GATE 2017 Computer Science and Information Technology Session 2
Q. 1 The representation of the value of a 16−bit unsigned integer X in hexadecimal number system is BCA9. The representation of the value of X in octal number system is
A. 571244
B. 736251
C. 571247
D. 136251
Q. 2 Match the following:
A. P-ii; Q-iv; R-i; S-iii
B. P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-iii
C. P-ii; Q-iv; R-iii; S-i
D. P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
Q. 3 Match the algorithms with their time complexities:
A. P→ (iii) Q → (iv) r →(i) S →(ii)
B. P→ (iv) Q →(iii) r →(i) S→(ii)
C. P→ (iii) Q →(iv) r →(ii) S→(i)
D. P→ (iv) Q →(iii) r →(ii) S→(i)
Q. 4 Let L₁, L₂ be any two context-free languages and R be any regular language. Then which of the following is/are correct.
1- L₁, L₂ is context-free
2- L₁ is context-free
3- L₁-R is context-free
4- L₁ ∩ L₂ is context-free
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 only
Q. 5 Match the following according to input (from the left column) to the compiler phase (in the right column) that processes it:
A. P-ii; Q-iii; R-iv; S-i
B. P-ii; Q-i; R-iii; S-iv
C. P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
D. P-i; Q-iv; R-ii; S-iii
Q. 6 Which of the following statements about parser is/are CORRECT?
I.Canonical LR is more powerful than SLR
II.SLR is more powerful than LALR
III.SLR is more powerful than Canonical LR
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
Q. 7 Which of the following is/are shared by all the threads in a process?
I.Program counter
II.Stack
III.Address space
IV.Registers
A. I and II only
B. III only
C. IV only
D. III and IV only
Q. 8 In a file allocation system, which of the following allocation scheme(s) can be used if no external fragmentation is allowed ?
1.Contiguous
2.Linked
3.Indexed
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only 8
Q. 9 Consider the following statements about the routing protocols. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) in an IPv4 network.
I.RIP uses distance vector routing
II.RIP packets are sent using UDP
III.OSPF packets are sent using TCP
IV.OSPF operation is based on link-state routing
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. I and IV only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
Q. 10 If, then the constants R and S are
A. 2/π and 16/π
B. 2/π and 0
C. 4/π and 0
D. 4/π and 16/π
Q. 11 Let p,q,r denote the statements ”It is raining”, “It is cold”, and “It is pleasant”, respectively. Then the statement “It is not raining and it is pleasant, and it is not pleasant only if it is raining and it is cold” is represented by
A. (¬p∧r)∧(¬r→(p∧q))
B. (¬p∧r)∧((p∧q)→¬r)
C. (¬p∧r)∨((p∧q)→¬r)
D. (¬p∧r)∨(r→(p∧q))
Q. 12 Given the following binary number in 32-bit (single precision) IEEE−754 format : 00111110011011010000000000000000
The decimal value closest to this floating-point number is :
A. 1.45∗10¹
B. 1.45∗10⁻¹
C. 2.27∗10⁻¹
D. 2.27∗10¹
Q. 13 A circular queue has been implemented using a singly linked list where each node consists of a value and a single pointer pointing to the next node. We maintain exactly two external pointers FRONT and REAR pointing to the front node and the rear node of the queue, respectively. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT for such a circular queue, so that insertion and deletion operations can be performed in O(1) time?
I.Next pointer of front node points to the rear node.
II.Next pointer of rear node points to the front node
A. (I) only.
B. (II) only.
C. Both (I) and (II).
D. Neither (I) nor (II).
Q. 14 Consider the following function implemented in C:
void print xy(int x, int y) {
int *ptr;
x=0;
ptr=&x;
y=*ptr;
*ptr=1;
printf(“%d, %d”, x, y);
}
The output of invoking printxy(1,1) is
A. 0,0
B. 0,1
C. 1,0
D. 1,1
Q. 15 The Breadth First Search (BFS) algorithm has been implemented using the queue data structure. Which one of the following is a possible order of visiting the nodes in the graph below?
A. MNOPQR
B. NQMPOR
C. QMNROP
D. POQNMR
Q. 16 Identify the language generated by the following grammar, where S is the start variable.
S→XY
X→aX∣a
Y→aYb∣ϵ
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 17 An ER model of a database consists of entity types A and B. These are connected by a relationship R which does not have its own attribute. Under which one of the following conditions, can the relational table for R be merged with that of A?
A. Relationship R is one-to-many and the participation of A in R is total
B. Relationship R is one-to-many and the participation of A in R is partial
C. Relationship R is many-to-one and the participation of A in R is total
D. Relationship R is many-to-one and the participation of A in Ris partial
Q. 18 Consider socket API on a Linux machine that supports connected UDP sockets. A connected UDP socket is a UDP socket on which connect function has already been called. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
I.A connected UDP socket can be used to communicate with multiple peers simultaneously.
II.A process can successfully call connect function again for an already connected UDP socket
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Q. 19 Consider the following tables T1 and T2.
In table T1. P is the primary key and Q is the foreign key referencing R in table T2 with on delete cascade and on-update cascade. In table T2, R is the primary key and S is the foreign key referencing P in table T1 with on-delete set NULL and on-update cascade. In order to delete record ⟨3,8⟩ from the table T1, the number of additional records that need to be deleted from table T1 is _______
Q. 20 The maximum number of IPv4 router addresses that can be listed in the record route (RR) option field of an IPv4 header is______
Q. 21 Consider the set X={a,b,c,d,e}
under partial ordering R={(a,a),(a,b),(a,c),(a,d),(a,e),(b,b),(b,c),(b,e),(c,c),(c,e),(d,d),(d,e),(e,e)}
The Hasse diagram of the partial order (X,R) is shown below.
The minimum number of ordered pairs that need to be added to R to make (X,R) a lattice is ______
Q. 22 Then the rank of P+Q is ___________ . for the given matrices
Q. 23 G is an undirected graph with n vertices and 25 edges such that each vertex of G has degree at least 3. Then the maximum possible value of n is _________ .
Q. 24 Consider the quadratic equation x²−13x+36=0 with coefficients in a base b. The solutions of this equation in the same base b are x=5 and x=6. Then b= _____
Q. 25 The minimum possible number of states of a deterministic finite automaton that accepts the regular language L = {w1aw2 | w1,w2 ∈ {a,b}∗ , |w1|=2,|w2|≥3} is ______________ .
Q. 26 P and Q are considering to apply for a job. The probability that P applies for the job is 1/4, the probability that P applies for the job given that Q applies for the job is 1/2, and the probability that Q applies for the job given that P applies for the job is 1/3. Then the probability that P does not apply for the job given that Q does not apply for this job is
A. 4/5
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 11/12
Q. 27 If w, x, y and z are boolean variables, then which of the following are incorrect.
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
Q. 28 Given f(w,x,y,z)=Σm(0,1,2,3,7,8,10)+Σd(5,6,11,15); where d represents the ‘don’t-care’ condition in Karnaugh maps. Which of the following is a minimum product-of-sums (POS) form of f(w,x,y,z)?
A. f=(w¯+z¯)(x¯+z)
B. f=(w¯+z)(x+z)
C. f=(w+z)(x¯+z)
D. f=(w+z¯)(x¯+z)
Q. 29 In a two-level cache system, the access times of L1 and L2 caches are 1 and 8 clock cycles, respectively. The miss penalty from the L2 cache to main memory is 18 clock cycles. The miss rate of L1 cache is twice that of L2. The average memory access time (AMAT) of this cache system is 2 cycles. The miss rates of L1 and L2 respectively are
A. 0.111 and 0.056
B. 0.056 and 0.111
C. 0.0892 and 0.1784
D. 0.1784 and 0.0892
Q. 30 Consider the recurrence function
Then T(n) in terms of θ notation is
A. θ(loglogn)
B. θ(logn)
C. θ(√n)
D. θ(n)
Q. 31 For any discrete random variable X, with probability mass function
define the polynomial function
For a certain discrete random variable Y, there exists a scalar β∈[0,1] such that gy(z)=(1−β +βz)^N. The expectation of Y is
A. Nβ(1−β)
B. Nβ
C. N(1−β)
D. Not expressible in terms of N and β alone
Q. 32 Consider the following expression grammar G:
E→E−T∣T
T→T+F∣F
F→(E)∣id
Which of the following grammars is not left recursive, but is equivalent to G?
A. E→E−T∣T T→T+F∣FF→(E)∣id
B. E→TE′ E′→−TE′∣ϵ T→T+F∣F F→(E)∣id
C. E→TX X→−TX∣ϵ T→FY Y→+FY∣ϵ F→(E)∣id
D. E→TX∣(TX) X→−TX∣+TX∣ϵ T→id
Q. 33 A system shares 9 tape drives. The current allocation and maximum requirement of tape drives for that processes are shown below:
Which of the following best describes current state of the system?
A. Safe, Deadlocked
B. Safe, Not Deadlocked
C. Not Safe, Deadlocked
D. Not Safe, Not Deadlocked
Q. 34 Consider the binary code that consists of only four valid codewords as given below: 00000, 01011, 10101, 11110
Let the minimum Hamming distance of the code p and the maximum number of erroneous bits that can be corrected by the code be q. Then the values of p and q are
A. p=3 and q=1
B. p=3 and q=2
C. p=4 and q=1
D. p=4 and q=2
Q. 35 Consider two hosts X and Y, connected by a single direct link of rate 10⁶ bits/sec. The distance between the two hosts is 10,000 km and the propagation speed along the link is 2×10⁸ m/sec. Host X sends a file of 50,000 bytes as one large message to host Y continuously. Let the transmission and propagation delays be p milliseconds and q milliseconds respectively. Then the value of p and q are
A. p =50 and q=100
B. p =50 and q=400
C. p=100 and q=50
D. p =400 and q=50
Q. 36 The pre-order traversal of a binary search tree is given by 12,8,6,2,7,9,10,16,15,19,17,20. Then the post-order traversal of this tree is
A. 2,6,7,8,9,10,12,15,16,17,19,20
B. 2,7,6,10,9,8,15,17,20,19,16,12
C. 7,2,6,8,9,10,20,17,19,15,16,12
D. 7,6,2,10,9,8,15,16,17,20,19,12
Q. 37 Consider the C program fragment below which is meant to divide x by y using repeated subtractions. The variables x, y, q and r are all unsigned int.
while (r >= y) {
r=r-y;
q=q+1;
}
Which of the following conditions on the variables x,y,q and r before the execution of the fragment will ensure that the loop terminated in a state satisfying the condition x==(y∗q+r)?
A. (q==r) && (r==0)
B. (x>0) && (r==x) && (y>0)
C. (q==0) && (r==x) && (y>0)
D. (q==0) && (y>0)
Q. 38 Consider the following C function
int fun(int n) {
int I, j;
for(i=1; i<=n; i++) {
for (j=1; j printf(“%d %d”, I, j);
}
}
}
Time complexity of fun in terms of Θ notation is
A. Θ(n√n)
B. Θ(n²)
C. Θ(nlogn)
D. Θ(n²logn)
Q. 39 Let δ denote the transition function and δˆ denote the extended transition function of the ϵ-NFA whose transition table is given below:
Then δˆ(q2,aba) is
A. ∅
B. {q0,q1,q3}
C. {q0,q1,q2}
D. {q0,q2,q3}
Q. 40 Consider the following languages.
Which of the following are CORRECT?
I.L₁ is context free but not regular
II.L₂ is not context free
III.L₃is not context free but recursive
Iv.L₄ is deterministic context free
A. I, II and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. III and IV only
Q. 41 Let L(R) be the language represented by regular expression R. Let L(G) be the language generated by a context free grammar G. Let L(M) be the language accepted by a Turing machine M. Which of the following decision problems are undecidable?
I.Given a regular expression R and a string w, is w∈L(R)?
II.Given a context-free grammar G, is L(G)=∅
III.Given a context-free grammar G, is L(G)=Σ∗ for some alphabet Σ?
IV.Given a Turing machine M and a string w, is w∈L(M)?
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. III and IV only
Q. 42 The next state table of a 2-bit saturating up-counter is given below.
The counter is built as a synchronous sequential circuit using T flip-flops. The expressions for T1 and T0 are
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 43 Consider the following snippet of a C program. Assume that swap (&x,&y) exchanges the content of x and y:
int main () {
int array[] = {3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2};
int done =0;
int i;
while (done==0) {
done =1;
for (i=0; i<=4; i++) {
if (array[i] < array[i+1]) {
swap(&array[i], &array[i+1]);
done=0;
}
}
for (i=5; i>=1; i–) {
if (array[i] > array[i-1]) {
swap(&array[i], array[i-1]);
done =0;
}
}
}
printf(“%d”, array[3]);
}
The output of the program is _______
Q. 44 Two transactions T1 and T2 are given as
T1:r1(X)w1(X)r1(Y)w1(Y)
T2:r2(Y)w2(Y)r2(Z)w2(Z)
where ri(V) denotes a read operation by transaction Ti on a variable V and wi(V) denotes a write operation by transaction Ti on a variable V. The total number of conflict serializable schedules that can be formed by T1 and T2 is ______
Q. 45 The read access times and the hit ratios for different caches in a memory hierarchy are as given below:
The read access time of main memory in 90 nanoseconds. Assume that the caches use the referred-word-first read policy and the write-back policy. Assume that all the caches are direct mapped caches. Assume that the dirty bit is always 0 for all the blocks in the caches. In execution of a program, 60% of memory reads are for instruction fetch and 40% are for memory operand fetch. The average read access time in nanoseconds (up to 2 decimal places) is _________
Q. 46 Consider the following database table named top_scorer.
Consider the following SQL query:
SELECT ta.player FROM top_scorer AS ta
WHERE ta.goals >ALL (SELECT tb.goals
FROM top_scorer AS tb
WHERE tb.country = ‘Spain’)
AND ta.goals > ANY (SELECT tc.goals
FROM top_scorer AS tc
WHERE tc.country=’Germany’)
The number of tuples returned by the above SQL query is ______
Q. 47 If the ordinary generating function of a sequence ….
then then a₃−a₀ is equal to ___________ .
Q. 48 If a random variable X has a Poisson distribution with mean 5, then the expectation E[(x+2)²] equals ___.
Q. 49 In a B+ Tree , if the search-key value is 8 bytes long , the block size is 512 bytes and the pointer size is 2 B , then the maximum order of the B+ Tree is ____
Q. 50 A message is made up entirely of characters from the set X={P,Q,R,S,T}. The table of probabilities for each of the characters is shown below:
If a message of 100 characters over X is encoded using Huffman coding, then the expected length of the encoded message in bits is ______.
Q. 51 Consider the set of process with arrival time ( in milliseconds ) , CPU burst time ( in milliseconds) and priority ( 0 is the highest priority ) shown below . None of the process have I/O burst time The average waiting time (in milliseconds) of all the process using preemptive priority scheduling algorithm is ______
Q. 52 If the characteristic polynomial of a 3 × 3 matrix M over R (the set of real numbers) is λ³–4λ² +aλ+30,a∈R , and one eigenvalue of M is 2, then the largest among the absolute values of the eigenvalues of M is _______
Q. 53 Consider a machine with a byte addressable main memory of 2³² bytes divided into blocks of size 32 bytes. Assume that a direct mapped cache having 512 cache lines is used with this machine. The size of the tag field in bits is _______
Q. 54 Consider the following C program.
#include
int main () {
int m=10;
int n, n1;
n=++m;
n1=m++;
n–;
–n1;
n-=n1;
printf(“%d”, n);
return 0;
}
The output of the program is ______
Q. 55 Consider the following C program.
#include
#include
int main() {
char* c=”GATECSIT2017”;
char* p=c;
printf(“%d”, (int)strlen(c+2[p]-6[p]-1));
return 0;
}
The output of the program is _______
Q. 56 Choose the options with the words that are not synonyms
A. aversion , dislike
B. luminious , radiant
C. plunder,loot
D. yeinding ,resistant
Q. 57 Saturn is ________ to be seen on a clear night with the naked eye .
A. enough bright
B. bright enough
C. as enough bright
D. bright as enough
Q. 58 There are 5 building V,W,X,Y and Z in a row .V is the west of W.Z is east of X and west of V.W is the west of Y .Which is the building in the middle .?
A. V
B. W
C. X
D. Y
Q. 59 A test has 20 questions with 100 marks in total.There are 2 types of questions.Multiple choice questions are 3 marks each and essay questions are 11 marks each .How many multiple choice questions does the paper have ?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 18
D. 19
Q. 60 There are 3 red socks, 4 green socks,and 3 blue socks.You choose 2 socks.The probability that they are same color ?
A. 1/5
B. 7/30
C. 1/4
D. 4/15
Q. 61 We lived in a culture that that denied any merit to literary works , considering that
considering them important only when they were handmaidens to something seemingly more urgent -namely ideology .This was a country where all gestures even most private were interrupted in the political terms. The authors belief that ideology is not as important as literature is revealed by the word
A. Culture
B. seemingly
C. urgent
D. political
Q. 62 There are 3 boxes one contains apples another contains oranges and the last one contains both apples and oranges .All three are known to be perfectly labelled .If you are permitted to open just one box and then pull out and inspect only one fruit .Which box would you open to determine the contents of all three boxes.
A. The box labelled “Apples “
B. The box labelled “Apples and oranges “
C. The box labelled ” oranges “
D. cannot be determined
Q. 63 X is a 30 digit number starting with the digit 4 following by the digit 7 .The number x³ will have
A. 90 digits
B. 91 digits
C. 92 digits
D. 93 digits
Q. 64 The number of roots of e^x+0.5x²-2 =0 in the range [-5,5] is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 65 An air pressure contour line joins locations in the region having the same atmospheric pressure .The following is an air pressure contour plot of a geographical region .Contour lines are shown in 0.05 bar intervals in this plot.
If the possibility of a thunderstorm is given by how fast air pressure rises drops over a
region .Which of the following is most likely to have a thunderstorm ?
GATE 2017 Computer Science and Information Technology Session 1
Q. 1 The statement (¬p) ⇒ (¬q) is logically equivalent to which of the statements below?
I. p ⇒ q
II. q ⇒ p
III. (¬q) ∨ p
IV. (¬p) ∨ q
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. II only
D. II and III only
Q. 2 Consider the first-order logic sentence F : ∀x (∃y R(x, y)). Assuming non-empty logical domains, which of the sentences below are implied by F?
I. ∃y (∃x R(x, y))
II. ∃y (∀x R(x, y))
III. ∀y (∃x R(x, y))
IV. ¬∃x (∀y ¬R(x, y))
A. IV only
B. I and IV only
C. II only
D. II and III only
Q. 3 Let c_1, …, c_n be scalars, not all zero, such that for i = 0 to n, Σ c_i a_i = 0 where a_i are column vectors in R^n. Consider the set of linear equations Ax = b where A = [a_1 , … , a_n] and b = Σ a_i for i = 1 to n. The set of equations has
A. a unique solution at x = J_n where J_n denotes an n-dimensional vector of all 1
B. no solution
C. infinitely many solutions
D. finitely many solutions
Q. 4 Consider the following functions from positive integers to real numbers:
10, √n, n, log2 n, 100/n.
The CORRECT arrangement of the above functions in increasing order of asymptotic complexity is
A. log2 n, 100/n, 10, √n, n
B. 100/n, 10, log2 n, √n, n
C. 10, 100/n, √n, log2 n, n
D. 100/n, log2 n, 10, √n, n
Q. 5 Consider the given table. Match the algorithms to the design paradigms they are based on.
A. (P) ↔ (ii); (Q) ↔ (iii); (R) ↔ (i)
B. (P) ↔ (iii); (Q) ↔ (i); (R) ↔ (ii)
C. (P) ↔ (ii); (Q) ↔ (i); (R) ↔ (iii)
D. (P) ↔ (i); (Q) ↔ (ii); (R) ↔ (iii)
Q. 6 Let T be a binary search tree with 15 nodes. The minimum and maximum possible heights of T are:
**The height of a tree with a single node is 0.
A. 4 and 15 respectively.
B. 3 and 14 respectively.
C. 4 and 14 respectively.
D. 3 and 15 respectively.
Q. 7 The n-bit fixed-point representation of an unsigned real number X uses f bits for the
fraction part. Let i = n – f. The range of decimal values for X in this representation is
A. 2^(-f) to 2^i
B. 2^(-f) to [2^i – 2^(-f)]
C. 0 to 2^i
D. 0 to [2^i – 2^(-f)]
Question 8
typedef struct node {
int data;
node *next;
} node;
void join (node *m, node *n) {
node *p = n;
while (p -> next != NULL) {
p = p -> next;
}
p -> next = m;
}
Q. 8 Consider the given C code fragment. Assuming that m and m point to valid NULLterminated linked lists, invocation of join will
A. append list m to the end of list n for all inputs.
B. either cause a null pointer dereference or append list m to the end of list n.
C. cause a null pointer dereference for all inputs.
D. append list n to the end of list m for all inputs.
Q. 9 When two 8-bit numbers A_7 … A_0 and B_7 … B_0 in 2’s complement representation (with A_0 and B_0 as the least significant bits) are added using a ripple-carry adder, the sum bits obtained are S_7 … S_0 and the carry bits are C_7 … C_0. An overflow is said to have occurred if
A. the carry bit C_7 is 1
B. all the carry bits (C_7, …, C_0) are 1
C. (A_7 . B_7 . (S_7)’ + (A_7)’ . (B_7)’ . S_7) is 1
D. (A_0 . B_0 . (S_0)’ + (A_0)’ . (B_0)’ . S_0) is 1
Q. 10 Consider the following context-free grammar over the alphabet Σ = {a, b, c} with S as the start symbol:
S → abScT | abcT
T → bT | b
Which one of the following represents the language generated by the above grammar?
A. {(ab)^n (cb)^n | n ≥ 1}
B. {(ab)^n (cb)^m1 (cb)^m2 … (cb)^mn | n, m1, m2, … , mn ≥ 1}
C. {(ab)^n ((cb)^m)^n | m, n ≥ 1}
D. {(ab)^n ((cb)^n)^m | m, n ≥ 1}
Question 11
struct data {
int marks[100];
char grade;
int cnumber;
};
struct data student;
Q. 11 Consider the given C struct. The base address of student is available in register R1. The field student.grade can be accessed efficiently using
A. Post-increment addressing mode, (R1)+
B. Pre-decrement addressing mode, -(R1)
C. Register direct addressing mode, R1
D. Index addressing mode, X(R1), where X is an offset represented in 2’s complement 16- bit representation.
Q. 12 Consider the following intermediate program in three-address code:
p = a – b
q = p * c
p = u * v
q = p + q
Which one of the following corresponds to a static single assignment form of the above code?
A. p1 = a – b q1 = p1 * c p1 = u * v q1 = p1 + q1
B. p3 = a – b q4 = p3 * c p4 = u * v q5 = p4 + q4
C. p1 = a – b q1 = p2 * c p3 = u * v q2 = p4 + q3
D. p1 = a – b q1 = p * c p2 = u * v q2 = p + q
Question 13
#include
int *assignval (int *x, int val) {
*x = val;
return x;
}
void main() {
int *x = malloc (sizeof(int));
if (NULL == x) return;
x = assignval (x, 0);
if (x) {
x = (int *) malloc (sizeof(int));
if (NULL == x) return 0;
x = assignval (x, 10);
}
printf (“%d\n”, *x);
free (x);
}
Q. 13 Consider the given C code. The code suffers from which one of the following problems?
A. compiler error as the return of malloc is not typecast appripriately
B. compiler error because the comparison should be made as x == NULL and not as shown
C. compiles successfully but execution may result in dangling pointer
D. compiles successfully but execution may result in memory leak
Q. 14 Consider a TCP client and a TCP server running on two different machines. After completing data transfer, the TCP client calls close to terminate the connection and a FIN segment is sent to the TCP server. Server-side TCP responds by sending an ACK, which is received by the client-side TCP. As per the TCP connection state diagram (RFC 793), in which state does the client-side TCP connection wait for the FIN from the server-side TCP?
A. LAST-ACK
B. TIME-WAIT
C. FIN-WAIT-1
D. FIN-WAIT-2
Q. 15 A sender sends a message m to receiver R, which is digitally signed by S with its private key. In the scenario, one or more of the following security violations take place:
(I) S can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.
(II) A third party attacker can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.
(III) R can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a fraudulent message.
Which one of the following are possible security violations?
A. (I) and (II) only
B. (I) only
C. (II) only
D. (II) and (III) only
Q. 16 The following functional dependencies hold true for the relational schema R {V, W, X, Y, Z}:
V → W
VW → X
Y → VX
Y → Z
Which of the following is irreducible equivalent for this set of functional dependencies?
A. V → W V → X Y → V Y → Z
B. V → W W → X Y → V Y → Z
C. V → W V → X Y → V Y → X Y → Z
D. V → W W → X Y → V Y → X Y → Z
Q. 17 Consider the following grammar:
P → xQRS
Q → yz | z
R → w | ε
S → y
What is FOLLOW(Q)?
A. {R}
B. {w}
C. {w, y}
D. {w, $}
Q. 18 Threads of a process share
A. global variables but not heap.
B. heap but not global variables.
C. neither global variables nor heap.
D. both heap global variables.
Q. 19 Let X be a Gaussian random variable with mean 0 and variance σ². Let Y = max(X, 0) where max(a, b) is the maximum of a and b. The median of Y is
Q. 20 Let T be a tree with 10 vertices. The sum of the degrees of all vertices in T is __________.
Q. 21 Consider the given Karnaugh map, where X represents “don’t care” and blank represents 0. Assume for all inputs (a, b, c, d), the respective complements (a’, b’, c’, d’) are also available. The given logic is implemented using 2-input NOR gates only. The minimum number of gates required is _______.
Q. 22 Consider the language L given by the regular expression (a + b)* b (a + b) over the alphabet {a, b}. The smallest number of states needed in a deterministic finite-state automaton (DFA) accepting L is __________.
Q. 23 Consider a database that has the relation schema EMP (EmpId, EmpName and DeptName). An instance of the schema EMP and an SQL query on it are given. The output of executing the SQL query is ________.
Q. 24 Consider the given CPU processes with arrival times (in milliseconds) and length of CPU bursts (in milliseconds) as given in the table. If the preemptive shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm is used to schedule the processes, then the average waiting time across all processes is ___________ milliseconds.
Q. 25 Consider a two-level cache hierarchy with L1 and L2 caches. An application incurs 1.4 memory accesses per instruction on average. For this application, the miss rate of L1 cache is 0.1; the L2 cache experiences, on average, 7 misses per 1000 instructions. The miss rate of L2 expressed correct to two decimal places is ____________.
Q. 26 Let G = (V, E) be any connected undirected edge-weighted graph. The weights of the edged in E are positive and distinct. Consider the following statements:
(I) Minimum Spanning Tree of G is always unique.
(II) Shortest path between any two vertices of G is always unique.
Which of the above statements is/are necessarily true?
A. (I) only
B. (II) only
C. both (I) and (II)
D. neither (I) nor (II)
Q. 27 A multithreaded program P executes with x number of threads and uses y number of locks for ensuring mutual exclusion while operating on shared memory locations. All locks in the program are non-reentrant, i.e., if a lock holds a lock l, then it cannot re-acquire lock l without releasing it. If a thread is unable to acquire a lock, it blocks until a lock becomes available. The minimum value of x and the minimum value of y together for which execution of P can result in a deadlock are
A. x = 1, y = 2
B. x = 2, y = 1
C. x = 2, y = 2
D. x = 1, y = 1
Q. 28 The value of lim_(x→1) (x^7 – 2x^5 + 1) / (x^3 – 3x^2 + 2)
A. is 0
B. is -1
C. is 1
D. does not exist
Q. 29 Let p, q, and r be propositions and the expression (p → q) → r be a contradiction. Then, the expression (r → p) → q is
A. a tautology.
B. a contradiction.
C. always TRUE when p is FALSE.
D. always TRUE when q is TRUE.
Q. 30 Let u and v be two vectors in R² whose Euclidean norms satisfy ||u|| = 2 ||v||. What is the value of α such that w = u + αv bisects the angle between u and v?
A. 2
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. -1/2
Q. 31 Let A be n X n real valued square symmetric matrix of rank 2 with Σ_(i = 1 to n) Σ_(j = 1 to n)
(A_ij)² = 50. Consider the following statements:-
(I) One eigenvalue must be in [-5, 5].
(II) The eigenvalue with largest magnitude must be strictly greater than 5.
Which of the above statements about eigenvalues of A is/are necessarily CORRECT?
A. Both (I) and (II)
B. (I) only
C. (II) only
D. Neither (I) nor (II)
Q. 32 A computer network uses polynomials over GF(2) for error checking with 8 bits as
information bits and uses x³ + x + 1 as the generator polynomial to generate the check bits. In this network, the message 01011011 is transmitted as
A. 01011011010
B. 01011011011
C. 01011011101
D. 01011011100
Q. 33 Consider a combination of T and D flip-flops connected as shown in the figure. The output of the D flip-flop is connected to the T flip-flop and the output of the T flip-flop is connected to the input of the D flip-flop. Initially, both Q0 and Q1 are set to 1 (before the 1st clock cycle). The outputs
A. Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 11 and after the 4th cycle are 00 respectively
B. Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 11 and after the 4th cycle are 01 respectively
C. Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 00 and after the 4th cycle are 11 respectively
D. Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 01 and after the 4th cycle are 01 respectively
Q. 34 If G is a grammar with productions S → SaS | aSb | bSa | SS | ∈ where S is the start variable. Then which one of the following strings is not generated by G?
A. abab
B. aaab
C. abbaa
D. babba
Question 35
void fun1 (int n) {
if (n == 0) return;
printf (“%d”, n);
fun2 (n – 2);
printf(“%d”, n);
}
void fun2 (int n) {
if (n == 0) return;
printf (“%d”, n);
fun2 (++n);
printf(“%d”, n);
}
Q. 35 Consider the given two functions. The output printed when fun1(5) is called is
A. 53423122233445
B. 53423120112233
C. 53423122132435
D. 53423120213243
Question 36
int foo (int val) {
int x = 0;
while (val > 0) {
x = x + foo (val – -);
}
return val;
}
int bar (int val) {
int x = 0;
while (val > 0) {
x = x + bar (val – -);
}
return val;
}
Q. 36 Consider the C functions foo and bar as given. Invocations of foo(3) and bar(3) will result in:
A. Return of 6 and 6 respectively.
B. Infinite loop and abnormal termination respectively.
C. Abnormal termination and infinite loop respectively.
D. Both terminating abnormally.
Q. 37 Consider the context-free grammars over the alphabet {a, b, c} given below. S and T are non-terminals.
G1 : S → aSb | T, T → cT | ∈
G2 : S → bSa | T, T → cT | ∈
The language L(G1) ∩ L(G2) is
A. Finite.
B. Not finite but regular.
C. Context-free but not regular.
D. Recursive but not context-free.
Q. 38 Consider the languages L1 and L2 over the alphabet Σ = {a, b, c}. Let L1 = {a^n b^n c^m | m, n ≥ 0} and L2 = {a^m b^n c^n | m, n ≥ 0}. Which of the following are context-free languages?
I. L1 ∪ L2
II. L1 ∩ L2
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Q. 39 Let A and B be finite alphabets and let # be a symbol outside both A and B. Let f be a total function from A* to B*. We say f is computable if there exits a Turing machine M which, given an input x in A*, always halts with f(x) on its tape. Let Lf denote the language {x # f(x) | x ∈ A*}. Which of the following statements is true?
A. f is computable if and only if Lf is recursive.
B. f is computable if and only if Lf is recursively enumerable.
C. If f is computable then Lf is recursive, but not conversely.
D. If f is computable then Lf is recursively enumerable, but not conversely.
Q. 40 Recall that Belady’s anomaly is that the page-fault rate may increase as the number of allocated frames increases. Now, consider the following statements:
S1 : Random page replacement algorithm (where a page chosen at random is replaced)
suffers from Belady’s anomaly
S2 : LRU page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s anomaly
Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. S1 is true. S2 is true.
B. S1 is true. S2 is false.
C. S1 is false. S2 is true.
D. S1 is false. S2 is false.
Q. 41 Consider a database that has the relation schemas EMP (EmpId, EmpName, DeptId) and DEPT (DeptName, DeptId). Note that the DeptId can be permitted to be NULL in the relation EMP. Consider the following queries on the database expressed in tuple relational calculus.
(I) { t | ∃u ∈ EMP( t{EmpName] = u[EmpName] ∧ ∀ v ∈ DEPT( t[DeptId] ≠ v[DeptId] ))}
(II) { t | ∃u ∈ EMP( t{EmpName] = u[EmpName] ∧ ∃ v ∈ DEPT( t[DeptId] ≠ v[DeptId] ))}
(III) { t | ∃u ∈ EMP( t{EmpName] = u[EmpName] ∧ ∃ v ∈ DEPT( t[DeptId] = v[DeptId] ))}
Which of the above queries are safe?
A. (I) and (II) only
B. (I) and (III) only
C. (II) and (III) only
D. (I), (II) and (III)
Q. 42 In a database system, unique timestamps are assigned to each transaction using Lamport’s logical clock. Let TS(T1) and TS(T2) be the timestamps of transactions T1 and T2, respectively. Besides, T1 holds a lock on the resource R, and T2 has requested a conflicting lock on the same resource R. The following algorithm is used to prevent deadlocks in the database system assuming that a killed transaction is restarted with the same timestamp.
if TS(T2) < TS(T1) then
T1 is killed
else T2 waits.
Assume any transaction that is not killed terminates eventually. Which of the following is TRUE about the database system that uses the above algorithm to prevent deadlocks?
A. The database system is both deadlock-free and starvation-free.
B. The database system is deadlock-free, but not starvation-free.
C. The database system is starvation-free, but not deadlock-free.
D. The database system is neither deadlock-free nor starvation-free.
Question 43
stmt → if expr then expr else expr ; stmt | ∅
expr → term relop term | term
term → id | number
id → a | b | c
number → [0 – 9]
where relop is a relational operator (e.g., <, >, …), ∅ refers to the empty statement,
and if, then, else are terminals.
Q. 43 Consider the given grammar. Consider a program P following the given grammar
containing ten if terminals. The number if control flow paths in P is _______.
For example, the program
if e1 then e2 else e3
has 2 control flow paths, e1 → e2 and e1 → e3.
Q. 44 In an RSA cryptosystem, a participant A uses two prime numbers p=13 and q=17 to generate her public and private keys. If the public key of A is 35, then the private key of A is ________.
Q. 45 The values of parameters for the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol are as given below:
Bit rate of the transmission channel = 1 Mbps Propagation delay from sender to receiver = 0.75 ms Time to process a frame = 0.25 ms
Number of bytes in the information frame = 1980
Number of bytes in the acknowledge frame = 20
Number of overhead bytes in the information frame = 20
Assume that there are no transmission errors. Then, the transmission efficiency
(expressed in percentage) of the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol for the above parameters is __________ (correct to 2 decimal places).
Q. 46 Consider a database that has the relation schema CR (StudentName, CourseName). An instance of the schema CR is as given in the figure. The following query is made on the database.
T1 ← Π_(CourseName) (σ_(StudentName=’SA’) (CR))
T2 ← CR ÷ T1
The number of rows in T2 is
Q. 47 The number of integer between 1 and 500 (both inclusive) that are divisible by 3 or 5 or 7:
Q. 48 Let A be an array of 31 numbers consisting of a sequence of 0’s followed by a sequence of 1’s. The problem is to find the smallest index i such that A[ i ] is 1 by probing the minimum number of locations in A. The worst case number of probes performed by an optimal algorithm is _______.
Q. 49 Consider an RISC machine where each instruction is exactly 4 bytes long. Conditional and unconditional branch instructions use PC-relative addressing mode with Offset specified in bytes to the target location of the branch instruction. Further the Offset is always with respect to the address of the next instruction in the program sequence. Consider the given instruction sequence. If the target of the branch instruction is i, then the decimal value of the Offset is ________.
Q. 50 Instruction execution in a processor is divided into 5 stages, Instruction Fetch (IF),
instruction Decode (ID), Operand Fetch (OF), Execute (EX), and Write Back (WB). These stages take 5, 4, 20, 10, and 3 nanoseconds (ns) respectively. A pipelined implementation of the processor requires buffering between each pair of consecutive stages with a delay of 2 ns. Two pipelined implementations of the processor are contemplated:
(i) a naive pipeline implementation (NP) with 5 stages and
(ii) and efficient pipeline (EP) where the OF stage is divided into stages OF1 and OF2 with execution times of 12 ns and 8 ns, respectively.
The speedup (correct up to 2 decimal places) achieved by EP over NP in executing 20
independent instructions with no hazards is _________.
Q. 51 Consider a 2-way set associative cache with 256 blocks and uses LRU replacement. Initially the cache is empty. Conflict misses are those misses which occur due to connection of multiple blocks for the same cache set. Compulsory misses occur due to first time access to the block. The sequence of access to memory blocks (0, 128, 256, 128, 0, 128, 256, 128, 1, 129, 257, 129, 1, 129, 257, 129) is repeated 10 times. The number of conflict misses experienced by the cache is _________.
Q. 52 Consider the expression (a – 1)* (((b + c) / 3) + d)). Let X be the minimum number of registers required by an optimal code generation (without any register spill) algorithm for a load/store architecture, in which (i) only load ans store instructions can have memory operands and (ii) arithmetic instructions can have only register or immediate operands. The value of X is __________.
Question 53
#include
#include
void printlength (char *s, char *t) {
unsigned int c = 0;
int len = ((strlen(s) strlen(t)) > c) ? strlen(s) : strlen(t);
printf(“%d”, len);
}
void main() {
char *x = “abc”;
char *y = “defgh”;
printlength(x, y);
}
Q. 53 Consider the given C program. Recall that strlen is defined in string.h as returning a value of type size_t, which is and unsigned int. The output of the program is ____________.
Q. 54 A cache memory unit with capacity of N words and block size of B words is to be designed. If it is designed as a direct mapped cache, the length of the TAG field is 10 bits. If the cache unit is now designed as a 16-way set-associative cache, the length of the TAG field is _______ bits.
Question 55
#include
int total (int v) {
static int count = 0;
while (v) {
count += v & 1;
v >>= 1;
}
return count;
}
void main() {
static int x = 0;
int i = 5;
for( ; i > 0; i – -) {
x = x + total (i);
}
printf(“%d\n”, x);
}
Q. 55 The output of the given C program is _________.
Q. 56 After Rajendra Chola returned from his voyage to Indonesia, he ________ to visit the temple in Thanjavur.
A. was wishing
B. is wishing
C. wished
D. had wished
Q. 57 Research in the workplace reveals that people work for many reasons ________.
A. money beside
B. beside money
C. money besides
D. besides money
Q. 58 Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali. Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the following pairs are seated opposite each other?
A. Rahul and Murali
B. Srinivas and Arul
C. Srinivas and Murali
D. Srinivas and Rahul
Q. 59 Find the smallest number y such that y × 162 is a perfect cube.
A. 24
B. 27
C. 32
D. 36
Q. 60 The probability that a k-digit number does NOT contain the digits 0, 5, or 9 is
A. 0.3^k
B. 0.6^k
C. 0.7^k
D. 0.9^k
Q. 61 “The hold of the nationalist imagination on our colonial past is such that anything
inadequately or improperly nationalist is not just history.” Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s opinion?
A. Nationalists are highly imaginative.
B. History is viewed through the filter of nationalism.
C. Our colonial past never happened.
D. Nationalism has to be both adequately and properly imagined.
Q. 62 Six people are seated around a circular table. There are at least two men and two women. There are at least three right-handed persons. Every woman has a left-handed person to her immediate right. None of the women are right-handed. The number of women at the table is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. Cannot be determined
Q. 63 The expression [ (x – y) – |x – y| ] / 2 is equal to
A. the maximum of x and y
B. the minimum of x and y
C. 1
D. none of the above
Q. 64 Arun, Gulab, Neel and Shweta must choose one shirt each from a pile of four shirts coloured red, pink, blue and white, respectively. Arun dislikes the colour red ans Shweta dislikes the colour white. Gulab and Neel like all the colours. In how many different ways can they choose the shirts so that no one has a shirt with a colour he or she dislikes?
A. 21
B. 18
C. 16
D. 14
Q. 65 A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. A contour plot of a geographical region is given. Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this plot. If in a flood, the water level rises to 525 m, which of the villages P, Q, R, S, T get submerged?
Q. 1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.
A. bare with
B. bore with
C. bear with
D. bare
Q. 2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:
A. Managable
B. Manageable
C. Mangaeble
D. Managible
Q. 3 Pick the odd one out in the following:13, 23, 33, 43, 53
A. 23
B. 33
C. 43
D. 53
Q. 4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes.Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
A. R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes
B. R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes
C. R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes
D. Only R2D2 is a robot
Q. 5 If |9y−6| =3, then y² −4y/3 is ______.
A. 0
B. +1/3
C. -1/3
D. undefined
Q. 6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is____.
Q. 7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were successful in their professions.Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
A. Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines
B. Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be mechanical engineers
C. Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering.
D. The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.
Q. 8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a developing country.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence?Based on the
Proposal, (i)In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii)SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii)SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iv)SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country
A. (iii) and (iv) only
B. (i) and (iv) only
C. (ii) and (iv) only.
D. (ii) and (iii) only
Q. 9 Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will
successfully make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?
A. 0.2508
B. 0.2816
C. 0.2934
D. 0.6000
Q. 10 The answer of the numerical is
Q. 11 The output expression for the Karnaugh map shown below is
A. A+B̅
B. A+C̅
C. A̅+C̅
D. A̅+C
Q. 12 The circuit shown below is an example of a
A. low pass filter
B. band pass filter
C. High pass filter
D. notch filteR
Q. 13 The following figure shows the connection of an ideal transformer with primary to
secondary turns ratio of 1:100. The applied primary voltage is 100 V (rms), 50 Hz, AC. The rms value of the current I, in ampere, is __________
Q. 14 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 15 Suppose the maximum frequency in a band-limited signal x(t) s 5 kHz. Then, the maximum frequency in x(t)cos(2000πt),in kHz, is ________
Q. 16 Consider the function ݂f(z)= z + z* where z*is a complex variable and ∗ݖdenotes its complex conjugate. Which one of the following is TRUE?
A. f(z) is both continuous and analytic
B. f(z) is continuous but not analytic
C. f(z) is not continuous but is analytic
D. f(z) is neither continuous nor analytic
Q. 17 A 3 × 3 matrix ܼܿP is such that P³=P ܼܿ. Then the eigenvalues of ܼܿ are
A. 1, 1, −1
B. 1, 0.5 + ݆j0.866, 0.5 − ݆j0.866
C. 1, −0.5 + ݆j0.866, −0.5 − ݆j0.866
D. 0, 1, −1
Q. 18 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 19 Choose the correct option
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Q. 20 Let f(x) be a real, periodic function satisfying ݂f(-x)=-f(x) The general form of its Fourier series representation would be.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 21 A resistance and a coil are connected in series and supplied from a single phase, 100 V, 50 Hz ac source as shown in the figure below. The rms values of plausible voltages across the resistance (VR) and coil (VC) respectively, in volts, are
A. 65, 35
B. 50, 50
C. 60, 90
D. 60, 80
Q. 22 The voltage (V) and current (A) across a load are as follows.
v(t) = 100sin(ωt),
i(t) = 10sin(ωt – 60∘) + 2sin(ωt) + 5sin(5ωt)
The average power consumed by the load, in W, is ________.
Q. 23 A power system with two generators is shown in the figure below. The system (generators, buses and transmission lines) is protected by six overcurrent relays R1 to R6. Assuming a mix of directional and nondirectional relays at appropriate locations, the remote backup relays for R4 are
A. R1, R2
B. R2, R6
C. R2, R5
D. R1, R6
Q. 24 A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow analysis using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is
A. 189 x 189
B. 100 x 100
C. 90 x 90
D. 180 x 180
Q. 25 The inductance and capacitance of a 400 kV, three-phase, 50 Hz lossless transmission line are 1.6 mH/km/phase and 10 nF/km/phase respectively. The sending end voltage is maintained at 400 kV. To maintain a voltage of 400 kV at the receiving end, when the line is delivering 300 MW load, the shunt compensation required is
A. capacitive
B. inductive
C. resistive
D. zero
Q. 26 A parallel plate capacitor filled with two dielectrics is shown in the figure below. If the electric field in the region A is 4 kV/cm, the electric field in the region B, in kV/cm, is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 16
Q. 27 A 50 MVA, 10 kV, 50 Hz, star-connected, unloaded three-phase alternator has a
synchronous reactance of 1 p.u. and a sub-transient reactance of 0.2 p.u. If a 3-phase short circuit occurs close to the generator terminals, the ratio of initial and final values of the sinusoidal component of the short circuit current is ______.
Q. 28 Consider a linear time-invariant system with transfer function
If the input cos(t) is and the steady state output is A cos(t+α) then the value of A is _________.on
Q. 29 A three-phase diode bridge rectifier is feeding a constant DC current of 100 A to a highly inductive load. If three-phase, 415 V, 50 Hz AC source is supplying to this bridge rectifier then the rms value of the current in each diode, in ampere, is _________.
Q. 30 A buck-boost DC-DC converter, shown in the figure below, is used to convert 24 V battery voltage to 36 V DC voltage to feed a load of 72 W. It is operated at 20 kHz with an inductor of 2 mH and output capacitor of 1000 μF. All devices are considered to be ideal. The peak voltage across the solid-state switch (S), in volt, is
Q. 31 For the network shown in the figure below, the frequency (in rad/s) at which the maximum phase lag occurs is, ___________
Q. 32 The direction of rotation of a single-phase capacitor run induction motor is reversed by
A. interchanging the terminals of the AC supply
B. interchanging the terminals of the capacitor
C. interchanging the terminals of the auxiliary winding
D. interchanging the terminals of both the windings
Q. 33 In the circuit shown below, the voltage and current sources are ideal. The voltage (Vout) across the current source, in volts, is
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
Q. 34 The graph associated with an electrical network has 7 branches and 5 nodes. The number of independent KCL equations and the number of independent KVL equations, respectively, are
A. 2 and 5
B. 5 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 and 3
Q. 35 Two electrodes, whose cross-sectional view is shown in the figure below, are at the same potential.
The maximum electric field will be at the point
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 36 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 37 For the circuit shown below, taking the opamp as ideal, the output voltage Vout in terms of the input voltages V1 , V2 and V3 is
A. 1.8V1 + 7.2V2 -V3
B. 2V1 + 8V2 – 9V3
C. 7.2V1 + 1.8V2 -V3
D. 8V1 + 2V2 – 9V3
Q. 38 Choose the correct option
A. 2B1
B. 2(B1+B2)
C. 4(B1+B2)
D. ∞
Q. 39 Choose the correct option
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 40 Answer is ___________
Q. 41 The line integral of the vector field F = 5xz î + (3x² + 2y) ĵ + x²z k ̂ along a path from (0,0,0) to (1,1,1) parametrized by (t,t²,t) is _____
Q. 42 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 43 Choose the correct option
A. 2, ଵ 2, ଵ 2,1/2
B. 4,1/2
C. 2,1/4
D. 4,1/4
Q. 44 The driving point input impedance seen from the source Vs of the circuit shown below, in Ω, is ______.
Q. 45 The z-parameters of the two port network shown in the figure are z11 = 40 Ω, z12 = 60 Ω, z21 = 80 Ω and z22 =100 Ω. . The average power delivered to Rl=20 Ω, in watts, is _______
Q. 46 In the balanced 3-phase, 50 Hz, circuit shown below, the value of inductance (L) is 10 mH. The value of the capacitance (C) for which all the line currents are zero, in millifarads, is ___________.
Q. 47 In the circuit shown below, the initial capacitor voltage is 4 V. Switch S1 is closed at t=0. The charge (in μC) lost by the capacitor from t= 25μs ro t= 100μs is _________.
Q. 48 The single line diagram of a balanced power system is shown in the figure. The voltage magnitude at the generator internal bus is constant and 1.0 p.u. The p.u. reactances of different components in the system are also shown in the figure. The infinite bus voltage magnitude is 1.0 p.u. A three phase fault occurs at the middle of line 2. The ratio of the maximum real power that can be transferred during the pre-fault condition to the maximum real power that can be transferred under the faulted condition is _________.
Q. 49 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 50 At no load condition, a 3-phase, 50 Hz, lossless power transmission line has sending-end and receiving-end voltages of 400 kV and 420 kV respectively. Assuming the velocity of traveling wave to be the velocity of light, the length of the line, in km, is ________.
Q. 51 The power consumption of an industry is 500 kVA, at 0.8 p.f. lagging. A synchronous motor is added to raise the power factor of the industry to unity. If the power intake of the motor is 100 kW, the p.f. of the motor is _____________
Q. 52 The flux linkage (λ) and current (i) relation for an electromagnetic system is λ = (√i)/g .When i = 2A and ݃g (air-gap length) = 10 cm, the magnitude of mechanical force on the moving part, in N, is ________.
Q. 53 The starting line current of a 415 V, 3-phase, delta connected induction motor is 120 A, when the rated voltage is applied to its stator winding. The starting line current at a reduced voltage of 110 V, in ampere, is _________
Q. 54 A single-phase, 2 kVA, 100/200 V transformer is reconnected as an auto-transformer such that its kVA rating is maximum. The new rating, in kVA, is ______.
Q. 55 A full-bridge converter supplying an RLE load is shown in figure. The firing angle of the bridge converter is 120º. The supply voltage Vm (t) = 200Π sin(100 Πt) V, R=20 Ω, E=800 V. The inductor L is large enough to make the output current IL a smooth dc current. Switches are lossless. The real power fed back to the source, in kW, is _______.
Q. 56 A three-phase Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) as shown in the figure is feeding a delta connected resistive load of 30 Ω/phase. If it is fed from a 600 V battery, with 180o conduction of solid-state devices, the power consumed by the load, in kW, is ________.
Q. 57 A DC-DC boost converter, as shown in the figure below, is used to boost 360V to 400 V, at a power of 4 kW. All devices are ideal. Considering continuous inductor current, the rms current in the solid state switch (S), in ampere, is _________.
Q. 58 A single-phase bi-directional voltage source converter (VSC) is shown in the figure below. All devices are ideal. It is used to charge a battery at 400 V with power of 5 kW from a source Vs = 220 V (rms), 50 Hz sinusoidal AC mains at unity p.f. If its AC side interfacing inductor is 5 mH and the switches are operated at 20 kHz, then the phase shift (δ) between AC mains voltage (Vs) an fundamental AC rms VSC voltage (VC1), in degree, is ________.
Q. 59 Choose the correct option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 60 Choose the correct Option
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 61 Three single-phase transformers are connected to form a delta-star three-phase
transformer of 110 kV/ 11 kV. The transformer supplies at 11 kV a load of 8 MW at 0.8 p.f. lagging to a nearby plant. Neglect the transformer losses. The ratio of phase currents in delta side to star side is
A. 1 : 10√3
B. 10√3 : 1
C. 1 : 10
D. √3 : 10
Q. 62 Choose the correct option
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 9
Q. 63 Two identical unloaded generators are connected in parallel as shown in the figure. Both the generators are having positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of j0.4 p.u., j0.3 p.u. and j0.15 p.u., respectively. If the pre-fault voltage is 1 p.u., for a line-to-ground (L-G) fault at the terminals of the generators, the fault current, in p.u., is ______.
Q. 64 An energy meter, having meter constant of 1200 revolutions/kWh, makes 20 revolutions in 30 seconds for a constant load. The load, in kW, is _________.
Q. 65 A rotating conductor of 1 m length is placed in a radially outward (about the z-axis) magnetic flux density (B) of 1 Tesla as shown in figure below. Conductor is parallel to and at 1 m distance from the z-axis. The speed of the conductor in r.p.m. required to induce a voltage of 1 V across it, should be ____________.
Q. 1 The man who is now Municipal Commissioner worked as ___________________ .
A. the security guard at a university
B. a security guard at the university
C. a security guard at university
D. the security guard at the university
Q. 2 Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is going to “cope with” the difficult and seamer friendly wickets in Australia.
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the underlined phrase in the above
sentence.
A. put up with
B. put in with
C. put down to
D. put up against
Q. 3 Find the odd one in the following group of words:
Mock, Deride, Praise, Jeer
A. Mock
B. Deride
C. Praise
D. Jeer
Q. 4 Find the odd one from the following options.
A. CADBE
B. JHKIL
C. XVYWZ
D. ONPMQ
Q. 5 In a quadratic function, the value of the product of the roots (α, β) is 4. Find the value of (α^n + β^n) / (α^-n + β^-n)
A. n^4
B. 4^n
C. 2^2n – 1
D. 4^n – 1
Q. 6 Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 are connected with each other through Facebook and 85 are connected through WhatsApp. 30 faculty members do not have Facebook or WhatsApp accounts. The number of faculty members connected only through Facebook accounts is __________.
A. 35
B. 45
C. 65
D. 90
Q. 7 Computers were invented for performing only high-end useful computations. However, it is no understatement that they have taken over our world today. The internet, for example,is ubiquitous. Many believe that the internet itself is an unintended consequence of the original invention. With the advent of mobile computing on our phones, a whole new dimension is now enabled. One is left wondering if all these developments are good or, more importantly, required.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
paragraph?
(i) The author believes that computers are not good for us.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both intended inventions
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. both (i) and (ii)
D. neither (i) nor (ii)
Q. 8 All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences.
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station.
(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake.
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. both (i) and (ii)
D. neither (i) nor (ii)
Q. 9 In a 2 x 4 rectangle grid shown in figure (1), each cell is a rectangle. How many rectangles can be observed in the grid?
A. 21
B. 27
C. 30
D. 36
Q. 10 Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in the graph in figure (1).
A. f(x) = 1 – |x – 1|
B. f(x) = 1 + |x – 1|
C. f(x) = 2 – |x – 1|
D. f(x) = 2 + |x – 1|
Q. 11 The maximum value attained by the function f(x) = x (x – 1) (x – 2) in the interval [1, 2] is __________ .
Q. 12 Consider a 3 x 3 matrix with every element being equal to 1. Its only non-zero eigenvalue is _________.
Q. 13 The Laplace Transform of f(x) = e^2t sin (5t) u(t) is
A. 5 / s^2 – 4s + 29
B. 5 / s^2 + 5
C. s – 2 / s^2 – 4s + 29
D. 5 / s + 5
Q. 14 A function y(t), such that y(0) = 1 and y(1) = 3e^-1, is a solution of the differential equation d^2y / dt^2 + 2 (dy / dt) + y = 0. Then y(2) is
A. 5e^-1
B. 5e^-2
C. 7e^-1
D. 7e^-2
Q. 15 Find the value of integral given in figure (1), over the contour |z| = 1, taken in the anticlockwise direction, would be:
A. 24πi / 13
B. 48πi / 13
C. 24 / 13
D. 12 / 13
Q. 16 The transfer function of a system is Y(s) / R(s) = s / s + 2. The steady state output y(t) is A cos (2t + φ) for the input cos(2t). The values of A and φ, respectively are
A. 1 / √2, – 45°
B. 1 / √2, +45°
C. √2, -45°
D. √2, +45°
Q. 17 The phase crossover frequency of the transfer function G(s) = 100 / (s + 1)^3 in rad/s is
A. √3
B. 1 / √3
C. 3
D. 3√3
Q. 18 Consider a continuous-time system with input x(t) and output y(t) given by
y(t) = x(t) cos(t)
A. linear and time-invariant
B. nonlinear and time-invariant
C. linear and time-varying
D. nonlinear and time-varying
Q. 19 Find the value of the given function given in figure (1), where δ(t) is the Dirac delta function, is
A. 1 / 2e
B. 2 / e
C. 1 / e^2
D. 1 / 2e^2
Q. 20 A temperature in the range of -40° C to 55° c is to be measured with a resolution of 0.1° C. The minimum number of ADC bits required to get a matching dynamic range of the temperature sensor is
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Q. 21 Consider the following circuit which uses a 2-to-1 multiplexer as shown in the figure (1). The Boolean expression for output F in terms of A and B is
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 22 A transistor circuit is given below. The Zener diode breakdown voltage is 5.3 V as shown in figure (1). Take base to emitter voltage drop to be 0.6 V. The value of the current gain β is _________.
Q. 23 In cylindrical coordinate system, the potential produced by a uniform ring charge is given by φ = f (r, z), where f is a continuous function of r and z. Let ⃗E be the resulting electric field. Then the magnitude of ∇ × ⃗E
A. increases with r
B. Is 0
C. Is 3
D. Decreases with z
Q. 24 A soft-iron toroid is concentric with a long straight conductor carrying a direct current I. If the relative permeability μ, of soft-iron is 100, the ratio of the magnetic flux densities at two adjacent points located just inside and just outside the toroid, is ____.
Q. 25 RA and RB are the input resistances of circuits as shown in figure (1). The circuits extend infinitely in the direction shown. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. RA=RB
B. RA=RB=0
C. RA< RB
D. RB= RA /(1+RA)
Q. 26 In a constant V / f induction motor drive, the slip at the maximum torque
A. is directly proportional to the synchronous speed.
B. remains constant with respect to the synchronous speed.
C. has an inverse relation with the synchronous speed.
D. has no relation with the synchronous speed
Q. 27 In the portion of a circuit shown in figure (1), if the heat generated in 5 Ω resistance is 10 calories per second, then heat generated by the 4 Ω resistance, in calories per second, is _______.
Q. 28 In the given circuit shown in figure (1), the current supplied by the battery, in ampere, is _________________ .
Q. 29 In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of he PV buses are converted to PQ type. In this iteration,
A. the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two
B. the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
C. the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two
D. the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown vp;tage magnitudes decreases by two
Q. 30 The magnitude of three-phase fault currents at buses A and B of a power system are 10 pu and 8 pu, respectively. Neglect all resistances in the system and consider the pre-fault system to be unloaded. The pre-fault voltage at all buses in the system is 1.0 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus B during a three-phase fault at bus A is 0.8 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus A during a three-phase fault at bus B, in pu, is _________________.
Q. 31 Consider a system consisting of a synchronous generator working at a lagging power factor, a synchronous motor working at an over excited condition and a directly grid connected induction generator. Consider capacitive V Ar to be a source and inductive V Ar to be a sink or reactive power. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Synchronous motor and synchronous generator are sources and induction generator is a sink of reactive power.
B. Synchronous motor and induction generator are sources and synchronous generator is a sink of reactive power.
C. Synchronous motor is a source and induction generator and synchronous generator are sinks of reactive power.
D. All are sources of reactive power.
Q. 32 A buck converter, as shown in Figure (a), is working in steady state. The output voltage and the inductor current can be assumed to be ripple free. Figure (b) shows the inductor voltage VL during a complete switching interval. Assuming all devices are ideal, the duty cycle of the buck converter is ________.
Q. 33 A steady dc current of 100 A is flowing through a power module (S, D) as shown in Figure (a). The V-I characteristics of the IGBT (S) and the diode (D) are shown in Figures (b) and (c), respectively. The conduction power loss in the power module (S, D), in watts, is ________.
Q. 34 A 4-pole, lap-connected, separately excited dc motor is drawing a steady current of 40 A while running at 600 rpm. A good approximation for the waveshape of the current in an armature conductor of the motor is given by the figure (A), (B), (C), (D)
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
Q. 35 If an ideal transformer has an inductive load element at port 2 as shown in the figure (1), the equivalent inductance at port 1 is
A. nL
B. n^2L
C. n / L
D. n^2 / L
Q. 36 Candidates were asked to come to an interview with 3 pens each. Black, blue, green and red were the permitted pen colours that the candidate could bring. The probability that a candidate comes with all 3 pens having the same colour is _________.
Q. 37 The value of S is given in the figure (1) where |α| < 1. The value of α in the range 0 < α < 1, such that S = 2α is _______________.
Q. 38 Let the eigenvalues of a 2 x 2 matrix A be 1, -2 with eigenvectors x1 and x2 respectively. Then the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrix A^2 − 3A + 4I would, respectively, be
A. 2, 14; x1, x2
B. 2, 14; x1 + x2, x1 – x2
C. 2, 0; x1, x2
D. 2, 0; x1 + x2, x1 – x2
Q. 39 Let A be a 4 x 3 real matrix with rank 2. Which one of the following statement is TRUE?
A. Rank of A^T A is less than 2
B. Rank of A^T A is equal to 2
C. Rank of A^T A is greater than 2
D. Rank of A^T A can be any number between 1 and 3
Q. 40 Consider the following asymptotic Bode magnitude plot given in figure (1) (ω is in rad/s). Which one of the following transfer functions is best represented by the above Bode magnitude plot?
A. 2s / (1 + 0.5s) (1 + 0. 25s)^2
B. 4 (1 + 0.5s) / s (1 + 0.25s)
C. 2s / (1+ 2s) (1 + 4s)
D. 4s / (1+ 2s) (1 + 4s)^2
Q. 41 Consider the following state-space representation of a linear time-invariant system given in figure (1).
The value of y(t) for (t) = log e 2 is _____________.
Q. 42 Loop transfer function of a feedback system is G(s) H(s) = s + 3 /s^2 (s – 3). Take the Nyquist contour in the clockwise direction. Then, the Nyquist plot of G(s) H(s) encircles – 1 + j0.
A. once in clockwise direction
B. twice in clockwise direction
C. once in anticlockwise direction
D. twice in anticlockwise direction
Q. 43 Given the following polynomial equation:
s^3 + 5.5 s^2 + 8.5 s + 3 = 0,
the number of roots of the polynomial, which have real parts strictly less than -1, is ___________.
Q. 44 Suppose x1(t) and x2(t) have the Fourier transforms as shown in figure (1).
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. x1(t) and x2(t) are complex and x1(t) x2(t) is also complex with nonzero imaginary part
B. x1(t) and x2(t) are real and x1(t) x2(t) is also real
C. x1(t) and x2(t) are complex but x1(t) x2(t) is real
D. x1(t) and x2(t) are imaginary but x1(t) x2(t) is real
Q. 45 The output of a continuous-time, linear time-invariant system is denoted by T {x(t)} where x(t) is the input signal. A signal z(t) is called eigen-signal of the system T, when T {z(t)} = γ z(t), where γ is a complex number, in general, and is called an eigenvalue of T. Suppose the impulse response of the system T is real and even. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. cos(t) is an eigen-signal but sin(t) is not
B. cos(t) and sin(t) are both eigen-signals but with different eigenvalues
C. sin(t) is an eigen-signal but cos(t) is not
D. cos(t) and sin(t) are both eigen-signals with identical eigenvalues
Q. 46 The current state QA QB of a two JK flip-flop system is 00. Assume that the clock rise-time is much smaller than the delay of the JK flip-flop. The next state of the system given in figure (1) is
A. 00
B. 01
C. 11
D. 10
Q. 47 A 2-bit flash Analog to Digital Converter (ADC) is given below. The input is 0 ≤ VIN ≤ 3 Volts. The expression for the LSB of the output B0 as a Boolean function of X2, X1, and X0 is
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 48 Two electric charges q and -2q are placed at (0, 0) and (6, 0) on the x-y plane. The equation of the zero equipotential curve in the x-y plane is:
A. x = – 2
B. y = 2
C. x^2 + y^2 = 2
D. (x + 2)^2 + y^2 = 16
Q. 49 In the circuit shown in figure (1), switch S2 has been closed for a long time. At time t = 0 switch S1 is closed. At t = 0+, the rate of change of current through the inductor, in amperes per second, is __________.
Q. 50 A three-phase cable is supplying 800 kW and 600 kV Ar to an inductive load. It is intended to supply an additional resistive load of 100 kW through the same cable without increasing the heat dissipation in the cable, by providing a three-phase bank of capacitors connected in star across the load. Given the line voltage is 3.3 kV, 50 Hz, the capacitance per phase of the bank, expressed in microfarads, is ____________________.
Q. 51 A 30 MVA , 3-phase, 50 Hz, 13.8 kV, star-connected synchronous generator has positive, negative and zero sequence reactances, 15%, 15% and 5% respectively. A reactance (Xn) is connected between the neutral of the generator and ground. A double line to ground fault takes place involving phases ‘b’ and ‘c’, with a fault impedance of j0.1 p.u. The value of Xn (in p.u.) that will limit the positive sequence generator current to 4270 A is __________________.
Q. 52 If the star side of the star-delta transformer shown in figure (1) is excited by a negative sequence voltage, then
A. VAB leads Vab by 60°
B. VAB lags Vab by 60°
C. VAB leads Vab by 30°
D. VAB lags Vab by 30°
Q. 53 A single-phase thyristor-bridge rectifier is fed from a 230 V, 50 Hz, single-phase AC mains. If it is delivering a constant DC current of 10 A, at firing angle of 30°, then value of the power factor at AC mains is:
A. 0.87
B. 0.9
C. 0.78
D. 0.45
Q. 54 The switches T1 and T2 in Figure (a) are switched in a complementary fashion with sinusoidal pulse width modulation technique. The modulating voltage vm(t) = 0.8 sin (200πt) V and the triangular carrier voltage (vc) are as shown in Figure (b). The carrier frequency is 5 kHz. The peak value of the 100 Hz component of the load current (iL), in ampere, is ________ .
Q. 55 The voltage (vs) across and the current (is) through a semiconductor switch during a turn – ON transition are shown in figure (1). The energy dissipated during the turn – ON transition, in mJ, is _____________.
Q. 56 A single-phase 400 V, 50 Hz transformer has an iron loss of 5000 W at the rated condition. When operated at 200 V, 25 Hz, the iron loss is 2000 W. When operated at 416 V, 52 Hz, the value of the hysteresis loss divided by the eddy current loss is ______.
Q. 57 A DC shunt generator delivers 45 A at a terminal voltage of 220V. The armature and the shunt field resistances are 0.01 Ω and 44 Ω respectively. The stray losses are 375 W. The percentage efficiency of the DC generator is _______________ .
Q. 58 A three-phase, 50 Hz salient-pole synchronous motor has a per-phase direct-axis reactance (Xd) of 0.8 pu and a per-phase quadrature-axis reactance (Xq) of 0.6 pu. Resistance of the machine is negligible. It is drawing full-load current at 0.8 pf (leading). When the terminal voltage is 1 pu, per-phase induced voltage, in pu, is _________.
Q. 59 A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V / 220 V, 50 Hz, distribution transformer is to be connected as an auto-transformer to get an output voltage of 2420 V. Its maximum kVA rating as an auto-transformer is
A. 22
B. 24.2
C. 242
D. 2420
Q. 60 A single-phase full bridge voltage source inverter (VSI) is fed from a 300 V battery. A pulse of 120° duration is used to trigger the appropriate devices in each half cycle. The rms value of the fundamental component of the output voltage, in volts, is
A. 234
B. 245
C. 300
D. 331
Q. 61 A single-phase transmission line has two conductors each of 10 mm radius. These are fixed at a center-to-center distance of 1 m in a horizontal plane. This is now converted to a three phase transmission line by introducing a third conductor of the same radius. This conductor is fixed at an equal distance D from the two single-phase conductors. The three phase line is fully transposed. The positive sequence inductance per phase of the three phase system is to be 5% more than that of the inductance per conductor of the single phase system. The distance D, in meters, is __________.
Q. 62 In the circuit shown in figure (1), the supply voltage is 10 sin (1000t) volts. The peak value of the steady state current through the 1 Ω resistor, in amperes, is _________________ .
Q. 63 A dc voltage with ripple is given by v(t) = [100 + 10sin (ωt) – 5 sin (3ωt)] volts. Measurements of this voltage v(t), made by moving-coil and moving-iron voltmeters, show readings of V1 and V2 respectively. The value of V2 – V1, in volts is __________.
Q. 64 The circuit given in figure (1) is excited by a sinusoidal source. The value of R, in Ω, for which the admittance of the circuit becomes a pure conductance at all frequencies is _____________ .
Q. 65 In the circuit shown in figure (1), the node voltage VA is __________________ V.
Q. 1 Two students read the same passage yet construct entirely different interpretations of its meaning. Which of the following is true about them?
A. It is not possible and the students need to re-read the passage.
B. It is possible because the teacher has not explained the passage.
C. It is possible because different factors affect learning of individuals in varied ways.
D. It is not possible because learning is not meaning – making.
Q. 2 According to the National Curriculum Framework, 2005, learning is _________________ and _____________ in its character.
A. active; social
B. passive; simple
C. passive; social
D. active; simple
Q. 3 To enable students to think independently and become effective learners, it is important for a teacher to:
A. offer rewards for each success achieved by the students
B. teach students how to monitor their own learning
C. give information in small units or chunks
D. present information in an organised manner to make it easier to recall
Q. 4 If a teacher wants her students to acquire problem-solving skills, the students should be engaged in activities that involve:
A. structured worksheets containing multiple-choice questions
B. recall, memorization and comprehension
C. drill and practice
D. inquiring, reasoning and decision making
Q. 5 Knowing the naive conceptions that students bring to the classroom:
A. pulls down the teacher’s morale since it increases his work
B. does not serve any purpose of the teacher
C. helps the teacher to plan teaching more meaningfully
D. hampers the teacher’s planning and teaching
Q. 6 Which of the following factors affect learning?
A. Motivation of the learner
B. Maturation of the learner
C. Teaching strategies
D. Physical and emotional health of the learner
A. A, B, C and D
B. A and B
C. A and C
D. A, B and C
Q. 7 Meaningful learning is:
A. pairing and association between the stimulus and the response
B. imitation of adults and more able peers
C. passive receiving of the given information
D. active creation of knowledge structures from personal experience
Q. 8 Which of the following is not one of the primary tasks of a teacher for effective student learning?
A. Transmitting information to the students in a didactic manner
B. Knowing the concepts that students bring to the classroom
C. Requiring students to respond to higher-order questioning
D. Teaching students how to monitor and improve their own learning by effort
Q. 9 Which of the following statements about principles of development is incorrect?
A. Development depends on maturation and learning
B. Development takes place due to constant interaction between heredity and environment
C. Every child goes through stages of development, yet there are wide individual differences among children
D. Development is a quantitative process which can be measured precisely.
Q. 10 The unique interaction of _______ and __________ can result in different paths and outcomes of development.
A. challenges; limitations
B. heredity; environment
C. stability; change
D. exploration; nutrition
Q. 11 Which of the following is true of school and socialization?
A. School is an important agent of socialization
B. School does not play any role in socialization
C. School plays very little role in socialization
D. School is the first primary agent of socialization
Q. 12 Which of the following statements is correct about Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
A. Piaget argues that instead of progressing through stages, cognitive development is
continuous
B. Piaget has proposed five distinct stages of cognitive development
C. The stages are invariant which means that no stage can be skipped
D. The sequence of the stages can vary according to the cultural context of children
Q. 13 The context of ‘conservation’ as proposed by Jean Piaget means that:
A. it is important to protect wildlife and forests
B. certain physical properties remain the same even when outward appearances change
C. one can arrive at the correct conclusion by systematically testing hypothesis
D. taking the perspective of others into consideration is an important cognitive ability
Q. 14 Match the following in the light of Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligence (Given in the figure):
A. a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(v)
C. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(v)
D. a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii)
Q. 15 According to Lev Vygotsky:
A. interaction with adults and peers does not influence language development
B. language development changes the nature of human thought
C. culture plays a very small role in language development
D. children learn language through a language acquisition device
Q. 16 Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning has been criticized on several counts. Which of the following statements is correct on the context of their criticism?
A. Kohlberg has not given typical responses to each stage of moral reasoning.
B. Kohlberg has duplicated Piaget’s methods of arriving at his theoretical framework.
C. Kohlberg’s theory does not focus on children’s responses.
D. Kohlberg has based his study primarily on a male sample
Q. 17 Which of the following highlights assessment for learning?
A. The teacher assesses conceptual understanding of the students besides focusing on the processes of thinking
B. The teacher assesses the students by comparing their responses to ‘standard’ Responses
C. The teacher assesses the students based on the information given in the textbooks
D. The teacher assesses a student based on his/her performance in comparison to others.
Q. 18 ‘Child-centred’ pedagogy means:
A. the teacher dictating the children what should be done.
B. giving primacy to children’s experiences and their voices.
C. enabling the children to follow prescribed information.
D. the teacher leading all the learning in the classroom.
Q. 19 Which of the following statements describes Piaget and Vygotsky’s views on language and thought correctly?
A. According to Vygotsky, thought emerges first and according to Piaget, language has a profound effect on thought
B. According to Piaget, thought emerges first and according to Vygotsky, language has a profound effect on thought
C. Both view thought as emerging from the children’s language
D. Both view language as emerging from the child’s thought
Q. 20 Watching her grandfather arguing with her father for going on a school trip, the grandmother say, “Why can’t you be obedient like a good girl? Who will marry you if you behave like a boy?” This statement reflects which of the following?
A. Gender constancy
B. Gender stereotypes about attributes of girls and boys
C. Improper gender identification of the girl
D. Difficulties faced by families in child-rearing
Q. 21 Which of the following statements about assessment are correct?
A. Assessment should help students see their strengths and gaps help the teacher finetune her teaching accordingly
B. Assessment is meaningful only if comparative evaluations of students are made
C. Assessment should assess not only memory but also understanding and application
D. Assessment cannot be purposeful if it does not induce fear and anxiety
A. B and C
B. A and B
C. B and D
D. A and C
Q. 22 According to the Right to Education Act, 2009, children with special needs should study:
A. at home with their parents and caregivers providing necessary support
B. in special schools created exclusively for them
C. in inclusive education setups with provisions to cater to their individual need
D. in vocational training centres which would prepare them for life skills
Q. 23 An effective teacher in a classroom where students come from diverse backgrounds, would:
A. push students from deprived backgrounds to work hard so that they can match up with their peers
B. focus on their cultural knowledge to address individual differences among the group
C. ignore cultural knowledge and treat all his students in a uniform manner
D. create groups of students with those from the same economic background put together
Q. 24 Match the following principles of development with their correct descriptions (Given in the figure):
A. a(v), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
C. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
D. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
Q. 25 Which of the following statements about cognition and emotions is correct?
A. Cognition and emotions are interwined and affect each other
B. Cognition and emotions are processes independent of each other
C. Cognition affects emotions but emotions do not affect cognition
D. Emotions affect cognition but cognition does not affect emotions
Q. 26 In an inclusive classroom with diverse learners, cooperative learning and peer-tutoring
A. should be used only sometimes since it promotes comparison with classmates
B. should be actively discouraged and competition should be promoted
C. should be actively promoted to facilitate peer-acceptance
D. should not be practised and students should be segregated based on their abilities
Q. 27 A teacher can address diversity in her class by:
A. accepting and valuing differences
B. using socio – cultural background of children as a pedagogic resource
C. accommodating different learning styles
D. giving standard instruction and setting uniform benchmarks for performance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. A, B, C and D
B. A, B and D
C. B, C and D
D. A, B and C
Q. 28 A teacher asks her class to cover sharp edges of furniture with cotton and use “Touch and Feel” notice boards and books. The needs of which category of special learners is the attempting to cater to?
A. Visually – impared learners
B. Hearing – impared learners
C. Learning – impared learners
D. Socially disadvantaged learners
Q. 29 Gifted children are best catered to by educational programmes that:
A. make use of gifts and rewards to motivate them to perform according to minimum standards of learning
B. emphasize mastery of knowledge by recall
C. stimulate their thinking and give them opportunities to engage in divergent thinking
D. control their aggressive behaviour
Q. 30 Which of the following statements about student’s failure in schools are correct?
A. Students belonging to certain castes and communities fail since they do not have ability
B. Students fail in schools because appropriate rewards are not offered for their learning
C. Students fail because teaching is not done in a manner in which it is meaningful to them
D. Students fail because school system does not cater to individual child’s needs and interests
A. C and D
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. B and D
Q. 31 Neeta, a Class VII mathematics teacher, assigns a lot of survey-based projects to mathematics classrooms. The purpose of such activity is:
A. to promote problem-solving skills
B. to give an opportunity to students to collect authentic data
C. to break the monotony of the classroom
D. to use it as an alternate assessment
Which of the above purposes are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. A and C
D. A, B and D
Q. 32 Which of the following terms in mathematics is defined?
A. Point
B. Line
C. Diagonal of a quadrilateral
D. Plane
Q. 33 Which of the following is not an important aspects in ‘Algebra’?
A. Visualisation
B. Measurement
C. Transposition
D. Generalisation
Q. 34 ‘Problem posing’ in mathematics means:
A. inability to solve problems
B. raising doubts in the class
C. solving problems
D. creating problems from the context
Q. 35 A good textbook contains a lot of:
A. questions for exploration
B. questions for practice
C. worked out examples
D. theorems and proofs
Q. 36 Consider the following statement;
“Every odd natural number is a prime number.”
Which of the following methods of “proof” can be used to prove/disprove the above statement?
A. Method of disproof
B. Direct proof
C. Proof by contrapositive
D. Proof by contradiction
Q. 37 Which of the following is not a contributing factor responsible for mathematics anxiety?
A. Nature of subject
B. Gender
C. Examination system
D. Curriculum
Q. 38 Which of the following numbers does not lie between -5/6 and 7/8?
A. 5/6
B. -17/24
C. -3/4
D. -11/12
Q. 39 The reciprocal of [(3/8)⁻² x (-4/5)⁻³] is:
A. (8/3)² x (5/-4)³
B. -9/125
C. 125/9
D. 9/125
Q. 40 If (13² – 5²)^3/2 = 6³ x A, then the value of A is:
A. 2⁴
B. 2
C. 2²
D. 2³
Q. 41 If x√243 = y√867, where x and y are co-prime numbers, then the value of (x-y) is:
A. 8
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Q. 42 The sum of all possible values of a, for which the 4 – digit number 547a is divisible by 3, is
A. 15
B. 7
C. 10
D. 13
Q. 43 A common factor of x⁴ – 256, x³ – 4x² + 3x – 12 and x² – 7x + 12 is:
A. x – 3
B. x + 4
C. x – 4
D. x + 3
Q. 44 On dividing the polynomial 8x³ – 6x² + 10x + 3 by (4x + 1), the quotient is 2x² + k, where k is equal to:
A. -3 + 2x
B. 3 – 2x
C. 3 + 2x
D. -3 -2x
Q. 45 If the product of (9x² + 15 – x) and (-1 – x + x²), if A, B and C are the coefficients of x³, x² and x respectively, then the value of (A + B – C) is:
A. 14
B. -3
C. -17
D. 11
Q. 46 When x = 1/9 and y = -3/4, then the value of the expression 81x² + 16y² -72xy is:
A. 9/16
B. 25
C. 16
D. 9/4
Q. 47 Abhi is twice as old as his daughter. Five years ago, his age was four times his daughter’s age. If the present age of the daughter is x years, then:
A. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x + 5)
B. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x -5)
C. 4(x – 5) = 2x – 5
D. 4(x + 5) = 2(2x – 5)
Q. 48 A sum of Rs. 6250 at 8% per annum compounded annually, after 2(3/4) years amounts to:
A. Rs. 7872.60
B. Rs. 7165.60
C. Rs. 7581.40
D. Rs. 7727.40
Q. 49 A person marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows 40% discount on the marked price. His loss/gain percent is:
A. No loss/gain
B. loss, 8%
C. gain, 10%
D. loss, 16%
Q. 50 The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 : 8. The sum of the supplement of the largest angle and the complement of the smallest angle is:
A. 80°
B. 50°
C. 60°
D. 70°
Q. 51 Two sides if a right triangle measure 15 cm and 17 cm. Which of the following statements can be true of the length of the third side of the triangle?
A. It is between 4 cm and 7 cm.
B. It is between 20 cm and 23 cm
C. It is less than 10 cm
A. A and C only
B. B only
C. A and B only
D. B and C only
Q. 52 If one angle of a triangle is 110°, then the angle between the bisectors of the other two angles measures:
A. 145°
B. 90°
C. 100°
D. 110°
Q. 53 In ΔABC, AB = 4cm, AC = 5cm and BC = 6cm. In ΔPQR, PR = 4cm, PQ = 5cm and RQ = 6cm. ΔABC is congruent to:
A. ΔRPQ
B. ΔPQR
C. ΔPRQ
D. ΔQRP
Q. 54 A tank is in the form of a cuboid. It holds a maximum of 540 m³ water. If the tank is 8 m long and 15 m wide, then how many metres deep must the water be when the tank is 2/3 full?
A. 4.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
Q. 55 The ratio of the areas of two equilateral triangles is 16 : 9. If the perimeter of the smaller triangle is 63 cm, then how much larger is a side of the larger triangle than a side of the smaller triangle?
A. 7cm
B. 3cm
C. 4cm
D. 5cm
Q. 56 The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a circle whose perimeter is 6π cm. If the base of the triangle is 8 cm, then its corresponding height (in cm) is:
A. 2.25
B. π
C. 2
D. 2.25π
Q. 57 The mean of mode, median and range of the data:
2, 1, 2, 3, 3, 6, 4, 8, 14, 9, 4, 8, 4
A. 9
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Q. 58 Some students of your class are repeatedly not able to do well in mathematics
examinations and tests. As a teacher you would:
A. explain the consequences of not doing well
B. give more tests for practice
C. diagnose the cause and take steps for remediation
D. make them sit with high achievers
Q. 59 In a inclusive mathematics classroom, what would be your strategy for addressing the needs of visually challenged
A. Design alternate teaching-learning and assessment methods
B. Send the learners to a special educator
C. Offer them another subject in lieu of mathematics
D. Pair them with high scorers in mathematics
Q. 60 Which of the following assessment strategies can be used to assess learners’ interest in and attitude to mathematics?
A. Oral test, Paper-pencil test, Class participation
B. Checklist, Portfolio, Paper-pencil test
C. Checklist, Portfolio, Project, Class participation
D. Portfolio, Project, Paper-pencil test
Q. 61 Which of the following is not a purpose of conducting practicals/experimental activities on science?
A. They help in scoring high grades or marks.
B. They enhance understanding of science ideas.
C. They provide and opportunity for problem solving.
D. They help in developing manipulative skills.
Q. 62 A few small wax pieces are fixed at nearly equal distances on a flat strip of aluminium. On end of the strip is clamped to a stand and the other end is heated. Consider the following statements A and B:
A. Wax pieces begin to fall one-by-one in the order of their increasing distance from the flame.
B. Aluminium strip transfers heat from the end nearest to the flame to the other end Of the two statements given below:
A. Both A and B are inferences
B. A is observation and B is inference
C. B is observation and A is inference
D. Both A and B are observations
Q. 63 The students of class VII are asked the following question by a teacher:
“Two identical cubes of ice are taken out of a refrigerator. One is crushed and the other is left as it is. It is noticed that the crushed ice melts faster. What could be the reason?”
Which process skill is promoted through this question?
A. Experimentation
B. Observation
C. Hypothesizing
D. Controlling variables
Q. 64 A teacher of class VII demonstrates the following activity in the class:
“A leaf is put in a test tube and spirit is poured over it. Then the test tube is put in a beaker half-filled with water and heated till the leaf is discoloured. The leaf is then taken out and a few drops of iodine are put on it. The leaf turns blue-black in colour.” After this activity, the teacher gives some questions for the assessment of various indicators of learning.
Which of the following would assess ‘analysis’?
A. What care is taken to prevent damage to the leaf?
B. What care is taken while pouring spirit into the test tube?
C. What happens to the colour of the leaf when solution is poured on it?
D. Can this test be done without removing chlorophyll?
Q. 65 You want your Class VI students to figure out that the property of solubility of salt in water can be used to separate a mixture of sand and salt. As a supporter of inquiry-oriented pedagogy, you would:
A. provide the mixture of sand and salt to students, ask them to think up different ways of separation and help them in trying out their ideas
B. explain different methods of separation of mixtures first and then explain the separation of sand and salt mixture
C. ask students to hypothesize about different ways in which a mixture of sand and salt can be separated and then lead them to the correct answer through detailed explanations
D. take a mixture of sand and salt, demonstrate its separation and then ask students to repeat it on their own
Q. 66 Which among the following statements describes the relationship between science and technology?
A. Science is a boarder endeavour while technology is goal-oriented and often localespecific
B. Technology is a more creative process as compared to science
C. Science is an ancient enterprise but technology is relatively recent
D. Science and technology proceed independently and in isolation from each other
Q. 67 Which among the following is not a single flower but a group of flowers?
A. Datura
B. Rose
C. China rose
D. Sunflower
Q. 68 A bicycle is moving on a straight road at a constant speed. The wheels of the cycle exhibit:
A. circular, translational and periodic motion
B. circular and translational motion
C. translational and periodic motion
D. circular and periodic motion
Q. 69 Suppose you have a farmer living at a place having black soil. If the climate of your region is warm and you want to grow fibre-yielding plants in your fields, then which of the following would you prefer?
A. Rayon
B. Coconut
C. Jute
D. Cotton
Q. 70 Choose the odd one out:
A. Embryo
B. Egg
C. Ovum
D. Gamate
Q. 71 The function of saliva is to:
A. convert starch into sugars
B. prevent the food from entering the windpipe
C. convert carbohydrates into proteins
D. convert starch into fats
Q. 72 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Both inhaled air and exhaled air contains oxygen
B. Inhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide
C. Exhaled air does not contain oxygen
D. Exhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide
Q. 73 Ritu is standing in front of a plane mirror. The distance between Ritu and her image is 10m. If she moves 2 m towards the mirror, then the distance between Ritu and her image is:
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 6 m
Q. 74 You have three test tubes X, Y and Z half-filled with different solutions, as X is filled with sodium chloride solution, Y is filled with sodium hydroxide solution and Z is filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. On adding one drop of phenolphthalein solution to each of the above solutions, you would observe the solutions in the test tubes as:
A. X is colourless; Y is pink and Z is colourless
B. X is pink; Y is pink and Z is colourless
C. X is pale green; Y is colourless and Z is red
D. X is colourless; Y is pale green and Z is pink
Q. 75 In our mouth, the arrangement of different types of teeth from front to back is:
A. canine – incisor – molar – premolar
B. incisor – canine – premolar – molar
C. canine – incisor – premolar – molar
D. incisor – canine – molar – premolar
Q. 76 In plants and trees, water goes up high due to suction pull. Which of the following phenomena causes this suction pull?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. Respiration
D. Absorption
Q. 77 Which of the following is the reproducing part of ginger?
A. Leaf
B. Root
C. Stem
D. Seed
Q. 78 Which among the following liquids are conductors of electricity?
A. Vinegar
B. Sugar solution
C. Salt solution
D. Distilled water
A. B and C
B. A, C and D
C. A and C
D. C and D
Q. 79 Consider the following statements:
A. Plants can survive for some time even without photosynthesis.
B. Plants can survive for some time even without respiration.
C. Photosynthesis and respiration both are essential for the survival of plants
D. Photosynthesis and respiration both are simultaneous process in plants during daytime.
The correct statements are:
A. A, B and D
B. A, B and C
C. B, C and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 80 A block of wood is lying at rest on a table. What can be said about the force(s) acting on it?
A. Gravitational and frictional forces are acting on it
B. There is no force acting on it
C. There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it
D. Only gravitational force is acting on it
Q. 81 Which type of leaf pattern, i.e., leaf venation and root type are presented in bamboo?
A. Reticulate venation and tap root
B. Parallel venation and fibrous root
C. Parallel venation and tap root
D. Reticulate venation and fibrous root
Q. 82 Which of the following facts is nor correct about magnets?
A. Magnetic field lines originate from north pole and merge at south pole of a magnet
B. Attraction is a sure test of magnetism
C. Like poles of magnet repel each other
D. Magnetic field is stronger at the poles of a bar magnet
Q. 83 Match the following metals and non-metals with their uses. (Given in figure)
A. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
B. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
C. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
D. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Q. 84 Select the true statement from the following:
A. Melamine is a thermoplastic whereas bakelite is a thermosetting plastic
B. Bakelite and melamine are both thermoplastics
C. Bakelite and melamine are both thermosetting plastics
D. Bakelite is a thermoplastic whereas melamine is a thermosetting plastic
Questions: 85 – 87
A teacher of class VIII demonstrates the following activity in her class:
“The teacher takes a small amount of sulphur in a spoon and burns it. She then puts the spoon into a tumbler with a kid to ensure that the gas produced does not escape. After a few minutes, she adds water to the tumbler.”
Q. 85 What happens if blue and red litmus papers are put into the tumbler?
A. No change in both
B. Blue litmus turns red
C. Blue litmus remains red
D. Red litmus turns blue
Q. 86 In the above demonstrated activity, which substance is formed when sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water?
A. Sulphur hydroxide
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Sulphuric oxide
D. Sulphurous acid
Q. 87 Which process skills can be promoted through the above activity?
A. Observation and controlling variables
B. Observation, inference and measurement
C. Observation, classification and inference
D. Observation and measurement
Q. 88 A science teacher asked her students to put two drops each of oil and sugar solution on a flat surface. She then asks them to tilt the surface and observe the order in which of the drops reach the bottom. Which property of the liquids is the teacher trying to bring to the students’ attention through this activity?
A. Point
B. Viscosity
C. Solubility
D. Volume
Q. 89 You find that many of your class VI students believe that raw material for plant growth comes only from the soil. Which among the following would be the most appropriate strategy to counter this idea?
A. Show the students a well-prepared PowerPoint presentation on photosynthesis.
B. Explain in detail the process of photosynthesis and the chemical reactions involved.
C. Provide the students with a money plant in water and ask them to observe its growth and make an inference.
D. Provide the students with an interesting reading material on the process of food manufacture in plants.
Q. 90 The criterion of process validity of science curriculum requires that:
A. science should be taught as a specialised discipline with its unique characteristics
B. science should be presented as a value-free discipline uninfluenced by societal concerns
C. learners should be familarised with various natural processes
D. learners should be engaged in processes that lead to generation of scientific knowledge
Q. 91 Language is a tool because:
A. it is used for communication
B. it is used for processing ideas
C. it is used for thinking
D. it is used for conveying ideas
Q. 92 Children can best learn a language when they have:
A. a proficient language teacher
B. inhibition
C. motivation
D. a good textbook
Q. 93 TBLT in second language teaching is:
A. Task Book Language Teaching
B. Tool Based Language Teaching
C. Task Based Language Teaching
D. Task Based Language Training
Q. 94 The second language should be taught through:
A. using the target language as much as it is possible
B. mother tongue and translation
C. learners’ background and talent
D. grammar and rules of language
Q. 95 There are 44 sounds in English. Out of these, how many sounds are vowels and how many are consonants respectively?
A. 5, 39
B. 22, 22
C. 10, 34
D. 20, 24
Q. 96 A speech community refers to a community which:
A. speaks different dialects
B. uses different languages
C. speaks the same language
D. connects by virtue of a link language
Q. 97 Pedagogical grammar is:
A. learning of meanings through form
B. learning of rules first and then the meanings of words
C. learning of grammar in context through use
D. learning of grammar through prose and poetry
Q. 98 When learners have diverse linguistic backgrounds, the teacher should:
A. form groups in accordance with their linguistic backgrounds
B. ascertain their learning styles
C. use multilingual approach
D. start the class with brainstorming sessions
Q. 99 Which of the following ways is not appropriate for teaching a reading text?
A. Teacher reads out and explains the text line-by-line
B. Learners are made into groups and asked to read by taking turns
C. Learners read individually and discuss with their friends the ideas of the text
D. Learners divide the text into small chunks and read
Q. 100 Post-reading tasks are meant for:
A. assessing the learning and connecting it to real-life situations
B. giving the meaning of difficult words
C. introducing the main idea of the text
D. explaining the grammatical rules in the text
Q. 101 Intensive reading is aimed at helping the learners read a text for:
A. improving study skills
B. accuracy
C. pleasure only
D. information
Q. 102 Process writing approach could be described as:
A. horizontal approach
B. bottom-up approach
C. top-down approach
D. vertical approach
Q. 103 Abeera, an English teacher, describes a scene and asks the learners to draw what they have heard. This is a:
A. picture story
B. mutual dictation
C. picture dictation
D. picture composition
Q. 104 While teaching a ‘One-Act Play’, a tableau can be used as one of the teaching strategies. The tableau refers to:
A. a monologue
B. silent still image made by actors posing as characters
C. some musical instrument
D. dialogues between different actors
Q. 105 A teacher divides her class into pairs to exchange their notebooks and make corrections as per the direction of the teacher. What does she do?
A. Group assessment
B. Correction
C. Assessment
D. Peer assessment
Questions: 106 – 114
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow;
What we call Old Delhi is actually only about 350 years old, which is not terribly ancient, considering that the city was inhabited around 1000 to 800 BC. But it is a good place to look because Old Delhi has retained its character from the Mughal days. Most of what we call Old Delhi was built by the emperor Shah Jahan who, with characteristic modesty, called it Shahjahanabad. The city was built around 1640 – 1650 AD (so, by Delhi standards, it is actually young!) and remained the capital of the Mughal empire ever since. India was one of the world’s richest countries in that age, so the capital’s commercial quarter was one of the most important trading and business centres in the East. The original Chandni Chowk was built around a canal of the Yamuna, which passes down the street, forming a pool that reflected the moonlight and gave the area its name. The business of Chandni Chowk was business only. Some people say that it was the ruthless reprisals from the British after the 1857 Mutiny/War of Independence that destroy the peaceful character of Chandni Chowk; as did the looting that was the hallmark of the East India Company’s soldiers. Others say that the rot set in after New Delhi was created in the 20th century. Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now. It is overcrowded, parts of it are dirty and its wonderful historical mansions are now in disrepair. In an era when the world’s great squares have become landmarks, why should Chandni Chowk become a slum?
Q. 106 Study the following statements:
A. A canal used to run through Chandni Chowk.
B. Business and trading was done on the banks of the canal.
C. People visited Chandni Chowk to view the moonlight reflected in the canal.
Which of the above statements are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. A and C
Q. 107 Shah Jahan named the new city of Delhi, Shahjahanabad. It shows his:
A. love of art
B. pride
C. modesty
D. character
Q. 108 By Delhi standards, Old Delhi is called young because:
A. it was built around 1640-1650 AD
B. it was an active business centre
C. it was visited by young tourists
D. it was inhabited around 1000-800 BC
Q. 109 During the Mughal period, Delhi was very prosperous because:
A. it was built by Shah Jahan
B. it was looted by East India Company’s soldiers
C. a lot of trade and commerce took place here
D. it was ruled by the rich Mughals
Q. 110 East India Company’s soldiers were:
A. greedy but not cruel
B. noble and brave
C. cruel and greedy
D. cruel but not greedy
Q. 111 “…… a pool that reflected the moonlight …….”
Which part of speech is the underlined word?
A. An interjection
B. A pronoun
C. An adjective
D. A determiner
Q. 112 “….. terribly ancient, considering that …… “
The underlined word is a/an:
A. adverb
B. noun
C. participle
D. verb
Q. 113 “Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now.”
The word ‘mess’ means the same as:
A. upset
B. canteen
C. snare
D. confusion
Q. 114 “…. a pool that reflected the moonlight …”
The word opposite in meaning to ‘reflected’ is:
A. discredited
B. imitated
C. claimed
D. absorbed
Questions: 115 – 120
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows.
I love the Brooks which down their channels fret,
Even more than when I tripped lightly as they;
The innocent brightness of a new-born Day Is lovely yet;
The Clouds that gather round the settling sun
Do take a sober colouring from an eye
That hath kept watch o’er man’s mortality;
Another race hath been, and other palms are won.
Thanks to the human heart by which we live,
Thanks to its tenderness, its joys and fears,
To me the meanest flower that blows can give
Thoughts that do often lie too deep for tears.
Q. 115 The poet loves the brooks:
A. because he too can run briskly like them
B. because they flow between their banks
C. now more than when he was young
D. as they are overflowing their banks
Q. 116 The clouds around the setting sun make the poet:
A. sad
B. thoughtful
C. happy
D. curious
Q. 117 During his lifetime, the poet has thought about:
A. love in human heart
B. the rate race of man
C. the dawn of the new day
D. mortal nature of man
Q. 118 Today the poet is thankful for:
A. the human heart which is full of joys and sorrows.
B. the beauty of the meaning flower
C. the palms won by him in the race of life
Which of the above are true?
A. A, B and C
B. A and B
C. B and C
D. A and C
Q. 119 The figure of speech used in line 1 is:
A. irony
B. a simile
C. a metaphor
D. personification
Q. 120 “The innocent brightness …..”is an example of:
A. irony
B. metonymy
C. synecdoche
D. transferred epithet
Q. 121 When children are introduced to English as a second language:
A. they should read first
B. they should begin with letters of alphabet
C. they should be exposed to language orally
D. they should begin writing first
Q. 122 Eclecticism in language teaching refers to using:
A. all the methods to teach language
B. appropriate strategies from various methods of teaching
C. the best method of teaching
D. technology to teach language
Q. 123 Which of the following approaches/methods advocates linguistic competence and performance?
A. Communicative approach
B. Grammar-translation method
C. Direct method
D. Structural approach
Q. 124 Global listening is not listening:
A. for specific information
B. without being constrained by preset questions or tasks
C. at different levels of comprehension
D. for improving recognition of spoken text
Q. 125 Which of the following activities needs to be taken care of for helping non-native speakers to produce the sounds of the target language?
A. Distinguishing the vowel from consonant sounds
B. Imitating the way a native speaker produces sounds
C. Ensuring that the words spoken are intelligible to others
D. Maintaining the regional interference
Q. 126 The concept of transformative – generative grammar was given by:
A. Bruner
B. Ferdinand Saussure
C. Noam Chomsky
D. Piaget
Q. 127 Tail question also refers to:
A. follow-up question
B. question tag
C. insignificant question
D. most important question
Q. 128 A teacher of Class VII while teaching the poem, The Solitary Reaper by William Wordsworth asks children to find how the last words of each line sound. What is she trying to draw the attentions of learners to?
A. Theme of the poem
B. Spelling of words
C. Rhyme scheme
D. Vocabulary
Q. 129 To help the students overcome the problems of spelling mistakes, the teacher will use __________ as the teaching strategy.
A. loud reading
B. brainstorming
C. pronunciation drill
D. dictation
Q. 130 Grammar-translation method of teaching English heavily relies on:
A. form-focused teaching
B. meaning-focused teaching
C. direct teaching as a strategy for learning
D. language use as the main focus
Q. 131 Language proficiency refers to:
A. fluency
B. accuracy
C. appropriateness
D. efficiency
Which of the above are true?
A. A, B and D
B. A, B and C
C. B, C and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 132 Written description of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a day-to-day basis is:
A. rubric
B. anecdotal record
C. portfolio
D. rating scale
Q. 133 A teacher of Class VI in a writing assessment task asked students to write on : “If I were famous for something…… “. This is assessment of a/an _______ answer.
A. narrative
B. extrapolative
C. factual
D. descriptive
Q. 134 A good language textbook should:
A. contain learner-centred materials
B. contain teacher-friendly instruction and content-related materials
C. incorporate language skills throughout
D. have more syntactical items in its content
Which of the above are true?
A. B, C and D
B. A, B and C
C. A, B and D
D. A, C and D
Q. 135 Kavya notes down the errors committed by learners of the class and discusses them once in a fortnight. What is this practice known as ?
A. Providing feedback
B. Evaluation
C. Assessment
D. Error correction
Questions: 136 – 143
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
‘Although India has a tradition of women warriors, participation in the Salt Satyagraha was their first appearance in any modern militant political campaign and I could hardly suppress my excitement at the enormity of the occasion and my own good fortune to be amongst the first. As I attached my name to the pledge to devote myself to my country’s freedom battle, my hand shook a little under my tumultuous emotions. It seemed such a stupendous moment in my life, in the life of the women of my country. I felt I was tracing not the letters of my name, but recording a historic event. There was not much time for thought, however. The next instant we were filing out, taking the road to the sea, marching with quick steps. Great sky-rending cries or ‘Jai’ filled the air. Heavy-scented flower garlands almost smothered us. From the balconies and roofs unseen hands showered rose-petals until the road became a carpet of flowers. Often our match was stopped and bright-eyed women sprinkled rose water from silver sprays, tipped our palms with sandalwood paste and perfume and blessed us waving lights round our heads and faces for good omen.” The long narrow strip of sand that borders the city like a white ribbon was transformed this morning into another sea – a sea of human faces that swayed and dance and bobbed about even as did the deep azure waves that rimmed the shore. The city seemed to have disgorged almost its entire population onto the sands. It was not the struggling batch of seven that was breaking the Salt law, but hundreds and thousands now filling the water’s edge. And still they kept coming, thousands of women against them, striding like proud warriors, gracefully balancing their pitchers of maroon-red earth and shimmering brass that scattered a thousand hues as the sunrays struck them. Even as I lit my little fire to boil the saltwater, I saw thousands of fire aflame dancing in the wind. The copper pans sizzled in laughter while their bosoms traced the white grains of salt as the heat lapped up the last drop of water.
Q. 136 Participation in the Salt Satyagraha evoked in the author a feeling of:
A. ecstasy
B. pride
C. excitement
D. fear
Q. 137 The author took a pledge to:
A. launch a literacy campaign
B. fight against social evils
C. serve the poor people of India
D. be part of India’s freedom struggle
Q. 138 The warm welcome given to the Satyagrahis showed:
A. general resentment against British exploitation of the people
B. that the Indian people turn every event into a joyous occasion
C. the full support of the people for breaking the Salt law
D. people’s hatred of the British
Q. 139 “A sea of human faces that swayed and danced” means:
A. human faces resembling a sea
B. people dancing while bathing
C. people bathing and frolicking in the sea
D. a large number of enthusiastic people
Q. 140 Women lighted their little fires on the seashore to:
A. make tea and drink it to overcome fatigue
B. protect themselves from cold
C. boil seawater to make salt
D. express their anger against the British
Q. 141 The word which nearly means the same as ‘stupendous’ is:
A. wonderful
B. crucial
C. significant
D. influential
Q. 142 The word opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ as used in the passage is:
A. gentle
B. humble
C. decent
D. fawning
Q. 143 Which part of speech is the quoted word in the following sentence?
“I could ‘hardly’ suppress my excitement.”
A. Pronoun
B. Adverb
C. Adjective
D. Conjunction
Questions: 144 – 150
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Where does all our garbage disappear once it leaves our homes? There are four methods of managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composing and burning. Each method has its strength and weaknesses. Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials and lower energy use. Some argue that collecting, processing and converting waste uses more than it saves. Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. Landfilling is to bury garbage in a hole. Over a period of time the process of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it if thrown into the pit. In this way garbage can fit in each landfill. Large garbage bags are placed at the bottom of a landfill so that the toxic garbage juice does not get into the groundwater. But in spite of bags, landfills may pollute the underground water. Not to mention that all garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Composting is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to burn waste. The first is to harvest fuel from the waste. The second is to burn the waste directly; the heat from this burning process can boil water, which can provide steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air.
Q. 144 Garbage recycling:
A. uses more energy than it saves
B. saves a lot of energy
C. saves only a little energy
D. wastes a lot of energy
Q. 145 Consider the following statements:
A. Landfilling does not allow water and air pollution.
B. Composting is better than landfilling.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A. Both A and B
B. Only A
C. Only B
D. Neither A nor B
Q. 146 It is safe to dispose of garbage through:
A. burning and landfilling
B. recycling and burning
C. composting and burning
D. recycling and composting
Q. 147 Consider the following statements:
A. We do not use any energy in the process of composting.
Q. 1 Which of the following is most effective method to encourage conceptual development in students ?
A. give students multiple examples and encourage them to use reasoning
B. Use punishment till students have made the required conceptual changes
C. New concepts need to be understood on their own without any refrence to the old ones
D. Replace the studnets incorrect ideas with the correct ones by asking them to memorize
Q. 2 Primary school children will learn more effectively in an atmosphere :
A. Where the focus and stress are only on mastering primarly cognitive skills of reading , writing and mathematics .
B. Where the teacher leads all the learning and expects students to play a passive role.
C. Where their emotional needs are met and they feel that they are valued .
D. Where the teacher is authorative and clearly dictates what should be done
Q. 3 A child sees the crow flying past the window and says “a bird’. what does this suggests about the child’s thinking .
A. The child has previosly stored memories
B.The child has developed the concept of ” bird “.
C.The child has developed some tools of language to communicate her expereince
A. A,B and C
B. Only B
C. A and B
D. B and C
Q. 4 What should a teacher tell her students to encourage them to do tasks with instristic motivation ?
A. “complete the task and get a toffee “
B. ” Try to do it , you will learn “
C. “come on ,finish it before she does “
D. ” why cant you be like him? see, he has done it perfectly “
Q. 5 How can a teacher encourage her students to be intrinsccally motivated towards learning for the sake of learning ?
A. By supporting them in setting individual goals and their mastery
B. By offering tangable rewards such as toffees
C. By inducing anxiety and fear
D. By giving competitive tasks
Q. 6 In an elementary classroom the effective teacher should aim at students to be motivated:
A. By using punitive measures to respect the teacher
B. to perform so that they get good marks in the end
C. To learn so that they become curious
D. to rote memorize so that they become good at recall
Q. 7 Which of the following is example of effective school practise ?
A. Individualised learning
B. competitive classroom
C. Constant comparitive evaluation
D. Corporal punishment
Q. 8 The cephalocaudal principle of development explains how development proceeds from :
A. head to toe
B. rural to urban areas
C. general to specific functions
D. differentiated to integrated functions
Q. 9 Which of the following is a sensitive period pertaining to language development ?
A. Adulthood
B. early childhood period
C. prenetal period
D. middle childhood period
Q. 10 A 6 year old girl shows exceptional sporting ability .Both of her parents are sport persons ,send her for coaching everyday and train her on weekends .Her capabilities are most likely to be the results of an interaction between
A. health and training
B. discipline and nutrition
C. heridity and environment
D. growth and develpment
Q. 11 Which of the following are secondary agents of socialization?
A. School and immediete family members
B. family and relatives
C. family and neighbourhood
D. school and neighbourhood
Q. 12 According to Lev vygotsky ,the primary cause of cognitive development is :
A. adjustment is mental schemas
B. stimulus repsonse pairing
C. equilibration
D. social interaction
Q. 13 In the context of Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning under which stage would the given response for the child fall ?
“your parents should be proud of you if you be honest ,. So you should be honest .”
A. Good girl- good boy orientation
B. law and order orientation
C. punishment -obedeinece orientation
D. social contract orientation
Q. 14 According to Jean -piaget which one of the following is necessary for learning?
A. Belief in immanent justice
B. reinforcement by teachers and parents
C. Active exploration of the environment by the learner
D. observing the behaviour of the adults
Q. 15 According to the jean piaget ,schema building occurs as a result of modifying new information to fit existing schemes and by modifying old schemes as per new information . These 2 processes are known as ;
A. equilibration and modification
B. assimilation and accomidation
C. accomidation and adpation
D. assimilation andadaption
Q. 16 In a progressive classroom set up the teacher facilitates by providing an environment that :
A. discourages inclusion
B. encourages repetition
C. promotes discovery
D. is restrictive
Q. 17 Howards gardners theory of multiple intelligence (MI) suggests that :
A. Teachers should use MI as a framework for devising alternative ways to teach the subject matter
B. ability is destiny and does not change over a period of time
C. every child should be taught every subject in 8 different ways to develop all of the inteligence
D. intelligence is soley determined by IQ tests
Q. 18 A 5 year old girl talks to her self while folding a tshirt .Which of the following statements is correct in context of the behavior displayed by the girl ?
A. Jean piaget would explain this as a social interaction while Lev vygtosky would explain this as an exploration
B. Jean piaget and lev vygotsky would explain this as the child’s attempt to immitate her mother
C. Jean piaget and lev vygotsky would explain this as egocentric nature of the childs thoughts
D. jean piaget would explain this as egocentric speech while , lev vygotsky would explain this as the childs attempt to regulate her actions through private speech
Q. 19 “Gender” is an /a :
A. innate quality
B. social construct
C. biological entity
D. Physiological construct
Q. 20 As a teacher who firmly believes in social constructivist theory of Lev Vygotsky which of the following methods you would prefer for assessing your students ?
A. Fact based recall questions
B. Objective multiple choice type questions
C. collabarative projects
D. standardized tests
Q. 21 To cater to individual differences in his classroom , a teacher should :
A. engage in dialouge with students and value their perspectives
B. impose strict rules upon his students
C. have uniform and standard ways of teaching and assessment
D. segregate and label children based on their marks
Q. 22 Assessment is purposeful if
A. it is done only onceat the end year
B. comparitive evalutions are made to differentiate between the students acheivements
C. it induces fear and stress among the students
D. it serves as a feedback for the students as well as the teachers
Q. 23 According to NCF ,2005 the role of the teacher has to be :
A. permissive
B. facilitative
C. authoritavtive
D. dictorial
Q. 24 Research suggests that in a diverse classroom , a teachers expectations from her students ________ learning
A. should not be correlated with
B. do not have an effect on
C. have a significant impact on
D. are the sole determinant of
Q. 25 Inclusion of children with special needs :
A. will increase the burden on schools
B. requires a change in attitude, content and approach to teaching
C. is an unrealistic goal
D. is detrimental to children with disabilities
Q. 26 “Having a diverse classroom with children from varied social ,economic and cultural backrgrounds enriches the learning experiences of all students “.The statement is :
A. Correct , because it makes the classroom more hirarchical .
B. incorrect , because it leads to unneccessary competition
C. incorrect, because it may confuse the children and they may feel lost
D. correct , becuase children learn many skills from their peers
Q. 27 A child with hearing impairment:f
A. can do very well in a regular school if suitable facilitation and resources are provided
B. Will never be able to perform on par with classmates in a regular school
C. Should be sent only to a school for the hearing impaired and not a regular school
D. Correct beacuse children many skills from their peers
Q. 28 Which of the following is a charecteristic of a gifted learner ?
A. He is highly tempermental
B. he indulges in ritualistic behavior like hand flapping ,rocking etc.
C. He gets aggressive and frustrated
D. He can feel undersimulated and bored if the class activities are not challenging enough
Q. 29 A teacher can enhance effective learning in her elementary classroom by :
A. encouraging competition among her students
B. connecting content to the lives of the students
C. offering rewards in small steps of learning
D. drill and practise
Q. 30 Which of the following statements about children are correct ?
A. Children are passive recipients of knowledge
B Children are problem solvers .
C. Children are scientifc investigators
D. Children are active explorers of the environment
A. A, B,C and D
B. A, B and ,C
C. A, B and ,D
D. B,C and D
Q. 31 A teacher of class II asks her students to write 4 ones and 3 tens some students write as 43 instead of 34. As a teacher how will you help the students to understand the concept.
A. Give a lot of questions to practise in column method
B. ask the students to represent in abacus and then write
C. tell them it is wrong and ask them to write the correct answer 5 times
D. always teach by column method of tens and ones to avoid confusion
Q. 32 Which of the following is not true about the mapping in mathematics ?
A. mapping promotes proportional reasoning
B. mathematics is not a part of mathematics curriculam
C. mapping can be integrated in many topics in mathematics
D. mapping strengthens spatial thinking
Q. 33 Which of the following aspects of shapes is not dealt with at primary level ?
A. angle
B. symmetry
C. tesellation
D. pattern
Q. 34 The mathematical games and puzzles help in
A. developing a positive attitude towards mathematics
B. making connection between mathematics and everyday thinking
C. making mathematics enjoybale
D. promoting problem solving skills
Q. 35 A given rectangle and parellelogram have same area however many class IV studnets respond to that the parellelogram has the larger area. How can a teacher help the students to understand that their areas are same ?
A. using a scale
B. using a geoboard
C. using a graph paper
D. using paper folding
Q. 36 Which of the following is not an objective of teaching mathematics at primary level accoridng to NCF2005 ?
A. making mathematics part of child’s experience
B. promoting problem solving and problem posing skills
C. promoting logical thinking
D. preparing for learning higher and abstract mathematics
Q. 37 The difference between the place value of 5 in 29503 and and face value of 7 in 32071 is
A. 493
B. 2
C. 43
D. 430
Q. 38 IF 30028 = 28 ones +28 thousands +___ tens , then the number in the blank space is ?
A. 280
B. 28
C. 120
D. 200
Q. 39 WHen the remainder obtained on dividing 80808 by 108 is divided by the remainder obtained on dividing by 90909 by 109 ,then the quotient is ;
A. 12
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Q. 40 If 603 x 28 = 63 x 4 x _______ , then the number in the blank space is :
A. 67
B. 21
C. 28
D. 63
Q. 41 The smallest common multiple of 30 , 45 and 60 between 200 and 400 /The largest factor of 15 24 and 45 is equal to :
A. 180
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
Q. 42 A number is smaller than half of 100 and lies between 4 tens and 5 tens .One digit is one less than the 10 digit .if the sum of digits is 7 then the product of digits in the number is :
A. 24
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
Q. 43 In schools there are 360 students out of which 2/3rds are girls and the rest are boys .3/4th of the number of boys are players .The number of boys who are not pplayers is :
A. 75
B. 25
C. 30
D. 60
Q. 44 Harish bought a scooter for Rs.49,553 . He paid Rs.8076 in cash and agreed to pay the remaining amount in 37 equal instalments .What is the amount of each instalment ?
A. Rs.1339
B. Rs.1021
C. Rs.1121
D. Rs.1201
Q. 45 A train left Hyderabad at 13:15 on friday and reached Bengaluru at 7:30 on saturday. the duration of the journey was.
A. 19 hours 45 mins
B. 5 hours 35 mins
C. 12 hours 45 mins
D. 18 hours 15mins
Q. 46 The number of minutes in 15 days in equal to the number of seconds in
A. 8 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 6 hours
Q. 47 15 litres 286 ml of orange juice is mixed with 19 l and 714 ml of carrort juice. 12 l 750 ml of the mixture is used and the rest in filled in bottles each contianing 250 ml .The number of bottles is :
A. 77
B. 89
C. 85
D. 81
Q. 48 The prcies of fruits per kg are given below
Watermelon : Rs.18.50
Cherry : rs.72
Grape :Rs.120-60
Apple :Rs 78-40
Reshma bought 4(1/2) watermelon 1kg 200g cherry ,250 g grapes and 1(3/4) kgp apples. She gave a 500 note to the shopkeeper .How much did she get back ?
A. Rs. 173
B. Rs 162
C. Rs.163
D. Rs 172
Q. 49 The size of a soap cake is 7cm x5cm x2.5 cm .The maximum number of soap ckaes which can be placed into 2 boxes each having internal measurements as 56 cm x 0.4 m x 0.25 m is
A. 2560
B. 640
C. 960
D. 1280
Q. 50 The length of a rectangle is three times half breadth .The breadth is half the size of a sqaure whose perimeter is 72 cm . then
A. The perimeter of a rectangle is less than the perimeter of a sqaure
B. The areas of the sqaure and rectangle are
C. The area of rectangle is more than the area of a square
D. the perimeter of both rectangle and sqaure are equal
Q. 51 Which one of the follwoing is not correct .
A. The volume of cuboid of length 45 cm and breadth 15 cm and height 40 cm is eqaul to the volume of the cube whose side is 0.3 m
B. one hundredth of 10 is eqaul to 0,1
C. 55 litres 55 millimeters = 55.55 l
D. 2005 gms – 2.005 kgs
Q. 52 Which of the following is an essential pre-requisite to understand multiplication of a 2 digit number by a one digit number or a two digit number ?
A. commutative property of multiplication
B. Multiplication as distribution over addition
C. Multiplication as inverse of addition
D. Commutative property of addition
Q. 53 Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for fear and failure in mathematics ?
A. symbolic notations
B. structure mathematics
C. gender differences
D. classroom experiences
Q. 54 Which of the following teaching learning resources would be more appropriate to teach the concept of addition of 2 decimal numbers ?
A. beads and string
B. graph paper
C. abacus
D. geo board
Q. 55 The majority of class 4 learners think that multiplication of 2 numbers always results in a number which is bigger than both the numbers. How will you show it is not same in all the cases ?
A. By showing it through repeated addition of numbers
B. By showing multiplication algorithm of 2 decimals
C. By showing on a grid paper multiplication of 2 decimals
D. By showing multiplication algorithm of one whole number and a fraction on a number Line
Q. 56 Which of the following statements is true in the context of teaching measurement to primary class studnets ?
A. Non standard measurements are followed by standard measures .
B. only non standard measures should be used
C. non standard measures should not be used
D. standard measures should be followed by non standard measures
Q. 57 Which of the following assessment strategies can be used to make connections of matheatics with real life and promote discliplinarty ?
A. survey , project ,check list
B. field trip , oral test , check list
C. filed trip , survey , project
D. field trip, oral test , drill worksheet
Q. 58 Which of the following can be used as learning resources for visually challenged in a mathematics classroom ?
A. Number chart ,computer ,geo board
B. Taylors abacus ,computer, geo board
C. computer ,number chart , geo board
D. Taylors abacus, fraction kit , number chart
Q. 59 In a context of numbers i . e the children in the age group of 8 – 9 years are able to accomplish which one of the following sets ?
A. seiriation reversibilty , proportional reasoning
B. seiriation, classification ,proportional reasoning
C. seiriation reversibilty ,classification
D. reversibilty ,classification,proportional reasoning
Q. 60 A teacher of class 1 asks a student to count the total number of objects in a collection of pens, erasers and sharpners .The studnets uts all the objects in a line and starts counting ,He says hat there are 2 pens , 5 erasers and 3 sharpners instead of 10 objects .In which principle of counting do you the student is facing difficulty .
A. Stable order and abstarction principles
B. one – to – one correspondence principle
C. abstraction principle
D. abstraction and order irrelevnece principle .
Q. 61 In EVS syllabus structured around 6 themes plants and animals have consiously been included in the theme family and friends .All the following could be cited as reasons for this inclusion excpet one .Whihc one is that ?
A. To help students to locatte plants and animals in social and cultural context
B. To highlight how humans share a close relationship with each other
C. To highlight how lives and livelihood of some communities are closely connected iwth some plants and animals
D. To enable studnets to understand plants and animals from a science perspective
Q. 62 The purpose of survey in teaching -learning in EVS .
A. to provide an oppurtunity to react with community
B. to make children sensitive to diferent people
C. to provide an oppurtunity to collect information first -hand
D. to use it as an oppurtunity for assessment
Which one of the above are correct ?
A. A ,B , C ,D
B. A ,B , C
C. A ,B , D
D. A, C D
Questions: 63 – 65
Question numbers 63- 65 are based on the following paragraph .
Given are responses of 7 -8 year old children after thet have observed an experiment done by the teacher , in which water in a bowl is heated and it was evaoprated .
“water is disappeared “
“The bowl has observed the water “
” fire drank the water “
“God drank the water “
Q. 63 What do these responses tell us about children and their thinking ?
A. children’s responses are impossible
B. Children’s thinking is incorrect
C. Children cannot make good observation
D. Children have alternative ideas about evaporation
Q. 64 How should the teacher deal with these responses ?
A. Show the standard water cycle chart
B. Give the definition of evaporation and ask the children to memorize it
C. intiate a discussion to revisit their ideas
D. Tell the children that they are wrong
Q. 65 Which of the following is question assessing divergent thinking of children on the topic of evaporation ?
A. What will happen if there is no watercycle
B. List the steps in sequence of water cycle
C. Draw and label water cycle
D. write five advantages of water cycle
Q. 66 Which of the following are the neighbouring states of jammu and kashmir ?
A. Himachal pradesh , Punjab
B. Himachal pradesh ,Uttar pradesh
C. Uttarakhand , Rajasthan
D. Himachal pradesh, Uttarakhand
Q. 67 Match each of the locations with a correct description of common houses built in that area
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 68 The different patterns on the skin of animals are ?
A. an indication of their physical strength
B. due to reflected light
C. due to hair on their skin
D. due to the weather conditions they live in
Q. 69 People who have been living in the forest for atleast 25 years have a right to forest land and and what is grown on it .This is mandated by
A. Indian forest act ,1927
B. Right to forest act , 2007
C. land aquisation act , 1894
D. the constitution (scheduled caste ) orders (amendment bill) 2012
Q. 70 Which of the following is a set of diseases spread by mosquitoes ?
A. malaria, HIV -AIDS ,Dengue
B. HIV -AIDS ,Dengue ,cholera
C. Dengue,malaria,chickungunia
D. typhoid, cholera, chickungunia
Q. 71 Pitcher plant (Nepenthes)
A. is not found in india
B. clevrly traps and eats frog, insects and mice
C. emits sounds of high pitch to attarct insects
D. has mouth covered with tiny hooks
Q. 72 Which of the following set of eatables is rich in iron
A. Amla, spinach , potato
B. Amla, potato , tomato
C. cabbage , okra , jaggery
D. amla ,spinach , jaggery
Q. 73 Almost in every part of the country chillies are added while cooking food. chillies were brought brought to our country by the traders who came from
A. South america
B. Afganisthan
C. Australia
D. Uzbekistan
Q. 74 Which of the following birds makes its nest among the thrones of a cactus plant ?
A. weaver bird
B. robin bird
C. dove
D. sunbird
Q. 75 Read the following description of an animal and identify it :
” it looks like a bear but its not .It spends almost 17 hours a day sleeping while handing upside down on a tree branch .It eats the leaves of the same tree on which it lives .It lives for about 40 years
A. Chimpanzee
B. Panda
C. sloth
D. Langur
Q. 76 Which of the following groups of animals has excellent sight and see things 4 times more than humans ?
A. Snakes , silkworms , lizards
B. Kites , eagles , vulltures
C. Bees, mosquitoes , butterflies
D. Tigers , leoperds , bulls
Q. 77 Read the given description of the farming and identify its type .
After cutting one crop, the land is left as it for some years .Nothing is grown there. The bamboos or weeds which grown on that land are not pulled out .They are cut and burnt. The ash makes the land more fertile .When the land is ready for farming, it is lightly dug up not ploughed .Seeds are dropped in it .
A. Jhoom farming
B. Step farming
C. Irrigation farming
D. co operative farming
Q. 78 When a snake charmer plays on his muusical instrument Been the snakes swings it head to and fro to its sound.How do you think the snakes responds to the musical instrument.
A. By smelling the instrument
B. By hearing the sound produced by the instrument
C. By seeing the movement of the instrument
D. By respondong to the vibrations produced by the instrument .
Q. 79 A family is a unit consisting of mother , father and their 2 children .This statement is
A. Incorrect t, there are many kinds of families and one cannot classify family as being only one kind
B. Correct , since this is an ideal family size
C. Correct , this is what all indian famileis are like
D. incorrect , because the statemnet should specify the children are biological
Q. 80 The gastric juice in the stomach of the human beings is ______ and aids in the digestion of food.
A. neutral
B. acidic
C. alkaline
D. amphoteric
Q. 81 A teacher of class 3 had asked children to classify the leaves of the following trees /plants into different groups – lemon, mango , basil ,mint ,neem , banana etc.some studnets clssified leaves as (a) leaves with medicine values and leaves without medicine values (b) big levaes and small leaves .The teacher grouped a as right and b as wrong. Which of the follwoing reflects the teachers view of learning and assessment.
A. Children bring multiple perspectives in classrooms which is to be appreciated .
B. Children can use multiple use of classification depending upon their experiences .
C. Classification task is very specific and structured and there is one right answer
D. The activity is focused to seek information from which can be interpreted differnetly
Q. 82 Which of the following considerations would you keep in mind while designing a group activity in your EVS class?
A. Engage the interests of the children
B. Appeal equally to boys and girls
C. Use expensive material
D. Appeal to children of all religious and cultural backgrounds.
A. A,B and D
B. A,C and D
C. B and D
D. B and C
Q. 83 All of the following statements provide arguments in favour of teachers and students collectively participate in group activities in EVS, except one. Which is that statement?
A. Children learn more by talking and discussing with other children.
B. Children show marked improvements in scores because of group activities
C. Adult support can help children construct knowledge beyond their ability
D. children learn to cooperate and collaborate
Q. 84 Which of the following tools will be appropriate for assessing social personal qualities of children learning EVS through group work ?
A. Paper pencil tests
B. oral questions
C. Rating sales
D. Assignments
Q. 85 Follwoing are some intutive ideas of children about plants .Which of them is scientifically correct ?
A. Seeds are not part of a plant
B. Carrot and cabbage are not plants
C. grass is not a plant
D. some vegetables are fruits
Q. 86 A teacher of class IV told her studnets -Ask some old people if there are plants they had seen when they were young but seen not nowadays .
Which of the following skillls is not likelyto be assessed by asking questions ?
A. Questioning
B. Experimentation
C. Expression
D. discussion
Q. 87 A teacher asks every student to use some waste material from their homes and make something useful out if it
The pedagogical intention of the teacher is not to :
A. judge the best student of the class
B. develop creativity among children
C. make children understand the concept of recycle , reuse and reduce
D. organize an exhibition best articles made out of waste
Q. 88 Read the following questions :
A.How well did I plan for the activity .
B.Gow well did I follow the plan
c.What were my strengths
D.What exactly did i find difficult .
Answers to the above 4 types of questions will comprise .
A. summative assessment by the teacher
B. children’s self assessment
C. teacher’s self assessment
D. self assessment of children and teacher both
Q. 89 the language used in EVS textbook is
A. should be technical and formal
B. should be related to everyday language of the child
C. should be terse an difficult for children to comprhend
D. should be formalized with emphasis on definition
Q. 90 A teacher gives pictures of different animals to his students and asks them to colour the animals that do not live in their houses.the obejective of this activity is to develop
A.Creativity
B.Observation
C.Classification skill
D.Data collection
A. A, C , D
B. A,B,C
C. A,B .D
D. A, C ,D
Q. 91 Home language is _______ in a normal way .
A. promoted
B. acquired
C. learnt
D. taught
Q. 92 Which of the following in not true while teaching the learners in their motehr tongue at primary level ?
A. It helps children in learning in natural environment
B. It develops self confidence in the child
C. It makes learning easy
D. It helps in intellectual development of child
Q. 93 Communicative language teaching emphasis on :
A. grammatical comptency
B. language use
C. form
D. writing
Q. 94 Ria a class II student is presenting language in her instructions items and the learners are doing exactly as she is telling them to do .What is she presenting
A. Total physique response
B. direct method
C. lingual method
D. communicative language
Q. 95 While tecahing a language to the learners the teacher should teach
A. by giving instructions
B. thorugh imitation
C. in isolation
D. in integrated manner
Q. 96 A intonation may not be a _______ tone
A. sliding
B. rising
C. falling
D. loud
Q. 97 Functional grammar stands for using /teaching grammar in/through :
A. explantion of literary content
B. context
C. isloation
D. parsing
Q. 98 A techer asks learners to think of ideas quickly about the topic “save water ” and also asks them to note down their ideas before writing their article on save water. She is foocusng on
A. brain storming
B. assessment
C. checklist
D. drill
Q. 99 Which of the following is not a form of literature?
A. one act play
B. dictionary
C. memoir
D. travel logue
Q. 100 Assessment is :
A. Judgemental
B. product -oriented
C. process oriented
D. both product -oriented and process oriented
Q. 101 Which of the following is not formative assessment ?
A. term end assessment
B. ancetodal records
C. portfolios
D. oral testing
Q. 102 A teacher askes their studnets to assess their classmates during a debate compettion in the class This method of assessment is :
A. individual assessment
B. peer assessment
C. self assessment
D. group assessment
Q. 103 Match the following
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 104 Which of the following is not appropriate about language games ?
A. Language games create stress free and natural environment where learners can learn english the way they learnt L1.
B. Language games create an environment even for the shy learners to participate .
C. Language games provide competitive environment to the learners to win the game by any means
D. Language games create a real world context in classroom and enhance the usage of english
Q. 105 Remedial teaching is for :
A. improving the image of school
B. the learner to learn better
C. the learner to learn better and improve the teacher to teach better
D. the teacher to teach better
Questions: 106 – 114
The Mahatma’s remarkable wide Kasturabai, did not object when he failed to set aside,any part of his wealth, for the use of herself and their children. Married in early youth, Gandhi and his wife took the vow of celibacy after the birth of several sons. A tranquil heroine in the intense drama, that has been their life together, Kasturabai has followed her husband to prison, shared his three-week fasts and fully borne her share of his endless responsibilities. She has paid Gandhi the following tribute. I thank you for having had the privilege of being your lifelong companion and helpmate. I thank you for the perfect marriage in the world, based on Brahmacharya(self-control) and not on sex. I thank you for having me considered your equal in your lifework for India. I thank you for not being one of those husbands, who spend their time in gambling, racing, women, wine, and song tiring of their wives and children as he little boy quickly tires of his childhood toys. How thankful I am that you were noy one of those husbands who devote their time to growing rich on the exploitation of the labour of others. How thankful I am that you put God and country before the bribes, that you had the courage of your convictions, and a complete and implicit faith in God. How thankful I am for a husband that put God and country before me. I am grateful for your tolerance of me and my shortcomings of youth, when i grumbled and rebelled against the changes you made in our living, from so much to so little. As a young child I lived in your parents’ home, your mother was a great and good woman, she trained me, taught me hoe to be brave , a courageous wife, and how to keep the love and respect for her son, my future husband, As the years passed and you became the India’s most beloved leader, I had none of the fears that beset the wife who maybe cast aside when her husband has climbed the ladder of success, and so often happens in other countries. I knew that death would still find us husband and wife.
Q. 106 How did Kasturabai act to Gandhiji’s will?
A. She felt quite unhappy
B. She was astonished
C. She accepted the decision without arguing
D. She decided to discuss the matter with her parents.
Q. 107 Kasturabai impressed the author the most becaue she:
A. was an embodiment of humilty
B. never questioned her husband’s decisions
C. was at his beck and call
D. stood by him through trying times
Q. 108 Husbands given to vices made Kasturabai feel:
A. disgusted
B. furious
C. unhappy
D. sad
Q. 109 Kasturabai’s relationship with her mother-in-law can be described as:
A. respectful
B. formal
C. unconventional
D. informal
Q. 110 The author’s attitude to Kasturabai is :
A. sympathetic
B. comendatory
C. neutral
D. ambivalent
Q. 111 The word ‘tranquil’ as used in the passage means:
A. loyal
B. sober
C. gentle
D. calm
Q. 112 The word opposite in meaning to ‘lifelong’ is:
A. weak
B. ardent
C. temporary
D. bereif
Q. 113 Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?
“…. any part of his wealth”
A. conjunction
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun
Q. 114 The sentence, “some husbands spend their time in gambling” when changed to passive voice becomes:
A. Some husbands whose time was spent in gambling
B. some husbands spent their time in gambling
C. Time is spent in gambling by some husbands
D. some husbands whose time is sent in gambling.
Questions: 115 – 120
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by selctecing approporitae options :
I cannot rest from travel : I will drink
Life to the lees : All time I have enjoyed
Greatly have suffered .Greatly both with those
That loved me, and alone,and shore, and when
Thro scudding drifts, the rainy Hyades
Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;
For always roaming with a hungry heart,
Much have I seen and known, cities of men;
And manners, climates, councils, governments,
Myself not least, but honour’d of them all;
Q. 115 The speaker can be described as :
A. a frolicsome person
B. a vagabond
C. a seeker after the truth
D. an adventure
Q. 116 The expression “drink life to the less means “
A. to live life to the fullest
B. to live a life of pressure
C. to face challenges bravely
D. to live life of adventure
Q. 117 Which of the following statemnets is true ?
A. he has lost instrest inlife
B. the speaker is an aimless wanderer
C. his adventures have not chnaged hi outlook
D. he has suffered and enjoyed greatly
Q. 118 The line myself not least but honoured of them all reveals that the speaker is :
A. aroogant
B. prone to bragging
C. a garrulous person
D. consious of his merits
Q. 119 The figure of speech used in drink life to the less is :
A. assonance
B. smile
C. metaphor
D. personification
Q. 120 Which literray device has been used in hungry heart ?
A. Irony
B. assonance
C. smile
D. alietration
Q. 121 Language is not
A. social
B. aribitrary
C. symbolic
D. instinctive
Q. 122 When language development is a deliberate and a conscious effort, language is
A. brushed up
B. learned
C. acquired
D. honed
Q. 123 What is a ‘task’ in task-based language learning?
A. A piece of work for parents to do their children’s homework
B. A piece of activity for teachers to do in the classroom
C. A piece of work which exposes learners to language
D. A piece of work which enables learners to do an activity.
Q. 124 Travelogue is a genre of :
A. biography
B. literature
C. poetry
D. cristicsm
Q. 125 The most important assessment of effective language classroom is to provide learners with an oppurtunity to :
A. interfere
B. assess
C. imitate
D. interact
Q. 126 A teacher of class V is practising interactive listening in the class .She should focus on :
A. Listening to words stress and intonation
B. listening to the pronunciation
C. listening and responding
D. listening and observing speakers attitude
Q. 127 A word with same spelling and same pronunciation as another but one with a different meaning is a
A. homophone
B. antonym
C. synonym
D. homonym
Q. 128 A shorter form of a group of words which usually occurs in auxilary verb is :
A. connector
B. contraction
C. conjunction
D. connation
Q. 129 Aditi, a visually challenged child id class IV, does not have any text in brallie. How can a teacher faciliatet her in reading a english book ?
A. Instead of focussing on this single child , she may use her energy in the remaining class
B. She may ask her parents to look after her child
C. She may ask the principle to arrange a special teacher for her
D. She may arrange and give audio cd of the textbook to the child
Q. 130 Peotry teaching is generally meant for :
A. learning punctuation
B. enjoying and appreciation
C. language learning
D. learning grammaar
Q. 131 Reading english as a second language means
A. reading for grammar
B. meaning making
C. decoding of letter and words
D. reading aloud
Q. 132 When learners give feedback on each other langauges, work ,learning strategies, performance etc .
A. group assessment
B. self assessment
C. peer assessment
D. formal assessment
Q. 133 A teacher after completing a chapter asks the students some questions to review their learning and check their understanding , the questions she will be asking based on :
A. hyper order thinking skills
B. higher order thinking skills
C. middle order thinking skills
D. lower order thinking skills
Q. 134 A good teaching- learning material can best :
A. help the teacher to transact material without any modification
B. help the learners acquire the language
C. faciltate the teaching- learning
D. be a source of entertaiment
Q. 135 while providing the feedback to the students a teacher should not :
A. share the incidents recorded in ancedotes
B. compare their child with other children .
C. compare the current performance of the child with her previous performance
D. give qualitative feedback about the child
Questions: 136 – 143
Read the following passage and answer the following questions :
The art of madhubani painting is the traditional style developed in the mithila region , in the Madhubani Bihar.Madhubani literally means forest of honey .This style of painting has been traditionally used by the women of the region ,though men are involved to meet the demand .The work is done on freshly painted mud walls for commerical purposes ,it is now beign done on cloth and paper etc. The paintings are basically religious nature .They are done in special rooms their homes on the main village , walls , etc for ceremonal or ritualistic purposes .The women offer praters to the deities before starting their work .Figures fromnature and mythology ara adapted to suit their style .The themes and designs widely painted are worship of hindu deites such as krishna .rama shiva durga lakshmi sun and mood s=tulsi plant. Floral animal and bird moffits geometricals designs are used to fill the gaps. there is harldy any space between the styles.cotton wrapped around a bamboo sticks from the brush .It is beliebed that genesis of madhubani paintings came about when a king janaka asked for paintings to be developed for his daughter sitas wedding.
Q. 136 Madhubani paintings are no longer done exclusively by women on walls :
A. bacause cloth is more durable
B. to meet their widespread demand
C. as men as better painters
D. as paper is cheaper
Q. 137 Madhubani paintings are essentially of religious nature when they are done :
A. iin the pooja room
B. in the bride room
C. on the village walls
D. using figures as nature
Q. 138 These paintings become secular when they object :
A. court scenes
B. workship of sarswati
C. tulsi plant
D. wedding scenes
Q. 139 A madhubani painting shows only
A. a balanced potrayl of all of them
B. hindu deities
C. flowers and plants
D. geometrical designs
Q. 140 The art of madhubani painting is learnt in the :
A. Asharms of madhurbani
B. schools of art
C. families of home
D. homes of reowned artsits
Q. 141 Floral is the adjective derived from the noun flower aural is derived from the noun :
A. mouth
B. morning
C. ear
D. eye
Q. 142 On freshly plastered mud walls .the word plastered is a /an :
A. particle
B. gerund
C. infinitive
D. participle
Q. 143 The word genesis means the same as
A. growth
B. birth
C. original
D. spirit
Questions: 144 – 150
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions .
A remarkable feature of edisons inventions was their basic simplicity .there were innumerable scientists possessing deep knowledge of electicity ,chemistry etc.but it was unschooled genius who succeeded where the failed .What were his unique qualities .? firstly he had an ,uncanny ability to judge the practical use of any scientific fact .Secondly, he was blessed with patience and preservnece .He would try out countless ideas till he found the right one .Third was his business acumen which enablled him to earn the large sums of money to conduct the experimental work . Edisons enthusiasm for work and optimistic attitude ensured an long and productive life .Only after crossing the age of 75 did he start slowing down. During his final illness , his curiosity about his condition ,medicines and treatment made the doctors think that possibly he was thinking about his condition, medicines and treatment, made the doctors think that possibly he was taking this too as one of his scientific investigations! He passed away on 18 October, 1931, at the ripe old age of eighty four. During his lifetime itself Edison became one of the famous men in the world. Honours were showered on him. Among them was the congressional gold in 1928, for his contributions to human welfare. In 1960,he was posthumously elected to the Hall of Fame for great Americans at the New York university. But the tribute that was most eloquent was quite unintened.
Q. 144 The most remarkable feature of Edison’s inventions was their:
A. aesthetic aspect
B. fundamental simplicity
C. multiple use fullness
D. low cost
Q. 145 According to the author, Edison became prosperous because he:
A. had luck on his side
B. worked very hard
C. made the best use of his time
D. had great business sense
Q. 146 To conduct experimental work Edison needed:
A. sophisticated gadgets
B. support of generous patrons
C. huge amount of money
D. calm and quiet atmosphere
Q. 147 Edison’s long and productive life can be attributed to:
A. his immensely good health
B. a large circle of friends
C. his involvement in charitable work
D. his positive attitude
Q. 148 The word ‘uncanny’ as used in the passage means:
A. weird
B. great
C. terrific
D. astonishing
Q. 149 The opposite of ‘famous’ is:
A. unnoticeable
B. unpopular
C. unknown
D. negligable
Q. 150 Which part of speech is the underlined word?
“….any scientific fact”
A. preposition
B. noun
C. adjective
D. adverb
Answer Sheet
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answer
A
C
A
B
A
C
A
A
B
C
Question
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Answer
D
D
A
C
B
C
A
D
B
C
Question
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Answer
A
D
B
C
B
D
A
D
B
D
Question
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Answer
B
B
A
A
C
D
A
D
D
A
Question
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Answer
D
B
C
C
D
D
B
C
D
D
Question
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answer
C
B
C
B
C
A
C
B
C
D
Question
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
Answer
D
A
D
C
A
A
B
C
B
C
Question
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
Answer
B
D
A
C
C
B
A
D
A
B
Question
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Answer
C
A
B
C
D
C
A
C
B
B
Question
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Answer
B
D
B
A
D
D
B
A
B
C
Question
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
Answer
A
B
A
C
C
C
D
A
A
B
Question
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
Answer
D
C
D
C
D
A
D
D
C
D
Question
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
Answer
D
B
C
B
D
C
A
B
D
B
Question
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
Answer
B
C
D
C
B
B
A
A
A
C
Question
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
Answer
C
D
B
B
C
C
D
A
C
C
×
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GATE 2017 Computer Science and Information Technology Session 2
