SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 31 Jun Shift 2
Q. 1 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
EVFU : TGSH : : IRJQ : _______
A. KWLX
B. PKOL
C. OLPK
D. PKLO
Q. 2 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
L x M : 12 x 13 : : U x W : _______
A. 21 x 22
B. 24 x 26
C. 9 x 11
D. 21 x 23
Q. 3 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
CFIL : XURO : : ORUX : _______
A. ROLI
B. RITO
C. LIFC
D. MJFC
Q. 4 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
CFIL : ABCD : : _______ : WXYZ
A. ZYXW
B. DCBA
C. JHPS
D. XURO
Q. 5 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
Zoology : Animal : : Psychology : _______
A. Animal
B. Human-being
C. Animal and human-being
D. Plant
Q. 6 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
Life starts : embryo : : Life ends : _______
A. Old age
B. Dead body
C. Illness
D. Death
Q. 7 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
Man : Mammal : : _______
A. Hail : Snow
B. Native : Inhabitant
C. Offspring : Family
D. Liberty : Literate
Q. 8 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
1 : 8 : : 4 : _______
A. 64
B. 512
C. 128
D. 32
Q. 9 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives
6 : 2 : : 8 : _______
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 5
Q. 10 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 81
B. 93
C. 66
D. 72
Q. 11 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Frog
B. Tortoise
C. Crab
D. Fish
Q. 12 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 186 – 69
B. 168 – 570
C. 1001 – 100
D. 5270 – 2936
Q. 13 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. (64, 216)
B. (216, 02)
C. (343, 01)
D. (125, 27)
Q. 14 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Haryana
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Q. 15 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. IVEF
B. VEENS
C. EINN
D. VEIIDD
Q. 16 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 17
B. 27
C. 37
D. 47
Q. 17 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 6 3 8 5 2
B. 5 2 6 3 8
C. 2 8 7 5 1
D. 8 5 3 6 2
Q. 18 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Number
B. Form
C. Weight
D. Size
Q. 19 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Commission
B. Team
C. Agenda
D. Board
Q. 20 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.
A. Addition
B. Subtract
C. Multiplication
D. Division
Q. 21 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
DF , GJ , KM , NQ , RT, _______
A. UW
B. YZ
C. XZ
D. UX
Q. 22 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
B I P _______ D
A. W
B. S
C. R
D. U
Q. 23 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AAC BBD CCE DDF EEG F_______
A. FG
B. GH
C. FH
D. DG
Q. 24 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
RAZ SBY TCX UDW VEV _______
A. WFU
B. FWU
C. XGX
D. ZAT
Q. 25 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
a_ba_c_aad_aa_ea
A. babbd
B. babbc
C. bacde
D. babbb
Q. 26 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
aa_aa bb_b_aa_aa bb_bb
A. bbbba
B. aabbb
C. babba
D. bbbaa
Q. 27 If DEAF is equal to 32, what will be LEAF = _______
A. 48
B. 50
C. 52
D. 56
Q. 28 In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is coded as “XVIGZRM” , “SEQUENCE” is coded as “HVJFVMXV”.
How would “REQUIRED” be coded ?
A. VJIFWTRV
B. WVJRIFVI
C. IVJFRIVW
D. FJIVWVIR
Q. 29 If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x , R denotes + , and S denotes − , then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = _______
A. 53
B. 51
C. 57
D. 95
Q. 30 Find the wrong number in the series from the given alternatives.
17 , 36 , 53 , 68 , 83 , 92
A. 53
B. 68
C. 83
D. 92
Q. 31 Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
‘CONSTITUTIONAL’
A. LOCATION
B. TUTION
C. TALENT
D. CONSULT
Q. 32 If 25 ÷ 5 = 15, 30 ÷ 6 = 20 , then 35 ÷ 7 = _______
A. 20
B. 50
C. 25
D. 75
Q. 33 If 33 + 45 = 30, 90 + 26 = 40, then 30 + 45 = _______
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 15
Q. 34 It was Shriram’s and Sreedevi’s 12th Wedding Anniversary. Shriram said “When we got married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age” . what actually are their present ages ?
A. Shriram 36, Sreedevi 30
B. Shriram 30, Sreedevi 24
C. Shriram 40, Sreedevi 34
D. Shriram 38, Sreedevi 32
Q. 35 If 64 ÷ 14 = 5, 92 ÷ 31 = 7, 26 ÷ 11 = 6, then 56 ÷ 22 = _______
A. 39
B. 7
C. 36
D. 11
Q. 36 Select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Q. 37 Select the missing number from the given responses.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Q. 38 Sherly starting from a fixed point goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 m. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point ?
A. 5 metres
B. 10 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 15 metres
Q. 39 Ram and Sham start walking in opposite directions. Ram covers 6 kms and Sham 8 kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 8 kms and Sham turns left and walks 6 kms. How far each is from the starting point ?
A. 8 kms
B. 9 kms
C. 10 kms
D. 11 kms
Q. 40 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?
Statement I : All teachers are aged.
Statement II : Some women are teachers.
Conclusion I : All aged are women.
Conclusion II : Some women are aged.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D. Both conclusion I and II follows
Q. 41 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?
Statement I : All skaters are good swimmers.
Statement II : All good swimmers are runners.
Conclusion I : Some runners are skaters.
Conclusion II : Some skaters are good swimmers.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusion I and II follows
D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Q. 42 If Alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the answer.
A. 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18
B. 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20
C. 20, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 18
D. 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20
Q. 43 If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded as ?
A. 36
B. 38
C. 24
D. 40
Q. 44 In the following list of English alphabets, one alphabet has not been used. Identify the same.
X N F A P S R W L T M D E X M G B
C X Q J L O P V R C Q J Z O H S G
O D I P T S M R A B E F G N U N E
A. I
B. K
C. J
D. V
Q. 45 How many 9’s are followed by and preceded by numbers divisible by 2 ?
8965359683496526973729413794173
498453976153195742968532957489451
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Q. 46 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 47 which answer figure will complete the question figure ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 48 A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 49 if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘T’ can be represented by 31, 76 etc. and ‘S’ can be represented by 14, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word STAR.
A. 23, 76, 33, 98
B. 14, 87, 98, 97
C. 69, 96, 03, 56
D. 99, 31, 86, 98
Q. 51 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President ?
A. The Supreme Court
B. The Election Commission
C. The Parliament
D. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
Q. 52 An apparatus used for locating submerged objects is known as :
A. radar
B. sonar
C. quasar
D. pulsar
Q. 53 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated ?
A. Bhavnagar
B. Mount Abu
C. Mearke
D. Ujjain
Q. 54 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is
A. regionalism
B. growing regional imbalances
C. people’s political consciousness
D. social inequalities
Q. 55 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by :
A. Hugo De Vries
B. Lederberg
C. Lamarck
D. Darwin
Q. 56 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State Governments ?
A. Excise duty
B. Income tax
C. Customs duty
D. None of these
Q. 57 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is
A. smoke
B. sulphur dioxide
C. carbon dioxide
D. carbon monoxide
Q. 58 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously . One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally.
A. Both X and Y reaches ground simultaneously
B. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy
C. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
D. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
Q. 59 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is :
A. Cassini
B. Discovery
C. Insat 4
D. Atlas 5
Q. 60 JDBC stands for
A. Java Database Connectivity
B. Java Developer Conductivity
C. Java Database Conductivity
D. Java Developing Conductivity
Q. 61 Choose the correct one from among the following :
A. Siksha – astrology
B. nirukta – metre
C. jyotisha – phonetics
D. vyakarana – grammar
Q. 62 The famous book” A Better India , A better world” has been written by :
A. Rajiv Sikri
B. Azim Premji
C. N. R. Narayana Murthy
D. Praveen Mahapatra
Q. 63 The world’s fastest growing water plant is
A. Water Chestnut
B. Amazon water lily
C. Water hyacinth
D. Utricularia
Q. 64 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008 – 2012 is known as :
A. Agenda 21
B. Rule of 70
C. Rio Protocol
D. Kyoto Protocol
Q. 65 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel ?
A. U.S.A
B. DUBAI
C. IRAN
D. SYRIA
Q. 66 The Newzealander’s are also known as
A. Sams
B. Kiwis
C. Arabs
D. Orientals
Q. 67 Find the odd one out :
A. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers
B. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries
C. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries
D. FCI – Financial assistance to food-grains merchants
Q. 68 Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India ?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. Law Secretary
C. Union Law Minister
D. Attorney General of India
Q. 69 ‘Milk of magnesia’ is a suspension of
A. Magnesium sulphate
B. Magnesium carbonate
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Magnesium chloride
Q. 70 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of
A. Shelter
B. Cold air
C. Food
D. Oxygen
Q. 71 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to
A. overcome fear
B. equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum
C. receive more sound
D. allow air to come out of the mouth
Q. 72 ‘EI Nino effect’ is closely associated with
A. Gulf current
B. Humboldt current
C. Equatorial counter current
D. Canaries current
Q. 73 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in two hours ?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 64
Q. 74 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the :
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance
C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai
D. None of these
Q. 75 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by :
A. Algal blooms
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. Cadmium
Q. 76 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is
A. 972
B. 940
C. 934
D. 933
Q. 77 Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is
A. Calcium sulphate
B. Hydrated calcium carbonate
C. Calcium hydrate
D. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
Q. 78 Who was the first envoy of the East India company to mee Jahangir in 1608 A.D ?
A. William Hawkins
B. William Edwards
C. Sir Thomas Roe
D. Edward Terry
Q. 79 Carbohydrates are compounds of
A. carbon and hydrogen
B. carbon , oxygen and hydrogen
C. carbon , nitrogen and hydrogen
D. carbon , nitrogen
Q. 80 The growth of bacteria is measured by
A. auxanometer
B. hemocytometer
C. spectrophotometer
D. calorimeter
Q. 81 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of
A. relation between the centre and states
B. relation between the executive and legislature
C. relation between three organs of government
D. none of the above
Q. 82 EVM stands for
A. Electric vending machine
B. Electronic vending machine
C. Electronic voting machine
D. none of the above
Q. 83 When the ice is heated from 0 deg to 10 deg C the volume of water
A. increases steadily
B. decreases steadily
C. first increases then decreases
D. first decreases then increases
Q. 84 Mammals form urea in the :
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Bladder
Q. 85 Wanchoo committee dealt with
A. agricultural prices
B. agricultural taxation
C. direct taxes
D. monopolies and trade practices
Q. 86 Which of the following are wrongly matched ?
(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23½° N latitude
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66½° N latitude
(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude
(iv) Antarctic Circle – 66½° S latitude
A. (i)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. None of these
Q. 87 The tributary of River indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is
A. Hunza
B. Sutlej
C. Beas
D. Ravi
Q. 88 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government ?
A. A written constitution
B. A rigid constitution
C. Political parties
D. An independent judiciary
Q. 89 Through which states does the river Chambal flows ?
A. UP,MP ,Rajasthan
B. Mp, Gujarat , U P
C. Rajasthan , MP, Bihar
D. Gujarat , Mp , Chattisgarh
Q. 90 The contents of memory will not be lost when the power goes of f in _____
A. ROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. All the above
Q. 91 Simple Goitre is a disease affecting :
A. Gums
B. Tear glands
C. LIver
D. Thyroid glands
Q. 92 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India :
A. after the 42ⁿᵈ amendment
B. after the 44ᵗʰ amendment
C. after the 73ʳᵈ amendment
D. from the date of implementation
Q. 93 The programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is:
A. Navodaya Vidyalaya
B. Rajiv Gandhi GRamin Vidytikaran Yojna
C. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
D. M. G. N .R.E.G programme
Q. 94 Which one of the following cricketers has been declared by the ICC as cricketers of the twentieth century ?
A. Anil kumble
B. Sachin tendulkar
C. Kapil Dev
D. Rahul Dravid
Q. 95 As per the 2011 population census , the most populous state in the country is
A. Rajasthan
B. Madhya pradesh
C. Uttar pradesh
D. West bengal
Q. 96 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?
A. Mismanagement
B. Diversion of funds
C. Technological Obsolescence
D. wrong dividend policy
Q. 97 Vikramshila university was found by
A. Chnadragupta Maurya
B. Kanishka
C. Dharampala
D. Pulakesin II
Q. 98 Acidity of rain in measured by
A. Barometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Ammeter
D. pH- meter
Q. 99 For which of the following are honey bees used ?
A. sericulture
B. Apiculture
C. Horticulture
D. Pisciculture
Q. 100 Chlorination is
A. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine
B. adding small amounts of chloride to contaminated water
C. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed
D. the formation of a salt containing chlorine
Q. 101 The average temperature of Monday , Tuesday and Wednesday was 30° C and that of Tuesday , Wednesday and Thursday was 33° C. IF the temperature on Monday was 32° C , then the temperature on Thursday was :
A. 30°C
B. 31°C
C. 32°C
D. 33°C
Q. 102 A watch is sold at a profit of 30 % .Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less , there would have been a lo of 10 % .What is the cost price in rupees ?
A. 200
B. 400
C. 800
D. 150
Q. 103 The mean of 19 observations is 24 .If the mean of the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10 observations is 24 , find the 10ᵗʰ observation .
A. 37
B. 46
C. 53
D. 65
Q. 104 R and r are the radius of 2 circle (R > r) .If the distance between the centre of the 2 circles bed , then the length of common tangent of 2 circles is
A. √d²- (R²-r²)
B. √(R²-r²)-d²
C. √R²-d²
D. √r²- d²
Q. 105 O is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC with circumradius 13 cm .Let BC= 24 cm and OD is perpendicular to Bc.then the lenght of OD is
A. 3 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 7 cm
Q. 106 IF a commission of 10 % is given on the marked price of a work , the publisher gains 20 %.If the commission is increased to 15 % the gain percent is
A. 16⅔%
B. 13⅓%
C. 15⅙%
D. 15 %
Q. 107 If (5x² – 3y²) : xy = 11 : 2, then the positive value of x/y is :
A. 5/2
B. 3/2
C. 5/3
D. 7/2
Q. 108 A boy standing in the middle of a field, observes a flying bird in the north at an angle of elevation fo 30 degree. and after 2 min, he observes the same bird in the south at an angle of elevation of 60 degree. If the bird flies all along in a straight line at a height of 50√3 then its speed in km/h is.
A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 4.5
Q. 109 By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4%. To make a gain of 44%, the number of articles to be sold for a rupee is :
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 5
Q. 110 By decreasing 15° of each angle of a triangle, the ratios of their angles are 2 : 3 : 5. The radian measure of greatest angle is :
A. π/12
B. π/24
C. 5π/24
D. 11π/24
Q. 111 AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. CD is a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of ∠APB is :
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Q. 112 The least value of 4 cosec²α = 9 sin²α is :
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 14
Q. 113 The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 2p unit. The area of the same triangle is :
A. (2 + √2) p² sq.unit
B. (2 – √2) p² sq.unit
C. (3 – √2) p² sq.unit
D. (3 – 2√2) p² sq.unit
Q. 114 If G is the centroid of ΔABC and AG = BC, then ∠BGC is :
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 60°
D. 75°
Q. 115 Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of 8% p.a simple inters and gave the same amount to Ashih as a loan at the rate of 12 % p.a .IF at the end of 12 years , he made a profit of Rs.960 in the deal , then the original amount was :
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.2000
C. Rs.3000
D. Rs. 3356
Q. 116 In a right-angled triangle ABC, ∠B is the right angle and AC = 2√5 cm. If AB – BC = 2 cm, then the value of (cos²A – cos²C) is :
A. 3/5
B. 6/5
C. 3/10
D. 2/5
Q. 117 then the value of x is :
A. 30
B. √15
C. 15
D. 6
Q. 118 If tan(x+y) tan (x-y) = 1, then the value of tan x is :
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 1/√3
D. √3
Q. 119 If ax + by = 6, bx – ay = 2 and x² + y² = 4, then the value of (a² + b²) would be :
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10
Q. 120 The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔABC and ΔPQR are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then AB is :
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
Q. 121 P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away from its centre. A secant drawn from the point P intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way thet PA = 9 cm and AB = 7 cm.
The radius of the circle is :
A. 5 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 4,5 cm
D. 5.5 cm
Q. 122 The next term of the series -1, 6, 25, 62, 123, 214, ______ is :
A. 143
B. 341
C. 343
D. 345
Q. 123 1 + 876542 × 876544 / 876543 × 876543 is equal to
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 124 The greatest no. that will divide 19, 35 and 59 to leave the same remainder in each case is :
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q. 125 If cotA + cosecA = 3 and A is an acute angle, then the value of cosA is :
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 4/5
Q. 126 The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi circle of radius x in square unit is :
A. x²
B. 2x²
C. 3x²
D. 4x²
Q. 127 If a = √3 – √2 / √3 + √2 , b = √3 + √2 / √3 – √2 , then the value of a²/b + b²/a is :
A. 970
B. 1030
C. 930
D. 900
Q. 128 If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a + 2)³ + 1/(a + 2)³ is :
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Q. 129 The simplied value of
A. 0
B. 1
C. sin A
D. cos A
Q. 130 If x = 2 + √3 , then the value of √x + 1/√x is :
A. √6
B. 2√6
C. 6
D. √3
Q. 131 A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 lt of the mixture is replaced with liquid B, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The volume of liquid A present in the jar earlier was :
A. 10 lt
B. 16 lt
C. 15 lt
D. 20 lt
Q. 132 Area of the traingle formed by the graph of the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 along with the coordinate axes is :
A. 3/2 sq. units
B. 3 sq. units
C. 6 sq. units
D. 1/2 sq. units
Q. 133 If α is a positive acute angle and 2 sinα + 15 cos²α = 7, then the value of cotα is :
A. 4/3
B. √5/2
C. 2/√5
D. 3/4
Q. 134 A three-digit number 4a3 is added to another three-digit number 984 to give the four digit number 13b7 which is divisble by 11.
Then the value of (a + b) is :
A. 12
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Q. 135 In a partnership business, A invests 1/6th of the capital for 1/6 of the total time, B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/4 of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs 19,400, B’s share is :
A. 1200
B. 1600
C. 1800
D. 2000
Q. 136 Area of the trapezium formed by x-axis; y-axis and the lines 3x + 4y =12 and 6x + 8y = 60 is :
A. 31.5 sq. unit
B. 48 sq. unit
C. 36.5 sq. unit
D. 37.5 sq. unit
Q. 137 A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the trian ( in metres) is :
A. 45
B. 54
C. 50
D. 72
Q. 138 ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar and their areas be respectively 64 cm² and 121 cm². If = 15.4 cm, BC is :
A. 11.2 cm
B. 12.1 cm
C. 11.0 cm
D. 12.3 cm
Q. 139 If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, then working at the same rate, 8 men and 16 women can reap the same field in :
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 8 days
D. 9 days
Q. 140 If a³ – b³ = 56 and a – b = 2, then the value of (a² + b²) is :
A. -12
B. 20
C. 18
D. -10
Q. 141 If tanθ – cotθ and cosθ – sinθ = b, then the value of (a² + 4 ) ( b² – 1)² is :
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 142 If a + 1/a = 1, then the value of a³ is :
A. 2
B. -1
C. 4
D. -2
Q. 143 D and E are the mid-points of AB and AC of ΔABC; BC is produced to any point P; DE; DP and EP are joined. Then,
A. ΔPED = ΔBEC
B. ΔADE = ΔBEC
C. ΔBDE = ΔBEC
D. ΔPED = 1/4ΔABC
Q. 144 The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart is (in cm) :
A. 24
B. 25
C. 15
D. 20
Q. 145 If (a² – b²) sinθ + 2 ab cosθ = a² + b², then the value of tan is
A. 1/2 (a² – b²)
B. 1/2ab (a² – b²)
C. 1/2 (a² + b²)
D. 1/2ab (a² + b²)
Q. 146 The range of BSNL simcard sold in the 4states in lakhs is:
A. 15
B. 14
C. 13
D. 12
Q. 147 In Assam, the ratio of Aircell simcard and Airtel simcard sold is :
A. 2 : 5
B. 5 : 2
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 2
Q. 148 In which state are there the largest number of owners of Airtel simcard ?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Assam
D. Tamilnadu
Q. 149 Average of simcard sold in the four states in lakhs is
A. 40.5
B. 35
C. 33.75
D. 30.25
Q. 150 Of all the simcards sold in all the four states, the number of simcards sold in Gujarat is (approx)
A. 38%
B. 35%
C. 42%
D. 40%
Q. 151 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
Indian scinetists are in no way (A) / inferior than (B) / any other scientist in the world (C) / no error
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 152 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
Belgiun chocolate is considered (A) / by many to be finer (B) / than any others in the World (C) / no error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 153 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
My grandfather owns (A) / fifty acre (B) / of wet land (C) / no error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 154 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development (A) / in which there have been (B) / a painstaking forging of rational and moral self (C) / No error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 155 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
Our knowledge of history does not come to (A) / Our help and some times we even fail to (B) / remember who invented America (C) / No error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
In questions 156 to 160 senstences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words . Choose the correct alternative out of the four
Q. 156 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.
We didn’t _______ the programme to be such a huge success .
A. accept
B. except
C. expect
D. access
Q. 157 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.
I suffer from no ___________ about my cpabilities.
A. illusions
B. doubts
C. hallucinations
D. imaginations
Q. 158 The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has ________________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.
A. launched
B. opposed
C. opened
D. pushed
Q. 159 The student’s aren’t prepared _________ the examination.
A. to give
B. to listen
C. to work
D. to take
Q. 160 We should _________ opportunities as they arise.
A. seize
B. cease
C. size
D. sneeze
Q. 161 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.
Duplicity
A. repetition
B. artlessness
C. deceit
D. cleverness
Q. 162 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.
Vanguard
A. Race driver
B. Officer
C. Flag bearer
D. Pioneer
Q. 163 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.
Fortitude
A. Similarity
B. Courage
C. Protection
D. Safety
Q. 164 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.
Inadvertent
A. Ignorant
B. Unexpected
C. Unintentional
D. Undisturbed
Q. 165 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.
Fidelity
A. Faithfulness
B. Resourcefulness
C. Strength
D. Weakness
Q. 166 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
Amicable
A. hostile
B. friendly
C. haughty
D. unpleasant
Q. 167 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
Aversion
A. avoidance
B. awareness
C. hatred
D. liking
Q. 168 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
Taciturn
A. judge
B. silent
C. talkative
D. immense
Q. 169 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
Mitigate
A. abate
B. aggravate
C. allay
D. alleviate
Q. 170 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
Artisan
A. unskilled labour
B. skilled labour
C. learned person
D. ignorant villager
Q. 171 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
At first, there was a show of resistance to the new rule issued by the Government, but the movement had no backbone and speedily collapsed.
A. support
B. justification
C. impact
D. strength
Q. 172 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
The cops were on their toes throughout the day.
A. quick
B. eager
C. alert
D. harried
Q. 173 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to smell a rat.
A. to smell a bad smell
B. to suspect a trick
C. to misunderstand
D. to see hidden meaning
Q. 174 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
He was out of spirits for a few days after his defeat.
A. uninvolved
B. gloomy
C. sober
D. lifeless
Q. 175 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
The minister assured the agitating employees that he would look into their demands
sympathetically.
A. examine
B. discuss
C. watch
D. grant
Q. 176 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).
Those plucking flowers are liable for punishable.
A. are liable for punishable
B. are liable for punishing
C. are liable to be punished
D. are viable for punishment
Q. 177 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).
When we see black smoke near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.
A. When we were seeing
B. When we saw
C. When we had seen
D. No improvement
Q. 178 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).
The prolific writer’s work is published every year.
A. exquisite
B. didactic
C. great
D. no improvement
Q. 179 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).
His lust for power brought about his downfall.
A. Intense desire
B. Desire for power
C. Desire for sex
D. No improvement
Q. 180 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).
I’II meet the raging of the skies, but not an angry father.
A. sunshine
B. rain
C. anger
D. no improvement
Q. 181 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
One indifferent to art and literature is
A. aromantic
B. critic
C. philistine
D. scholar
Q. 182 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
“Open to injury or Criticism”.
A. Invincible
B. Vulnerable
C. Naive
D. Sensitive
Q. 183 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Government by a small group of all powerful persons.
A. Oligarchy
B. Monarchy
C. democracy
D. Anarchy
Q. 184 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land.
A. peninsula
B. isthmus
C. continent
D. gulf
Q. 185 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
One who collects coins as a hobby.
A. philatelist
B. ornithologist
C. statistician
D. numismatist
Q. 186 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
A. benificial
B. beneficil
C. beneficial
D. benifical
Q. 187 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
A. uniquely
B. internaly
C. coldly
D. fortunetely
Q. 188 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
A. apprehenson
B. apprehension
C. apprihension
D. aprihension
Q. 189 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
A. affactionately
B. affectionately
C. afectionately
D. affectionnality
Q. 190 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
A. averisious
B. avericious
C. avaricious
D. avarisious
You have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer sheet. If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and a life time of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.
Q. 191 What are the Qualities required for reading a book ?
A. proper judgement
B. imagination
C. imagination , insight and judgement
D. none of the above
Q. 192 According to the author
A. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature
B. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism
C. It is possible to do something
D. It is not even easy to understand literature
Q. 193 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature ?
A. That it is very easy to understand
B. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything
C. That it is to some extent difficult to understand
D. That no contribution is necessary for literature
Q. 194 The antonym of conclude is
A. include
B. commence
C. exclude
D. end
Q. 195 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of
A. readers
B. writers
C. critics
D. publishers
You have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer sheet.
These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land , the marine – realm is a hodge – podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.
Q. 196 Seazoning is all about __________.
A. dividing watery space for specific purposes
B. drilling and sea mining
C. conserving the environment
D. banning fishing in the sea
Q. 197 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.
A. national policy of the US
B. conservationists discovery
C. marine project
D. revolutionary remedy
Q. 198 Marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.
A. coastal areas are not being looked after properly
B. seas need to be cleaned
C. there are no uniform laws governing the seas.
D. there is total anarchy
Q. 199 These days _________ that the oceans are not in good health.
A. everybody agrees
B. most of the politicians agree
C. all politicians agree
D. nobody agrees
Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means ____________.
A. a proficient speaker
B. a marine engineer
C. one who looks after others
D. one who prevents something from destruction
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | D | C | D | C | B | C | B | B | A |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | D | B | B | A | D | B | C | B | C | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | A | C | A | C | C | A | C | A | C |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | C | C | D | A | B | D | A | B | C | B |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | B | C | B | A | B | C | D | A | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | C | C | D | B | D | C |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | D | C | C | D | B | B | D | D | C | D |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | B | D | A | D | B | D | A | B | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | A | C | D | A | C | B | B | C | A | D |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | D | A | C | C | C | C | C | D | B | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | B | B | A | C | B | B | B | C | D |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | C | D | B | B | A | C | A | D | B |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | A | B | B | C | D | A | A | D | D | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | C | A | C | A | D | B |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | B | D | A | B | C | A | D | D | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | B | C | B | B | C | C | A | A | A | A |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | D | A | C | A | A | D | C | B | A |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | D | C | B | B | A | D | B | D | B | D |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | C | B | A | B | D | C | A | B | B | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | C | B | B | B | C | A | D | C | B | D |
