Vidhyarthi Darpan %

JIPMER MBBS 2011 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2011

Q. 1 The physical quantity having the dimensions [M⁻¹L⁻³T³A²] is

A. resistance

B. resistivity

C. electrical conductivity

D. electromotive force

Q. 2 In the circuit shown the value of 1 in ampere is

A. 1

B. 0.60

C. 0.4

D. 1.5

Q. 3 The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 x The specific charge of an alpha panic

A. 9.6 x 10⁷ C/ kg

B. 19.2 x 10⁷ C/ kg

C. 4.8 x 10⁷ C/kg

D. 2.4 x 10⁷ C/ kg

Q. 4 If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of the first member of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively, then λ₁:λ₂ is

A. 1 : 3

B. 1 : 30

C. 7 : 50

D. 7 : 108

Q. 5 Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to (1/3)rd of its original value in 3 days. Then, in 9 days its activity will become

A. (1/27) of the original value

B. (1/9) of the original value

C. (1/18) of the original value

D. (1/3) of the original value

Q. 6 A tuning fork A produces 4 beats/s with another tuning fork B of frequency 320 Hz. On filing one of the prongs of A, 4 beasts are again heard when sounded with the same fork B. Then, the frequency of the fork A before filing is

A. 328 Hz

B. 316 Hz

C. 324 Hz

D. 320 Hz

Q. 7 If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?

A. Viscosity

B. Surface tension

C. Pressure

D. Archimedes’ upward thrust

Q. 8 A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because

A. choke is cheap

B. there is no wastage of power

C. choke is compact in size

D. choke good absorber of heat

Q. 9 velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically is

A. parabola

B. ellipse

C. hyperbola

D. straight line

Q. 10 If r1 and r2 are the radii of the atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125 respectively, then the ratio (r1/r2) is

A. 64/125

B. √64/125

C. 5/4

D. 4/5

Q. 11 The ionization energy of Li⁺² is equal to

A. 9Rhc

B. 6hcR

C. 2hcR

D. hcR

Q. 12 A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area 4 x10⁻⁶ m². If the density of charge carriers of the wire is 5 x 10²⁶ m⁻³, then the drift velocity of the electrons will be

A. 1 x 10² m/s

B. 1.56 x 10⁻² m/s

C. 1.56 x 10⁻³ m/s

D. 1 x 10⁻² m/s

Q. 13 The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always

A. less than one

B. equal to one

C. equal to or less than one

D. equal to or greater than one

Q. 14 In Young’s double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half angular width of the central maximum is

A. sin⁻¹ (0.01)

B. sin⁻¹ (0.0001)

C. sin⁻¹ (0.001)

D. sin⁻¹ (0.1)

Q. 15 The principle of LASER action involves

A. amplification of particular frequency emitted by the system

B. population inversion

C. stimulated emission

D. All of the above

Q. 16 A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed direction of car to the passenger in the train is

A. east-north direction

B. west-north direction

C. south-east direction

D. None of the above

Q. 17 Which of the following is unipolar transistor?

A. p-n-p transistor

B. n-p-n transistor

C. Field effect transistor

D. Point contact transistor

Q. 18 A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing

A. by determining their moments of inertia about their coaxial axes

B. by rolling them simultaneously on an inclined plane

C. by rotating them about a common axis of rotation

D. by applying equal torque on them

Q. 19 Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (-2, -2, 0) respectively. The moment of inertia 9 tem about X-axis will be

A. 43 kg-m²

B. 34 kg-m²

C. 27 kg-m²

D. 72 kg-m²

Q. 20 The radius of gyration of distance 6 cm from its centre an axis at a mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be

A. 80 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 0.8 cm

D. 80 m

Q. 21 A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using

A. low resistance shunt in series

B. low resistance shunt in parallel

C. high resistance shunt in series

D. high resistance shunt in parallel

Q. 22 A bullet of mass 20 g and moving with 600 m/s collides with a block of mass 4 kg hanging with the string. What is velocity of bullet when it comes out of block, if block rises to height 0.2 m after collision?

A. 200 m/s

B. 150 m/s

C. 400 m/s

D. 300 m/s

Q. 23 Voltage in the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon

A. frequency of the source

B. voltage in the primary coil

C. ratio of number of turns in the two coils

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 24 In Carnot engine efficiency is 40% at hot reservoir temperature T. For efficiency 50%, what will be temperature of hot reservoir?

A. T/5

B. 2T/5

C. 6T

D. 6T/5

Q. 25 A ball of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s, collides with spring of natural length 2 m and force constant 144 N/m. What will be length of compressed spring?

A. 2 m

B. 1.5 m

C. 1 m

D. 0.5 m

Q. 26 A proton moving vertically downward enters a magnet pointing towards north. In which direction proton on will deflect?

A. east

B. west

C. north

D. south

Q. 27 Induced emf in the coil depends upon conductivity of coil

A. conductivity of coil

B. amount of flux

C. rate of change of linked flux

D. resistance of coil

Q. 28 X-rays are used in determining the molecular structure of crystalline because

A. its energy is high

B. it can penetrate the material

C. its wavelength is comparable to interatomic distance

D. its frequency is low

Q. 29 Light of frequency v falls on material of threshold frequency vo. Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is proportional to

A. v-v₀

B. v

C. √v-v₀

D. v₀

Q. 30 A light moves from denser to rarer medium, which of the following is correct?

A. Energy increases

B. Frequency increases

C. Phase changes by 90°

D. Velocity increases

Q. 31 Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

Q. 32 A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves 108 km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total distance travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.

A. 12.2 s

B. 15.3 s

C. 9 s

D. 17.2 s

Q. 33 A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)

A. 300 Hz

B. 350 Hz

C. 375 Hz

D. 415 Hz

Q. 34 The temperature of the sun can be found out by using

A. Wien’s displacement law

B. Kepler’s law of motion

C. Stefan’s Boltzmann law

D. Planck’s law

Q. 35 Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is effect on kinetic energy of molecules?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. No change

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 36 Kirchhoff’s law of junction, E I = 0, is based on

A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of charge

C. conservation of energy as well as charge

D. conservation of momentum

Q. 37 A transverse wave is expressed as, Y=Y₀ sin 2πft For what value of X., maximum particle velocity equals to 4 times the wave velocity?

A. y₀ π/2

B. 2y₀ π

C. y₀ π

D. y₀ π/4

Q. 38 For a given lens, the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 in. The focal length of the lens is

A. 1.5 m

B. 0.20 m

C. 0.10 m

D. 0.05 m

Q. 39 When sound waves travel from air to water which one of the following remains constant ?

A. time period

B. frequency

C. velocity

D. wave length

Q. 40 the bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is

A. zero

B. unity

C. infinity

D. between 0 and 1

Q. 41 10⁻⁶ M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of diluted base is

A. between 7 and 8

B. between 5 and 6

C. between 6 and 7

D. between 10 and 11

Q. 42 An sp³-hybrid orbital contains

A. 1/4 s-character

B. 1/2 s-character

C. 2/3 s-character

D. 3/4 s-character

Q. 43 Leaching is a process of

A. reduction

B. concentration

C. refining

D. oxidation

Q. 44 Electrolysis of fused NaCI will give

A. Na

B. NaOH

C. NaCIO

D. NaCIO₃

Q. 45 Which of the following fluorides does not exist?

A. NF₅

B. PF₅

C. AsF₅

D. SbF₅

Q. 46 Red lead is

A. PbO

B. Pbo₂

C. Pb₃o₄

D. Pb₂o₃

Q. 47 Hybridisation states of C in CH₃⁺ and CH₃⁻ are

A. sp² , sp³

B. sp³ , sp²

C. sp, sp²

D. sp² , sp

Q. 48 which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?

A. [Co(NH₃)]⁺³

B. [Mn(CN₆)]₃₆⁻⁴

C. [Fe(CN)₆]⁻⁴

D. [Ni(NH₃)₆]⁺²

Q. 49 A solution made by dissolving 40 g NaOH in 1000g of H₂O is

A. 1 molar

B. 1 normal

C. 1 molal

D. none of these

Q. 50 0.1 mol HCl is equal to

A. 3.65 g

B. 36.5 g

C. 18 g

D. 1.8 g

Q. 51 which will liberate bromine from a solution of potassium bromide ?

A. I₂

B. Cl₂

C. SO₂

D. HI

Q. 52 which one of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ?

A. V⁺³

B. Fe⁺²

C. Mn⁺²

D. Cu⁺

Q. 53 The geometry of XeF₆ is

A. planar hexagon

B. regular octahedron

C. distorted octahedron

D. square bipyramid

Q. 54 The correct statement with regard to H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ is

A. both H₂⁺ an H₂⁻ are equally stable

B. both H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ do not exist

C. H₂⁻ is more stable than H₂⁺

D. H₂⁺ is more stable than H₂⁻

Q. 55 2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on the 1st march, 2009 (including both the days) is

A. 0 g

B. 0.125 g

C. 1 g

D. 0.5 g

Q. 56 The rate equation for a reaction, A —> B is r = k[A]⁰. If the initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm⁻³, the half-life period of the reaction is

A. a/2k

B. k/a

C. a/k

D. 2a/k

Q. 57 for the reaction, at 373 K and 1 atm pressure

A. ΔH = 0

B. Δ E = 0

C. Δ H = T ΔS

D. ΔH = ΔE

Q. 58 in electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A. decreases electron density at ortho and para positions

B. decreases electron density at meta position

C. increases electron density at meta position

D. increases electron density at ortho and positions

Q. 59 The best method for the conversion of into an alkyl chloride is by treating the

A. PCI₃

B. PCI₅

C. SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine

D. dry HCl in the pre dross ZnCl₂

Q. 60 The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture calcium formate and calcium acetate is

A. methanal

B. propanal

C. propanone

D. ethane

Q. 61 The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH, is

A. 1,1-clichloroethane

B. 1,1,1-trichloroethane

C. 1-chloroethane

D. 1,2-dichloroethane

Q. 62 The one which has least iodine value is

A. sunflower oil

B. ginger oil

C. ghee

D. groundnut oil

Q. 63 IUPAC name of (CH₃)₃CCI is

A. n-butyl chloride

B. 3- chloro butane

C. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane

D. t-butyl chloride

Q. 64 The condensation polymer among the following is

A. rubber

B. protein

C. PVC

D. polyethene

Q. 65 In which of the following, NH3 is not used?

A. Tolien’s reagent

B. Nessler’s reagent

C. Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radicals

D. Group reagent for the analysis of III group basic radicals

Q. 66 Argon is used

A. in filling airships

B. to obtain low temperature

C. in high temperature welding

D. in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer

Q. 67 Hyperconjugation is most useful for stabilising which of the following carbocations?

A. Neo-pentyl

B. Tert-butyl

C. Iso-propyl

D. Ethyl

Q. 68 The isomerism that arises due to restricted bond rotation is

A. metamerism

B. optical isomerism

C. position isomerism

D. geometrical isomerism

Q. 69 amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel pthalimide synthesis is

A. aniline

B. benzylamine

C. methylamine

D. iso-butylamine

Q. 70 Lactose is made of

A. α-D-glucose only

B. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

C. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

D. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

Q. 71 Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular

A. anionic detergent

B. cationic detergent

C. non-ionic detergent

D. sweetener

Q. 72 The number of electrons, neutrons and protons in a species are equal to 10, 8 and 8 respectively. The proper symbol of the species is

A. ¹⁶₈O

B. ¹⁸₈O

C. ¹⁸₁₀Ne

D. ¹⁶₈O²⁻

Q. 73 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are mixed isothermally and at a total pressure of 10 atm. The partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen (in atm) are respectively

A. 4,6

B. 5,5

C. 2,8

D. 6,4

Q. 74 Which of the following undergoes reduction with hydrogen peroxide in alkaline medium?

(a) Mn2+ (b) 12 (d) Fee.

A. Mn⁺²

B. I₂

C. Mg⁺²

D. Fe⁺²

Q. 75 The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is

A. Ba

B. Ag

C. Rb

D. Pb

Q. 76 According to the first law of the thermodynamics. which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 77 The maximum oxidation state exhibited by actinide ions is

A. +5

B. +4

C. +7

D. +8

Q. 78 The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively.

A. gas and liquid

B. liquid and gas

C. solid and gas

D. solid and liquid

Q. 79 The expression for the solubility product of Ag₂CO₃ will be

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic radiation of wave length 331.3 nm. How many photons are emitted from the lamp per second ? (h = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J-s; velocity of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s)

A. 1 x 10¹⁹

B. 1 x 10²⁰

C. 1 x 10²¹

D. 1 x 10²³

Q. 81 In mammals, histamine is secreted by

A. fibroblasts

B. histocytes

C. lymphocytes

D. mast cells

Q. 82 The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is

A. dentoblast

B. ameloblast

C. osteoblast

D. odontoblast

Q. 83 Which important green house gas, other than carbon dioxide, is being produced from the agricultural fields?

A. Arsine

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Ammonia

D. Nitrous oxide

Q. 84 The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the takes place by

A. osmosis

B. simple diffusion

C. passive transport

D. active transport

Q. 85 Carbon monoxide is a pollution

A. reacts with oxygen

B. inhibits glycolysis

C. reacts with haemoglobin

D. makes nervous system inactive

Q. 86 Total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is

A. 14

B. 21

C. 24

D. 30

Q. 87 Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which

A. elevates potassium level in blood

B. lowers calcium level in blood

C. elevates calcium level in blood

D. has no effect on calcium

Q. 88 A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. deamination

B. entropy

C. anuria

D. None of these

Q. 89 Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in

A. annelids

B. molluscs

C. echinodermates

D. ularyhelmir

Q. 90 A woman genes (one on each X-chromoso e mophilia and one gene for colour blindness on X-chromosome marries a normal man. how will the progeny be?

A. all sons and daughters are haemophilic and colour blind

B. haemophilic and colour blind daughters

C. 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons

D. 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour blind daughters

Q. 91 The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

A. cross birdge

B. myofibril

C. sacromere

D. Z-band

Q. 92 The contraction of gall bladder is due to

A. gastrin

B. secretin

C. cholecystokinin

D. enterogastrone

Q. 93 The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

A. origin of species by natural selection

B. intraspecific variations

C. intraspecific competition

D. interspecific competition

Q. 94 the most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

A. progesterone

B. growth harmone

C. thyroxine

D. luteinising harmone

Q. 95 The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

A. progesterone

B. growth hormone

C. thyroxine

D. luteinising hormone

Q. 96 The middle piece of the sperm contains

A. proteins

B. centriole

C. nucleus

D. mitochondria

Q. 97 The term ‘aquaculture’ means

A. aspergillosis

B. inland fisheries

C. marine fisheries

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 98 Active immunity means

A. resistance developed after disease

B. increasing quantity of blood

C. resistance developed before disease

D. increasing rate of heart-beat

Q. 99 The canal system is a characteristic feature of

A. echinoderms

B. helminthes

C. coelenterates

D. sponges

Q. 100 Which cranial nerve has the highest number of branches?

A. Facial nerve

B. Trigeminal

C. Vagus nerve

D. None of these

Q. 101 The problem due to Rh- factor arises when the blood of two (Rh’ and Rh-) mixup

A. during pregnancy

B. through transfusion

C. in a test tube

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 102 Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Vitamin-K — Beri-beri

B. Vitamin-D — Rickets

C. Vitamin-C — Scurvy

D. Vitamin-A — Xerophthalmia

Q. 103 The joint between atlas aril/axis is called

A. pivot joint

B. saddle joint

C. saddle joint

D. angular joint

Q. 104 The blood group with antibody-a and antibody-b is

A. B

B. A

C. 0

D. AB

Q. 105 Rate of heart beat is determined by

A. Purkinje fibres

B. papillary muscles

C. SA-node

D. AV-node

Q. 106 The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called

A. junction point

B. a synapse

C. a joint

D. constant bridge

Q. 107 Chondrichthyes is characterised by

A. placoid scale

B. ventral mouth

C. ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

D. placoid scale and ventral mouth

Q. 108 Secondary body cavity with segmente mesodermal lining is called

A. haemocoel

B. neurocoel

C. true coelom

D. pseudocoelom

Q. 109 Stratified epithelium is found in

A. seminiferous tubule

B. fallopian tube

C. nasal cavity

D. kidney tubules

Q. 110 Dead space air in man is

A. 500 mL

B. 150 mL

C. 250 mL

D. 1.5 L

Q. 111 Vetebrate brain differentiates from

A. endoderm

B. mesoderm

C. ectoderm

D. blastoderm

Q. 112 animals of class mammalia have

A. seven cervical vertebrae

B. seven cranial nerve

C. single ventricular chamber

D. fourteen cervical vertevrae

Q. 113 Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as

A. PAS vaccine

B. BCG vaccine

C. OPV

D. DPT

Q. 114 Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagonostic technique of

A. CT scanning

B. MRI

C. endoscopy

D. bronchoscopy

Q. 115 Alcoholism may leads to

A. skin cancer

B. liver cirrhosis

C. viral disease

D. eye infections

Q. 116 The basic unit of classification is

A. species

B. genus

C. family

D. phylum

Q. 117 Age of fishes is also known as

A. Permian Era

B. Silurian Era

C. Devonian Era

D. Ordovician Era

Q. 118 A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is

A. X-chromosomal linked disease

B. Autosomal linked disease

C. Y-chromosomal linked disease

D. None of the above

Q. 119 One animal that does not perform locomotion is

A. Sycon

B. Nereis

C. Sepia

D. Euglena

Q. 120 Amount of CO₂ in expired air is about

A. 0.04%

B. 0.03%

C. 10%

D. 21%

Q. 121 The codon for anticodon 3′-UUUA-5′ is

A. 3′-AAU-5′

B. 5′-UAAA-3′

C. 5′-AAAU-3′

D. 3′-UAAU-S’

Q. 122 A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is

A. DNA replication

B. genetic engineering

C. denaturation

D. renaturation

Q. 123 Minamata disease is caused due to presence of in water.

A. cadmium

B. lead

C. arsenic

D. mercury

Q. 124 The phrase `Omnis cellula e cellula’ was given by

A. Virchow

B. Pasteur

C. Schleiden

D. Brown

Q. 125 Intermediate community between pioneer and climax communities is called

A. seral community

B. biotic community

C. temporary community

D. ecosere

Q. 126 Ten percent law of energy transfer in a food chain is given by

A. Schimper

B. Elton

C. Haeckel

D. Lindemann

Q. 127 Apoenzyme is

A. protein

B. carbohydrate

C. vitamin

D. amino acid

Q. 128 Glycogenolysis involves

A. conversion of sugar into glycogen

B. oxidation of sugar

C. conversion of glycogen into sugar

D. conversion of glycogen into fat

Q. 129 A polygenic inheritance in human beings is

A. skin colour

B. sickle cell anaemia

C. colour blindness

D. phenylketonuria

Q. 130 Nucleic acid segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

A. clone

B. probe

C. plasmid

D. vector

Q. 131 Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by a species of

A. Puccinia

B. Erysphe

C. Ustilago

D. Albugo

Q. 132 Nucleic acid is absent in

A. virus

B. viroid

C. prion

D. Atteziol

Q. 133 In most fungi, cell wall is chiefly made of

A. cellulose

B. chitin

C. protein

D. lipid

Q. 134 Heterocysts are present in

A. Riccia

B. Ulothrix

C. Albugo

D. Nostoc

Q. 135 Double fertilization occurs in

A. Riccia

B. Pteridium

C. Cycas

D. Capsella

Q. 136 In Ruscus, the stem is a

A. phyllode

B. cladode

C. offset

D. sucker

Q. 137 Catkin inflorescence is found in

A. wheat

B. oat

C. mulberry

D. fig

Q. 138 Epigynous flowers are present in

A. mustad

B. brinjal

C. china rose

D. cucumber

Q. 139 In Dianthus, placemenation is

A. basal

B. free central

C. axile

D. marginal

Q. 140 The term keel is used for special type of

A. sepals

B. petals

C. stamens

D. carpels

Q. 141 Coffee and quinine are obtained from the

A. Leguminosae

B. Asteraceae

C. Rubiaceae

D. Poaceae

Q. 142 Kranz anatomy can be observed in leaves of

A. sorghum

B. spinach

C. mustrad

D. tulip

Q. 143 The term ‘bark’ refers to

A. phellem, phelloderm and vascular cambium

B. periderm and secondary xylem

C. cork cambium and cork

D. phellogen, phellem, phelloderm and secondary phloem

Q. 144 Light reaction in stroma lamellae of the chloroplast results in the formation of

A. NADPH₂

B. ATP + NADPH₂

C. ATP

D. O₂

Q. 145 In leaves of C₄ plants malic acid synthesis during CO₂ fixation occurs in

A. bundle sheath

B. mesophyll

C. epidermis

D. guard cells

Q. 146 Membrane is absent in

A. nucleous

B. nucleolus

C. chromosome

D. lysosome

Q. 147 The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a

A. site for storage of food, which is utilised during maturation

B. reservoir of growth hormones

C. reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem

D. region for absorption of water

Q. 148 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

A. succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid

B. cytochrome oxidase by cyanide

C. hexokinse by glucose-6-phosphate

D. carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Q. 149 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

A. industrial wastes poured into water bodies

B. extent to which water is polluted with organic compound

C. amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin

D. amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Q. 150 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

A. specialised granules responsible for colouration of cells

B. structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism

C. inclusion bodies lying free inside the cell carrying out various metabolic activities

D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in

photosynthesis bacteria

Q. 151 The Montreal Protocol refers to

A. persistent organic pollutants

B. global warming and climate change

C. substances that deplete the ozone layer

D. biosafety of genetic

Q. 152 In the sieve elements, which of the following is the most likely function of P-proteins?

A. Deposition of callose on sieve plates

B. Providing energy for active translocation

C. Autolytic enzymes

D. Sealing off mechanism on wounding

Q. 153 Which one of the following precedes ye-formation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

A. Decondensation from chromosome and. reassembly of the nuclear lamina

B. Transcription from chromosome and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

C. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast

D. Formaltion of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosome

Q. 154 viruses that infect bacterimal multiplication and cause their lysis, are called

A. lysozymes

B. lipolytic

C. lytic

D. lysogenic

Q. 155 A plant require magnesium(Mg) for

A. holding cells together

B. protein synthesis

C. chlorophyll synthesis

D. cell wall development

Q. 156 which one of the following pairs , is not correctly matched?

A. abscisic acid – stomatal closure

B. gibberellic acid – leaf fall

C. cytokinin – cell division

D. IAA – cell wall elongation

Q. 157 Two cells A and B are contigous. cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure-7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result of water from cell B to A

A. movement of water from cell B to A

B. no movement of water

C. equilibrium between the two

D. movement of water from cell A to B

Q. 158 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

A. results in transcription

B. polymerise in the 3′ to 5′ direction and forms replication fork

C. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

D. polymerise in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Q. 159 One gene•one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

A. Neurospora crassa

B. Salmonella typhimuriurn

C. Escherichia coli

D. Diplococcus pneumoniae

Q. 160 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

A. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

B. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

C. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the

egg

D. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

Questions: 161 – 165

Directions (Q. Nos. 161 to 165) Four alternatives are given for the underlined idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the word in capitals idiom/phrase.

Q. 161 The principal has to CARRY OUT the orders issued by the higher authorities.

A. obey

B. communicate

C. execute

D. modify

Q. 162 The young engineer was hauled up for SPILLING THE BEANS about the new project to the competitor.

A. suppressing the information

B. hiding the details

C. revealing the information indiscreetly

D. spoiling the plans

Q. 163 The Government claims that Indian industry is progressing BY LEAPS AND BOUNDS.

A. intermittently

B. leisurely

C. at a rapid pace

D. at a desired pace

Q. 164 LAYING OFF of thousands of workers is inevitable under the new economic policy.

A. Dismissal from jobs of

B. Offering new jobs to

C. Reduction of worker’s wages of

D. Sending on leave

Q. 165 “I TAKE THEE AT THY WORD”, said Romeo to Juliet.

A. Listen to you carefully

B. Do not believe you

C. Feel angry with you

D. Truly believe you

Questions: 165 – 169

Directions (Q. Nos. 165 to 170)out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substitued for the given words/sentence.

Q. 165 To be biased against

A. partial

B. objective

C. prejudiced

D. predestined

Q. 166 Motion of head, hand etc, as a mode of expression indicating attitude

A. Gesture

B. Grin

C. Gestation

D. Grimace

Q. 167 Bitter and violet attack in words

A. Diaspora

B. piacriticism

C. Diadem

D. Diatribe

Q. 168 Treatment by means of exercise and massage

A. Chemotherapy

B. Hydrotherapy

C. Physiotherapy

D. Psychotherapy

Q. 169 The abandonment of one’s country or cause

A. Defection

B. Disloyalty

C. Desertion

D. Migration

Questions: 171 – 175

Directions (Q. Nos. 171 to 175) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the capital words at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

Q. 171 He DECLINED all the allegations against him.

A. spurned

B. refused

C. refuted

D. no improvement

Q. 172 It is time we LEAVE.

A. left

B. have to leave

C. would leave

D. no improvement

Q. 173 We spent an hour discussing ABOUT HIS CHARACTER.

A. on his character

B. of his character

C. his character

D. no improvement

Q. 174 AFTER THE LETTER REACHED me, I shall know the result.

A. After the letter reaches

B. After the let will reach

C. After the letter has reached

D. No improvement

Q. 175 i HAVE RETURNED library books yesterday.

A. has returned

B. have had returned

C. returned

D. no improvement

Questions: 176 – 180

Directions (Q. Nos. 176 to 180) The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 to 6, the rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

Q. 176 1. Early to bed, early to rise, makes a man healthy, wealthy and wise.

P. But for the morning tea, I had to wait for someone to get up before me.

Q. This saying inspired me to rise early.

R. That day I was the first to get up.

S. One day I got up early in the morning.

6.Then I realised that it was a waste of time to get up early and wait for the morning tea.

A. QSRP

B. QPRS

C. PQRS

D. SPQR

Q. 177 1. A wood-cutter was cutting a tree on a river bank.

P. He knelt down and prayed.

Q. His axe slipped and fell into the water.

R. God Mercury appeared before him and asked about the matter.

S. He could not get it back as the river was very deep.

6. He dived into the water and came up with an axe of gold.

A. RPQS

B. RPSQ

C. OSRP

D. QSPR

Q. 178 1. A dog stole a piece of meat from a butcher’s shop.

P. He barked in anger.

Q. He ran to the jungle with the place of meat.

R. He saw his reflection.

S. He crossed a river on the way.

6. He lost his piece of meat.

A. QPSR

B. QSRP

C. QPRS

D. SRPQ

Q. 179 1. Ramai and Samai were two poor young men.

P. On market day they sold their labour.

Q. They lived near Mahespu.

R. On other days, they remained in the village looking for work.

S. They wanted regular work.

6. The headman gave them two plots.

A. QPRS

B. RPQS

C. SPQR

D. PQRS

Q. 180 1. Roger wanted to become a doctor.

P. He put away enough money to pay his first year fees.

Q. They could not afford the fees.

R. Undaunted, he got himself a job in the dockyard.

S. However, he came from a poor family.

6. Once enrolled, he was recognised as a gifted student, and scholarships took care of the rest his studies.

A. SRPQ

B. PRSQ

C. SQRP

D. QRSP

Questions: 181 – 185

Directions (Q. Nos. 181 to 185): out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.

Q. 181 word :Dubious

A. Doubtful

B. disputable

C. duplicate

D. dangerous

Q. 182 word : Flabbergasted

A. Scared

B. Embarrassed

C. Dumbfounded

D. Humiliated

Q. 183 word : Eternal

A. Innumerable

B. Unmeasurable

C. Prolonged

D. Perpetual

Q. 184 word : Genuine

A. Authentic

B. Legitimate

C. Reliable

D. Pure

Q. 185 word : Obscene

A. Indecent

B. Incorrigible

C. Ridiculous

D. Intolerable

Questions: 186 – 190

Directions (Q. Nos. 186 to 190) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q. 186 word : Despair

A. Belief

B. Trust

C. Hope

D. Faith

Q. 187 word : In toto

A. Bluntly

B. partially

C. Entirely

D. Strongly

Q. 188 word : Protean

A. Amateur

B. Catholic

C. Unchanging

D. Rapid

Q. 189 word : Predilection

A. Acceptance

B. Attraction

C. Dislike

D. Choice

Q. 190 word : Admonish

A. Condemn

B. Praise

C. Bless

D. Congratulate

Questions: 191 – 195

Directions (Q. Nos. 191 to 195) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

Q. 191 Are you really desirous_______visiting Japan?

A. of

B. in

C. to

D. about it

Q. 192 when indians from the south move north, they find certain aspects of life quite ________from their own.

A. strange

B. separate

C. different

D. divergent

Q. 193 the sky is overcast, we ________the storm will soon burst.

A. expect

B. hope

C. trust

D. suspect

Q. 194 Population increase with depletion of foreign reserves has led to great daily hardships.

A. joined

B. mixed

C. added

D. coupled

Q. 195 The National Anthem is at every official function.

A. uttered

B. sung

C. whispered

D. chanted

Questions: 196 – 200

Directions (Q. Nos. 196 to 200) Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word and indicate it in the answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle.

Q. 196 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Accomplice

B. Accompaniment

C. Accomplishment

D. Accomodation

Q. 197 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Replaceable

B. Replaceing

C. Replacement

D. Replaced

Q. 198 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Relieve

B. Protein

C. Deceit

D. Frieght

Q. 199 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Labrinth

B. Laboratory

C. Laborious

D. Library

Q. 200 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Comit

B. Comedian

C. comittee

D. Comunication

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	C	D	A	B	D	B	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	B	C	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	A	D	B	A	C	C	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	A	B	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	B	A	A	C	A	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	C	A	B	A	C	A	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	C	B	B	C	B	D	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	A	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	D	B	C	D	B	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	D	D	A	D	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	C	C	B	D	A	D	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	B	A	B	A	C	A	A	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	A	D	A	A	D	A	C	A	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	C	B	D	D	B	C	D	B	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	D	C	B	B	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	A	C	C	B	D	A	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	C	A	D	C	A	D	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	A	C	A	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	D	A	A	C	B	C	C	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	C	D	D	B	D	B	D	A	D

JIPMER MBBS 2010 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2010

Q. 1 The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as v = (A√x/x+B); where, A and B are constants. The dimensions of AB are

A. [ML^(5/2)T⁻²]

B. [ML²T⁻²]

C. [M^(3/2)L^(3/2)T⁻²]

D. [ML^(7/2)T⁻²]

Q. 2 A weightless thread can bear tension upto 37N. A stone of mass 500g is tied to it and revolved in a circular path of radius 4m in a vertical plane. If g = 10 ms⁻², then the maximum angular velocity of the stone will be

A. 2 rad s⁻¹

B. 4 rad s⁻¹

C. 8 rad s⁻¹

D. 16 rad s⁻¹

Q. 3 Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision,

A. 1.5 R

B. 2.5 R

C. 4.5 R

D. 7.5 R

Q. 4 The amount of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is

A. MR²

B. 1/2 MR²

C. 3/2 MR²

D. 7/2 MR²

Q. 5 A satellite orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius R completes one revolution in 3h. If orbital radius of geostationary satellite is 36000 km, orbital radius of earth is

A. 6000 km

B. 9000 km

C. 12000 km

D. 15000 km

Q. 6 A wire can be broken by applying load of 200N. The force required to break another wire of the same length and same material, but double in diameter is

A. 200 N

B. 400 N

C. 600 N

D. 800 N

Q. 7 A cube of side 40mm has its upper face displaced by 0.1mm by a tangential force of 8kN. The shearing modulus of the cube is

A. 2 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

B. 4 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

C. 8 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

D. 16 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

Q. 8 The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If the cork is pressed with a force 12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is

A. 30 N

B. 150 N

C. 300 N

D. 600 N

Q. 9 A square wire frame of size L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out a membrane is formed. If the surface tension of liquid is T, then force acting on a frame will be

A. 2T L

B. 4T L

C. 8T L

D. 16T L

Q. 10 64 spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal velocity 1.5 ms⁻¹. If these drops coalesce to form a bog spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big drop is

A. 8 ms⁻¹

B. 16 ms⁻¹

C. 24 ms⁻¹

D. 32 ms⁻¹

Q. 11 The equation of a wave is y = 5 sin(t/0.04 – x/4); where x is in cm and t is in second. The maximum velocity of the wave will be

A. 1 ms⁻¹

B. 2 ms⁻¹

C. 1.5 ms⁻¹

D. 1.25 ms⁻¹

Q. 12 Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r

respectively. They are stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L and with frequency ν₁ and the other with frequency ν₂. The ratio ν₁/ν₂ is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 1

Q. 13 1 mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then final temperature of the gas will be

A. (T – 4)K

B. (T + 4)K

C. (T – 2.4)K

D. (T + 2.4)K

Q. 14 Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal lengths, thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is

A. √2 K

B. 3 K

C. 4/3 K

D. 2/3 K

Q. 15 A black body has a wavelength of λ at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be

A. 2λ/3

B. 3λ/2

C. 4λ/9

D. 9λ/4

Q. 16 A plane mirror produces a magnification of

A. zero

B. -1

C. +1

D. between 0 and +1

Q. 17 Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

A. 5I and I

B. 5I and 3I

C. 9I and I

D. 9I and 3I

Q. 18 If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water instead of air, then

A. no fringe would be seen

B. fringe width would decrease

C. fringe width would increase

D. fringe width would remain unchanged

Q. 19 A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. the electric flux through any face is

A. 4πq/6(4πε₀)

B. πq/6(4πε₀)

C. q/6(4πε₀)

D. 2πq/6(4πε₀)

Q. 20 Figure shows three spherical equipotential surfaces A, B and C around a point charge q. The potential difference VA – VB = VB – VC. If t₁ and t₂ be the distances between them, then

A. t₁ = t₂

B. t₁ > t₂

C. t₁ < t₂

D. t₁ ≤ t₂

Q. 21 Three capacitors of capacitances 1μF, 2μF and 4μF are connected first in series

combination, and then in a parallel combination. The ratio of their equivalent capacities will be

A. 2 : 49

B. 49 : 2

C. 4 : 49

D. 49 : 4

Q. 22 AT room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4×10²⁸m⁻³. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10⁻⁶m² and carrying a current of 5.4 A,

A. 4 ms⁻¹

B. 0.4 ms⁻¹

C. 4 cm s⁻¹

D. 0.4 mm s⁻¹

Q. 23 A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4, which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be

A. R

B. 4R

C. R/4

D. R/16

Q. 24 A capacitor 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates is

A. 80μC

B. 40μC

C. 20μC

D. 10μC

Q. 25 The equivalent resistance across A and B is

A. 2Ω

B. 3Ω

C. 4Ω

D. 5Ω

Q. 26 An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance 5cm from the straight wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20cm from the straight wire would be

A. B/6

B. B/4

C. B/3

D. B/2

Q. 27 AN electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed v along a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform magnetic field B. If speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field is halved, then resulting path would have a radius of

A. r/4

B. r/2

C. 2r

D. 4r

Q. 28 A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

A. low resistance in series with its coil

B. low resistance in parallel with its coil

C. high resistance in series with its coil

D. high resistance in parallel with its coil

Q. 29 A frog can be leviated in magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as

A. paramagnetic

B. diamagnetic

C. ferromagnetic

D. anti-ferromagnetic

Q. 30 The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation φ = 5t³ − 100t + 300. The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3s is

A. 10 V

B. 20 V

C. 35 V

D. 70 V

Q. 31 In 0.1s, the current in a coil increases from 1A to 1.5A. If the inductance of coil is 60mH, then induced current in external resistance of 3Ω will be

A. 1 A

B. 0.5 A

C. 0.2 A

D. 0.1 A

Q. 32 The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R and an inductance L are connected in series in an AC circuit of frequency f, is

A. √R + 2π²f²L²

B. √R + 4π²f²L²

C. √R² + 4π²f²L²

D. √R² + 2π²f²L²

Q. 33 In a series L-C-R circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the impedance Z = 10Ω. The phase difference between the current and the voltage is

A. 0°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 60°

Q. 34 Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the smallest wavelength?

A. γ-rays

B. X-rays

C. UV waves

D. Infrared rays

Q. 35 The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 V, is

A. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁷ J

B. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁴ J

C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

D. 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ J

Q. 36 J. J. Thompson’s cathode ray tube experiment demonstrated that

A. cathode rays are streams of negatively charged ions

B. all the mass of an atom is essentially in the nucleus

C. the e/m of electrons is much greater than the e/m of protons

D. thee/m ratio of the cathode ray particles changes when a different gas is placed in the

discharge tube

Q. 37 Wavelength of light emitted from second orbit to first orbit in a hydrogen atom is

A. 6563 A°

B. 4102 A°

C. 4861 A°

D. 1215 A°

Q. 38 The half-life of a radio-isotope is 4h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200g, then mass remaining after 24h will be

A. 1.042 g

B. 2.084 g

C. 3.125 g

D. 4.167 g

Q. 39 If ₉₂U²³⁸ emits 8 α-particles and 6 β-particles, then the resulting nucleus is

A. ₈₂U²⁰⁶

B. ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶

C. ₈₂U²¹⁰

D. ₈₂U²¹⁴

Q. 40 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. OR

B. NOR

C. AND

D. NAND

Q. 41 In the electron dot structure of H₂SO₄, the total number of unshared electrons is

A. 20

B. 16

C. 12

D. 8

Q. 42 The general molecular formula for disaccharide is

A. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

B. C₁₀H₂₀O₁₀

C. C₁₂H₂₀O₁₀

D. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₀

Q. 43 The correct order towards bond angle is

A. sp³ < sp² < sp

B. sp < sp² < sp³

C. sp < sp³ < sp²

D. sp² < sp³ < sp

Q. 44 The vapour pressure of 100g water reduces from 3000 Nm⁻² to 2985 Nm⁻² when 5g f substance ‘X’ is dissolved in it. Substance ‘X’ is

A. methanol

B. glucose

C. carbon dioxide

D. Cannot predict

Q. 45 Which of the following relation is correct?

A. Ist IE of C > Ist IE of B

B. Ist IE of C < Ist IE of B

C. IInd IE of C > IInd IE of B

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 46 The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central atom is

A. [MnO₄]⁻

B. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

C. [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻

D. [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Q. 47 Which of the following configurations corresponds to element of highest ionisation energy?

A. 1s², 2s¹

B. 1s², 2s², 2p³

C. 1s², 2s², 2p²

D. 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s¹

Q. 48 White P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH₃ and NaH₂PO₂. This reaction is an example of

A. hydrolysis

B. reduction

C. disproportionation

D. neutraalisation

Q. 49 The solubility of saturated solution of Ag₂CrO₄ is s mol L⁻¹. What is its solubility product?

A. 4s³

B. s³

C. 2s³

D. 16s²

Q. 50 Which of the following has a bond formed by overlap of sp – sp³ hybrid orbitals?

A. CH₃−C≡C−CH₃

B. CH₃−CH=CH−CH₃

C. CH₂=CH−CH=CH₂

D. HC=CH

Q. 51 Which of the following proteins transports oxygen in the blood stream?

A. Myoglobin

B. Insulin

C. Albumin

D. Haemoglobin

Q. 52 The only o-p-directing group which is deactivating in nature is

A. −NH₂

B. −OH

C. −X (halogens)

D. −R (alkyl groups)

Q. 53 Which of the organic compounds will give red colour in Lassaigne test?

A. C₆H₅NH₂

B. S ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂

C. O ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂

D. None of these

Q. 54 For a reaction, A+B −> Product, the rate is given by,

r=k[A]^(1/2)[B]².

What is the order of the reaction?

A. 0.5

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 1

Q. 55 The density of a gas is found to be 1.56 g/L at 745 mm pressure and 65°C. What is the molecular mass of the gas?

A. 44.2 u

B. 4.42 u

C. 2.24 u

D. 22.4 u

Q. 56 Considering H₂O as weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ will be (Atomic number of Mn = 25)

A. five

B. two

C. four

D. three

Q. 57 Ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to give

A. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl

B. CH₃CH₂Cl + H₂O + SO₂

C. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl + SO₂

D. CH₃CH₂Cl + SO₂ + Cl₂

Q. 58 The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent

A. rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively

B. rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively

C. magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively

D. two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogues

Q. 59 How long will ti take to deposit 1.0 g of chromium when a current of 1.25 A flows through a solution of chromium (III) sulphate? (Molar mass of Cr = 52)

A. 1.24 min

B. 1.24 h

C. 1.24 s

D. None of these

Q. 60 Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of

A. primary aromatic amines

B. secondary amines

C. primary aliphatic amines

D. tertiary amines

Q. 61 The monomers of terylene are

A. phenol and formaldehyde

B. ethylene glycol and phthalic acid

C. adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine

D. ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid

Q. 62 If a be the edge length of the unit cell and r be the radius of an atom then for fcc

arrangement, the correct relation is

A. 4a = √3 r

B. 4r = √3 a

C. 4r = √2 a

D. 4r = a/√2

Q. 63 CaC₂ and H₂O react to produce

A. CH₄

B. C₂H₄

C. C₂H₂

D. C₂H₆

Q. 64 Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of R MgX with

A. CO₂

B. HCHO

C. CH₃CHO

D. H₂O

Q. 65 Proteins are composed of

A. α-amino acids

B. carbohydrates

C. vitamins

D. mineral salts

Q. 66 The IUPAC name of the following compound, is

A. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol

B. 3-methylpent-3-en-2ol

C. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol

D. None of the above

Q. 67 Ammonia gas can be dried over

A. CaCl₂

B. Conc. H₂SO₄

C. P₂O₅

D. quick lime

Q. 68 The number of phase in a colloidal system is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 69 Which of the following has the highest bond order?

A. N₂

B. O₂

C. He₂

D. H₂

Q. 70 Inorganic benzene is

A. B₃N₆H₃

B. B₃N₃H₆

C. Al₃N₃H₆

D. None of these

Q. 71 In long form of Periodic Table, the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their

A. atomic size

B. ionisation energy

C. atomic mass

D. atomic number

Q. 72 Which of the following is a wrong statement?

In a given period of the Periodic Table, the s-block element has, in general, a higher value of

A. electronegativity

B. atomic radius

C. ionisation energy

D. electron affinity

Q. 73 What is the ΔH of the reaction

H ∣ H − C − Cl (g) −> C(g) + 2H(g) + 2Cl(g)?

The average bond energies of C − Cl bond and C − H bond are 416 kJ and 325 kJ mol⁻¹

Respectively.

∣

A. 1482 kJ

B. 1482 J

C. 1492 kJ

D. 1492 J

Q. 74 Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

A. OH⁻

B. H⁺

C. F⁻

D. NH₃

Q. 75 Heating of rubber with sulphur is called

A. vulcanisation

B. galvanisation

C. sulphonation

D. bessemerisation

Q. 76 Which of the following statement is correct?

A. +I group stabilises a carbocation

B. +I group stabilises a carbanion

C. -I group stabilises a carbocation

D. -I group stabilises a free radical

Q. 77 Dihedral angle between two methyl groups of n-butane in the gauche and anti forms are

A. 60°, 0°

B. 0°, 60°

C. 60°, 180°

D. 180°, 60°

Q. 78 A solid AB has the NaCl structure. If radius of cation A⁺ is 120 pm, the maximum possible value of the radius of the anion B⁻ is

A. 240 pm

B. 60 pm

C. 49.6 pm

D. 290 pm

Q. 79 Common alum is

A. K₂SO₄.Al₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

B. (NH₄)₂.FeSO₄.6H₂O

C. K₂SO₄.Cr₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

D. K₂SO₄.Fe₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

Q. 80 The bond length of HCl bond is 2.29×10⁻¹⁰m. The percentage ionic character of HCl, if measured dipole moment is 6.626×10⁻³⁰C-m, is

A. 8%

B. 20%

C. 17%

D. 50%

Q. 81 Which part of an animal virus is not reproduced in multiple copies?

A. Caspid

B. Protein

C. Envelope

D. Ribosome

Q. 82 The echinoderms are

A. arborial insects

B. marine insects

C. terrestrial insects

D. freshwater forms

Q. 83 The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that

A. respiration is anearobic

B. cockroach does not respire

C. oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion

D. oxygen goes into tissue by intracelllular capillary system

Q. 84 Tube feet is the locomotory organ in

A. starfish

B. jelly fish

C. silver fish

D. Scoliodon

Q. 85 Follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by

A. anterior lobe of pituitary

B. hypothalamus

C. gonads

D. posterior lobe of pituitary

Q. 86 Which of the following amino acids is not optically active?

A. Glycine

B. Valine

C. Leucine

D. Isoleucine

Q. 87 Which of the following vitamins is water soluble as well as an antioxidant?

A. Vitamin-B₁

B. Vitamin-A

C. Vitamin-D

D. Vitamin-C

Q. 88 Human ear ossicles are

A. incus and stapes

B. stapes

C. incus, malleus and stapes

D. incus and malleus

Q. 89 During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted into

A. glycogen

B. pyruvic acid

C. starch

D. lactic acid

Q. 90 ‘Adaptation’ of eyes in dark is due to

A. depletion of vision pigment in rods

B. depletion of vision pigment in cones

C. repletion of vision pigment in rods

D. repletion of vision pigment in cones

Q. 91 Human ancestors who left cave paintings were

A. Neanderthal man

B. Cro-magnon man

C. Java ape man

D. Peking man

Q. 92 Entamoeba histolytica differs from Amoeba in absence of

A. pseudopodia

B. contractile vacuole

C. nucleus

D. ectoplasm

Q. 93 Heparin is synthesised in

A. liver

B. kidney

C. saliva

D. pancreas

Q. 94 Sea gulls excrete excess of NaCl from

A. liver

B. lungs

C. nasal cavity

D. kidney

Q. 95 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse

transmission?

A. Ca²⁺ ions

B. Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions

C. Mg²⁺ ions

D. Fe²⁺ ions

Q. 96 Which one is component of Ornithine cycle?

A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

B. Ornithine, citrulline andarginine

C. Amino acid are not used

D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

Q. 97 Bull semen is stored in

A. liquid carbon dioxide

B. liquid oxygen

C. liquid nitrogen

D. ice

Q. 98 In parasympathetic nervous system, which of the following is released?

A. Epinephrine

B. Norepinephrine

C. Serotionin

D. Acetylcholine

Q. 99 Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

A. house lizard

B. flying fish

C. pigeon

D. tadpole of frog

Q. 100 Which compound has very important role in prebiotic evolution?

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Nitric oxide

C. Methane

D. Sulphur trioxide

Q. 101 A man of blood group-A marries a woman of blood group-AB, which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?

A. O

B. B

C. A

D. AB

Q. 102 Balbiani rings are the structural features of

A. allosomes

B. polytene chromosomes

C. autosomes

D. lampbrush chromosomes

Q. 103 How many sperms are present in an average(3 mL) ejaculation?

A. 200 million

B. 300 million

C. 400 million

D. 500 million

Q. 104 The permanent decrease in population number occurs due to

A. migration

B. natality

C. emigration

D. mortality

Q. 105 Which of the following is not a vestigial structural in Homo sapiens?

A. Third molar

B. Epiglottis

C. Plica semilunaris

D. Pyramidalis muscle

Q. 106 The velocity of conduction of nerve impulse in frog is

A. 300 m/s

B. same as of electricity

C. faster than sound

D. 30 m/s

Q. 107 Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is

A. Neopilina

B. Peripatus

C. Periplaneta

D. Limulus

Q. 108 The extra structure that provides nutrition to the embryo is

A. umbilicus

B. amnion

C. chorion

D. placenta

Q. 109 Ruminants belong to order

A. Proboscida

B. Artiodactyla

C. Marsupials

D. Edentata

Q. 110 Which of the following is a respiratory disease?

A. Polio

B. Arthritis

C. Asthma

D. Cancer

Q. 111 Sciatic vein of frog opens in

A. heart

B. kidney

C. pelvic region

D. liver

Q. 112 Aspirin is a/an

A. antibiotic

B. antipyretic

C. antiseptic

D. None of the above

Q. 113 Which of the following have notochord throughout life?

A. Birds

B. Fish

C. Snake

D. Amphioxus

Q. 114 First National Park developed in India is

A. Gir

B. Kaziranga

C. Jim Corbett

D. None of these

Q. 115 During unfavourable condition, the sponges form

A. cyst

B. encyst

C. spicule

D. gemmule

Q. 116 Tree of life is

A. arbor vitae

B. pons Varoli

C. organ of Corti

D. diencephalon

Q. 117 Which is common between earthworm, leech and centipede?

A. They have Malpigian tubules

B. They are hermaphrodite

C. They have ventral nerve cord

D. None of the above

Q. 118 Eustachian canal connects

A. middle ear with external ear

B. middle ear with internal ear

C. external ear with internal ear

D. pharynx with middle ear

Q. 119 Shell of molluscs is derived from

A. foot

B. mantle

C. ctenidia

D. placoid

Q. 120 Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in

A. liver of man

B. RBCs of man

C. salivary glands of mosquito

D. stomach of mosquito

Q. 121 Bacteria are considered plant because they

A. are green in colour

B. have rigid cell wall

C. have chlorophyll

D. have stomata

Q. 122 Solarisation is

A. formation of chlorophyll

B. destruction of chlorophyll

C. utilisation of sunlight

D. effects of solar light

Q. 123 Which is essential for root hair growth?

A. Zinc

B. Calcium

C. Molybdenum

D. Sulphur

Q. 124 A fern prothallus is bisexual. If fertilisation takes place between their gametes than it is known as

A. cross-fertilisation

B. self-fertilisation

C. isogamous

D. viviparous

Q. 125 In Pisum sativum, there are 14 chromosomes. How many types of homologous pairs can be prepared?

A. 14

B. 7

C. 2¹⁴

D. 2¹⁰

Q. 126 CHicory powder which is mixed with coffee powder is obtained from

A. root

B. leaf

C. stem

D. seeds

Q. 127 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

A. Parallel venation

B. Perennial plants

C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)

D. with vessels

Q. 128 In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of

A. auxin

B. cytokinin

C. gibberellin

D. ethylene

Q. 129 Stem cuttings are commonly used for the propagation of

A. banana

B. rose

C. mango

D. cotton

Q. 130 Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F₁ generation, all plants were tall. These tall plants of F₁ generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This is called

A. dominance

B. inheritance

C. codominance

D. heredity

Q. 131 Edible part in ‘sorosis’, a composite fruit, is

A. cotyledons

B. endosperm

C. perianth and peduncle

D. fleshy thalamus

Q. 132 Which of the following is a true nut?

A. Walnut

B. Cashewnut

C. Groundnut

D. Pistachio

Q. 133 Most primitive member, in which roots are not present, is

A. Psilotum

B. Rhynia

C. Lycopodium

D. Selaginella

Q. 134 Botanical name of ‘chana’ is

A. Cicer arietinum

B. Phaseolus aureus

C. Lablab purpureus

D. Dolichos

Q. 135 The edible dry fruit ‘chilgoza’ is

A. fruit of Cycas

B. fruit of Pinus gerardiana

C. seed of Cycas

D. seed of Pinus gerardiana

Q. 136 Ubisch bodies are present in

A. pollen tube

B. pollen grain

C. microscope

D. tapetum

Q. 137 An obligate root parasite is

A. Rafflesia

B. Loranthus

C. Viscum

D. Striga

Q. 138 Lady finger belongs to family

A. Malvaceae

B. Cucurbitaceae

C. Lilaceae

D. Brassicaceae

Q. 139 What differentiates leaf of dicots from monocots?

A. Parallel venation

B. Differentiation of palisade and spongy parenchyma

C. Stomata only on upper side

D. Stomata both on upper and lower sides

Q. 140 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories to two different habitats is known as

A. bottleneck effect

B. edge effect

C. junction effect

D. Pasteur effect

Q. 141 Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with

A. Golgi body

B. nuclear wall

C. mitochondria

D. cell wall

Q. 142 In which form does the food transported in plants?

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Glucose

D. Lactose

Q. 143 Pappus is modified

A. calyx

B. corolla

C. bractus

D. gynoecium

Q. 144 Trimerous flower, superior ovary and axile placentation is characteristics of

A. Liliaceae

B. Cucurbitaceae

C. Solanaceae

D. Compositae

Q. 145 In Cycas, pollination takes place in

A. 3-celled stage

B. 4-celled stage

C. 2-celled stage

D. 1-celled stage

Q. 146 During the meiotic division, the

A. homologous chromosomes are separated

B. linkage is disturbed

C. homologous chromosomes do not segregate

D. All of the above

Q. 147 During the G₁ – phase of cell division

A. RNA and proteins are synthesised

B. DNA and proteins are synthesised

C. cell prepares for M-phase

D. cell undergoes duplication

Q. 148 Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called as

A. monosomy

B. nullisomy

C. trisomy

D. tetrasomy

Q. 149 The bioassay of auxin is

A. avena curvature test

B. callus formation

C. culture of fungus

D. seed dormancy

Q. 150 Clinging roots are found in

A. orchids

B. Trapa

C. Podostemon

D. screwpine

Q. 151 Benthic organisms are found in

A. surface of marine water

B. middle of water in sea

C. bottom of sea

D. on ground

Q. 152 Water bloom is generally caused by

A. green algae

B. blue-green algae

C. bacteria

D. Hydrilla

Q. 153 The process which cannot take place in the absence of viruses is

A. transformation

B. conjugation

C. translocation

D. transduction

Q. 154 Molybdenum causes

A. mottling

B. wilting

C. reclamation

D. chlorosis

Q. 155 Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in

A. forest fires

B. global warming

C. skin cancer

D. None of the above

Q. 156 From which of the following plant is a medicine for respiratory disorders obtained?

A. Ephedra

B. Eucalyptus

C. Cannabis

D. Saccharum

Q. 157 Decarboxylation is involved in

A. electron transport system

B. glycolysis

C. Krebs’ cycle

D. lactic acid fermentation

Q. 158 Osmotic pressure of a solution is

A. greater than pure solution

B. less than pure solvent

C. equal to pure solvent

D. less than or greater than pure solvent

Q. 159 In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom

A. Monera

B. Protista

C. Animalia

D. Fungi

Q. 160 Expanded green stem of Opuntia is called

A. phylloclade

B. tendril

C. bulb

D. cladode

Q. 161 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

Guerillas “infiltrated” into the region during the severe winter of 1997.

A. entered

B. expelled

C. penetrated

D. filtered

Q. 162 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He has always been “fastidious” while examining answer scripts.

A. amiable

B. discriminating

C. critical

D. judicious

Q. 163 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The professor had to share a hotel room with a “garrulous” tax collector.

A. dumb

B. speechless

C. tongue-tied

D. sile

Q. 164 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

It was “fortuitous” that I met her in that party.

A. unlucky

B. bad

C. distressing

D. abominable

Q. 165 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He is “zealous” only in the initial stages of a project.

A. absent-minded

B. distraught

C. inattentive

D. indifferent

Q. 166 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Various/(P) leading a productive/(Q) disabilities stand in/(R) and personally satisfying life/(S) the way of millions of Indians.

A. Q R P S

B. P S Q R

C. Q S P R

D. P R Q S

Q. 167 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Farmers/(P) whether or not water will be available/(Q) land use plans only/(R) can prepare alternative/(S) if they know in advance.

A. R S Q P

B. P Q S R

C. R Q S P

D. P S Q R

Q. 168 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

No amount/(P) poor countries if they do/(Q) of direct/(R) aid will help not develop the capacity/(S) to generate wealth for themselves

A. Q P R S

B. R S Q P

C. Q S R P

D. R P Q S

Q. 169 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Having achieved success/(P) to ride the next big/(Q) outsourcing wave I software exports and information technology areas,/(R) this time in manufacturing from the U. S./(S) Indian manufacturers-exporters are well equipped.

A. P S Q R

B. Q R P S

C. P R Q S

D. Q S P R

Q. 170 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

The majority of/(P) Britons believe that there/(Q) if the increasing problem/(R) must be

restrictions on cheap air travel/(S) of global warming is going to be tackled.

A. S R Q P

B. P Q R S

C. S Q R P

D. P R Q S

Q. 171 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He ended his speech on a “supercilious” note which was quite unexpected of a person of

balanced and stable temperament.

A. defamatory

B. contemptuous

C. superfluous

D. irrelevant

Q. 172 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

Graduation day is “momentous” day for most students.

A. memorable

B. melancholy

C. important

D. hectic

Q. 173 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The two opposing parties have reached a “stalemate”.

A. dilemma

B. deadlock

C. exhaustion

D. settlement

Q. 174 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The Prime Minister delivered an “impromptu” speech to the students.

A. important

B. impressive

C. inspiring

D. off hand

Q. 175 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

This is a “lucrative” business.

A. profitable

B. dangerous

C. challenging

D. questionable

Q. 176 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Made a clean breast of

A. confessed

B. took off his shirt

C. suffered

D. spoke ill

Q. 177 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

A man of letters

A. a man who wrote many letters

B. a leader who received more letters

C. a scholar with literary taste

D. a good reader of letters

Q. 178 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Reading between the lines

A. reading slowly and haltingly

B. understanding the sense rather than the actual words

C. understanding the meaning of words and not the sense

D. superficially

Q. 179 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Cheek by jowl

A. very near

B. tongue tied

C. very far

D. irritated

Q. 180 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Talking through one’s hat

A. talking nonsense

B. talking ignorantly

C. talking irresponsibly

D. talking insultingly

Questions: 181 – 185

Goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good pets, but like many other pets, they must have proper care and the right kind of place to live.

A two inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient oxygen to support life. Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium from the air that touches the surface. Plants in an aquarium also help to furnish oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants and snail, the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may prove to be a quite unsuitable abode for goldfish. It is important that the goldfish should not be overfed. They can be fed such things as dried insects in addition to commercially prepared goldfish food, but they should never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they should not be given more food than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life.

Q. 181 Which of the following statements is true?

A. Goldfish should be given food only once a day

B. Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium.

C. Plants provide food to the snails

D. Goldfish comes above the surface of water to get oxygen from air

Q. 182 Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish

B. Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for two inch fish

C. Goldfish can be made good pets

D. Plants in aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish

Q. 183 Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen?

A. Snails

B. Plants

C. Dried insects

D. Aquarium

Q. 184 Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if

A. there are plenty of snails and plants in it

B. there is no sufficient oxygen in it

C. it is very clean and contains suffcient oxygen

D. it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects

Q. 185 What is important to remember when feeding goldfish?

A. They should be fed more than once a day

B. They should be fed at five-minute intervals

C. They should be fed with plants and snails

D. They should be fed only once a day

Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

The study of sound

A. Aeronautics

B. Aesthetics

C. Acoustic

D. Astrology

Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

Murder of one’s parents.

A. Parricide

B. Patricide

C. Uxoricide

D. Matricide

Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

Government by the gods.

A. Theocracy

B. Thearchy

C. Neocracy

D. Monarchy

Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

A place for bees.

A. Hive

B. Hutch

C. Lair

D. Den

Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

One who studies the evolution of mankind.

A. Somnambulist

B. Cartographer

C. Prephologist

D. Anthropologist

Q. 191 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). “All his answers” were correct.

A. His all answers

B. His every answers

C. All of his answers

D. No improvement

Q. 192 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). It was quite clear that the runner “could be able” to improve upon his own record.

A. should be able

B. would be able

C. will be bale

D. No improvement

Q. 193 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). Within last few years most of the fertile land “had undergone” Indigo cultivation.

A. had underwent

B. has undergone

C. was undergone

D. No improvement

Q. 194 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). His “powerful desire” brought about his downfall.

A. his intense desire

B. his desire for power

C. his fatal desire

D. No improvement

Q. 195 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). If he “had time” he will call you.

A. would have

B. would have had

C. has

D. No improvement

Q. 196 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

He is too …………. to be deceived easily.

A. strong

B. modern

C. intelligent

D. kind

Q. 197 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

There has been a ……………….. lack of efficiency in all the crucial areas of the working of Public Sector Undertakings.

A. positive

B. surprising

C. conspicuous

D. stimulative

Q. 198 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

The shepherd was looking after the ………………. of sheep.

A. crew

B. gang

C. fleet

D. flock

Q. 199 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

The Managing Director treated the employees to a ……………. lunch at an expensive hotel.

A. precious

B. thriving

C. stupendous

D. sumptuous

Q. 200 Satish was ……………….. with a natural talent for music.

A. given

B. found

C. endowed

D. entrusted

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	A	C	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	C	C	B	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	B	D	C	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	A	A	C	D	C	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	A	B	A	A	B	C	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	A	A	C	A	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	B	A	B	D	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	A	B	A	A	C	D	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	C	A	A	A	D	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	C	B	B	C	D	B	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	D	A	D	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	D	C	D	A	C	A	B	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	B	B	B	A	D	A	B	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	B	A	D	D	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	D	A	C	A	C	A	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	C	C	A	D	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	B	D	A	A	C	B	A	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	A	B	B	D	C	B	B	A	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	B	D	B	C	C	C	D	D	C

JIPMER MBBS 2009 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2009

Q. 1 In radioactivity decay process, the negativity charged emitted β-particles are

A. the electrons present inside the nucleus

B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

C. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms

D. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

Q. 2 The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is

A. infinite

B. five

C. three

D. zero

Q. 3 Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

A. F/4

B. 3F/4

C. F/8

D. 3F/8

Q. 4 In gamma ray emission from particles

A. both the neutron number and the proton number change

B. there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number

C. only the neutron number changes

D. only the proton number changes

Q. 5 A particle starting from the origin (0,0) moves in a straight line in the (x,y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3,3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 0°

Q. 6 A wheel has an angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2s it has rotated through an angle(in radians) of

A. 6

B. 10

C. 12

D. 4

Q. 7 The resistance of an ammeter is 13Ω and its scale is graduated for a current up to 100A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents up to 750A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is

A. 20Ω

B. 2Ω

C. 0.2Ω

D. 2kΩ

Q. 8 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

A. depends on v and not on R

B. depends on both R and v

C. is independent of both R and v

D. depends on R and not on v

Q. 9 The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ₀ + 4t, where φ is in weber, t is time in second and φ₀ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

A. 90V

B. 120V

C. 220V

D. 30V

Q. 10 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2×10¹⁴Hz and wavelength is 5000A⁰. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.40

B. 1.50

C. 3.00

D. 1.33

Q. 11 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vᵤ and returns to Y with a uniform speed . The average speed for this round trip is

A. 2vᵤ/vᵤ

B. √vᵤ

C. vᵤ/√vᵤ

D. √vᵤ/2

Q. 12 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

A. T/4

B. T/8

C. T/12

D. T/2

Q. 13 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A. v/gμ

B. gμ/v

C. g/v

D. v/g

Q. 14 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constant 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of A to those of B will be (1/e)² after a time interval

A. 1/4λ

B. 4λ

C. 2λ

D. 1/2λ

Q. 15 A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

A. 30%

B. 50%

C. 90%

D. 10%

Q. 16 A charged particle(charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

A. qvR/2

B. qvR²

C. qvR²/2

D. qvR

Q. 17 A steady current of 1.5A flows through a copper voltameter for 10min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10⁻⁵ gC⁻¹, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A. 0.40 g

B. 0.50 g

C. 0.67 g

D. 0.27 g

Q. 18 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge of ion/mass of ion) will be proportional to

A. 1/R

B. 1/R²

C. R²

D. R

Q. 19 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

A. 2Ω

B. 3Ω

C. 6Ω

D. 1Ω

Q. 20 Two satellites of earth S₁ and S₂, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S₁ is four times the mass of S₂. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The time period of S₁ is four times that of S₂

B. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal

C. S₁ and S₂ are moving with the same speed

D. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

Q. 21 An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?

A. Zero

B. 0.5%

C. 5%

D. 20%

Q. 22 A coil of inductance 300mH and resistance 2Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in

A. 0.05 s

B. 0.1 s

C. 0.15 s

D. 0.3 s

Q. 23 The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D₁ and D₂ be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. then,

A. D₁ < D₂

B. D₁ = D₂

C. D₁ can be less than or greater than D₂ depending on the angle of prism

D. D₁ > D₂

Q. 24 A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

A. -0.5 J

B. -1.25 J

C. 1.25 J

D. 0.5 J

Q. 25 A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is

A. Mg(√2 + 1)

B. Mg√2

C. Mg/√2

D. Mg(√2 – 1)

Q. 26 A force of -Fk acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, -1) is

A. F(i – j)

B. -F(i + j)

C. F(i + j)

D. -F(i – j)

Q. 27 If Mₒ is the mass of an oxygen isotope ₈O¹⁷, Mp and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

A. (Mₒ – 8Mp)c²

B. (Mₒ – 8Mp – 9Mn)c²

C. Mₒc²

D. (Mₒ – 17Mn)c²

Q. 28 A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of

A. 1000

B. 10000

C. 10

D. 100

Q. 29 Which of the following parameters characterise the thermodynamic state of matter?

A. Temperature

B. Pressure

C. Work

D. Volume

Q. 30 A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 × 10⁴V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be(Take the mass of the charge = 9.9 × 10⁻¹⁵ kg and g = 10 m/s²)

A. 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

B. 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

D. 4.8 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

Q. 31 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

A. [ML²T⁻³I⁻¹]

B. [ML²T⁻²]

C. [ML²T⁻¹I⁻¹]

D. [ML²T⁻³I⁻²]

Q. 32 An alpha particle of energy 1/2 mv² bombards a heavy nucleus target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to

A. v²

B. 1/m

C. 1/v⁴

D. 1/Ze

Q. 33 The work of 146kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is

A. diatomic

B. triatomic

C. a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic

D. monoatomic

Q. 34 Diwali rocket is ejecting 50g of gases/s at a velocity of 400m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket will be

A. 22 dyne

B. 20 N

C. 20 dyne

D. 100 N

Q. 35 A frame made of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by

A. 100%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

Q. 36 Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by

A. maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the steam of the thermometer

B. filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

C. filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

D. filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column

Q. 37 In a laboratory four convex lenses L₁, L₂, L₃ and L₄ of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8cm, respectively are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively

A. L₂, L₃

B. L₁, L₄

C. L₁, L₂

D. L₄, L₁

Q. 38 A symmetrical double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be

A. 2D

B. 3D

C. 4D

D. 5D

Q. 39 For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = applied potential difference and i = current flowing) is

A. independent of temperature

B. increases as the temperature rises

C. decreases as the temperature rises

D. increases or decreases as the temperature rises depending upon the metal

Q. 40 The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one inside the liquid is

A. zero

B. lesser

C. equal

D. greater

Q. 41 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Hydrolysis of NaCl₃ gives NH₃ and HOCl

B. NH₃ is less stable than PH₃

C. NH₃ is a weak reducing reagent compared to PH₃

D. Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic property

Q. 42 SiO₂ is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?

A. CO

B. O₂

C. CO₂

D. O₃

Q. 43 The compounds formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are

A. C₂H₆ and CO₂

B. C₂H₄ and CO₂

C. CH₄ and H₂

D. CH₄ and CO₂

Q. 44 Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H₂O₂?

A. Lead is used as cathode

B. 50% H₂SO₄ is used

C. Hydrogen is liberated at anode

D. Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

Q. 45 Which of the following is correct?

A. The pH of one litre solution containing 0.49g of H₂SO₄ is 2.0

B. The conjugate base of H₂S is S²⁻

C. BF₃ is a Lewis base

D. Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium

Q. 46 Which of the following is correct?

A. Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change

B. Particle size of solute in true solution is 10⁻³m

C. Starch solution is a hydrosol

D. Hydrolysis of liquid ester is an example of heterogeneous catalysis reactions

Q. 47 In an oxidation-reduction reaction, MnO₄⁻ ion is converted to Mn²⁺. What is the number of equivalents of KMnO₄(mol. wt. = 158) present in 250mL of 0.04M KMnO₄ solution?

A. 0.02

B. 0.05

C. 0.04

D. 0.07

Q. 48 Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?

A. Ni/H₂

B. LiAlH₄

C. I₂/NaOH

D. Zn-Hg/conc.HCl

Q. 49 The heat information of CO(g) and CO₂(g) are ΔH = -110 and ΔH = -393kJmol⁻¹ respectively. What is the heat of reaction(ΔH) (in kJmol⁻¹) for the following reaction?

CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

A. -504

B. -142.5

C. -283

D. 504

Q. 50 What is the wavelength_in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 × 10⁻²⁹ g moving with a velocity of 10³ ms⁻¹?

A. 6.62 × 10⁻⁴

B. 6.62 × 10⁻³

C. 10⁻⁵

D. 10⁵

Q. 51 What is the electrode potential(in V) of the following electrode at 25°C?

Ni²⁺(0.1M)|Ni(s) (Standard reaction potential of Ni²⁺| Ni is -0.25V, 2.303RT/F = 0.06)

A. -0.28 V

B. -0.34 V

C. -0.82 V

D. -0.22 V

Q. 52 What is the equation for the equilibrium for the constant(Kc) for the following reaction?

A. Kc = [A]^½[B]^⅓/[C]^3/2

B. Kc = [C]^3/2/[A]²[B]³

C. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓

D. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓

Q. 53 Which of the following can give Grignard reagent when reacted with magnesium in dry ether?

A. C₂H₆

B. C₂H₅Cl

C. C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₅CN

Q. 54 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H₂

B. AlCl₃ is a Lewis acid

C. Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables

D. NaOH is used during Hall’s process of purification of bauxite

Q. 55 A 0.5g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound?

A. 300

B. 600

C. 900

D. 200

Q. 56 t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by

A. 1 mechanism

B. 2 mechanism

C. Any of (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Q. 57 Oxidation state of oxygen in F₂O is

A. +1

B. -1

C. +2

D. -2

Q. 58 To dissolve argentine ore which of the following is used?

A. Na[Ag(CN)₂]

B. NaCN

C. NaCl

D. HCl

Q. 59 If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 min, then the time taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be

A. 50 min

B. 100 min

C. 99 min

D. 150 min

Q. 60 H – O – H bond angle is 104.5° and not 109° 28′ because of

A. lone pair-lone pair repulsion

B. lone pair-bond pair repulsion

C. bond pair-bond pair repulsion

D. high electronegativity of oxygen

Q. 61 The reaction,

C₆H₅CHO + CH₃COOC₂H₅ → C₆H₅CH = CHCOOC₂H₅, is called

A. Benzoin condensation

B. Claisen condensation

C. Cannizaro’s reaction

D. Perkin reaction

Q. 62 The best method to separate the mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol (1:1) is

A. vaporisation

B. colour spectrum

C. distillation

D. crystallisation

Q. 63 Iodoform gives a precipitate with AgNO₃ on heating but chloroform does not because

A. C – I bond in iodoform is weak and C – Cl bond in chloroform is strong

B. chloroform is covalent

C. iodoform is ionic

D. None of the above

Q. 64 What are the values of n₁ and n₂ respectively for Hᵦ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic spectrum 44?

A. 3 and 5

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 4

Q. 65 The homologue of ethyne is

A. C₂H₂

B. C₂H₆

C. C₃H₈

D. C₃H₄

Q. 66 A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% ionised. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10⁻⁴, the [OH⁻] is

A. 5 × 10⁻¹² M

B. 2 × 10⁻³ M

C. 1 × 10⁻¹⁴ M

D. None of these

Q. 67 Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?

A. SO₂

B. HNO₃

C. H₂SO₄

D. HNO₂

Q. 68 The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy

A. 5

B. 10

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 69 The most probable velocity(in cm/s) of hydrogen molecule at 27°C will be

A. 19.3 × 10⁴

B. 17.8 × 10⁴

C. 24.93 × 10⁹

D. 17.8 × 10⁸

Q. 70 In III group precipitation, NH₄Cl is added before adding NH₄OH to

A. decrease conc. of OH⁻

B. prevent interference of PO₄³⁻

C. increase conc. of Cl⁻

D. increase conc. of OH⁻ ion

Q. 71 Steel is heated to below red heat and then, cooled slowly. The process refers to

A. hardening

B. annealing

C. tempering

D. nitriding

Q. 72 What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?(R = 1,09,677 cm⁻¹)

A. 24,630 cm⁻¹

B. 24,360 cm⁻¹

C. 24,730 cm⁻¹

D. 24,372 cm⁻¹

Q. 73 9.2g N₂O₄ is heated in a 1L vessel till equilibrium state is established

N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂

In equilibrium state 50% N₂O₄ was dissociated, equilibrium constant will be (mol. wt. of N₂O₄ = 92)

A. 0.1

B. 0.4

C. 0.3

D. 0.2

Q. 74 Disperse phase and dispersion medium in butter are respectively

A. solid and liquid

B. liquid and solid

C. liquid and liquid

D. solid and solid

Q. 75 Which of the following carbonates decomposes readily at low temperatures?

A. Na₂CO₃

B. K₂CO₃

C. Li₂CO₃

D. Rb₂CO₃

Q. 76 The atomic number of an element M is 26. How many electrons are present in the M-shell of the element in its M³⁺ state?

A. 11

B. 15

C. 14

D. 13

Q. 77 In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?

A. CO₂, SO₂

B. BCl₃, PCl₃

C. H₂O, SO₂

D. CO₂, CS₂

Q. 78 Which one of the following reactions is called Rosemund reaction?

A. Aldehydes are reduced to alcohols

B. Acids are converted to acid chlorides

C. Alcohols are reduced to hydrocarbons

D. Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes

Q. 79 During acetylation of amines, what is replaced by acetyl group?

A. Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom

B. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom

C. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom

D. Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or nitrogen atom

Q. 80 Which is used in alcoholic beverages?

A. Methanol

B. Ethanol

C. Phenol

D. Glycerol

Q. 81 The trisomy for 21st chromosome is called

A. Down’s syndrome

B. Turner’s syndrome

C. Sickle cell anemia

D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Q. 82 Which of the following is the largest gland in an adult human?

A. Taymus

B. Liver

C. Thyroid

D. Pancreas

Q. 83 In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segment?

A. 3/4 and 9/10

B. 4/5 and 8/9

C. 5/6 and 7/8

D. 7/8 and 6/7

Q. 84 During emergency which of the following hormones is secreted?

A. Aldosterone

B. Thyroxine

C. Adrenaline

D. Calcitonin

Q. 85 In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by

A. ecdysone

B. salivary glands

C. parotid gland

D. juvenile hormone

Q. 86 Which of the following is a transparent tissue?

A. Tendon

B. Fibrous cartilage

C. Hyaline cartilage

D. All of these

Q. 87 Rh factor is present in

A. all vertebrates

B. all mammals

C. all reptiles

D. man and rhesus monkey only

Q. 88 In a rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by

A. tendon

B. ligaments

C. muscle

D. cartilage

Q. 89 Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?

A. Thesocytes

B. Pinacocytes

C. Cindocytes

D. Archaeocytes

Q. 90 Thigmotaxis is not shown by

A. Paramecium

B. Amoeba

C. Ascaris

D. Hydra

Q. 91 Which is correctly matched?

A. Apiculture – Honey bee

B. Pisciculture – Silk moth

C. Sericulture – Fish

D. Aquaculture – Mosquito

Q. 92 Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as

A. biothermic

B. poikilothermic

C. oligothermic

D. homeothermic

Q. 93 The intermediate host of Schistosoma is

A. snail

B. mosquito

C. housefly

D. sheep

Q. 94 The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is

A. Vitamin-A

B. Vitamin-B

C. Vitamin-C

D. Vitamin-K

Q. 95 The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment

A. 14th

B. 16th

C. 18th

D. 15th

Q. 96 Polyp phase is absent in

A. Hydra

B. Aurelia

C. Physilia

D. Obelia

Q. 97 In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles which consists of fibres called

A. Purkinje fibres

B. myonemes

C. telodendria

D. columnae carnae

Q. 98 Malphigian tubes are

A. excretory organs of insects

B. excretory organs of frogs

C. respiratory organs of insects

D. endocrine glands of insects

Q. 99 LH and FSH are collectively called

A. oxytocin

B. somatotropins

C. luteotropic

D. gonadotropins

Q. 100 Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?

A. Fossils

B. Morphology

C. Embryo

D. Vestigial organs

Q. 101 In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called

A. ostracum

B. operculum

C. ommatophores

D. osphradium

Q. 102 Turbellarians are free living

A. nematodes

B. cestodes

C. flat worms

D. trematodes

Q. 103 The characteristic larva of phylum – ‘Coelenterata’ is

A. planula

B. cysticercus

C. rhabiform

D. wriggler

Q. 104 In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis called

A. vas deferens

B. cauda epididymis

C. gubernaculum

D. caput epididymis

Q. 105 In blood, CO₂ is transported majorly as

A. sodium carbonate

B. carboxyhaemoglobin

C. bicarbonate

D. CO₂ as such

Q. 106 Animals undergo inactive stage during winter, is known as

A. aestivation

B. hibernation

C. adaptation

D. acclimatization

Q. 107 Kupffer cells are present in

A. liver

B. small intestine

C. pancreas

D. thyroid gland

Q. 108 The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as

A. morula

B. gastrula

C. blastula

D. blastomere

Q. 109 Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for

A. respiration

B. excretion

C. locomotion

D. osmoregulation

Q. 110 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse

transmission?

A. Ca²⁺ ions

B. Mg²⁺ ions

C. Both (1) and (2)

D. Fe²⁺ ions

Q. 111 Which one is component of ornithine cycle?

A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

B. Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

C. Amino acid are not used

D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

Q. 112 Chromosomes complement with 2n -1 is called

A. monosomy

B. nullisomy

C. trisomy

D. tetrasomy

Q. 113 Which of the following is not vestigial in man?

A. Tail vertebrae

B. Nails

C. Nictitating membrane

D. Vermiform appendix

Q. 114 Small fish stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as

A. antibiosis

B. commensalism

C. predation

D. parasitism

Q. 115 The group of Anamniota includes

A. reptiles and birds

B. birds and mammals

C. fishes and amphibians

D. reptiles and mammals

Q. 116 The excretory material of bony fish is

A. urea

B. protein

C. ammonia

D. amino acid

Q. 117 The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?

A. Basophils

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Monocytes

Q. 118 During inspiration, the diaphram

A. expands

B. shows no change

C. contracts and flattens

D. relaxes to become dome-shaped

Q. 119 The function of pineal body is to

A. lighten the skin colours

B. control sexual behaviour

C. regulates the period of puberty

D. All of the above

Q. 120 Synsacrum of fowl consists of about

A. 28 vertebrae

B. 3 vertebrae

C. 16 vertebrae

D. single vertebrae

Q. 121 Jumping genes in maize were discovered by

A. Hugo de Varies

B. Barbara McClintock

C. T H Morgan

D. Mendel

Q. 122 Streptomycin is obtained from

A. Streptomyces griseus

B. S. aureofaciens

C. S. venezuelae

D. S. rmosus

Q. 123 Indusium is found in

A. algae

B. ferns

C. moss

D. Cycas

Q. 124 The vacuole is lined by a membrane called

A. tonoplast

B. jacket

C. cell membrane

D. tonoplasm

Q. 125 Agar-agar is obtained from

A. Chlorella

B. Spirogyra

C. Ulothrix

D. Gelidium

Q. 126 DNA element with the ability to change position is called

A. cistron

B. transposon

C. intron

D. recon

Q. 127 Initiation codon is

A. UUU

B. UGA

C. AUG

D. UAG

Q. 128 DNA multiplication is called

A. translation

B. replication

C. transduction

D. transcription

Q. 129 Duramen is present in

A. inner region of secondary wood

B. part of sap wood

C. outer region of secondary wood

D. region of pericycle

Q. 130 In plants, water supply is due to

A. osmosis

B. imbibition

C. guttation

D. adhesion force

Q. 131 Most of the economically important five yielding plants belong to family

A. Malvaceae

B. Solanaceae

C. Cruciferae

D. Poaceae

Q. 132 Parrafin wax is

A. ester

B. acid

C. monohydric alcohol

D. cholestrol

Q. 133 Which is always present in photochemical smog?

A. O₃

B. CO₂

C. SO₂

D. CH₄

Q. 134 In a cell, cycle during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

A. Metaphase

B. Anaphase

C. Telophase

D. Prophase

Q. 135 The soil which is transported by wind is known as

A. colluvial

B. eolian

C. aluvial

D. glacial soil

Q. 136 SPindle fibre is made up of

A. tubulin

B. humulin

C. intermediate filament

D. flagellin

Q. 137 Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?

A. Hydrosere

B. Lithosere

C. Psammosere

D. Xerosere

Q. 138 In pinus, male cone bears a large number of

A. ligules

B. anthers

C. micro-sporophylls

D. macro-sporophylls

Q. 139 Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is

A. vernalization

B. cryobiology

C. photoperiodism

D. prunning

Q. 140 Decomposers are

A. autotrophs

B. autoheterotrophs

C. organotrophs

D. heterotrophs

Q. 141 Cleavage polyembryony occurs in

A. Pinus

B. Mini Cycas

C. Cycas

D. Ephedra

Q. 142 Edible part of mushroom is

A. basidiocarp

B. secondary mycelium

C. primary mycelium

D. tertiary mycelium

Q. 143 Calyptra is derived from

A. archegonia

B. capsule

C. antheridia

D. columella

Q. 144 ‘Clamp connections’ are observed in

A. Basidiomycetes

B. Zygomycetes

C. Ascomycetes

D. Oomycetes

Q. 145 What is the main cause for the extinction of some species in tropical forest?

A. Deforestation

B. Afforestation

C. Pollution

D. Soil erosion

Q. 146 Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

A. capillarity theory

B. root pressure theory

C. pulsation theory

D. transpiration pull

Q. 147 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

A. Parallel venation

B. Perenial plants

C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)

D. Xylem with vessels

Q. 148 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as

A. bottleneck effect

B. edge effect

C. junction effect

D. Pasteur effect

Q. 149 In which form does food transported in plants?

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Glucose

D. Lactose

Q. 150 In cycas, pollination takes place in

A. 3 celled stage

B. 4 celled stage

C. 2 celled stage

D. 1 celled stage

Q. 151 The biossay of auxin is

A. avena curvature test

B. calculus formation

C. culture of fungus

D. seed of dormancy

Q. 152 A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?

A. Introns

B. Exons

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Q. 153 L-shaped chromosomes are also called

A. acrocentric

B. telecentric

C. sub-metacentric

D. None of these

Q. 154 Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?

A. Angiosperms

B. Gymnosperms

C. Pteridophytes

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 155 A bacterium divides after every 35 min., if a culture containing

A. 175 × 10⁵

B. 125 × 10⁵

C. 48 × 10⁵

D. 32 × 10⁵

Q. 156 Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?

A. ABA theory

B. Munch theory

C. Starch glucose theory

D. Active K⁺ transport theory

Q. 157 Biological concept of species is mainly based on

A. reproductive isolation

B. morphological features only

C. methods of reproduction

D. morphology and methods of reproduction

Q. 158 In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?

A. Primary treatment

B. Secondary treatment

C. Tertiary treatment

D. Reverse osmosis stage

Q. 159 Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit?

A. Seed coat

B. Perisperm

C. Seed

D. Raphe

Q. 160 If the root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes?

A. 24

B. 12

C. 4

D. 8

Q. 161 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

A pipe dream

A. A pleasant dream

B. A bad dream

C. An impractical dream

D. A foolish idea

Q. 162 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To give up the ghost

A. To die

B. To make false appearance

C. To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner

D. To leave useless pursuits

Q. 163 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To disabuse one’s mind

A. To conceal something

B. To remove a misapprehension

C. To banish from one’s mind a thought

D. To proceed cautiously so as to avoid risks and dangers

Q. 164 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To wrangle over an ass’s shadow

A. To act in a foolish way

B. To quarrel over trifles

C. To waste time from petty things

D. To do something funny

Q. 165 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To be at daggers drawn

A. To be frightened

B. To be ready to face danger

C. To threaten one

D. To be bitter enemy

Q. 166 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

According to corporate circles, Datta is pushing through the merger to create a financially ________ company in the processed foods business, the group’s thrust area for the 1990s.

A. straight

B. powerful

C. leading

D. acceptable

Q. 167 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

A man who is well-bred and honourable in-variably shows ________ for the feelings of other people.

A. complacence

B. concern

C. consideration

D. contempt

Q. 168 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

You will have to face some practical problems when you start ___________ this plan.

A. prosecuting

B. projecting

C. prescribing

D. proscribing

Q. 169 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to ____________ accidents.

A. winsome

B. arban

C. gruesome

D. minor

Q. 170 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

The more your action and thought are allied and _________________, the happier you grow.

A. invincible

B. divergent

C. integrated

D. unravelled

Q. 171 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Around the world, painful terminal diseases/ (P), the question of human death/ (Q), people are wrestling with /(R), especially in the face of /(S)

A. R S Q P

B. P Q R S

C. R Q S P

D. P S Q R

Q. 172 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the/ (Q), required for adequate job performance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/ (S)

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. P R Q S

D. S Q R P

Q. 173 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Freedom is the restricted kind in the sense/(P), the rich and the poor woman/(Q), that a

wide gulf separates/(R), which a modern woman enjoys/(S)

A. P S R Q

B. S R Q P

C. R Q P S

D. S P R Q

Q. 174 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

In life, some rules are/ (P), as in business/ (Q), they seem almost instinctive/ (R), learnt so early/ (S)

A. R S P Q

B. Q P S R

C. R P S Q

D. Q S P R

Q. 175 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/ (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided/ (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)

A. P R Q S

B. R S Q P

C. R Q P S

D. P S R Q

Q. 176 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

I would “gladly accompany your sister” if you had asked me.

A. would have gladly accompanied

B. was to have gladly accompanied

C. will gladly accompany

D. No improvement

Q. 177 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

The indecisive man “was readily persuaded” to change his mind again.

A. was persuaded ready

B. was ready to persuade

C. was ready persuaded

D. No improvement

Q. 178 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

He enjoys “to tell stories” to children.

A. how to tell stories

B. telling stories

C. to narrate stories

D. No improvement

Q. 179 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

It is unreasonable to “distort” the statement of a man simply because he does not agree

with your opinions.

A. discourage

B. denounce

C. bend

D. No improvement

Q. 180 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

“Would” you find me absent, please don’t forget to leave a message behind.

A. As

B. Should

C. Unless

D. No improvement

Q. 181 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

The RANCOUS shouts of the audience forced the management to call off the show.

A. unpleasant

B. loud

C. harsh

D. harmful

Q. 182 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

At the Hardy house there was great CONSTERNATION when Aunt Gertrude saw Joe helping Frank up the stairs.

A. surprise

B. panic

C. gaity

D. anxiety

Q. 183 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Methods of spreading the family planning message have been as FECUND as they have been abortive.

A. fruitful

B. failing

C. peculiar

D. false

Q. 184 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Now, the FURY of the demonstrators turned against the machines.

A. asperity

B. passion

C. rage

D. acrimony

Q. 185 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Everyone who has worked for him HAMMERS home that point because they feel that it is widely unappreciated.

A. hints

B. stresses

C. strikes

D. directs

Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

Here DEBONAIR manners were noticed by everyone present in the city.

A. stiff

B. cheerless

C. courteous

D. pleasant

Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

Like poverty, AFFLUENCE can sometimes create its own problems.

A. sorrow

B. indigence

C. exuberance

D. opulence

Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

It is surprising to find her CONDONING such an act.

A. disparaging

B. condemning

C. disliking

D. forbidding

Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

He proved utterly CAPRICIOUS in his dealings with his friends.

A. helpful

B. steadfast

C. understanding

D. obstinate

Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

A long as he remained in that office, he maintained his HEGEMONY.

A. predominance

B. poverty

C. subordination

D. chaos

Q. 191 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Medical study of the skin and its diseases

A. Dermatology

B. Orthopaedics

C. Venereology

D. Homeopathy

Q. 192 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

A. Formalism

B. Statesmanship

C. Protocol

D. Hierachy

Q. 193 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old

A. Oncology

B. Geriatric

C. Obstetrics

D. Endocrinol

Q. 194 One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law upto himself.

A. Anarchist

B. Belligerent

C. Iconoclast

D. Agnostic

Q. 195 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or stones

A. Oleograph

B. Mosaic

C. Tracery

D. Relief

Questions: 196 – 200

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:1

Most of us use the products of science-railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how they came into existence. We take them granted, as if we were entitled to take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of light. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very ‘advanced’. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous age and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing fro saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdry to say that because an engine-driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine-driver is more advanced than, or is superior to Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a move advanced method locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.

Q. 196 Which one of the following statements is true?

A. An engine-driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.

B. Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to engine-driver.

C. Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine-driver in every respect.

D. The engine-driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle.

Q. 197 In this passage the author mentions Plato and/or Socrates to emphasise that

A. they are/were men of great scholarship.

B. people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.

C. the engine is better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.

D. Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning.

Q. 198 According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than

A. all the previous ages in some respect.

B. the age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respects.

C. some of the previous ages in all respects.

D. all the previous ages in all respects.

Q. 199 Many of us make use of machines

A. with very little knowledge of their mechanism

B. without any knowledge of their historical significance.

C. with full knowing of their genesis.

D. without knowing how they were invented.

Q. 200 People today are very proud because they live

A. in a philosophically advanced age.

B. in a materially advanced age.

C. in a scientifically advanced age.

D. in a spiritually advanced age.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	B	C	B	B	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	A	D	B	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	C	B	D	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	B	D	A	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	C	B	D	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	B	D	C	A	C	B	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	D	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	A	C	D	C	D	B	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	A	D	A	B	A	A	D	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	C	A	D	C	B	A	A	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	B	C	A	B	C	D	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	A	D	B	C	B	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	A	A	B	A	B	C	A	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	A	A	A	D	D	B	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	C	D	D	D	A	B	B	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	A	B	B	D	B	C	B	C	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	B	D	B	B	A	D	B	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	A	C	B	B	B	B	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	C	B	A	B	B	B	A	D	C

GATE 2018 Computer Science and Information Technology Previous Year Paper

Gate 2018 Computer Science and Information Technology

Q. 1 “ From where are they bringing their books? ________ bringing _______ books from _____.” The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

A. Their, they’re, there

B. They’re, their, there

C. There, their, they’re

D. They’re, there, there

Q. 2 “ A _________ investigation can sometimes yield new facts, but typically organized ones are more successful.” The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

A. meandering

B. timely

C. consistent

D. systematic

Q. 3 The area of a square is d. What is the area of the circle which has the diagonal of the square as its diameter?

A. d

B. d2 d2

C. 1 4 | 1 4 14 d²

D. ½d

Q. 4 What would be the smallest natural number which when divided either by 20 or by 42 or by 76 leaves a remainder of 7 in each case?

A. 3047

B. 6047

C. 7987

D. 63847

Q. 5 What is the missing number in the following sequence? 2, 12, 60, 240, 720, 1440, _____, 0

A. 2880

B. 1440

C. 720

D. 0

Q. 6 In appreciation of the social improvements completed in a town, a wealthy philanthropist decided to gift Rs 750 to each male senior citizen in the town and Rs 1000 to each female senior citizen. Altogether, there were 300 senior citizens eligible for this gift. However, only 8/9th of the eligible men and 2/3rd of the eligible women claimed the gift. How much money (in Rupees) did the philanthropist give away in total?

A. 1,50,000

B. 2,00,000

C. 1,75,000

D. 1,51,000

Q. 7 If pqr ≠ 0 and p⁻ⁱ = 1/q , q⁻ⁿ = 1/r , r ⁻° = 1/p , what is the value of the product i*n*o?

A. -1

B. 1/(p*q*r)

C. 1

D. p*q*r

Q. 8 In a party, 60% of the invited guests are male and 40% are female. If 80% of the invited guests attended the party and if all the invited female guests attended, what would be the ratio of males to females among the attendees in the party?

A. 2:3

B. 1:1

C. 3:2

D. 2:1

Q. 9 In the figure, ∠DEC + ∠BFC is equal to

A. ∠BCD − ∠BAD

B. ∠BAD + ∠BCF

C. ∠BAD + ∠BCD

D. ∠CBA + ∠ADC

Q. 10 A six sided unbiased die with four green faces and two red faces is rolled seven times. Which of the following combinations is the most likely outcome of the experiment?

A. Three green faces and four red faces.

B. Four green faces and three red faces

C. Five green faces and two red faces.

D. Six green faces and one red face

Q. 11 Which one of the following is a closed form expression for the generating function of the sequence {an}, where an = 2n + 3 for all n = 0, 1, 2,… ?

A. 3/(1−x)²

B. 3x⁄(1−x)²

C. 2-x/(1−x)²

D. 3-x/(1−x)²

Q. 12 Consider the following C program.

#include

struct Ournode{

char x,y,z;

};

int main(){

struct Ournode p = {‘1’, ‘0’, ‘a’+2};

struct Ournode *q = &p;

printf (“%c, %c”, *((char*)q+1), *((char*)q+2));

return 0;

}

The output of this program is

A. 0, c

B. 0, a+2

C. 0, a+2

D. 0, c

Q. 13 A queue is implemented using a non-circular singly linked list. The queue has a head pointer and a tail pointer, as shown in the figure. Let n denote the number of nodes in the queue. Let enqueue be implemented by inserting a new node at the head, and dequeue be implemented by deletion of a node from the tail. Which one of the following is the time complexity of the most time-efficient implementation of enqueue and dequeue, respectively, for this data structure?

A. θ(1), θ(1)

B. θ(1), θ(n)

C. θ(n), θ(1)

D. θ(n), θ(n)

Q. 14 Let ⊕ and ⊗ denotes the Exclusive OR and Exclusive NOR operations, respectively. Which one of the following is not correct?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 15 Consider the following processor design characteristics.

I. Register-to-register arithmetic operations only

II. Fixed-length instruction format

III. Hardwired control unit

Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Q. 16 L et N be an NFA with n states. Let k be the number of states of a minimal DFA which is equivalent to N. Which one of the following is necessarily true?

A. k ≥2ⁿ

B. k ≥ n

C. k ≤n²

D. k ≤2ⁿ

Q. 17 The set of all recursively enumerable languages is

A. closed under complementation

B. closed under intersection

C. a subset of the set of all recursive languages

D. an uncountable set.

Q. 18 Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Context-free grammar can be used to specify both lexical and syntax rules.

B. Type checking is done before parsing.

C. High-level language programs can be translated to different Intermediate Representations.

D. Arguments to a function can be passed using the program stack.

Q. 19 The following are some events that occur after a device controller issues an interrupt while process L is under execution.

(P) The processor pushes the process status of L onto the control stack.

(Q) The processor finishes the execution of the current instruction.

(R) The processor executes the interrupt service routine.

(S) The processor pops the process status of L from the control stack.

(T) The processor loads the new PC value based on the interrupt.

Which one of the following is the correct order in which the events above occur?

A. QPTRS

B. PTRSQ

C. TRPQS

D. QTPRS

Q. 20 Consider a process executing on an operating system that uses demand paging. The average time for a memory access in the system is M units if the corresponding memory page is available in memory, and D units if the memory access causes a page fault. It has been experimentally measured that the average time taken for a memory access in the process is X units. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the page fault rate experienced by the process?

A. (D – M) / (X – M)

B. (X – M) / (D – M)

C. (D – X) / (D – M)

D. (X – M) / (D – X)

Q. 21 In an Entity-Relationship (ER) model, suppose 􀀎 is a many-to-one relationship from entity set E1 to entity set E2. Assume that E1 and E2 participate totally in 􀀎 and that the cardinality of E1 is greater than the cardinality of E2. Which one of the following is true about 􀀎?

A. Every entity in E1 is associated with exactly one entity in E2.

B. Some entity in E1 is associated with more than one entity in E2.

C. Every entity in E2 is associated with exactly one entity in E1

D. Every entity in E2 is associated with at most one entity in E1.

Q. 22 Consider the following two tables and four queries in SQL.

Book (isbn, bname), Stock (isbn, copies)

Query 1: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B INNER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Query 2: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B LEFT OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Query 3: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B RIGHT OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Query 4: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B FULL OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Which one of the queries above is certain to have an output that is a superset of the

outputs of the other three queries?

A. Query 1

B. Query 2

C. Query 3

D. Query 4

Q. 23 Match the following:

Field Length in bits

P. UDP Header’s Port Number I. 48

Q. Ethernet MAC Address II. 8

R. IPv6 Next Header III. 32

S. TCP Header’s Sequence Number IV. 16

A. P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I

B. P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III

C. P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III

D. P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II

Q. 24 Consider the following statements regarding the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm. Note that cwnd stands for the TCP congestion window and MSS denotes the Maximum Segment Size.

A. The cwnd increases by 2 MSS on every successful acknowledgment.

B. The cwnd approximately doubles on every successful acknowledgement.

C. The cwnd increases by 1 MSS every round trip time.

D. The cwnd approximately doubles every round trip time.

Q. 25 Two people, P and Q, decide to independently roll two identical dice, each with 6 faces, numbered 1 to 6. The person with the lower number wins. In case of a tie, they roll the dice repeatedly until there is no tie. Define a trial as a throw of the dice by P and Q. Assume that all 6 numbers on each dice are equi-probable and that all trials are independent. The probability (rounded to 3 decimal places) that one of them wins on the third trial is _____.

Q. 26 The value of the expression as shown in figure correct to three decimal place is ?

Assuming (π = 3.14)

Q. 27 Consider a matrix A=uvⁿ where u = (1⁄2) , v = (1⁄1). Note that vⁿ denotes the transpose of v. The largest eigenvalue of A is

Q.28 The chromatic number of the following graph is

Q. 29 Let G be a finite group on 84 elements. The size of a largest possible proper subgroup of G is ________.

Q. 30 The postorder traversal of a binary tree is 8,9,6,7,4,5,2,3,1. The inorder traversal of the same tree is 8,6,9,4,7,2,5,1,3. The height of a tree is the length of the longest path from the root to any leaf. The height of the binary tree above is ______.

Q. 31 Consider the following C program:

#include

int counter = 0;

int calc (int a, int b) {

int c;

counter++;

if (b==3) return (a*a*a);

else {

c = calc(a, b/3);

return (c*c*c);

}

int main (){

calc(4, 81);

printf (“%d”, counter);

}

The output of this program is _____.

Q. 32 Consider the sequential circuit shown in the figure, where both flip-flops used are positive edge-triggered D flip-flops. The number of states in the state transition diagram of this circuit that have a transition back to the same state on some value of “in” is _____.

Q. 33 A 32-bit wide main memory unit with a capacity of 1 GB is built using 256M × 4-bit DRAM chips. The number of rows of memory cells in the DRAM chip is 214. The time taken to perform one refresh operation is 50 nanoseconds. The refresh period is 2 milliseconds. The percentage (rounded to the closest integer) of the time available for performing the memory read/write operations in the main memory unit is __________.

Q. 34 Consider a system with 3 processes that share 4 instances of the same resource type. Each process can request a maximum of 􀀏 instances. Resource instances can be requested and released only one at a time. The largest value of 􀀏 that will always avoid deadlock is ____.

Q. 35 Consider a long-lived TCP session with an end-to-end bandwidth of 1 Gbps (= 109 bits persecond). The session starts with a sequence number of 1234. The minimum time (in seconds, rounded to the closest integer) before this sequence number can be used again is _______.

Q. 36 Consider a matrix P whose only eigenvectors are the multiples of [1⁄4]. Consider the following statements.

(I) P does not have an inverse

(II) P has a repeated eigenvalue

(III) P cannot be diagonalized

Which one of the following options is correct?

A. Only I and III are necessarily true

B. Only II is necessarily true

C. Only I and II are necessarily true

D. Only II and III are necessarily true

Q. 37 Let N be the set of natural numbers. Consider the following sets.

P: Set of Rational numbers (positive and negative)

Q: Set of functions from {0, 1} to N

R: Set of functions from N to {0, 1}

S: Set of finite subsets of N.

Which of the sets above are countable?

A. Q and S only

B. P and S only

C. P and R only

D. P, Q and S only

Q. 38 Consider the first-order logic sentence ≡ ∃s∃t∃u∀v∀w∀x∀y ƒ(s, t, u, v, w, x, y)

where ƒ(s, t, u, v, w, x, y) is a quantifier-free first-order logic formula using only predicate symbols, and possibly equality, but no function symbols. Suppose 􀀐 has a model with a universe containing 7 elements. Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

A. There exists at least one model of 􀀐 with universe of size less than or equal to 3.

B. There exists no model of 􀀐 with universe of size less than or equal to 3.

C. There exists no model of 􀀐 with universe of size greater than 7.

D. Every model of 􀀐 has a universe of size equal to 7.

Q. 39 Consider the following C program:

#include

void fun1(char *s1, char *s2){

char *tmp;

tmp = s1;

s1 = s2;

s2 = tmp;

}

void fun2(char **s1, char **s2){

char *tmp;

tmp = *s1;

*s1 = *s2;

*s2 = tmp;

}

int main(){

char *str1 = “Hi”, *str2 = “Bye”;

fun1(str1, str2); printf(“%s %s “, str1, str2);

fun2(&str1, &str2); printf(“%s %s”, str1, str2);

return 0;

}

The output of the program above is

A. Hi Bye Bye Hi

B. Hi Bye Hi Bye

C. Bye Hi Hi Bye

D. Bye Hi Bye Hi

Q. 40 Let G be a simple undirected graph. Let TD be a depth first search tree of G. Let TB be a breadth first search tree of G. Consider the following statements.

(I) No edge of G is a cross edge with respect to TD. (A cross edge in G is between two nodes neither of which is an ancestor of the other in TD.)

(II) For every edge (u,v) of G, if u is at depth i and v is at depth j in TB, then |􀀙 − 􀀚| = 1.

Which of the statements above must necessarily be true

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 41 Assume that multiplying a matrix G1 of dimension 􀀃 × 􀀄 with another matrix G2 of dimension 􀀄 × 􀀅 requires 􀀃􀀄􀀅 scalar multiplications. Computing the product of n matrices G1G2G3…Gn can be done by parenthesizing in different ways. Define Gi Gi+1 as an explicitly computed pair for a given paranthesization if they are directly multiplied. For example, in the matrix multiplication chain G1G2G3G4G5G6 using parenthesization (G1(G2G3)) (G4(G5G6)), G2G3 and G5G6 are the only explicitly computed pairs. Consider a matrix multiplication chain F1F2F3F4F5, where matrices F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5 are of dimensions 2×25, 25×3, 3×16, 16×1 and 1×1000, respectively. In the parenthesization of F1F2F3F4F5 that minimizes the total number of scalar multiplications, the explicitly computed pairs is/are

A. F1F2 and F3F4 only

B. F2F3 only

C. F3F4 only

D. F1F2 and F4F5 only

Q. 42 Consider the following C code. Assume that unsigned long int type length is 64 bits. unsigned long int fun(unsigned long int n){

unsigned long int i, j = 0, sum = 0;

for (i = n; i > 1; i = i/2) j++;

for ( ; j > 1; j = j/2) sum++;

return(sum);

}

The value returned when we call fun with the input 2⁴⁰ is

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 40

Q. 43 Consider the unsigned 8-bit fixed point binary number representation below,

b7 b6 b5 b4 b3 . b2 b1 b0

where the position of the binary point is between b3 and b2. Assume b7 is the most

significant bit. Some of the decimal numbers listed below cannot be represented exactly in the above representation:

(i) 31.500 (ii) 0.875 (iii) 12.100 (iv) 3.001

Which one of the following statements is true?

A. None of (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) can be exactly represented

B. Only (ii) cannot be exactly represented

C. Only (iii) and (iv) cannot be exactly represented

D. Only (i) and (ii) cannot be exactly represented

Q. 44 The size of the physical address space of a processor is 2^p bytes. The word length is 2^w bytes. The capacity of cache memory is 2^n bytes. The size of each cache block is 2^m words. For a 􀀏-way set-associative cache memory, the length (in number of bits) of the tag field is

A. p – n – log₂ K

B. p – n + log₂ K

C. p – n – m – w – log₂ K

D. p – n – m – w + log₂ K

Q. 45 Consider the following languages as shown in figure. Which of the languages are context free?

A. I and IV only

B. I and II only

C. II and III only

D. II and Iv only

Q. 46 Consider the following problems. L(G) denotes the language generated by a grammar G. L(M) denotes the language accepted by a machine M.

(I) For an unrestricted grammar G and a string w, whether w ∈ L(G)

(II) Given a Turing machine M, whether L(M) is regular

(III) Given two grammars G₁ and G₂ , whether L G₁) = L(G₂)

(IV) Given an NFA N, whether there is a deterministic PDA P such that N and P accept the same language.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Only I and II are undecidable

B. Only III is undecidable

C. Only II and IV are undecidable

D. Only I, II and III are undecidable

Q. 47 A lexical analyzer uses the following patterns to recognize three tokens T₁, T₂ and T₃ over the alphabet {a,b,c}.

T₁: a? (b | c)*a

T₂: b? (a | c)*b

T₃: c? (b | a)*c

Note that ‘x?’ means 0 or 1 occurrence of the symbol x. Note also that the analyzer outputs the token that matches the longest possible prefix. If the string bbaacabc is processed by the analyzer, which one of the following is the sequence of tokens it outputs?

A. T₁T₂T₃

B. T₁T₁T₃

C. T₂T₁T₃

D. T₃T₃

Q. 48 Consider the following parse tree for the expression a#b$c$d#e#f, involving two binary operators $ and #. Which one of the following is correct for the given parse tree?

A. $ has higher precedence and is left associative; # is right associative

B. # has higher precedence and is left associative; $ is right associative

C. $ has higher precedence and is left associative; # is left associative

D. # has higher precedence and is right associative; $ is left associative

Q. 49 In a system, there are three types of resources: E, F and G. Four processes P0, P1, P2 and P3 execute concurrently. At the outset, the processes have declared their maximum resource requirements using a matrix named Max as given below. For example, Max[P2,F] is the maximum number of instances of F that P2 would require. The number of instances of the resources allocated to the various processes at any given state is given by a matrix named Allocation. Consider a state of the system with the Allocation matrix as shown below, and in which 3 instances of E and 3 instances of F are the only resources available. From the perspective of deadlock avoidance, which one of the following is true?

A. The system is in safe state.

B. The system is not in safe state, but would be safe if one more instance of E were available

C. The system is not in safe state, but would be safe if one more instance of F were available

D. The system is not in safe state, but would be safe if one more instance of G were available

Q. 50 Consider the following solution to the producer-consumer synchronization problem. The shared buffer size is 􀀡. Three semaphores empty, full and mutex are defined with respective initial values of 0, 􀀡 and 1. Semaphore empty denotes the number of available slots in the buffer, for the consumer to read from. Semaphore full denotes the number of available slots in the buffer, for the producer to write to. The placeholder variables, denoted by P, Q, R, and S, in the code below can be assigned either empty or full. The valid semaphore operations are: wait() and signal(). Which one of the following assignments to P, Q, R and S will yield the correct solution?

A. P: full, Q: full, R: empty, S: empty

B. P: empty, Q: empty, R: full, S: full

C. P: full, Q: empty, R: empty, S: full

D. P: empty, Q: full, R: full, S: empty

Q. 51 Consider the relations r(A, B) and s(B, C), where s.B is a primary key and r.B is a foreign key referencing s.B. Consider the query as shown in figure

Let LOJ denote the natural left outer join operation. Assume that r and s contain no null

values . Which of the following queries is not equivalent to q ?

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Q. 52 Consider the following four relational schemas. For each schema, all non-trivial functional dependencies are listed. The underlined attributes are the respective primary keys. Schema I: Registration (roll no, courses)

Field ‘courses’ is a set-valued attribute containing the set of courses a student has

registered for. Non-trivial functional dependency:

roll no −> courses

Schema II: Registration (roll no, course id, email)

Non-trivial functional dependencies:

roll no, course id −> email

email −> rollno

Schema III: Registration (roll no, course id, marks, grade)

Non-trivial functional dependencies:

roll no, course Id−> marks, grade marks −> grade

Schema IV: Registration (roll no, course id, credit)

Non-trivial functional dependencies:

roll no, course id −> credit course id −> credit

Which one of the relational schemas above is in 3NF but not in BCNF?

A. Schema I

B. Schema II

C. Schema III

D. Schema IV

Q. 53 Let G be a graph with 100! vertices, with each vertex labelled by a distinct permutation of the numbers 1,2, … , 100. There is an edge between vertices u and v if and only if the label of u can be obtained by swapping two adjacent numbers in the label of v. Let y denote the degree of a vertex in G, and denote the number of connected components in G. Then, 􀀗 + 10􀀢 = _____.

Q. 54 Consider Guwahati (G) and Delhi (D) whose temperatures can be classified as high (H), medium (M) and low (L). Let P(HG ) denote the probability that Guwahati has high temperature. Similarly, P(MG ) and P(LG ) denotes the probability of Guwahati having medium and low temperatures respectively. Similarly, we use P(HD), P(MD) and P(LD) for Delhi.

The following table gives the conditional probabilities for Delhi’s temperature given Guwahati’s temperature.

Consider the first row in the table above. The first entry denotes that if Guwahati has high temperature (HG) then the probability of Delhi also having a high temperature (HD) is 0.40; i.e., P(HD|HG ) = 0.40. Similarly, the next two entries are P(MD|HG ) = 0.48 and P(LD|HG ) =

0.12. Similarly for the other rows.

If it is known that P(HG ) = 0.2, P(MG ) = 0.5, and P(LG ) = 0.3, then the probability (correct to two decimal places) that Guwahati has high temperature given that Delhi has high temperature is_________.

Q. 55 Consider the following program written in pseudo-code. Assume that x and y are integers. Count(x,y) {

if (y != 1){

if (x != 1) {

print(“*”);

Count(x/2, y);

}

else {

y = y-1;

Count(1024, y);

}

The number of times that the print statement is executed by the callCount(1024,1024) is

_____.

Q. 56 The number of possible min-heaps containing each value from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} exactly once is _____.

Q. 57 Consider the following undirected graph G: Choose a value for x that will maximize the number of minimum weight spanning trees (MWSTs) of G. The number of MWSTs of G for this value of x is ______.

Q. 58 Consider the weights and values of items listed in figure. Note that there is only one unit of each item. The task is to pick a subset of these items such that their total weight is no more than 11 Kgs and their total value is maximized. Moreover, no item may be split. The total value of items picked by an optimal algorithm is denoted by V₀ . A greedy algorithm sorts the items by their value-to-weight ratios in descending order and packs them greedily, starting from the first item in the ordered list. The total value of items picked by the greedy algorithm is denoted by V₁. The value of V₀ − V₁ is

Q. 59 Consider the minterm list form of a Boolean function 􀀊 given below.

F(P, Q, R, S) = Σn(0, 2, 5, 7, 9, 11) + d(3, 8, 10, 12, 14)

Here, 􀀧 denotes a minterm and 􀀁 denotes a don’t care term. The number of essential

prime implicants of the function 􀀊 is ______.

Q. 60 The instruction pipeline of a RISC processor has the following stages: Instruction Fetch (IF), Instruction Decode (ID), Operand Fetch (OF), Perform Operation (PO) and Writeback (WB). The IF, ID, OF and WB stages take 1 clock cycle each for every instruction. Consider a sequence of 100 instructions. In the PO stage, 40 instructions take 3 clock cycles each, 35 instructions take 2 clock cycles each, and the remaining 25 instructions take 1 clock cycle each. Assume that there are no data hazards and no control hazards. The number of clock cycles required for completion of execution of the sequence of instructions is ______.

Q. 61 A processor has 16 integer registers (R0, R1, .. , R15) and 64 floating point registers (F0, F1,… , F63). It uses a 2-byte instruction format. There are four categories of instructions: Type-1, Type-2, Type-3, and Type-4. Type-1 category consists of four instructions, each with 3 integer register operands (3Rs). Type-2 category consists of eight instructions, each with 2 floating point register operands (2Fs). Type-3 category consists of fourteen instructions, each with one integer register operand and one floating point register operand (1R+1F). Type-4 category consists of N instructions, each with a floating point register operand (1F). The maximum value of N is __________.

Q. 62 Given a language 􀀛, define Lⁿⁱ as follows

L⁰ = {s}

Lⁿ = Lⁿ⁻¹. L for all n > 0

The order of a language L is defined as the smallest k such thatLⁱ ⁱ = Lⁱ ⁱ ⁺¹. Consider the

language L₁ (over alphabet 0) accepted by the following automaton. The order of L₁ is _____.

Q. 63 Consider a storage disk with 4 platters (numbered as 0, 1, 2 and 3), 200 cylinders

(numbered as 0, 1, … , 199), and 256 sectors per track (numbered as 0, 1, … , 255). The

following 6 disk requests of the form [sector number, cylinder number, platter number] are received by the disk controller at the same time:

[120, 72, 2] , [180, 134, 1] , [60, 20, 0] , [212, 86, 3] , [56, 116, 2] , [118, 16, 1]

Currently the head is positioned at sector number 100 of cylinder 80, and is moving towards higher cylinder numbers. The average power dissipation in moving the head over 100 cylinders is 20 milliwatts and for reversing the direction of the head movement once is 15 milliwatts. Power dissipation associated with rotational latency and switching of head between different platters is negligible. The total power consumption in milliwatts to satisfy all of the above disk requests using the Shortest Seek Time First disk scheduling algorithm is _______.

Q. 64 Consider an IP packet with a length of 4,500 bytes that includes a 20-byte IPv4 header and a 40-byte TCP header. The packet is forwarded to an IPv4 router that supports a Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of 600 bytes. Assume that the length of the IP header in all the outgoing fragments of this packet is 20 bytes. Assume that the fragmentation offset value stored in the first fragment is 0. The fragmentation offset value stored in the third fragment is _______.

Q. 65 Consider a simple communication system where multiple nodes are connected by a shared broadcast medium (like Ethernet or wireless). The nodes in the system use the following carrier sense based medium access protocol. A node that receives a packet to transmit will carrier-sense the medium for 5 units of time. If the node does not detect any other transmission in this duration, it starts transmitting its packet in the next time unit. If the node detects another transmission, it waits until this other transmission finishes, and then begins to carrier-sense for 5 time units again. Once they start to transmit, nodes do not perform any collision detection and continue transmission even if a collision occurs. All transmissions last for 20 units of time. Assume that the transmission signal travels at the speed of 10 meters per unit time in the medium. Assume that the system has two nodes P and Q, located at a distance d meters from each other. P starts transmitting a packet at time t=0 after successfully completing its carrier-sense phase. Node Q has a packet to transmit at time t=0 and begins to carrier-sense the medium. The maximum distance d (in meters, rounded to the closest integer) that allows Q to successfully avoid a collision between its proposed transmission and P’s ongoing transmission is _____.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	D	C	B	B	C	B	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	D	B	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	C	C	0.021 To 0.024	0.27 To 0.3	0.27 to 0.3	3	42	4
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	4	2	59 to 60	2	34 to 35	D D	D	A	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	C	B	B	D	D	A	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	109	0.6 to 0.62	10230	80	4	16	3	219
Question	61	62	63	64	65
Answer	32	2	85	144	50

GATE 2017 Electronics and Communication Engineering Session 2 Previous Year Paper

GATE 2017 Electronics and Communication Engineering Session 2

Q. 1 the rank of the matrix is

Q. 2 the general solution of the differential equation d²y/dx² + 2 dy/dx -5y = 0 in terms of arbitrary constants K₁ and K₂ is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 3 the smaller angles(in degrees) between the planes x+y+z=1 and 2x-y+2z=0 is_________

Q. 4 the residues of the function f(z) = 1/(z-4)(z+1)³ are

A. -1/27 and -1/125

B. 1/125 and -1/125

C. -1/27 and 1/5

D. 1/27 and -1/5

Q. 5 In the circuit shown. V is a sinusoidal voltage source. The current I is in phase with voltage V. The ratio is (amplitude of voltage across the capacitor/amplitude of voltage across the resistor) is

Q. 6 A connection is made consisting of resistance A in series with a parallel combination of resistances B and C. Three resistors of value 10 ohms, 5 ohms and 2 ohms are provided. Consider all possible permutations of the given resistors into the positions A. B. C. and identify the configurations with maximum possible overall resistance. and also the ones with minimum possible overall resistance. The ratio of maximum to minimum values of the resistances (up to second decimal place) is

Q. 7 An LTI system with unit sample response h[n] = 5δ[n] -7δ[n – 1] +7δ[n – 3] — 5δ[n – 4] is a

A. low-pass filter

B. high-pass filter

C. band-pass filter

D. band-stop filter

Q. 8 The input x(t) and the output y(t) of a continuous-time system are related as.The system is

A. linear and time-variant

B. linear and time-invariant

C. non-linear and time-variant

D. non-linear and time-invariant

Q. 9 An it-channel enhancement mode MOSFET is biased at V(GS) > V(TH) and V(DS) > ( V(GS) – V(S). where Vas is the gate-to-source voltage. V(DS) is the drain-to-source voltage and V(TH) is the threshold voltage. Considering channel length modulation effect to be significant. The MOSFET behaves as a

A. voltage source with zero output impedance

B. voltage source with non-zero output impedance

C. current source with finite output impedance

D. current source with infinite output impedance

Q. 10 An npn bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is operating in the active region. If the reverse bias across the base-collector junction is increased, then

A. the effective base width increases and common-emitter current gain increases

B. the effective base width increases and common-emitter current gain decreases

C. the effective base width decreases and common-emitter current gain increases

D. the effective base width decreases and common-emitter current gain decreases

Q. 11 Consider an n-channel MOSFET having width W. length L. electron mobility in the channel μ(n) and oxide capacitance per unit area C. If gate-to-source voltage V(GS) = 0.7 V. drain-tosource voltage F(DS) = 0.1 V. (μ(n C(OX))) = 100 μA/V² threshold voltage V(TH)= 0.3 V and (W/L) = 50. then the transconductance g(m) (in mA/N) is

Q. 12 The output V₀, of the diode circuit shown in the figure is connected to an averaging DC voltmeter. The reading on the DC voltmeter in Volts. neglecting the voltage drop across the diode, is

Q. 13 In the figure. D₁ is a real silicon pit junction diode with a drop of 0.7 V under forward bias condition and D₂ is a Zener diode with breakdown voltage of — 6.8 V. The input V(in)(t) is a periodic square wave of period T. whose one period is shown in the figure. assuming 10τ << T, where τ is the time constant of the circuit , the maximum and minimum values of the output waveform is respectively.

A. 7.5V and -20.5 V

B. 6.1V and -21.9 V

C. 7.5V and -21.2 V

D. 6.1V and -22.6 V

Q. 14 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Assume base-to-emitter voltage V(BE) = 0.8 V and common-base current gain (a) of the transistor is unity.

The value of the collector-to-emitter voltage V(CE) (in volt) is

Q. 15 For the circuit shown in the figure. P and Q are the inputs and Y is the output. The logic implemented by the circuit is

A. XNOR

B. XOR

C. NOR

D. OR

Q. 16 consider the circuit shown in the figure.The Boolean expression F implemented by the circuit is

A. X’Y’Z’ + XY + Y’Z

B. X’YZ’ + XZ +Y’Z

C. X’YZ’ + XY + Y’Z

D. X’Y’Z’ + XZ +Y’Z

Q. 17 In a DRAM,

A. periodic refreshing is not required

B. information is stored in a capacitor

C. Information is stored in a latch

D. both read and write operations can be performed simultaneously

Q. 18 for the system show in the figure Y(X)/X(S) =

Q. 19 consider the state space relization

Q. 20 which of the following statements is correct?

A. lead compensator is used to reduce the settling time

B. lag compensator is used to reduce the steady state error

C. lead compensator may increase the order of a system

D. lag compensator always stabilizes an unstable system

Q. 21 which one of the following graphs shows the shannon capacity(channel capacity) in bits of a memoryless binary symmetric channel with cross over probability p?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 22 Consider the random process X(t) = U + Vt,where U is a zero-mean Gaussian random variable and V is a random variable uniformly distributed between 0 and 2. Assume the U and V are statistically independent. The mean value of the random process at t = 2 is

Q. 23 A sinusoidal message signal is convened to a PCM signal using a uniform quantizer. The required signal-to-quantization noise ratio (SQNR) at the output of the quantizer is 40 dB. The minimum number of bits per sample needed to achieve the desired SQNR is

Q. 24 Two conducting spheres S1 and S2 of radii a and b (b > a) respectively. are placed far apart and connected by a long. thin conducting wire. as shown in the figure. For sonic charge placed on this structure. the potential and surface electric field on SI are Va and Ea and that on S2 are Vb and Eb, respectively. Then. which of the following is CORRECT?

A. Va = Vb and Ea < Eb

B. Va > Vb and Ea > Eb

C. Va = Vb and Ea > Eb

D. Va > Vb and Ea = Eb

Q. 25 A two-wire transmission line terminates in a television set. The VSWR measured on the line is 5.8. The percentage of power that is reflected from the television set is ____________

Q. 26 The values of the integrals and are

A. same and equal to 0.5

B. same and equal to – 0.5

C. 0.5 and -0.5. respectively

D. -0.5 and 0.5. respectively

Q. 27 An integral lover a counterclockwise circle C is given by

If C is defined as lz I = 3, then the value I is

A. -πi sin (1)

B. -2πi sin (1)

C. -3πi sin (1)

D. -4πi sin (1)

Q. 28 If the vector function P = a(x)(3y — k₁z) + a(y)(k₂x — 2z) — a(z)(k₃y + z) is irrational. then the values of the constants k₁, k₂ and k₃. respectively, are

A. 0.3, —2.5, 0.5

B. 0.0, 3.0, 2.0

C. 0.3, 0.33, 0.5

D. 4.0, 3.0, 2.0

Q. 29 Passengers try repeatedly to get a seat reservation in any train running between two stations until they are successful. If there is 40% chance of getting reservation in any attempt by a passenger. then the average number of attempts that passengers need to make to get a seat reserved is

Q. 30 The minimum value of the function f(x) = x/3(x² – 3) in the interval —100 ≤ x ≤ 100 occurs at x=

Q. 31 The switch in the circuit, shown in the figure. was open for a long time and is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) (in ampere) at t = 0.5 seconds is

Q. 32 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The Thevenin equivalent resistance (in Q) across PQ is

Q. 33 Consider an LTI system with magnitude response and phase response

If the input to the system is then the average power of the output signal y(t) is

Q. 34 The transfer function of a causal LTI system is H(s) = 1/s. If the input to the system is x(t) = [sin(t)/πt] u(t), where u(t) is a unit step function. the system output y(t) as t tends to infinity is_________

Q. 35 Consider the parallel combination of two LTI systems shown in the figure.

The impulse responses of the systems are h₁(t) = 2δ(t +2)— 3δ(t + 1) h₂(t) = δ(t — 2). If the input x(t) is a unit step signal. then the energy of y(t) is

Q. 36 A MOS capacitor is fabricated’ on p-type Si (Silicon) where the metal work function is 4.1 eV and electron affinity of Si is 4.0 eV. Ec – Ef = 0.9 eV. where Ec and Ef are the conduction band minimum and the Fermi energy levels of Si. respectively. Oxide εᵣ = 3.9. εₒ = 8.85 x 10-” F/cm, oxide thickness tₒ = 0.1 pm and electronic charge q = 1.6 x 10-19 C. If the measured flat band voltage of this capacitor is -1 V. then the magnitude of the fixed charge at the oxidesemiconductor interface, in nC/cm1. is

Q. 37 For a particular intensity of incident light on a silicon pn junction solar cell, the photo current density (Jᵣ is 2.5 inA/cm2 and the open-circuit voltage (Vᵤ) is 0.451 V. Consider thermal voltage (VT) to be 25 mV. If the intensity of the incident light is increased by 20 times. assuming that the temperature remains unchanged. V,„ (in volts) will be

Q. 38 Two n-channel MOSFETs. T1 and T2. are identical in all respects except that the width of T2 is double that of T1. Both the transistors are biased in the saturation region of operation. but the gate overdrive voltage (Vgs — Vth) of T2 is double that of T1. where Vgs and Vin are the gate-to-source voltage and threshold voltage of the transistors, respectively. If the drain current and transconductance of T I are Id1 and Gm1 respectively. the corresponding values of these two parameters for T2 are

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 39 An abrupt pn junction (located at x = 0) is uniformly doped on both p and n sides. The width of the depletion region is W and the electric field variation in the x-direction is E(x). Which of the following figures represents the electric field profile near the Pn junction?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 40 Assuming that transistors MI and M2 are identical and have a threshold voltage of 1 V. the state of transistors MI and M2 are respectively

A. Saturation,Saturation

B. Linear,Linear

C. Linear,Saturation

D. Sanitation, Linear

Q. 41 In the circuit shown, transistors Qi and Q2 are biased at a collector current of 2.6 nth. Assuming that transistor current gains are sufficiently large to assume collector current equal to emitter current and thermal voltage of 26 my. the magnitude of voltage gain Vo/Vs in the mid-band frequency range is (up to second decimal place).

Q. 42 In the voltage reference circuit shown in the figure. the op-amp is ideal and the transistors Q1,Q2… Q32 are identical in all respects and have infinitely large values of common-emitter current gain (β). The collector current (Ic) of the transistors is related to their base-emitter voltage (Vas) by the relation lc = Is exp (Yap/VT). where Is is the saturation current. Assume that the voltage Vp shown in the figure is 0.7 V and the thermal voltage VT = 26 mV. The output voltage Vout (in volts) is

Q. 43 The state diagram of a finite state machine (FSM) designed to detect an overlapping sequence of three bits is shown in the figure. The FSM has an input ‘In’ and an output ‘Out’. The initial state of the FSM is So.

In = 0

Out = 0

If the input sequence is 10101101001101. starting with the left-most bit. then the number of times ‘Out’ will be 1 is

Q. 44 Figure I shows a 4-bit ripple carry adder realized using full adders and Figure II shows the circuit of a full-adder (FA). The propagation delay of the XOR. AND and OR gates in Figure II are 20 ns. 15 ns and 10 ns. respectively. Assume all the inputs to the 4-bit adder are initially reset to 0.

At t = 0. the inputs to the 4-bit adder are changed to X₃X₂X₁X₀ = 1100. Y₃Y₂Y₁Y₀ = 0100 and Z₀ = 1. The output of the ripple carry adder will be stable at t (in ns) =

Q. 45 The programmable logic array(PLA) is shown in the figure. The boolean function F is represented as

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 A unity feedback control system is characterized by the open-loop transfer fiction

G(s)= 2(s + 1) / s³ + ks² + 2s + 1

The value of k for which the system oscillates at 2 rac/s is

Q. 47 A second-order LTT system is described by the following state equations.

d/dt x₁(t) – x₂(t) = 0

—d/dt x₂(t) 2x₁(t) 3x₂(t) = r(t)

where x₁(t) and x₂(t) are the two state variables and r(t) denotes the input. The output c(t) = Mt) The system is

A. undamped (oscillatory)

B. underdamped

C. critically damped

D. overdamped

Q. 48 A unity feedback control system is characterized by the open-loop transfer function 10K(s + 2) /G(s) — s³+ 3s² + 10

The Nyquist path and the corresponding Nyquist plot of G(s) are shown in the figures

Below. If 0 < K < 1. then the number of poles of the closed-loop transfer Amnon that lie in the righthalf of the s-plane is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 49 The signal x(t) = sin(14000n). where t is in seconds, is sampled at a rate of 9000 samples per second. The sampled signal is the input to an ideal lowpass filter with frequency response H(f) as follows:

What is the number of sinusoids in the output and their frequencies in kHz?

A. Number = 1, frequency = 7

B. Number = 3. frequencies = 2, 7,11

C. Number = 2. frequencies = 2, 7

D. Number = 2. frequencies = 7,11

Q. 50 The unmodulated carrier power in an AM transmitter is 5 kW. This carrier is modulated by a sinusoidal modulating signal. The maximum percentage of modulation is 50%. If it is reduced to 40%. then the maximum modulated carrier power (in kW) that can be used without overloading the transmitter is

Q. 51 A modulating signal given by x(t) = 5 sin(4π10³t — 10π cos 2π 10π³t) V is fed to a phase modulator with phase deviation constant kp = 5 rad/V. If the carrier frequency is 20 kHz the instantaneous frequency (in kHz) at t = 0.5 ms is

Q. 52 Consider a binary memoryless channel characterized by the transition probability diagram shown in the figure.

The channel is

A. lossless

B. noiseless

C. useless

D. deterministic

Q. 53 An electron (q₁) is moving in free space with velocity 10⁵ nils towards a stationary electron (q₂) far away. The closest distance that this moving electron gets to the stationary electron before the repulsive force diverts its path is __________x 10⁻⁸ m

[Given. mass of electron in = 9.11×10⁻³¹ kg. charge of electron e = —1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C. and

permitivity = (I/36π)10⁻⁹ F/m]

Q. 54 tandard air-filled rectangular waveguides of dimensions a = 2.29 cm and b = 1.02 cm are designed for radar applications. It is desired that these waveguides operate only in the dominant TE10 mode with the operating frequency at least 25% above the cutoff frequency of the TE10 mode but not higher than 95% of the next higher cutoff frequency. The range of the allowable operating frequency(f) is

A. 8.19 GHz ≤ f ≤ 13.1 GHz

B. 8.19 GHz ≤f ≤12.45 GHz

C. 6.55 GHz≤ f ≤ 13.1 GHz

D. 1.64 GHz ≤ f ≤ 10.24 GHz

Q. 55 The pemittivity of water at optical frequencies is 1.754. It is found that an isotropic light source at a distance a’ under water forms an illuminated circular area of radius 5 m. as shown in the figure. The critical angle is

The value of d (in meter) is

Q. 56 The ninth and the tenth of this month are Monday and Tuesday

A. figuratively

B. retrospectively

C. respectively

D. rightfully

Q. 57 It is to read this year’s textbook the last year’s.

A. easier than

B. most easy than

C. easier from

D. easiest from

Q. 58 A rule states that in order to drink beer. one must be over 18 years old. In a bar. there are 4 people. Rs 16 years old. Q is 25 years old. R is drinking milkshake and S is drinking a beer. What must be checked to ensure that the rule is being followed?

A. Only P’s drink

B. Only P’s drink and S’s age

C. Only S’s age

D. Only P’s drink Q’s drink and S’s age

Q. 59 Fatima starts from point P. goes North for 3 km. and then East for 4 km to reach point Q. She then turns to face point P and goes 15 km in that direction. She then goes Nonh for 6 km. How far is she from point P. and in which direction should she go to reach point P?

A. 8 km east

B. 12 km North

C. 6 km east

D. 10 km North

Q. 60 500 students are taking one or more courses out of Chemistry. Physics. and Mathematics. Registration records indicate course enrolment as follows: Chemistry (329). Physics (186). Mathematics (295). Chemistry and Physics (83). Chemistry and Mathematics (217). And Physics and Mathematics (63). How many students are taking all 3 subjects?

A. 37

B. 43

C. 47

D. 53

Q. 61 “If you are looking for a history of India. or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj. or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective sections. and ultimately on Asia. you will not fad it in these pages: for though I have spent a lifetime in the country. I lived too near the seat of events. and was too intimately associated with the actors. to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.” Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s opinion?

A. An intimate association does not allow for the necessary perspective.

B. Matters are recorded with an impartial perspective.

C. An intimate association offers an impartial perspective.

D. Actors are typically associated with the impartial recording of matters.

Q. 62 Each of P. Q. R. S. W. X. Y and Z has been married at most once. X and Y are married and have two children P and Q. Z is the grandfather of the daughter S of P. Further. Z and W are married and are parents of It Which one of the following must necessarily be FALSE?

A. X is the mother-in-law of R

B. P and R are not married to each other

C. Pisa son of X and Y

D. Q cannot be married to R

Q. 63 1200 men and 500 women can build a bridge in 2 weeks. 900 men and 250 women will take 3 weeks to build the same bridge. How many men will be needed to build the bridge in one week?

A. 3000

B. 3300

C. 3600

D. 3900

Q. 64 The number of 3-digit numbers such that the digit 1 is never to the immediate right of 2 is

A. 781

B. 791

C. 881

D. 891

Q. 65 A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25 in intervals in this plot.

Which of the following is the steepest path leaving from P?

A. P to Q

B. P to R

C. P to S

D. P to T

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	4	A	54 to 55	B	0.1 to 0.21	0.12 to 2.16	C	B	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	0.45 To 0.55	3.15 To 3.21	A	5.5 to 6.5	ABCD	B	B	0.95 to 1.05	4.99 to 5.01	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	2.0	7.0	C	48 to 51	C	D	B	2.4 to 2.6	-100.01 to -99.99
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	8 to 8.3	-1.01 to 0.99	7.95 to 8.05	0.45 to 0.55	7.0	6.85 to 6.95	0.51 to 0.62	B	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	49 To 51	1.1 to 1.2	4	50.0	C	0.75 to 0.76	D	C	B	5.19 to 5.23
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	69.9 to 70.1	C	4.55 to 5.55	B	4.2 to 4.4	C	A	B	A	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65
Answer	A	B	C	C	B

GATE 2017 Electronics and Communication Engineering Session 1 Previous Year Paper

GATE 2017 Electronics and Communication Engineering Session 1

Q. 1 Consider the 5×5 matrix.

It is given that A has only one real eigenvalue. Then the real eigenvalue of A is

A. -2.5

B. 0

C. 15

D. 25

Q. 2 The rank of the given matrix is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 3 Consider the following statements about the linear dependence of the real-valued

functions y1=1, y2=x and y3=x^3, over the field of real numbers.

I. y1, y2 and y3 are linearly independent on -1<=x<=0

II. y1, y2 and y3 are linearly dependent on 0<=x<=1

III. y1, y2 and y3 are linearly independent on 0<=x<=1

IV. y1, y2 and y3 are linearly dependent on -1<=x<=0

Which one among the following is correct?

A. Both I and II are true

B. Both I and III are true

C. Both II and IV are true

D. Both III and IV are true

Q. 4 Three fair dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that all three dice have the same number of dots on the faces showing up (up to third decimal place) is

Q. 5 Consider the following statements for continuous-time linear time invariant (LTI) systems.

I. There is no bounded input bounded output (BIBO) stable system with a pole in the right half of the complex plane.

II. There is no causal and BIBO stable system with a pole in the right half of the complex plane.

Which among the following is correct?

A. Both I and II are true.

B. Both I and II are not true.

C. Only I is true.

D. Only II is true.

Q. 6 Consider a single input single output discrete-time system with x[n] as input and y[n] as output, where the two are related as

y[n] = n[x[n]], for 0<=n<=10

y[n] = x[n] – x[n-1], otherwise

Which one of the following statements is true about the system?

A. It is causal and stable

B. It is causal but not stable

C. It is not causal but stable

D. It is neither causal nor stable

Q. 7 In the circuit shown, the positive angular frequency w (in radians per second) at which the magnitude of the phase difference between the voltages V1 and V2 equals pi/4 radians, is

Q. 8 A periodic signal x(t) has a trigonometric Fourier series expansion as given.

If x(t) = – x(-t) = – x(t – pi/w0), we can conclude that

A. an are zero for all n and bn are zero for all n even

B. an are zero for all n and bn are zero for all n odd

C. an are zero for n even and bn are zero for all n odd

D. an are zero for n odd and bn are zero for all n even

Q. 9 A bar of Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) is doped with Silicon such that the Silicon atoms occupy Gallium abs Arsenic sites in the GaAs crystal. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Silicon atoms act as p-type dopants in Arsenic sites and n-type dopants in Gallium sites

B. Silicon atoms act as n-type dopants in Arsenic sites and p-type dopants in Gallium sites

C. Silicon atoms act as p-type dopants in Arsenic as well as Gallium sites

D. Silicon atoms act as n-type dopants in Arsenic as well as Gallium sites

Q. 10 A n^+ -n Silicon device is fabricated with uniform and non-degenerate donor doping concentrations of ND1 = 1 x 10^18 cm^-3 and ND2 = 1 x 10^15 cm^-3 corresponding to the n^+ and n regions respectively, At the operational temperature T, assume complete impurity ionization, kT/q = 25 mV, and intrinsic carrier concentration to be ni = 1 x 10^10 cm^-3. What is the magnitude of the built-in potential of this device?

A. 0.748 V

B. 0.460 V

C. 0.288 V

D. 0.173 V

Q. 11 For a narrow base PNP BJT, the excess minority carrier concentrations (nE for emitter, pB for base, nC for collector) normalized to equilibrium minority carrier concentrations (nE0 for emitter, pB0 for base, nC0 for collector) in the quasi-neutral emitter, base and collector regions are shown. Which one of the following biasing modes is the transistor operating in?

A. Forward active

B. Saturation

C. Inverse active

D. Cutoff

Q. 12 For the operational amplifier circuit shown, the output saturation voltages are +15V or -15V. The upper and lower threshold voltages for the circuit are, respectively

A. +5V and -5V

B. +7V and -3V

C. +3V and -7V

D. +3V and -3V

Q. 13 A good transconductance amplifier should have

A. high input resistance and low output resistance

B. low input resistance and high output resistance

C. high input and output resistances

D. low input and output resistances

Q. 14 The Miller Effect in the context of a Common Emitter amplifier explains

A. an increase in the low-frequency cutoff frequency

B. an increase in the high-frequency cutoff frequency

C. a decrease in the low-frequency cutoff frequency

D. a decrease in the high-frequency cutoff frequency

Q. 15 In the latch circuit shown, the NAND gates have non-zero, but unequal propagation delays. The present input condition is: P = Q = ‘0’. If the input condition is changed simultaneously to P = Q = ‘1’, the outputs X and Y are

A. X = ‘1’, Y = ‘1’

B. either X = ‘1’, Y = ‘0’ or X = ‘0’, Y = ‘1’

C. either X = ‘1’, Y = ‘1’ or X = ‘0’, Y = ‘0’

D. X = ‘0’, Y = ‘0’

Q. 16 The clock frequency of an 8085 microprocessor is 5 MHz. If the time required to execute an instruction is 1.4 us, then the number of T-states needed for executing the instruction is

A. 1

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q. 17 Consider the D-Latch shown in the figure, which is transparent when its clock input CK is high and has zero propagation delay. In the figure, the clock signal CLK1 has a 50% duty cycle and CLK2 is a one-fifth period delayed version of CLK1. The duty cycle at the output of the latch in percentage is

Q. 18 The open loop transfer function

G(s) = (s+1) / s^P(s+2)(s+3)

where p is an integer, is connected in unity feedback configuration as shown in the figure. Given that the steady state error is zero for unit step input and is 6 for unit ramp input, the value of the parameter p is

Q. 19 Consider a stable system with transfer function

G(s) = (s^p + b1s^p-1 + … + bp) / (s^q + a1s^q-1 + … + aq)

where b1, …, bp and a1, … , aq are real valued constants. The slope of the Bode log magnitude curve of G(s) converges to -60 dB/decade as x —> infinity. A possible pair of

value for p and q is

A. p = 0 and q = 3

B. p = 1 and q = 7

C. p = 2 and q = 3

D. p = 3 and q = 5

Q. 20 Which of the following can be the pole-zero configuration of a phase-lag controller (lag compensator)?

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Q. 21 Let (X1, X2) be independent random variables. X1 has mean 0 and variance 1, while X2 has mean 1 and variance 4. The mutual information I(X1; X2) between X1 and X2 in bits is

Q. 22 Which one of the following statements about differential pulse code modulation (DPCM) is true?

A. The sum of message signal sample with its prediction is quantized

B. The message signal sample is directly quantization, and it’s prediction is not used

C. The difference of message signal sample and a random signal is quantized

D. The difference of message signal sample with its prediction is quantized

Q. 23 In a digital communication system, the overall pulse shape p(t) at the receiver before the sampler has the Fourier transform P(f). If the symbols are transmitted at the rate of 2000 symbols per second, for which of the following cases is the inter symbol interference zero?

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Q. 24 The voltage of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a coaxial cable with uniform characteristic impedance is V(l) = e^(-yl+jwt) Volts, where l is the distance of the cable in metres, y = (0.1 + j40)m^-1 is the complex propagation constant, and w = 2pi x 10^9 rad/s is the angular frequency. The absolute value of the attenuation in the cable in dB/metre is

Q. 25 Consider a wireless communication link between a transmitter and a receiver in free space, with finite and strictly positive capacity. If the effective areas of the transmitter and the receiver antennas, and the distance between them are all doubled, and everything else remains unchanged, the maximum capacity of the wireless link

A. increases by a factor of 2

B. decreases by a factor of 2

C. remains unchanged

D. decreases by a factor of root of 2

Q. 26 Let f(x) = e^x+x^2 for real x. From among the following, choose the Taylor series

approximation of f(x) around x = 0, which includes all powers of x less than or equal to 3.

A. 1 + x + x^2 + x^3

B. 1 + x + 3/2 x^2 + x^3

C. 1 + x + 3/2 x^2 + 7/6 x^3

D. 1 + x + 3x^2 + 7x^3

Q. 27 A three dimensional region R of finite volume is described by

x^2 + y^2 <= z^3; 0 <= z <= 1,

where x, y, z are real. The volume of R (up to two decimal places) is

Q. 28 Let C be the straight line segment from point A: (0, 2, 1) to point B: (4, 1, -1). The value of I is

Q. 29 Which one of the following is the general solution of the first order differential equation dy/dx = (x + y + 1)^2, where x, y are real?

A. y = 1 + x + tan^-1(x + c), where c is a constant.

B. y = 1 + x + tan(x + c), where c is a constant.

C. y = 1 – x + tan^-1(x + c), where c is a constant.

D. y = 1 – x + tan(x + c), where c is a constant.

Q. 30 Starting with x = 1, the solution of the equation x^3 + x = 1, after two iterations of Newton- Raphson’s method (up to two decimal places)0 is

Q. 31 Let x(t) be a continuous time periodic signal with fundamental period T = 1 seconds. Let {ak} be the complex Fourier series coefficients of x(t), where k is integer valued. Consider the following statements about x(3t):

I. The complex Fourier series coefficients of x(3t) are {ak} where k is integer valued

II. The complex Fourier series coefficients of x(3t) are {3ak} where k is integer valued

III. The fundamental angular frequency of x(3t) is 6pi rad/s

For the three statements above, which one of the following is correct?

A. only II and III are true

B. only I and III are true

C. only III is true

D. only I is true

Q. 32 Two discrete-time signals x[n] and h[n] are both non-zero only for n = 0, 1, 2, and are zero otherwise. It is given that

x[0] = 1, x[1] = 2, x[2] = 1, h[0] = 1.

Let y(n) be the linear convolution of x[n] and h[n]. Given that y[1] = 3 and y[2] = 4, the value of the expression (10y[3] + y[4]) is

Q. 33 Let h[n] be the impulse response of a discrete-time linear time invariant (LTII) filter. The impulse response is given by

h[0] = 1/3; h[1] = 1/3; and h[n] = 0 for n < 0 and n > 2.

Let H(w) be the discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT) of h[n] where w is the normalized angular frequency in radians. Given that H(w0) = 0 and 0 < w0 < pi, the value of w0 (in radians) is equal to

Q. 34 The figure shows an RLC circuit excited by the sinusoidal voltage 100cos(3t) Volts, where t is in seconds. The ratio amplitude of V2/amplitude of V1 is

Q. 35 In the circuit shown, the voltage Vin(t) is described by:

Vin(t) = 0, for t < 0

Vin(t) = 15 Volts, for t >= 0

where t is in seconds. The time (in seconds) at which the current I in the circuit will reach the value 2 Amperes is

Q. 36 The dependence of drift velocity of electrons on electric field in a semiconductor is shown. The semiconductor has a uniform electron concentration of n = 1 x 10^16 cm^-3 and electronic charge q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C. If a bias of 5 V is applied across a 1 um region of this semiconductor, the resulting current density in this region, in kA/cm^2, is

Q. 37 As shown, a uniformly doped silicon (Si) bar of length L = 0.1 um with a donor concentration ND = 10^16 cm^-3 is illuminated at x = 0 such that electron and hole pairs are generated at the rate of GL = GL0 (1 – x/L0, 0 <=x<=L, where GL0 = 10^17 cm^-3 s^-1. Hole lifetime is 10^-4 s, electronic charge q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C, hole diffusion coefficient DP = 100 cm^2/s and low level injection condition prevails. Assuming a linearly decaying steady state excess hole concentration that goes to 0 at x = L, the magnitude of the diffusion current density at x = L/2, in A/cm^2, is

Q. 38 As shown, two Silicon (Si) abrupt p-n junction diodes are fabricated with uniform donor doping concentrations of ND1 = 10^14 cm6-3 and ND2 = 10^16 cm^-3 in the n-regions, and uniform acceptor doping concentrations of NA1 = 10^14 cm^-3 and NA2 = 10^16 cm^-3 in the p-regions of the diodes, respectively. Assuming that the reverse bias voltage is >> builtin potentials of the diodes, te ratio C2/C1 of their reverse bias capacitances for the same applied reverse bias, is

Q. 39 In the figure shown, the npn transistor acts as a switch. For the input Vin(t) as shown in the figure, the transistor switches between the cut-off and saturation regions of operation, when T is large. Assume collector-to-emitter voltage at saturation VCE(sat) = 0.2 V and base-to-emitter voltage VBE = 0.7 V. The minimum value of the common-base current gain of the transistor for the switching should be

Q. 40 For the circuit shown, assume that the NMOS transistor is in saturation. Its threshold voltage Vtn = 1 V and its transconductance parameter is 1 mA/V^2. Neglect channel length modulation and body bias effects. Under these conditions, the drain current ID in mA is

Q. 41 For the DC analysis of the Common-Emitter amplifier shown, neglect the base current and assume that the emitter and collector currents are equal. Given that VT = 25 mV, VBE = 0.7 V, and the BJT output resistance ro is practically infinite. Under these conditions, the midband voltage gain magnitude, Av = |vo/vi| V/V, is

Q. 42 The amplifier circuit shown in the figure is implemented using a compensated operational amplifier (op-amp), and has an open-loop voltage gain, A0 = 10^5 V/V and an open-loop cutoff frequency, fc = 8 Hz. The voltage gain of the amplifier at 15 kHz, in V/V, is

Q. 43 Which one of the following gives the simplified sum of products expression for the Boolean function F = m0 + m2 + m3 + m5, where m0, m2, m3 , m5 are minterms corresponding to the inputs A, B and C with A as the MSB and C as the LSB?

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

Q. 44 A 4-bit shift register circuit configured for right-shift operation, i.e. Din —-> A, A —-> B, B —- > C, C —-> D, is shown. If the present state of the shift register is ABCD = 1101, the number of clock cycles required to reach the state ABCD = 1111 is

Q. 45 The following FIVE instructions were executed on 8085 microprocessor.

MVI A 33H

MVI B 78H

ADD B

CMA

ANI 32H

The Accumulator value immediately after the execution of the fifth instruction is

A. 00H

B. 10H

C. 11H

D. 32H

Q. 46 A finite state machine (FSM) is implemented using the D flip-flops A and B, and logic gates, as shown in the figure. The four possible states of the FSM are QAQB = 00, 01, 10 and 11. Assume that Xin is held at a constant logic level throughout the operation of the FSM. When the FSM is initialized to the state QAQB = 00 and clocked, after a few clock cycles, it starts cycling through

A. all of the four possible states if Xin = 1

B. three of the four possible states if Xin = 0

C. only two of the four possible states if Xin = 1

D. only two of the four possible states if Xin = 0

Q. 47 A linear time invariant (LTI) system with the transfer function

G(s) = K(s62 + 2s + 2) / (s^2 – 3s + 2)

is connected in unity feedback configuration as shown in the figure. For the closed loop system shown, the root locus for 0 < K < infinity intersects the imaginary axis for K = 1.5. The closed loop system is stable for

A. K > 1.5

B. 1 < K < 1.5

C. 0 < K < 1

D. no positive value of K

Q. 48 Which one of the following options correctly describes the location of the roots of the equation

s^4 + s^2 +1 = 0

on the complex plane?

A. Four left half plane (LHP) roots

B. One right half plane (RHP) root, one LHP root, and two roots on the imaginary axis

C. Two RHP roots and two LHP roots

D. All four roots are on the imaginary axis

Q. 49 The Nyquist plot of the transfer function

G(s) = K / (s^2 + 2s + 2)(s + 2)

does not encircle the point (-1 + j0) for K=10 but does encircle the point (-1 + j0) for K=100. Then the closed loop system (having unity gain feedback) is

A. stable for K=10 and stable for K=100

B. stable for K=10 and unstable for K=100

C. unstable for K=10 and stable for K=100

D. unstable for K=10 and unstable for K=100

Q. 50 In binary frequency shift keying (FSK), the given signal waveforms are

u0(t) = 5cos(20000(pi)t); 0<=t<=T, and

u1(t) = 5cos(22000(pi)t); 0<=t<=T,

where T is the bit-duration interval and t is in seconds. Both u0(t) and u1(t) are zero outside the interval 0<=t<=T. With a matched filter (correlator) based receiver, the smallest positive value of T (in milliseconds) required to have u0(t) and u1(t) uncorrelated is

A. 0.25 ms

B. 0.5 ms

C. 0.75 ms

D. 1.0 ms

Q. 51 Let X(t) be a wide sense stationary random process with the power spectral density Sx(f) as shown in figure (a), where f is in Hertz (Hz). The random process X(t) is input to an ideal lowpass filter with the frequency response

H(f)) = 1, |f| <= 1/2 Hz

H(f) = 0, |f| > 1/2 Hz

as shown in Figure (b). The output of the lowpass filter is Y(t).

Let E be the expectation operator and consider the following statements:

I. E(X(t)) = E(Y(t))

II. E(X^2(t)) = E(Y^2(t))

III. E(Y^2(t)) = 2

Select the correct option:

A. only I is true

B. only II and III are true

C. only I and II are true

D. only I and III are true

Q. 52 A continuous time signal x(t) = 4cos(200(pi)t) + 8cos(400(pi)t), where t is in seconds, is the output to a linear time invariant (LTI) filter with the impulse response

h(t) = 2sin(300(pi)t)/pi(t), t is not = 0

h(t) = 600, t = 0

Let y(t) be the output of this filter. The maximum value of |y(t)| is

Q. 53 An optical fiber is kept along the z direction. The refractive indices for the electric fields along x and y directions in the fiber are nx = 1.5000 and ny = 1.5001, respectively (nx is not equal to ny due to the imperfection in the cross-section). The free space wavelength of a light wave propagating in the fiber is 1.5um. If the light wave is circularly polarized at the input of the fiber, the minimum propagation distance after which it becomes linearly polarized, in centimeters, is

Q. 54 The expression for an electric field in free space is given, where x, y, z represent the spatial coordinates, t represents time, and w, k are constants. This electric field

A. does not represent a plane wave

B. represents a circularly polarized plane wave propagating normal to the z-axis

C. represents an elliptically polarized plane wave propagating along the x-y plane

D. represents a linearly polarized plane wave

Q. 55 A half wavelength dipole is kept in the x-y plane and oriented along 45 degrees from the xaxis. Determine the direction of null in the radiation pattern for 0 <= x <= pi. Here the angle y (0 <= y <= pi) is measured from the z-axis, and the angle x (0 <= x <= 2pi) is measured from the x-axis in the x-y plane.

A. y = 90 degrees, x = 45 degrees

B. y = 45 degrees, x = 90 degrees

C. y = 90 degrees, x = 135 degrees

D. y = 45 degrees, x = 135 degrees

Q. 56 She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally turn ______

A. hurtful

B. left

C. methodical

D. vital

Q. 57 I _____ made arrangements had I _____ informed earlier.

A. could have, been

B. would have, being

C. had, have

D. had been, been

Q. 58 In the summer, water consumption is known to decrease overall by 25%. A Water Boars official states that in the summer household consumption decreases by 20%, while other consumption increases by 70%

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The ratio of household to other consumption is 8/17

B. The ratio of household to other consumption is 1/17

C. The ratio of household to other consumption is 17/8

D. There are errors in the official’s statement

Q. 59 40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to drunk driving. The number of degrees needed to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is

A. 120

B. 144

C. 160

D. 212

Q. 60 Some tables are shelves. Some shelves are chairs. All chairs are benches. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the previous sentences?

i. At least one bench is a table

ii. At least one shelf is a bench

iii. At least one chair is a table

iv. All benches are chairs

A. Only i

B. Only ii

C. Only ii and iii

D. Only iv

Q. 61 “If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effect this mutilation will have on the respective sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in this country, I lived too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters”. Here, the word ‘antagonistic’ is closest in meaning to

A. impartial

B. argumentative

C. separated

D. hostile

Q. 62 S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated around a circular table. T’s neighbours are Y and V. Z is seated this to the left of T and second to the right of S. U’s neighbours are S and Y; and T and W are not seated opposite each other. Who is third to the left of V?

A. X

B. W

C. U

D. T

Q. 63 Trucks (10m long) and cars (5m long) go on a single lane bridge. There must be a gap of at least 20m after each truck and a gap of at least 15m after each car. Trucks and cars travel at a speed of 36km/h. If cars and trucks go alternately, what is the maximum number of vehicles that can use the bridge in one hour?

A. 1440

B. 1200

C. 720

D. 600

Q. 64 There are 3 Indians and 3 Chinese in a group of 6 people. How many subgroups of this group can we choose so that every subgroup has at least one Indian?

A. 56

B. 52

C. 48

D. 44

Q. 65 A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25m intervals in this plot. The path from P to Q is best described by

A. Up-Down-Up-Down

B. Down-Up-Down-Up

C. Down-Up-Down

D. Up-Down-Up

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	B	0.027 To 0.028	D	A	0.9 to 1.1	A	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	C	D	B	C	29.9 to 30.1	0.991 to 0.88	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	0	D	B	0.85 to 0.88	C	C	0.7 to 0.88	C	C	0.7 To 0.85
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	31	2.05 to 2.15	2.55 to 2.65	0.3 to 0.4	1.5 to 1.7	15.9 to 16.1	10	0.89 to 0.91	1.9 to 2.1
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	127 To 129	43.3 to 45.3	B	10	B	D	A	C	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	7.9 to 8.1	0.36 to 0.38	C	A	A	A	D	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65
Answer	D	A	A	A	C