and 3

 

Q. 60 Which was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi 

1- Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.

2- Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists

3- Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 , 2 and 3

D. 1 only

 

Q. 61 Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct

1- It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.

2- It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.

3- It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.

4- It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines 

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 3 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 62 Which of the following statements with regards to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct;

1- He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.

2- He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.

3- He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.

4- He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 3 and 4 only

 

Q. 63 To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should

1- have a functional toilet at home

2- have payment slips of power bills

3- not be a cooperative loan defaulter

4- have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category.

select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3 only

B. 1 , 2 and 4 only

C. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

D. 3 and 4 only

 

Q. 64 Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting; 

1- The second administrative reforms commission

2- The eleventh finance commission

3- Punchii Commission

4- Sarkaria Commision

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 4 , 2 , 1 , 3

B. 4 , 3 , 2 , 1

C. 3 , 2 , 4 , 1

D. 3 , 4 , 1 , 2

 

Q. 65 Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic games

A. Rinku Hooda

B. Devendra Jhajharia

C. Sundar Singh Gurjar

D. Mariyappan Thangavelu

 

Q. 66 Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayatas in India are correct;

1- Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.

2- The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.

3- The Panchayats work on the principle of constititional autonomy.

4- The State Legislature may by Law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4

D. 1 and 4 only

 

Q. 67 Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct;

1- All states have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

2- Consent of a state is not required for altering its boundaries

3- There is no dual citizenship in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

 

Q. 68 Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India

1- Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one more States.

2- The power to hear appeals from the High Courts

3- Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it

4- Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.

Select the correct answer using the code below

 

A. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

B. 1 , 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 and 4 only

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following is not a component if Revenue Receipts of the Union Government

A. Corporate tax receipts

B. Dividends and profits

C. Disinvestment receipts

D. Interest receipts

 

Q. 70 TRIPS agreement pertains to

A. international tariff regime

B. intellectual property protection

C. international practices on trade facilitation

D. international taxation of property

 

Q. 71 The 7.6 % growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on 

A. Gross National Product at market prices

B. Gross value Added at constant prices

C. Gross Domestic Product at market price

D. Gross Domestic Product at constant price

 

Q. 72 Which of the following statements about Trans- Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct 

1- The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015.

2- The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40 percent of global GDP.

3- India is a founder member of TPP.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 73 Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct

1- It is a decentralized virtual currency.

2- It is generated through complex computer software systems

3- The Reserve Bank Of India recognized it as a legal tender in January 2016

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

 

Q. 74 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircraft to the Indian Air Force 2016. What is the name of these new combat aircraft.

A. Marut

B. Garud

C. Tejas

D. Pushpak

 

Q. 75 Consider the following statements about a famous football player;

‘He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden Shoes in his career .’ Who is that player

A. Andres Iniesta

B. Lionel Messi

C. Cristiano Ronaldo

D. Zinedine Zidane

 

Q. 76 Which of the following is/are correct

1- In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientist announced the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.

2- Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light years distant.

3- Gravitational waves were inserted due to a collision of two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years distant,.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

 

Q. 77 In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a 6000 crore rupees special package for the textile and apparel sector to

1- create one crore jobs within three years

2- create jobs equally for men and women

3- provide tax and production incentive for the entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

 

Q. 78 Which one of the following is not an Inter-Service Establishment

A. Officers Training Academy

B. National Defence Academy

C. National Defence College

D. Armed Forces Medical College

 

Q. 79 Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award

A. Shaurya Chakra

B. Vir Chakra

C. Yudh Seva Medal

D. Param Vir Chakra

 

Q. 80 The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which one of the following places

A. Karwar

B. Kochi

C. Thiruvananthapuram

D. Chennai

 

Q. 81 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

A. A – 4 B – 3 C – 1 D – 2

B. A – 3 B – 1 C – 4 D – 2

C. A – 4 B – 3 C – 2 D – 1

D. A – 3 B – 4 C – 2 D – 1

 

Q. 82 Consider the following statement about the Salt March

1- The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media.

2- The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.

3- The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.

4- The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians.

which of the statements given above are correct

 

A. 1 , 2 and 4

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 83 In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India

1- only about 10 to 1 2 percent of the population had the right to vote

2- the untouchables had no right to vote

3- the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces

4- the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the seats reserved for Muslims.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 3 and 4

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 , 3 and 4

 

Q. 84 Which of the following statements about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct

1- It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.

2- It mainly comprised the trading castes.

3- It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 85 Who among the following is the author of the book A comparison between Women and Men

A. Pandita Ramabai

B. Sarojini Niadu

C. Tarabai Shinde

D. Rameshwari Nehru

 

Q. 86 The fact that the planets moves around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by

A. Galileo

B. Martin Luther

C. Johannes Kepler

D. Copenicus

 

Q. 87 During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average lifespan of workers in Manchestar was

A. 17 years

B. 30 years

C. 55 years

D. 62 years

 

Q. 88 George Washington was made the Commander in Chief of the American forces

A. in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party

B. at the First Continental Congress in September 1774

C. at the Second Continental Congress in 1775

D. by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of Independence on 4th July, 1776

 

Q. 89 Alexander Kerensky was

A. the head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution

B. a close confidant of Lenin, with whose help the Czar was dethroned

C. the head of the Czar’s army

D. an advisor of Joseph Stalin

 

Q. 90 The 12th five-year plan focussed on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness

1- Poverty

2– Group inequality

3- Regional imbalance

4- Unemployment

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 3 and 4 only

B. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 91 Which of the following statements are correct about Saakshar Bharat scheme

1- It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the 11th five-year plan.

2- The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general

3- The above applies to persons above the age of 10 years

4- The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4

D. 1 , 3 and 4

 

Q. 92 BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in

A. Brazil

B. China

C. India

D. South Africa

 

Q. 93 Which country signed a Memorandum Of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon/Tur ad other pulses in July 2016

A. South Africa

B. Syria

C. Egypt

D. Mozambique

 

Q. 94 Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct

1- The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.

2- The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him

3- The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President

Select the correct answer using the code give below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 95 Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution if Indi is/are correct

1- Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.

2- Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right

3- Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

 

Q. 96 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India 

1- Free and compulsory education should be proved to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

2- The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.

3- There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.

Select the correct answer using code given below

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 97 Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct

A. Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities

B. Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property

C. Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose

D. Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion

 

Q. 98 Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct

A. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds of such arrest

B. No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by a legal practitioner of his/her choice

C. Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest

D. The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person jail pursuant to a judicial order

 

Q. 99 Which one of the following intellectual property right is protected without making any registration

A. Copyright

B. Patent

C. Industrial design

D. Trademark

 

Q. 100 Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in India

A. NASDAQ Index

B. BSE Index

C. Consumer Price Index

D. Wholesale Price Index

 

Q. 101 The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of 

A. non-discrimination between nations

B. discrimination between nation

C. differential treatment between locals and foreigners

D. uniform tariff across commodities

 

Q. 102 Goods and Service Tax likely to be levied in India is not a

A. gross value tax

B. value-added tax

C. consumption tax

D. destination-based tax

 

Q. 103 Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to

A. Monetary Economics

B. Welfare Economics

C. Environmental Economics

D. Development Economics

 

Q. 104 The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following

A. Captain of the Indian Army

B. Group Captain in the Indian Air Force

C. Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army

D. Wing Commander of the Indian Air Force

 

Q. 105 Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Air Force

A. It has been in many friendly countries

B. It does not carry out joint exercise with any country

C. It has a separate Maintenance Command

D. No officer has ever been elevated to the rank of Marshal of the Indian Air Force

 

Q. 106 The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly manoeuvrable fast attack craft INS Tihayu. INS Tihayu would be based in

A. Kochi

B. Panaji

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Mumbai

 

Q. 107 Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in June 2016

A. Multi-brand retailing

B. Defence

C. Private security agencies

D. Manufacturing of small arms and ammunition cover under the Arms Act, 1959

 

Q. 108 BREXIT refers to Great Britain leaving which one of the following

A. International Monetary Fund

B. Commonwealth

C. World Trade Organisation

D. European Union

 

Q. 109 In which one of the following cities are the Summer Olympics 2020 going to be held

A. London

B. Paris

C. Tokyo

D. Moscow

 

Q. 110 Who among the following is the President of Republic of the Union of Myanmar 

A. Aung San Suu Kyi

B. Htin Kyaw

C. Myint Swe

D. Henry Van Thio

 

Q. 111 The following consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below;

Statement I – The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.

Statement II – The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later 

A. Both the statement are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

B. Both the statement are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true

 

Q. 112 The following consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below-

Statement I – The Poona Act provided for 151 reserved seats for the scheduled castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate.

statement II – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a deacde when the Communal Awardwas revoked.

A. Both the statement are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

B. Both the statement are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true

 

Q. 113 Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct

A. The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with M. C. Rajah as its first elected president

B. The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1926

C. Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930

D. The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for seperate electorate for the depresses classes

 

Q. 114 Which one of following statements about the Justice Party is not correct

A. It clamored for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non- Brahmins as had been granted to the muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms.

B. It was patronized mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins

C. It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

D. It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920

 

Q. 115 The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by

A. Henry Dundas

B. Alexander Reed

C. David Ricardo

D. Mountstuart Elphinstone

 

Q. 116 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution

1- The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.

2- The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.

3- The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority

 

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

 

Q. 117 Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct

A. Every section of the citizen has the right to conserve its language, script or culture

B. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language

C. The State shall in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community

D. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

 

Q. 118 Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct

A. The provisions contained in Part 4 IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court

B. The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country

C. It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws

D. The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.

 

Q. 119 Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice President of India

A. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the House of the Parliament.

B. The Vice President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

C. The Vice President shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State

D. The Vice President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit

 

Q. 120 Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India

A. The Supreme Court of India

B. The Election Commission of India

C. The Parliamentary Committe

D. The High Court of Delhi

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	B	A	B	B	A	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	C	D	D	C	D	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	C	D	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	C	D	D	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	D	B	D	D	D	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	B	A	B	C	C	D	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	A	A	B	C	B	A	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	B	C	B	B	C	A	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	A	A	C	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	C	A	D	C	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	D	B	A	C	D	A	A