GATE 2020 Instrumentation Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude 

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1  He is known for his unscrupulous ways.tears to deceive people.

(a) He always sheds fox’s 

(b) crocodile’s 

(C)crocodile 

(d) fox 

 

Q. 2  Jofra Archer, the England fast bowler, is than accurate.

(A) more fast (a)

(B) faster 

(C) less fast 

(D) more faster 

 

Q.No.3 Select the word that fits the analogy: 

Build : Building :: Grow: 

(A) Grown 

(B)  Grew

(C) Growth

(D) Growed 

 

Q. 4 I do not think you know the case well enough to have opinions. Having said that, I agree with your other point. What does the phrase “having said that” mean in the given text?  

(A) as opposed to what I have said 

(B)  despite what I have said 

(C) in addition to what I have said 

(D) contrary to what I have said 

 

Q. 5 Define [x] as the greatest integer less than or equal to x, for each x € (-00,00). If y = [x], then area under y for x € [1,4] is 

(A) 1

(B) 3 

(C) 4

(D) 6

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each. 

Q. 6 Crowd funding deals with mobilisation of funds for a project from a large number of people, who would be willing to invest smaller amounts through web-based platforms in the project. 

Based on the above paragraph, which of the following is correct about crowd funding? 

(A) Funds raised through unwilling contributions on web-based platforms. 

(B) Funds raised through large contributions on web-based platforms. 

(C) Funds raised through coerced contributions on web-based platforms. 

(D) Funds raised through voluntary contributions on web-based platforms.

 

Q. 7 P, Q, R and S are to be uniquely coded using a and B. If P is coded as aa and Q as aß, then R and S, respectively, can be coded as 

(A) Ba and aß 

(B) BB and ac

(C) aß and BB 

(D) Ba and BB

 

Q. 8 The sum of the first n terms in the sequence 8, 88,888, 8888, … is 

Q. 9 Select the graph that schematically represents BOTH y = x” and y = x1/m properly in the interval OS X < 1, for integer values of m, where m > 1. 

 

Q. 10 The bar graph shows the data of the students who appeared and passed in an examination for four schools P, Q, R and S. The average of success rates in percentage) of these four schools is 

(A) 58.5 %

(B) 58.8%

(C) 59.0 % 

(D) 59.3%

IN: Instrumentation Engineering 

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1 The unit vectors along the mutually perpendicular x, y and z axes are în s and k  respectively. Consider the plane z = 0 and two vectors à and b on that plane  such that a = a b for any scalar a. A vector perpendicular to both ả and b is ___________.

(A) k

(B) i – j

(C) -j 

(D) i

 

Q. 2 Consider the recursive equation Xn+1 = Xn – h(F(X») – Xn), with initial condition X, = 1 and h> 0 being a very small valued scalar. This recursion numerically solves the ordinary differential equation 

 

Q. 3 A set of linear equations is given in the form Ax = b, where A is a 2 x 4 matrix with real number entries and b +0. Will it be possible to solve for x and obtain a unique solution by multiplying both left and right sides of the equation by A” (the super script T denotes the transpose) and inverting the matrix ATA ? Answer is___________.

(A) Yes, it is always possible to get a unique solution for any 2 × 4 matrix A.

(B) No, it is not possible to get a unique solution for any 2 × 4 matrix A.

(C) Yes, can obtain a unique solution provided the matrix AT A is well conditioned

(D) Yes, can obtain a unique solution provided the matrix A is well conditioned

 

Q. 4 In the circuit shown below, the safe maximum value for the current I is 

(A) 1.0 A

(B) 0.5 A

(C) 0.1 A

(D) 0.05 A

 

Q. 5 A differentiator has a transfer function whose 

(A) phase increases linearly with frequency

(B) magnitude remains constant

(C) magnitude increases linearly with frequency

(D) magnitude decreases linearly with frequency

 

Q. 6 A phase lead network has the transfer function G15 = 1+0.2s/1+0.05s. The angular frequency at which the maximum phase shift for the network occurs is_______.

(A) 10 rad/s

(B) 20 rad/s

(C) 100 rad/s

(D) 200 rad/s

 

Q. 7 If the diodes in the circuit shown are ideal and the breakdown voltage V2 of the Zener diode is 5 V, the power dissipated in the 100 S2 resistor (in watts) is 

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 25/100

(D) 225/100 

 

Q. 8 Given f(A,B,C,D) = ∑m(0,1,2,6,8,9,10,11) + ∑d(3,7,14, 15) is a Boolean function, where m represents min-terms and d represents don’t cares. The minimal sum of products expression for f is ______________.

(A) f = AB + CB

(B) f=B+C

(C) f = D +A

(D) f = ĀB + CD

 

Q. 9 AQ meter is best suited for the measurement of the 

(A) Quality factor of a capacitance.

(B) Distributed capacitance of a coil. 

(C) Quality factor of piezoelectric sensor.

(D) Turns-ratio of a transformer

 

Q. 10 If I is the current flowing through a Hall effect sensor and B is the magnetic flux density perpendicular to the direction of the current (in the plane of the Hall effect sensor), the Hall voltage generated is ____________

(A) Directly proportional to I and inversely proportional to B

(B) Directly proportional to both I and B

(C) Inversely proportional to both I and B

(D) Inversely proportional to I and directly proportional to B

 

Q. 11 The Boolean expression for the shaded regions as shown in the figure is ______.

 

Q. 12 The Boolean operation performed by the following circuit at the output O is ___

Q. 13 Consider the signal x[n] = sin (2—-) u[n]=

The period of this signal x[n] is _____

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

Q. 14 The closed loop transfer function of a control system is given by , For the input r(t) = sin t, the steady state response c(t) is __________

 

Q. 15 Let f(z) = 1/z+a, a > 0. The value of the integral $ f(z)dz over a circle C with center (-a, 0) and radius R > 0 evaluated in the anti-clockwise direction is__________.

 

Q. 16 A player throws a ball at a basket kept at a distance. The probability that the ball falls into the basket in a single attempt is 0.1. The player attempts to throw the ball twice. Considering each attempt to be independent, the probability that this player puts the ball into the basket only in the second attempt (rounded off to two decimal places) is 

 

Q. 17 Assuming ideal opamps, the output voltage at V, in the figure shown (in volts) 

 

Q. 18 Three 400 Ω resistors are connected in delta and powered by a 400 V (rms), 50 Hz, balanced, symmetrical R-Y-B sequence, three-phase three-wire mains. The rms value of the line current (in amperes, rounded off to one decimal place) is_________. 

 

Q. 19 x(t) e-jwt dt Consider the signal be the Fourier transform of x(t). The value of X(0) is ______________.

 

Q. 20 A second order system has closed loop poles located at s = -3 + j4. The time t at which the maximum value of the step response occurs in seconds, rounded off to two decimal places) is _________________

 

Q. 21 Assume that the opamp in the circuit shown is ideal. The value of (in ką) is _ 

 

Q. 22 A sinusoid of 10 kHz is sampled at 15 k samples/s. The resulting signal is passed through an ideal low pass filter (LPF) with cut-off frequency of 25 kHz. The maximum frequency component at the output of the LPF (in kHz) is ___________

 

Q. 23 A 200 mV full-scale dual-slope analog to digital converter (DS-ADC) has a reference voltage of 100 mV. The first integration time is set as 100 ms. The DS ADC is operated in the continuous conversion mode. The conversion time of the DS-ADC for an input voltage of 123.4 mV (in ms, rounded off to one decimal place) is________

 

Q. 24 The capacitance Cx of a capacitive type sensor is (1000 x) pF, where x is the input to the sensor. As shown in the figure, the sensor is excited by a voltage 10 sin (1001 t) V. The other terminal of the sensor is tied to the input of a high input impedance amplifier through a shielded cable, with shield connected to ground. The cable capacitance is 100 pF. The peak of the voltage VA at the input of the amplifier when x = 0.1 (in volts) is 

 

Q. 25 Two 100 ᘯ resistors having tolerance 3 % and 4 % are connected in series. The effective tolerance of the series combination (in %, rounded off to one decimal place) is 

 

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each. 

 

Q. 26 11 -1 01 Consider the matrix . One of the eigenvectors of M is 

 

Q. 27 Consider the differential equation * = sin(x), with the initial condition x(0) = 0. The solution to this ordinary differential equation is __________

(A) x(t) = 0

(B) x(t) = sin(t)

(C) x(t) = cos(t)

(D) x(t) = sin(t) – cos(t)

 

Q. 28 A straight line drawn on an x-y plane intercepts the x-axis at -0.5 and the y-axis at 1. The equation that describes this line

is ____________

(A) y=-0.5 x + 1 

(B) y=x-0.5

(C) y=0.5x – 1

(D) y= 2x +1

Q. 29 The loop transfer function of a negative feedback system is . The Nyquist plot for the above system_____________

(A) encircles (-1 + jo point once in the clockwise direction

(B) encircles (-1 + jo) point once in the counterclockwise direction

(C) does not encircle (-1 +jo) point

(D) encircles (-1 + jo) point twice in the counterclockwise direction

 

Q. 30 I₁, I₂ and I₃ in the figure below are mesh currents. The correct set of mesh equations for these currents, in matrix form, is__ 

 

Q. 31 Consider the function f(x, y) = x2 + y2. The minimum value the function attains on the line x + y = 1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________

 

Q. 32 Consider two identical bags B1 and B2 each containing 10 balls of identical shapes and sizes. Bag B1 contains 7 Red and 3 Green balls, while bag B2 contains 3 Red and 7 Green balls. A bag is picked at random and a ball is drawn from it, which was found to be Red. The probability that the Red ball came from bag Bl (rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________

 

Q. 33 The rms value of the phasor current I in the circuit shown in amperes) is 

Q. 34 In the circuit shown, the rms value of the voltage across the 100 Ω resistor (in volts) is______________

 

Q. 35 Let olnl

Consider y[n] = h[n] g[n], where denotes the convolution operator. The value of y[2] is 

 

Q. 36 The loop transfer function of a negative feedback system is given by where K > 0. The value of K at the breakaway point of the root locus for the above system (rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________

 

Q. 37 The system shown in Fig. (a) has a time response y(t) to an input r(t) = 10 u(t) as shown in Fig. (b), u(t) being the unit step input. Both K, t are positive. The gain K of the system is _____________

 

Q. 38 Assuming that the opamp used in the circuit shown is ideal, the reading of the 1 Hz bandwidth, permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) type voltmeter (in volts) is 

 

Q. 39 If the opamps in the circuit shown are ideal and Vx = 0.5 mV, the steady state value of V. (in volts, rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________

 

Q. 40 Two T-flip flops are interconnected as shown in the figure. The present state of the flip flops are: A = 1, B = 1. The input x is given as 1, 0, 1 in the next three clock cycles. The decimal equivalent of (ABy)2 with A being the MSB and y being the LSB, after the 3rd clock cycle is ____________

 

Q. 41 The address lines A9 … A2 of a 10 bit, 1.023 V full-scale digital to analog converter (DAC) is connected to the data lines D7 to Do of an 8-bit microprocessor, with A, and Ao of the DAC grounded. Now, D7 … Do is changed from 1010 1010 to 1010 1011. The corresponding change in the output of the DAC (in mV, rounded off to one decimal place) is ____________

 

Q. 42 The real power drawn by a balanced load connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz, balanced, symmetrical 3-phase, 3-wire, RYB sequence mains is measured using the two wattmeter method. Wattmeter W is connected in the R line and wattmeter W2 is connected in the B line. The line current is measured If the wattmeter W reads zero, the reading on W2 (in watts) is 6/2__________

 

Q. 43 The 6½ digit timer-counter is set in the time period’ mode of operation and the range is set as ‘ns”. For an input signal, the timer-counter displays 1000000. With the same input signal, the timer-counter is changed to ‘frequency’ mode of operation and the range is set as ‘Hz’. The display will show the number 

 

Q. 44 The circuit shown uses ideal opamp powered from a supply Vcc = 5 V. If the charge qp generated by the piezoelectric sensor is of the form qp = 0.1 sin(10000) uC, the peak detector output after 10 cycles of qp (in volts, rounded off to one decimal place) is 

 

Q. 45 A metallic strain gauge of resistance Rx with a gauge factor of 2 is bonded to a structure made of a metal with modulus of elasticity of 200 GN/m2. The value of Rx is 1 kO2 when no stress is applied. Rx is a part of a quarter bridge with three identical fixed resistors of 1 k 2 each. The bridge is excited from a DC voltage of 4 V. The structure is subjected to a stress of 100 MN/m2. Magnitude of the output of the bridge (in mV, rounded off to two decimal places) is __________

 

Q. 46 A laser beam of 10 mm beam diameter is focused onto an optical fibre using a thin biconvex lens as shown in the figure. The refractive index of the lens is 1.5. The refractive indices of the core and cladding of the fibre are 1.55 and 1.54 respectively, The minimum value of the focal length of the lens to attain the maximum coupling to the fibre (in mm, rounded off to one decimal place) is ____________

 

Q. 47 As shown in the figure, a slab of finite thickness t with refractive index nz = 1.5, has air (n1 = 1) above and below it. Light of free space wavelength 600 nm is incident normally from air as shown. For a destructive interference to be observed at R, the minimum value of thickness of the slab t (in nm) is 

 

Q. 48 Consider the finite sequence X = (1,1,1). The Inverse Discrete Fourier Transform (IDFT) of X is given as (x(0), x(1), x(2)). The value of x(2) is ________

 

Q. 49 A circuit consisting of capacitors, DC voltage source and an amplifier having a voltage gain G= -5 is shown in the figure. The effective capacitance across the nodes A and B (in uF, rounded off to one decimal place) is_____________

 

Q. 50 Consider the following state variable equations: .

The initial conditions are x1(0) = () and x2(0) = 1. At t = 1 second, the value of X. (1) (rounded off to two decimal places) is 

 

Q. 51 Assume the diodes in the circuit shown are ideal. The current Ix flowing through the 3 k2 resistor (in mA, rounded off to one decimal place) is 

 

Q. 52 A 1000/1 A, 5 VA, UPF bar-primary measuring current transformer has 1000 secondary turns. The current transformer exhibits a ratio error of – 0.1 % and a phase error of 3.438 minutes when the primary current is 1000 A. At this operating condition, the rms value of the magnetization current of the current transformer (in amperes, rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________

 

Q. 53 The mutual inductances between the primary coil and the secondary coils of a linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) shown in the figure are M, and M2. Assume that the self-inductances Lsi and Ls2 remain constant and are independent of x. When x=0, M1 = M2 = Mo. When x is in the range +10 mm, M1 and M2 change linearly with x. At x = +10 mm or -10 mm, the change in the magnitudes of M, and M2 is 0.25 Mo. For a particular displacement x = D, the voltage across the detector becomes zero when V21 = 1.25 Vil. The value of D (in mm, rounded off to one decimal place) is _______________

 

Q. 54 In the Maxwell-Wien bridge shown, the detector D reads zero when C1= 100 nF and R1 = 100 k 2. The Q factor of the coil

is _______________

 

Q. 55 The loop transfer function of a negative feedback system is G(s)H(s) = 24$32). The phase margin of the system (in degrees, rounded off to one decimal place) is_________

 

Answer Key 

Q.No.	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Ans.	C	A	C	B	D	D	D	D	A	C
Q.No	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Ans.	A	B	B	C	C	A	A	B	B	B
Q.No	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Ans.	A	A	D	D	B	0.09 TO 0.09	7 TO 7	1.7 TO 1.8	2 TO 2	0.78 TO 0.79
Q.No	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Ans.	-4 TO -4	25 TO  25	223.3 TO 223.5	5 TO 5	2.5 TO 2.5	D	A	D	A	A
Q.No	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Ans.	0.5 TO 0.5	0.7 TO 0.7	1 TO 1	115 TO 116	0 TO 0	5.0 TO 5.1	4 TO 4	1 TO 1	0.45 TO 0.55	7 TO 7
Q.No	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Ans.	3.5  TO 405	199 TO 201	999 TO 1001	3.4 TO 3.6	0.95 TO 1.05	27.5 TO 28.5	200 TO 200	0 TO 0	14.5 TO 15.0	-0.13 TO -0.11
Q.No	51	52	53	54	55
Ans.	1.8 TO 1.8	0.95 TO 1.05	4.6 TO 4.6	10 TO 10	65.4 TO 65.6

GATE 2020 Biotechnology Previous Year Paper

Biotechnology 

General Aptitude 

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi. 

(A) with, at 

(B) on, in 

(C) on, at 

(D) to, at 

 

Q. 2 Despite a string of poor performances, the chances of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are 

(A) slim 

(B) bright 

(c) obvious 

(D) uncertain 

 

Q. 3 Select the word that fits the analogy: 

Cover : Uncover :: Associate : 

(A) Unassociate 

(B) Inassociate 

(C) Misassociate 

(D) Dissociate 

 

Q.No.4 Hit by floods, the kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the country have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period. 

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage? 

(A) Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains. 

(B) Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period. 

(C)Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods. 

(D) Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce. 

 

Q. 5 The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is 

(A) n² – n 

(B) n² + n 

(C)2n² – n 

(D) 2n² + n 

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each. 

Q. 6 Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks. 

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage? 

(A) Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks. 

(B) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks. 

(C)Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks. 

(D) Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks. 

 

Q. 7  P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table. 

I. S is seated opposite to W. 

II. U is seated at the second place to the right of R. 

III. T is seated at the third place to the left of R. 

IV. V is a neighbour of S. 

Which of the following must be true? 

(A) P is a neighbour of R. 

(B) Q is a neighbour of R. 

(C) P is not seated opposite to Q. 

(D) R is the left neighbour of S. 

 

Q. 8 The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other? 

(A) 66.6

(B) 75.2 

(C) 88.2 

(D) 116.5 

 

Q. 9 For a matrix M = [mj]; i, j = 1,2,3,4, the diagonal elements are all zero and mij = -mi: The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is 

(A) 0 

(B) 6 

(C) 12 

(D) 16 

 

Q. 10 The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013 – 2018 is 

(A) 15:17 

(B) 16:17 

(C)17:15 

(D) 17:16 

BT: Biotechnology 

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1 Protein P becomes functional upon phosphorylation of a serine residue. Replacing this serine with will result in a phosphomimic mutant of P. 

(A) alanine 

(B) aspartic acid 

(C)phenylalanine 

(D) lysine 

 

Q. 2 Ras protein is a 

(A) trimeric GTPase involved in relaying signal from cell surface to nucleus. 

(B) monomeric GTPase involved in relaying signal from cell surface to nucleus. 

(C)trimeric GTPase involved in regulation of cytoskeleton. 

(D) monomeric GTPase involved in regulation of cytoskeleton. 

 

Q. 3 Which of the following statements are CORRECT? 

[P] Viruses can play a role in causing human cancer 

[Q] A tumor suppressor gene can be turned off without any change in its DNA sequence 

[R] Alteration in miRNA expression levels contributes to the development of cancer

(A) P and Q only 

(B) Q and R only 

(C)P and R only 

(D) P, Q and R 

 

Q.No.4 Which class of antibody is first made by developing B cells inside bone marrow?

(A) IgG 

(B) IgE 

(C) IgA 

(D) IgM 

 

Q.No.5 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] regarding mammalian cells. 

Assertion [a]: Cells use Ca²⁺, and not Na⁺, for cell-to-cell signaling 

Reason [r]: In the cytosol, concentration of Na⁺ is lower than that of Ca²⁺ 

(A) Both [a] and [r) are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]. 

(B) Both [a] and [] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]. 

(C)Both [a] and [r] are false. 

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false. 

 

Q. 6 Vincristine and vinblastine, two commercially important secondary metabolites from Catharanthus roseus, are examples of 

(A) Alkaloids

(B) Flavonoids

(C)Terpenoids

(D) steroids. 

 

Q. 7 DNA synthesized from an RNA template is called 

(A) recombinant DNA. 

(B) transcript. 

(C)T-DNA. 

(D) complementary DNA. 

 

Q. 8 Two monomeric His-tagged proteins of identical molecular weight are present in a solution. pls of these two proteins are 5.6 and 6.8. Which one of the following techniques can be used to separate them? 

(A) Denaturing polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis 

(B) Size-exclusion chromatography 

(C)Ion-exchange chromatography 

(D) Nickel affinity chromatography 

 

Q. 9 During a positive-negative selection process, transformed animal cells expressing are killed in the presence of ganciclovir in the medium.

(A) pyruvate kinase 

(B) viral thymidine kinase 

(C)viral serine/threonine kinase 

(D) viral tyrosine kinase 

 

Q. 10 A vector derived from which one of the following viruses is used for high frequency genomic integration of a transgene in animal cells? 

(A) Adenovirus 

(B) Adeno-associated virus 

(C)Lentivirus 

(D) Herpes simplex virus 

 

Q. 11 Which one of the following statements about Agrobacterium Ti plasmid is CORRECT? 

(A) Vir genes are located within the T-DNA segment 

(B) Phytohormone biosynthesis genes are located outside the T-DNA segment 

(C)Opine catabolism genes are located within the T-DNA segment 

(D) Opine biosynthesis genes are located within the T-DNA segment 

 

Q. 12 Which of the following types of molecules act as biological catalysts? 

[P] Protein 

[Q] RNA 

[R] Phospholipid 

(A) P and Q only 

(B) P and R only 

(C)Q and R only 

(D) P, Q and R 

 

Q. 13 Which one of the following media components is used to maintain pH in mammalian cell culture? 

(A) CaCl₂ 

(B) MgSO₄ 

(C)NaCl 

(D) NaHCO₃ 

 

Q. 14 Which of the following are energy transducing membranes? 

[P] Plasma membrane of bacteria 

[Q] Inner membrane of chloroplasts 

[R] Inner membrane of mitochondria 

(A) P and Q only 

(B) P and R only 

(C)Q and R only 

(D) P, Q and R 

 

Q. 15 Amino acid sequences of cytochrome c and ribulose 5-phosphate epimerase from 40 organisms were chosen and phylogenetic trees were obtained for each of these two protein families. 

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 

Assertion [a]: The two trees will not be identical 

Reason [r]: The nature and frequency of mutations in the two families are different 

(A) Both [a] and [r) are true and [r] is the correct reason for (a). 

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]. 

(C)Both [a] and [r] are false. 

(D)[a] is false but [r] is true. 

 

Q. 16 A microorganism isolated from a salt-rich (salt concentration -2 M) lake was found to possess diglycerol tetraethers, with polyisoprenoid alcohol side chains, as the major lipid component of its cell membrane. The isolated organism is 

(A) a planctomycete. 

(B) a cyanobacteria. 

(C)a unicellular amoeba. 

(D) an archaea. 

 

Q. 17 A function f is as follows: 

The function f is a continuous function when c is equal to (answer is an integer). 

 

Q. 18 Given that Z = x² + y², the value of for X = 1 and Y = 0 is (answer is an integer). 

 

Q. 19 The elemental composition of dry biomass of a yeast species is CH_1.6O_0.4N_0.2S_0.0024P_0.017. The contribution of carbon to the dry biomass is_______ % (round off to 2 decimal places). 

[Given: atomic weights of H, C, N, O, P and S are 1, 12, 14, 16, 31 and 32, respectively] 

 

Q. 20 Solvents A and B are completely immiscible. Solute S is soluble in both these solvents. 100 g of S was added to a container which has 2 kg each of A and B. The solute is 1.5 times more soluble in solvent A than in solvent B. The mixture was agitated thoroughly and allowed to reach equilibrium. Assuming that the solute has completely dissolved, the amount of solute in solvent A phase is ____________g.

 

Q. 21 The number of molecules of a nucleotide of molecular weight 300 g/mol present in 10 picomoles is___________ 10¹² (round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 22 To facilitate mass transfer from a gas to a liquid phase, a gas bubble of radius r is introduced into the liquid. The gas bubble then breaks into 8 bubbles of equal radius. Upon this change, the ratio of the interfacial surface area to the gas phase volume for the system changes from 3/r to 3n/r. The value of n is 

Q. 23 The largest eigenvalue of the matrix is — 

 

Q. 24 A normal random variable has mean equal to 0, and standard deviation equal to 3. The probability that on a random draw the value of this random variable is greater then 0 is ________________(round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 25 A variable Y is a function of t. Given that Y(t = 0) = 1 and Y(t = 1) = 2, dy in the interval t = [0, 1] can be approximated as 

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each. 

Q. 26 A block of ice at 0 °C is supplied heat at a constant rate to convert ice to superheated steam. Which one of the following trajectories correctly represents the trend of the temperature of the system with time? Assume that the specific heat of H20 is not a function of temperature. 

 

Q. 27 The DNA sequence shown below is to be amplified by PCR: 

Which one of the following pair of primers can be used for this amplification?

 

Q. 28 Which of the following statements about immune response are CORRECT? 

[P] T cells are activated by antigen-presenting cells 

[Q] Foreign peptides are not presented to helper T cells by Class II MHC proteins 

[R] Dendritic cells are referred to as professional antigen-presenting cells 

(A) P and R only 

(B) P and Q only 

(C)Q and R only 

(D) P, Q and R 

 

Q. 29 Which of the following statements are CORRECT about eukaryotic cell cycle? 

[P] CDKs can phosphorylate proteins in the absence of cyclins 

[Q] CDKs can be inactivated by phosphorylation 

[R] Degradation of cyclins is required for cell cycle progression 

[S] CDKs are not involved in chromosome condensation 

(A) P and R only 

(B) P and S only 

(C)P, Q and R only 

(D) Q and R only 

 

Q. 30 W, X and Y are the intermediates in a biochemical pathway as shown below: 

Mutants auxotrophic for Z are found in four different complementation groups, namely Z1, Z2, Z3 and Z4. The growth of these mutants on media supplemented with W, X, Y or Z is shown below (Yes: growth observed; No: growth not observed): 

What is the order of the four complementation groups in terms of the step they block? 

 

Q. 31 In tomato plant, red (R) is dominant over yellow (r) for fruit color and purple (P) is dominant over green (p) for stem color. Fruit color and stem color assort independently. The number of progeny plants of different fruit/stem colors obtained from a mating are as follows: 

Red fruit, purple stem – 145 

Red fruit, green stem – 184 

Yellow fruit, purple stem – 66 

Yellow fruit, green stem – 47 

What are the genotypes of the parent plants in this mating? 

 

Q. 32 Some of the cytokinins used in plant tissue culture media are given below: 

[P] BAP 

[Q] Zeatin 

[R] Kinetin 

[S] 2iP 

Which of these are synthetic analogs? 

(A) P and Q only 

(B) Q and S only 

(C)R and S only 

(D) P and R only 

 

Q. 33 Carl Woese used the gene sequence of which one of the following for phylogenetic taxonomy of prokaryotes? 

(A) A ribosomal RNA of large ribosomal subunit 

(B) A ribosomal RNA of small ribosomal subunit 

(C)A ribosomal protein of large ribosomal subunit 

(D) A ribosomal protein of small ribosomal subunit 

 

Q. 34 A list of pathogens (Group I) and a list of anti-microbial agents (Group II) used to treat their infections are given below. Match the pathogens with the corresponding anti-microbial agents. 

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5 

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1 

(C)P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 

 

Q. 35 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 

Assertion [a]: Dam methylase protects E. coli DNA from phage endonucleases 

Reason [r]: E. coli Dam methylase methylates the adenosine residue in the sequence “GATC” 

(A) Both [a] and [r) are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] 

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] 

(C)Both [a] and [r] are false 

(D) [a] is false but [r] is true 

 

Q. 36 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 

Assertion [a]: Embryonic stem cells are suitable for developing knockout mice 

Reason [r]: Homologous recombination is more frequent in embryonic stem cells than that in somatic cells Both [a] and [r] are false Both [a] and [r] are true, and [r] is the correct reason for [a] Both [a] and [r] are true, but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] [a] is true, but [r] is false 

 

Q. 37 The schematic of a plasmid with a gap in one of the strands is shown below: 

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are required to fill the gap and generate a covalently closed circular plasmid? 

[P] DNA ligase 

[Q] Alkaline phosphatase 

[R] DNA polymerase 

[S] Polynucleotide kinase 

(A) P only 

(B) P, R and S only 

(C)P and R only 

(D) P, Q and R only 

 

Q. 38 Match sub-cellular organelles listed in Group I with their features listed in Group II: 

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 

(C)P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 

 

Q. 39 Which of the following strategies are used by cells for metabolic regulation? 

[P] Phosphorylation – dephosphorylation 

[Q] Allostery 

[R] Feedback inhibition 

(A) P and Q only 

(B) P and R only 

(C)Q and R only 

(D) P, Q and R 

 

Q. 40 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 

Assertion [a]: A zygote and its immediate descendant cells are unspecialized and are called totipotent 

Reason [r]: Totipotent cells retain the capacity to differentiate into only a few cell types 

(A) Both [a] and [r) are false 

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] 

(C)Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] 

(D) [a] is true but [1] is false 

 

Q. 41 Which of the following statements about gene therapy are CORRECT? 

[P] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can be cured through germline gene therapy 

[Q] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny, can be cured through germline gene therapy 

[R] Affected individuals, but not their progeny, can be cured through somatic gene therapy 

[S] Affected individuals, as well as their progeny, can be cured through somatic gene therapy 

(A) P and R only 

(B) P and S only 

(C)Q and R only 

(D) Q and S only 

 

Q. 42 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. 

Assertion [a]: A genetically engineered rice that produces beta-carotene in the rice grain is called Golden rice 

Reason [r]: Enabling biosynthesis of provitamin A in the rice endosperm gives a characteristic yellow/orange color 

(A) Both [a] and [r] are false 

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] 

(C)Both [a] and [r) are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] 

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false 

 

Q. 43 The sequence of a 1 Mb long DNA is random. This DNA has all four bases occurring in equal proportion. The number of nucleotides, on average, between two successive EcoRI recognition site GAATTC is_____________.

 

Q..44 E. coli was grown in ‘n medium for several generations. Cells were then transferred to 14N medium, allowed to grow for 4 generations and DNA was isolated immediately. The proportion of total DNA with intermediate density is__________(round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 45 A batch reactor is inoculated with 1 g/L biomass. Under these conditions, cells exhibit a lag phase of 30 min. If the specific growth rate in the log phase is 0.00417 min”!, the time taken for the biomass to increase to 8 g/L is___________min(round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 46 The system of linear equations 

has no solution when c is equal to 

 

Q. 47 The amino acid sequence of a peptide is Phe-Leu-Ile-Met-Ser-Leu. The number of codons that encode the amino acids present in this peptide is given below: 

Phe: 2 codons 

Leu: 6 codons 

Ile: 3 codons 

Met: 1 codon 

Ser: 4 codons 

The number of unique DNA sequences that can encode this peptide is___________ 

 

Q. 48 Assume that a cell culture was started with five human fibroblast cells. Two cells did not divide even once whereas the other three cells completed three rounds of cell division. At this stage, the total number of kinetochores in all the cells put together is ____________

 

Q. 49 Growth of an organism on glucose in a chemostat is characterized by a Monod model with specific growth rate = 0.45 h: and Ks = 0.5 g/L. Biomass from the substrate is generated as Yxs = 0.4 g/g. The chemostat volume is 0.9 L and media is fed at 1 L/h and contains 20 g/L of glucose. At steady state, the concentration of biomass in the chemostat is________________g/L. 

 

Q. 50 A function f is given as: 

f(x)= 4X – X² 

The function f is maximized when X is equal to _____________.

 

Q. 51 An infinite series S is given as: 

S = 1 + 2/3 + 3/9 +4/27 + 5/81 + …. (to infinity) 

The value of Sis ______________ (round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 52 Protein A and protein B form a covalent complex. Gel filtration chromatography of this complex showed a peak corresponding to 200 kDa. SDS-PAGE analysis of this complex, with and without beta-mercaptoethanol, showed a single band corresponding to molecular weight 50 and 25 kDa, respectively. Given that the molecular weight of protein A is 25 kDa, the molecular weight of protein B is______________kDa. 

 

Q. 53 The concentrations of ATP, ADP and inorganic phosphate in a cell are 2.59, 0.73 and 2.72 mM, respectively. Under these conditions, free energy change for the synthesis of ATP at 37 °C is _________________kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places). 

Given: free energy change for ATP hydrolysis under standard conditions is -30.5 kJ/mol and R = 8.315 kJ/mol.K 

 

Q. 54 An algorithm was designed to find globins in protein sequence databases. A database which has 78 globin sequences was searched using this algorithm. The algorithm retrieved 72 sequences of which only 65 were globins. The sensitivity of this algorithm is____________% (round off to 2 decimal places). 

 

Q. 55 The mitochondrial electron transfer chain oxidizes NADH with oxygen being the terminal electron acceptor. The redox potentials for the two half-reactions are given below: 

The free energy change associated with the transfer of electrons from NADH to O2 is__________kJ/mol (round off to 2 decimal places). Given: F= 96500 C/mol. 

Answer Key 

Q.No.	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Ans	C	B	D	D	B	D	C	B	B	B
Q.No	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Ans	B	B	D	D	D	A	D	C	B	C
Q.No	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Ans	D	A	D	B	A	D	15 TO 15	2 TO 2	51.01  TO 52.99	60 TO 60
Q.No	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Ans	5.99 TO 6.05	2 TO 2	3 TO 3	0.49 TO 0.51	1 TO 1	A	B	A	D	B
Q.No	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Ans	A	D	B	C	D	B	B	C	D	D
Q.No	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Ans	C	C	4096 TO 4096	.011 TO 0.14	52.6 TO 529.99	1 TO 1	864 TO 864	1196 TO 1196	0 TO 0	2 TO 2
Q.No	51	52	53	54	55
Ans	2.20 TO 2.30	25 TO 25	18521.2 TO 18521.3	83.30 TO 83.40	-219.30 TO -219.20

GATE 2020 Agricultural Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude 

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1 The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious global concern as thousands of people get killed______accidents every year while many other die______diseases like cardiovascular disease, cancer, etc. 

(A) in, of 

(b)from, of 

(c) during, from 

(d) from, from 

 

Q. 2 He was not only accused of theft__________of conspiracy. 

(A) rather 

(B)but also 

(c) but even 

(D) rather than 

 

Q. 3 Select the word that fits the analogy: 

Explicit: Implicit :: Express: 

(A) Impress 

(B) Repress 

(c) Compress 

(D) Suppress 

 

Q. 4 The Canadian constitution requires that equal importance be given to English and French. Last year, Air Canada lost a lawsuit, and had to pay a six-figure fine to a French-speaking couple after they filed complaints about formal in-flight announcements in English lasting 15 seconds, as opposed to informal 5 second messages in French. The French-speaking couple were upset at

(A)  the in-flight announcements being made in English. 

(B)  the English announcements being clearer than the French ones. 

(C)  the English announcements being longer than the French ones. 

(D) equal importance being given to English and French. 

 

Q. 5 A super additive function f(.) satisfies the following property 

Which of the following functions is a superadditive function for x > 1? 

(A) Ex

(B) x

(C) 1/x

(D) e^-x

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each. 

Q. No. 6 The global financial crisis in 2008 is considered to be the most serious world-wide financial crisis, which started with the subprime lending crisis in the USA in 2007. The subprime lending crisis led to the banking crisis in 2008 with the collapse of Lehman Brothers in 2008. The subprime lending refers to the provision of loans to those borrowers who may have difficulties in repaying loans, and it arises because of excess liquidity following the East Asian crisis. 

Which one of the following sequences shows the correct precedence as per the given passage? 

(A) East Asian crisis → subprime lending crisis → banking crisis → global financial crisis. 

(B) Subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → banking crisis → East Asian crisis. 

(C) Banking crisis → subprime lending crisis → global financial crisis → East Asian crisis. 

(D) Global financial crisis → East Asian crisis → banking crisis → subprime lending crisis. 

 

Q. 7 It is quarter past three in your watch. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand 

(A) 0⁰

(B) 7.5° 

(C) 15° 

(D) 22.5° 

 

Q. 8 A circle with centre O is shown in the figure. A rectangle PQRS of maximum possible area is inscribed in the circle. If the radius of the circle is a, then the area of the shaded portion 

(A) a2-a2

(B) a2-2a2

(C) a2-2a2

(D) a2-3a2

 

Q. 9  a, b,c are real numbers. The quadratic equation ax² – bx + c = 0 has equal roots, which is ß, then 

(A) β = b/a 

(B) β² = ac 

(C) β³ = bc/(2a²) 

(D) b² ≠ 4ac 

 

Q. 10 The following figure shows the data of students enrolled in 5 years (2014 to 2018) for two schools P and Q. During this period, the ratio of the average number of the students enrolled in school P to the average of the difference of the number of students enrolled in schools P and Q is 

(A) 8:23 

(B) 23:8 

(C) 23:31 

(D) 31:23 

Agricultural Engineering 

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each. 

Q. 1 The function f(x) = x⁴ – 4x³ + 6x² – 4x + 1 has a 

(A) Maxima at x = 0 

(B) Minima at x = 0

(C) Maxima at x = 1 

(D) Minima atx= 

 

Q. 2 A linear system of equations has n unknowns. The ranks of the coefficient matrix and the augmented matrix of the linear system of equations are ri and r2, respectively. The condition for the equations to be consistent with a unique solution is

(A) r₁ ≠ r₂ < n 

(B) r₁ ≠ r₂ = n 

(C) r₁ = r₂ < n 

(D) r₁ ≠ r₂ > n 

Q. 3 General solution to the ordinary differential equation, is

 

Q. 4 In a tractor steering system, the angle made by the kingpin axis projected on the longitudinal plane of the tractor with the vertical axis is known as 

(A) Kingpin inclination 

(B) Caster angle 

(C) Camber angle 

(D) Steering angle 

 

Q. 5 A tractor operated 9-row precision planter has 16 cells on the metering plates. The speed ratio of the metering plates to the ground drive wheel is 1:2 and the rolling diameter of the ground drive wheel is 40 cm. Assuming no skid, the plant to plant spacing in rows in mm is 

(A) 39 

(B) 50 

(C) 157 

(D) 314 

 

Q. 6 A self-propelled wheel does not have 

(A) Wheel torque 

(B) Tractive power 

(C) Rolling resistance 

(D) Drawbar pull 

 

Q. 7 Match the following items between Column I and Column II with the most appropriate combinations: 

(A) P-3, 0-2, R-I, S-4 

(B)P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 

 

Q. 8 From the performance evaluation of drippers, the discharge exponent value and the coefficient of variation were obtained as 0.5 and 0.04, respectively. The drippers are categorized as 

(A) Pressure compensating drippers of excellent quality 

(B) Turbulent flow-tortuous path orifice type drippers of good quality 

(C) Turbulent flow-tortuous path orifice type drippers of marginal quality 

(D) Laminar flow drippers of excellent quality 

 

Q. 9 In a basin, rainfall is recorded by five automatic weather stations A, B, C, D and E with respective average annual rainfall of 1020, 810, 675, 940 and 780 mm. In a particular year, station A was non-operational and the remaining stations B, C, D and E recorded annual rainfall of 890, 725, 980 and 850 mm, respectively. The estimated rainfall at the station A in that particular year in mm 

(A) 758 

(B) 878 

(C) 1038 

(D) 1098 

 

Q. 10 A field crop is irrigated when the available soil water reduces to 60%. The moisture content at field capacity and wilting point are 32% and 12%, respectively. The bulk density of the soil is 1.5 g cm3. The field water application efficiency is 75% and the crop root zone depth is 50 cm. The gross depth of irrigation required to bring soil moisture content to field capacity in cm 

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 12

 

Q. 11 A cold storage takes 5 hours to bring down the temperature of 100 metric tons of potato from 35 °C to 8 °C. The specific heat capacity of potato is 3.1 kJ kg-1 °C-!. The coefficient of performance (COP) and the latent heat of vaporization of the refrigerant (R–22) at an evaporation temperature of -10 °C are 3.66 and 230 kJ kg !, respectively. Neglecting respiration heat load of potato, and assuming no power loss, the values of refrigerant flow rate and the power input to the compressor are 

(A) 121.3 kg min’ and 127.1 kW 

(B) 124.7 kg min-and 121.3 kW 

(C) 127.1 kg min and 121.3 kW 

(D) 124.7 kg min-and 127.1 kW 

 

Q. 12 Hydrothermal treatment of paddy makes 

(A) Shelling more difficult 

(B) Polishing of parboiled rice easier 

(C) Higher retention of vitamins and minerals 

(D) Kernel soft, resulting in faster cooking 

 

Q. 13 Both particle formation and drying process are carried out by 

(A) Flash dryer 

(B) Fluidized bed dryer 

(C) Pneumatic conveyor dryer 

(D) Spray dryer 

 

Q. 14 If one of the two Eigenvalues of a matrix [3/2 2/1] is 4.236, then the other Eigenvalue (round off to 3 decimal places)

is ____________

 

Q. 15 is ______________.

 

Q. 16 At the maximum power output of a solar panel, the voltage and current are 18 V and 5.56 A, respectively. If the open circuit voltage and short circuit current of the same solar panel are 21.6 V and 6.11 A, respectively, the fill factor of the panel (round off to 2 decimal places) is____________

 

Q. 17 The sound pressure level on the operator’s seat of a tractor is 80 dB. If the reference sound pressure is 2×10-5 N m2, the root mean square (RMS) sound pressure in N m2 (round off to 2 decimal places) is_______________

 

Q. 18 A towed pneumatic wheel with an unloaded radius of 330 mm covers a distance of 9.9 m in 5 revolutions without any skid. Assuming the rolling radius to be same as the static loaded radius of the wheel, the deflection of the wheel in mm (round off to 1 decimal place) is ____________

 

Q. 19 The grain to straw ratio of 500 kg feed material is 3:2. The blown grain loss, separation loss and cleaning efficiency of the thresher are 0.05%, 0.5% and 99.1%, respectively. Considering 100% threshing efficiency, grain recovery at the main grain outlet in kg (round off to 2 decimal places) is_______________

 

Q. 20 A tubewell has a discharge of 40 mph and operates daily for 20 h during irrigation season. The irrigation interval is 20 days and the depth of irrigation is 8 cm. The command area of tubewell in ha is_________________

 

Q. 21 The drainage coefficient of a watershed of 720 ha area is 1.2 cm. The design discharge of the drain in m³ s^-l is_____________. 

 

Q. 22 The following data were used for a watershed experiencing soil erosion problem: 

Rainfall Erosivity Index = 280 MJ mm ha’ h’ yearl, Soil Erodibility Index = 0.38 ton ha h MJ-‘ mm”!, Slope length = 200 m, Average slope of the land = 8%, Slope steepness factor = 0.85, Cropping management factor = 0.35, and Conservation practice factor = 0.60 If the slope length is reduced to half, percentage reduction in soil loss (round off to 2 decimal places) is__________________

 

Q. 23 Fresh tomato juice containing 6% (w/w) total solids enters in a single effect evaporator at a feed rate of 500 kg h-‘ to concentrate up to 36% (w/w) solids. In this process, the rate of water removal in kg h’ (round off to I decimal place) is___________

 

Q. 24 Heat gain is occurring through a composite cold storage wall, made of brick and polyurethane foam insulation (thickness and thermal conductivity values are given below). If the exposed surfaces of brick and insulation are at 45 °C and 10°C, respectively, the temperature at the interface of brick and insulation in °C (round off to 1 decimal place) is Material _____________________

 

Q. 25 A milk processing plant pasteurizes a batch of 12500 L whole milk to inactivate the pathogen Coxiella burnetii, (decimal reduction time of 14 seconds at 72 °C) prior to packing in 500 milliliter pouches. The initial count of the noted organism is 10 per milliliter. For this batch pasteurization process at 72 °C, resulting in no survivor in any of the packages, the process F-value in seconds is _______________

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each. 

 

Q. 26 A particle moves along the curve R = (2t3 + 4t2)i + (3t2 – 5t) j + (7t2 + 6t)k, where t is the time. The velocity component of the particle in the direction 3î + 2 j + at time 1 = 2 is 

 

Q. No. 27 Let a function f(t) = 4 cos 2t + 6 e-84. The Laplace transform of the given function f(t), L{f(t)} = F(s) = $. f(t)e-s dt is 

 

Q. 28 In an irrigation channel of uniform section, water passes through a 90° triangular weir measuring 36 cm head over the crest. After traveling certain distance in the same channel, water passes through 1.0 m long rectangular weir. There is no loss of water in between two weirs. Using Francis’ formula, the head over the crest of rectangular weir in cm is 

(A) 22.1 

(B) 18.4 

(C) 15.0 

(D) 11.8 

 

Q. 29 Two ends of a differential mercury manometer are connected at two points on a pipe carrying oil. The manometer shows difference in mercury level of 20 cm. The specific gravity of oil and mercury are 0.8 and 13.6, respectively. The density of water is 1000 kg m-3 at 4 °C and acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.81 m s2. At the same two points in pipe, the difference of pressure in N m2 is 

(A) 25.11 

(B) 251.14 

(C) 25113.60 

(D) 251136.00 

 

Q. 30 Match the following items between Column I and Column II with the most appropriate combinations: 

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-3, T-1, U-2 

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-6, S-3, T-2, U-1 

(C) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-6, T-2, U-1 

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-3, T-2, U-1 

 

Q. 31 A retaining wall of 5 m height retains cohesionless dry soil having density of 1.9 Mg m-3 and angle of internal friction of 289. The surface of the backfill soil is horizontal. The active and passive earth pressures per meter length of the wall in kN are _______and _______, respectively. [Take g = 9.81ms^-2] 

(A) 84.11, 645.38 

(B) 645.38, 84.11 

(c) 142.12, 381.63 

(D) 381.63, 142.12 

 

Q. 32 A 40 cm diameter tube well is constructed in a 10 m thick confined aquifer having hydraulic conductivity of 25 m per day. The piezometric surface is observed to be 40 m high from the impervious stratum at the radius of influence of 500 m. The drawdown in the tubewell is 30 m. If the thickness of aquifer is doubled and diameter of tubewell is reduced to half, keeping all other parameters and conditions same, the change in discharge from the well is [Take = 3.14] 

(A) Increased by 83.72% 

(B) Decreased by 83.72% 

(C) Increased by 82.28% 

(D) Decreased by 82.28% 

 

Q. 33 Choose the correct combination of process (Column I ) performed by corresponding machine component(s) (Column II) 

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 

(C) P-1. Q-4, R-3, S-2 

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 

 

Q. 34 Saturated steam at 121 °C is used to sterilize pineapple juice by direct steam injection. The initial temperature of the juice is 80 °C and after sterilization, the blend of diluted juice exits the sterilizer at 95 °C. The enthalpy values of steam and condensate water are given in Table below. Specific heat capacity of the juice is 3.9 kJ kg-1 °C-!. Assuming no energy loss to the surroundings in the process of sterilization, the ratio of juice sterilized to steam utilized is 

(A) 34.79 

(B) 37.94 

(C) 39.47 

(D) 43.97 

 

Q. 35 Hot refined oil at 120 °C enters a concentric tube-in-tube heat exchanger (HE) at the rate of 20 kg min! The oil is cooled by water entering at a temperature of 30 °C from the other end of the HE at the rate of 50 kg min!. Specific heat capacities of oil and water are 1.9 and 4.2 kJ kg-1 °C, respectively. The effectiveness of the HE may be taken as 0.7. Assuming no heat loss to the surrounding under steady-state condition, the exit temperature of water from the HE in C is 

(A) 39.9 

(B) 41.4 

(C) 57.7 

(D) 63.0 

 

Q. 36 Taking six intervals, each of 1/12 and using Simpson’s one-third rule, the value of the definite integral 02cos (round off to 3 decimal places) is ____________.

 

Q. 37 Two playing cards are drawn at random, but in succession from a pack of red cards (26 in number) without replacement. The probability of drawing a king first, followed by drawing a queen is Px10-3. The value of P (round off to 3 decimal places)

is ____________

 

Q. 38 A hydraulic sprayer when operating at a speed of 10 km h’ and working pressure of 420 kPa covers a width of 4.5 m. The power requirement and efficiency of the pump are 0.75 kW and 70%, respectively. Out of total pump discharge, 10% is bypassed for agitation purposes. The working pressure is increased to 500 kPa. Assuming no change in the width of coverage, the application rate of the sprayer in L ha-l (round off to 1 decimal place) is ______________

 

Q. 39 A tractor PTO operated rotary disc mower has 4 rotating discs and the width of the cut of each disc is 60 cm without any overlap. The specific power losses to air, stubble and gear-train friction is 2.5 kW per meter of cutting width. The specific cutting energy requirement is 2.0 kJ m2. If the machine is operated at a forward speed of 6 km h!, the PTO power requirement in kW (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________

 

Q. 40 A water pumping system is driven by a horizontal axis multi-bladed wind turbine at a power coefficient (Cp) of 0.4. The total pumping head and discharge are 20 m and 15 L sl, respectively. The mean wind velocity is 8 ms and the pump efficiency is 70%. The density of air and water are 1.2 and 1000 kg m-3, respectively. If the transmission efficiency from wind turbine to the pump is 90%, the required diameter of the wind turbine in m (round off to 2 decimal places) is _____________

 

Q. 41 A two-wheel drive tractor with a total weight of 25 kN has a wheelbase of 2.2 m and its centre of gravity lies 0.7 m ahead of the centre of rear axle. A steady horizontal pull is applied at a drawbar hitch height of 0.5 m on a concrete surface such that the weight on the front axle becomes 20% of the static weight of the tractor. The coefficient of net traction (round off to 2 decimal places) is _______________

 

Q. 42 The cooling system of a tractor fitted with diesel engine rejects 0.58 kW of heat per kW of brake power. It requires 0.16 L sl of water per kW of heat rejection from the engine to maintain a temperature drop of 6°C of water as it moves from the top of the radiator to its bottom. If the engine develops 45 kW brake power, the required water flow rate in the radiator in L s’ (round off to 2 decimal places) is ______________

 

Q. 43 A V-belt drive transmits 10 kW power at a belt velocity of 8 ms. The angle of contact on the smaller pulley is 170° and the groove angle of the pulley is 38°. The coefficient of friction between the pulley and the belt is 0.28 and the maximum permissible stress of the belt is limited to 4 MPa. Neglecting centrifugal effect of the belt, the minimum cross-sectional area of the V-belt in mm2 (round off to I decimal place) is _________

 

Q. 44 A chaff cutter is operated by an electric motor running at 1440 rpm. The speed reduction from motor to the main shaft of the cutting unit is 4:1. The feed rollers of 10 cm diameter each are driven by the main shaft through a suitable gear drive with a speed reduction of 15:1. If the chaff cutter has two knives, the theoretical length of cut chaff in mm (round off to 2 decimal places) is ______________

 

Q. 45 A tractor drawn right-hand offset disk harrow experiences longitudinal and side soil reactions in the front gang as 3.0 kN and 2.5 kN, respectively as compared to 3.5 kN and 4.0 kN in the rear gang. The longitudinal distance of centers of front and rear gangs are located at 2.5 m and 4.0 m, respectively behind the tractor hitch point. The required amount of offset of the disk harrow in m (round off to 2 decimal places) is ____________

 

Q. 46 A diesel engine when operates with biodiesel blend B20 (20% biodiesel and 80% diesel by volume) develops a brake power of 10 kW with a brake specific fuel consumption of 0.26 kg kW-‘ h’. If the density of biodiesel is 880 kg m-3 and that of diesel is 850 kg m-, the amount of biodiesel required to run the engine for 3 hours in L (round off to 2 decimal places) is _____________

 

Q. 47 Area enclosed by different contours of a pond is given in the following Table. Using trapezoidal formula, the total estimated capacity of pond in mo is_ 

 

Q. 48 At a speed of 1800 rpm, a centrifugal pump discharges 50 L s at its best point of efficiency for a total head of 25 m. The specific speed of the pump in rpm (round off to 2 decimal places) is _______________

 

Q. 49 The Curve Number (CN) of a watershed of 40 ha area under given hydrologic soil group, land use and management practices, and Antecedent Moisture Condition (AMC)-II is 80. The initial abstraction is 20% of maximum retention. For the rainfall event of 40 mm, the direct runoff in mm (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________.

 

Q. 50 The underside beam of a railway bridge, marked as permanent Bench Mark (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) of 85.168 m, is taken as reference for leveling operation. The Back Sight (BS) on the staff held vertically inverted to the BM is 3.645 m. For the Fore Sight (FS) of 1.523 m at a point in the construction site, the RL or elevation in mis 

 

Q.  51 Air-water vapour mixture at 30°C DBT and 40% RH is heated to 65 °C DBT and 30°C WBT and is used as a drying medium under the constant rate period drying of spinach leaves. Specific heat capacities of dry air and pure water vapour are 1.005 and 1.88 kJ kg-1 °C-1, respectively. Using the properties given in Table below, the value of absolute humidity in kg water vapour per kg dry air (round off to 3 decimal places) for the dryer exit air at DBT of 45 °C is _____________

 

Q. 52 Tray type paddy separator is employed to separate paddy from a binary mixture of paddy and brown rice at a feed rate of 1200 kg h’. Mass fractions of paddy in feed, separated paddy and brown rice streams are 0.2, 0.75 and 0.02, respectively. The amount of paddy in separated paddy stream in kg h’ (round off to 2 decimal places) is ________

 

Q. 53 A cylindrical silo with 3.0 m diameter and height to diameter ratio of 5:1 is filled with 60 metric ton wheat grains having bulk density of 725 kg m. The coefficient of friction between grain and silo wall is 0.42 and the ratio of lateral pressure to vertical pressure is 0.5. The vertical pressure at the bottom of silo in kPa (round off to 2 decimal places) is __________. [use 1 kgf = 9.81 N] 

 

Q. 54 A bucket elevator for lifting parboiled paddy (bulk density = 840 kg m) is operated at a linear speed of 2 m sł. The width of the bucket is 25.4 cm and its cross section is making a subtending angle of 75 at the centre of a circle having 12.7 cm radius. The space between two adjacent buckets on the elevator belt is 40 cm. If the buckets are filled to 80% of their volumetric capacity, the lifting capacity of elevator in kg min (round off to 2 decimal places) is _________________.

 

Q. 55 A contact plate freezer extracts thermal energy from a 24 mm thick slab of boneless meat containing 85% (w/w) water. Initially the slab is at the freezing point of meat, that is 272.5 K and corresponding latent heat of freezing is 335 kJ kg water. The plate temperature of the freezer is assumed steady at 247.5 K. Bulk density of the slab is 750 kg m-3. The thermal conductivity value for frozen meat is 1.5 W m-K-!. The minimum duration required for complete freezing of the slab in seconds is _________.

Answer Key – AG: Agricultural Engineering 

Q.	Answer	Marks
1	A	1
2	B	1
3	B	1
4	C	1
5	A	1
6	A	2
7	B	2
8	C	2
9	C	2
10	B	2
1	D	1
2	B	1
3	D	1
4	B	1
5	C	1
6	D	1
7	C	1
8	B	1
9	D	1
10	B	1
11	A	1
12	C	1
13	D	1
14	-0.237 to -0.235	1
15	2 to 2	1
16	0.75 to 0.77	1
17	0.19 to 0.21	1
18	14.7 to 15.1	1
19	298.30 to 298.40	1
20	20 to 20	1
21	1 to 1	1
22	29.10 to 29.50	1
23	416.0 to 418.0	1
24	41.4 to 41.6	1
25	126 to 126	1
26	C	2
27	A	2
28	C	2
29	C	2
30	D	2
31	A	2
32	A	2
33  34	B                 C	2       2

35	B	2
36	1.186 to 1.189	2
37	6.100 to 6.200	2
38	981.5 to 982.5	2
39	13.90 to 14.10	2
40	6.92 to 6.98	2
41	0.64 to 0.66	2
42	4.16 to 4.18	2
43	337.0 to 340.0	2
44	10.40 to 10.60	2
45	1.45 to 1.55	2
46	1.80 to 1.84	2
47	4860 to 4860	2
48	35.90 to 36.10	2
49	8.10 to 8.30	2
50	80 to 80	2
51	0.017 to 0.020	2
52	221.00 to 223.00	2
53	23.50 to 25.50	2
54	538.00 to 542.00	2
55	409 to 411	2