SSC CHSL Tier-I 08 March 2018 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier 1 2018  8 March Shift 1

Q. 1 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

She reached to (1) / station barely (2) / on time (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 2 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The goal of personal development is to learn and apply that (1) / which enable us to attain emotional well-being, understanding and (2) / effectiveness, and to share this knowledge with others. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 3 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The dog runs _______ the street.

A. of

B. with

C. to

D. about

 

Q. 4 In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

We must join hands and stop corruption which is posing _________ in the development of India.

A. tolerance

B. radiance

C. hindrance

D. relevance

 

Q. 5 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Sustenance

A. Extras

B. Injury

C. Aid

D. Blockage

 

Q. 6 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Conscientious

A. Concentrated

B. Honest

C. Scientific

D. False

 

Q. 7 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Resolute

A. Agreeable

B. Determined

C. Constant

D. Faithful

 

Q. 8 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Nefarious

A. Evil

B. Pleasing

C. Rotten

D. Infernal

 

Q. 9 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Today India looks

P: to be on course

Q: of developed nations

R: to join the league

A. PRQ

B. QRP

C. RPQ

D. PQR

 

Q. 10 A sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice. 

Lily was making a fort.

A. Lily made a fort.

B. A fort was being made by Lily.

C. A fort made by Lily.

D. A fort got made by Lily.

 

Q. 11 A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

Sita said, “Will he listen to such a man?”

A. Sita said would we listen to such a man.

B. Sita ask if he would listen to such a man.

C. Sita said would I listen to such a man.

D. Sita asked whether he would listen to such a man.

 

Q. 12 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Irresistable

B. Irresistible

C. Iresistible

D. Iresistable

 

Q. 13 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer or the given blank out of the four alternatives.

While language as the medium ________ thought may be compared to air as the medium of the sun’s influence, in other ________ it is like the skin of the body; a scurvy skin shows bad blood within, and a scurvy language shows inaccurate thought _______ a confused mind. And as a disease once fixed on the skin reacts and poisons the blood in turn as it has first been poisoned by the blood, so careless use of language _______ indulged reacts on the mind to make it permanently and increasingly ________, illogical, and inaccurate in its thinking.

As the medium _______ thought may

A. from

B. of

C. for

D. to

 

Q. 14 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer or the given blank out of the four alternatives.

While language as the medium ________ thought may be compared to air as the medium of the sun’s influence, in other ________ it is like the skin of the body; a scurvy skin shows bad blood within, and a scurvy language shows inaccurate thought _______ a confused mind. And as a disease once fixed on the skin reacts and poisons the blood in turn as it has first been poisoned by the blood, so careless use of language _______ indulged reacts on the mind to make it permanently and increasingly ________, illogical, and inaccurate in its thinking. in other _________ it is like the skin

A. respectful

B. respectfully

C. respected

D. respects

 

Q. 15 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer or the given blank out of the four alternatives.

While language as the medium ________ thought may be compared to air as the medium of the sun’s influence, in other ________ it is like the skin of the body; a scurvy skin shows bad blood within, and a scurvy language shows inaccurate thought _______ a confused mind. And as a disease once fixed on the skin reacts and poisons the blood in turn as it has first been poisoned by the blood, so careless use of language _______ indulged reacts on the mind to make it permanently and increasingly ________, illogical, and inaccurate in its thinking.

shows inaccurate thought _________ a confused mind.

A. and

B. but

C. so

D. then

 

Q. 16 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer or the given blank out of the four alternatives.

While language as the medium ________ thought may be compared to air as the medium of the sun’s influence, in other ________ it is like the skin of the body; a scurvy skin shows bad blood within, and a scurvy language shows inaccurate thought _______ a confused mind. And as a disease once fixed on the skin reacts and poisons the blood in turn as it has first been poisoned by the blood, so careless use of language _______ indulged reacts on the mind to make it permanently and increasingly ________, illogical, and inaccurate in its thinking.

use of language ___________ indulged reacts

A. of

B. then

C. if

D. at

 

Q. 17 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer or the given blank out of the four alternatives.

While language as the medium ________ thought may be compared to air as the medium of the sun’s influence, in other ________ it is like the skin of the body; a scurvy skin shows bad blood within, and a scurvy language shows inaccurate thought _______ a confused mind. And as a disease once fixed on the skin reacts and poisons the blood in turn as it has first been poisoned by the blood, so careless use of language _______ indulged reacts on the mind to make it permanently and increasingly ________, illogical, and inaccurate in its thinking.

increasingly __________, illogical, and

A. carelessness

B. carelessly

C. careless

D. care less

 

Q. 18 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Be in two minds

A. Behave smart at sometime and stupid at other

B. Unable to decide

C. Having a split personality disorder

D. Trying to do two things at the same time

 

Q. 19 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Wet behind the ears

A. To take bath

B. Lacking experience or be immature

C. To speak bad behind other’s back

D. Not able to eavesdrop despite trying hard

 

Q. 20 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words/sentence.

Annoyed or irritated and quick to take offence at petty things

A. Appease

B. Mollify

C. Huffy

D. Soothe

 

Q. 21 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words/sentence.

Decrease or fade gradually before coming to an end

A. Surge

B. Accrual

C. Peter

D. Swell

 

Q. 22 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”

Thus we (going) back to what might be termed as old values.

A. went

B. gone

C. was going

D. no improvement

 

Q. 23 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”

Many novelists from the sub-continent (has provided)scathing accounts of this period.

A. have provided

B. have provide

C. have provides

D. no improvement

 

Q. 24 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

The absence of zebra

A: to the life and person

B: of citizens in most cities

C: crossing has become a threat

A. BCA

B. BAC

C. CAB

D. ACB

 

Q. 25 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.

Select the correctly spelt word.

A. conturtion

B. contorsion

C. contortion

D. contursion

 

Q. 26 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Book : Pages : : ? : ?

A. Writer : Write

B. Pen : Write

C. Car : Tyre

D. Tyre : Round

 

Q. 27 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

553 : 551 : : 447 : ?

A. 443

B. 445

C. 441

D. 451

 

Q. 28 In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

FOM : CLJ : : ? : ?

A. RQS : POQ

B. RAX : OXU

C. JKN : MNQ

D. ACD : CEF

 

Q. 29 In the following question, select the odd word pair from the give alternatives.

A. Zinc – Metal

B. Aluminium – Metal

C. Crocodile – Water

D. Gold – Metal

 

Q. 30 In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side if (-) is related to the number of the right side of (-) with some Logic / Rule / Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic / Rule / Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A. 9 – 81

B. 8 – 64

C. 6 – 36

D. 7 – 47

 

Q. 31 In the following question, select the odd letter / letters from the given alternatives.

A. BE

B. SU

C. AD

D. OR

 

Q. 32 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Scrape

2. Scramble

3. Scream

4. Scornful

5. Scour

A. 12354

B. 35421

C. 51243

D. 45213

 

Q. 33 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

9, 13, 18, 24, 31, ?

A. 39

B. 35

C. 40

D. 37

 

Q. 34 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

XPK, VNJ, TLH, RJE, ?

A. PHB

B. OIA

C. OIB

D. PHA

 

Q. 35 In a row of swimmers, Manish is 23rd from the left end. Ramesh is 11 ranks to the left of Manish. If Ramesh is 16th from right end, then how many swimmers are there in this row?

A. 28

B. 27

C. 30

D. 29

 

Q. 36 From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word.

Resources

A. Source

B. Rise

C. Pour

D. Sour

 

Q. 37 In a certain code language, “FRAME” is written as “79635” and TOWEL is written as “21854”. How is “WORM” written in that code language?

A. 9376

B. 8193

C. 9183

D. 1593

 

Q. 38 In a certain code language, ‘-‘ represents ‘x’, ‘÷’ represents ‘+’, ‘+’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘x’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

12 – 6 + 4 x 10 ÷ 16 = ?

A. 14

B. 2

C. 24

D. 5

 

Q. 39 The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

18 – 2 ÷ 20 + 5 x 16 = 69

A. ÷ and –

B. + and x

C. + and ÷

D. – and +

 

Q. 40 If -2 @ -4 = -8, -1 @ -8 = -8 and -1 @ 6 = 6, then find the value of -1 @ 7

A. 95

B. -88

C. 92

D. 7

 

Q. 41 Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

XXXXXXYY, XXXXXYXY, XXXXYXXY, XXXYXXY, XXYXXXXY, __________________

A. YXXXXXXY

B. XXXXXXYY

C. XYXXXXXY

D. XXXXXYXY

 

Q. 42 A marketing executive goes on his fieldwork and walks 2 km North, then he turns West and walks 6 km, then he turns North and walks 7 km, and then he turns to his right and walks 6 km. Where is he now with respect to his starting position?

A. 5 km North

B. 9 km North

C. 9 km South

D. 5 km South

 

Q. 43 In the question, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have o consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All cakes are pastries.

Statement II: Some breads are cakes.

Conclusion I: No pastries are bread.

Conclusion II: Some breads are pastries.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

 

Q. 44 In the figure given, rectangle represents Chefs, circle represents Choreographers, triangle represents Divers and square represents Americans. Which set of letters represent Americans who are either Choreographers or Divers?

A. CDE

B. EGI

C. DEH

D. BCH

 

Q. 45 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

MAN, ODR, QGV, SJZ,?

A. UMD

B. VNC

C. UNC

D. VMD

 

Q. 46 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

192, 186, 180, 174, ?, 162

A. 166

B. 168

C. 164

D. 170

 

Q. 47 In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group, the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic / Rule / Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic / Rule / Relation. Select the odd one out of the given alternatives.

A. (13, 26, 39)

B. (15, 30, 45)

C. (17, 34, 51)

D. (19, 38, 59)

 

Q. 48 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 49 Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by it scolumn., for example, ‘J’ can be represented by 21, 14 etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 95, 86 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘LITE’.

A. 14, 97, 42, 78

B. 22, 77, 22, 58

C. 24, 79, 12, 56

D. 20, 43, 55, 31

 

Q. 51 Calculate the value of 0.77777 + 0.7777 + 0.777 + 0.77 + 0.7 + 0.07

A. 3.86274

B. 3.80247

C. 3.85274

D. 3.87247

 

Q. 52 A crate of egg holds one rotten egg out of every 25 egg in it. If 5 out of 8 rotten eggs are unusable and there are total 10 unusable eggs in the crate, then calculate the number of eggs in the crate.

A. 380

B. 400

C. 420

D. 440

 

Q. 53 What is the area (in square units) of the figure enclosed by the x – axis and the line x + 2y = 6?

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 12

 

Q. 54 What is the number of decimal place in a cube root of a number having 27 decimal places?

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 27

 

Q. 55 Which of the following condition is sufficient to state that the triangle ABC and DEF are similar?

A. ∠A = ∠D and ∠C = ∠F

B. ∠A > ∠D and ∠B = ∠D

C. ∠B = ∠E and ∠C < ∠F

D. All options are correct

 

Q. 56 Which of the following option is CORRECT about the figure shown?

A. OA – AR = OB + BR

B. OA + AR = OB – BR

C. OA + AR = OB + BR

D. None of these

 

Q. 57 If the edge of a cube is increased by 10%, then what will be the percentage increase in its volume?

A. 30

B. 31.3

C. 136.1

D. 33.1

 

Q. 58 Rs. 18,200 is divided among X, Y and Z in the ratio of 1/3 : 1/4 : 1/2. What is the share (in Rs.) of X?

A. Rs. 7,000

B. Rs. 4,400

C. Rs. 4,200

D. Rs. 5,600

 

Q. 59 In what ratio must a mixture of 20% milk strength be mixed with that of 60% milk strength so as to get a new mixture of 25% milk strength?

A. 7 : 1

B. 4 : 1

C. 5 : 2

D. 9 : 2

 

Q. 60 What is the average of first 39 even numbers?

A. 39

B. 40

C. 20

D. 68

 

Q. 61 A sum becomes Rs. 2,286 in 3 years and Rs. 2,448 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 8

D. 11

 

Q. 62 Selling price of a fan is Rs. 4,644. If profit percentage is 29%, then what is the cost price (in Rs.) of fan?

A. Rs. 5,900

B. Rs. 3,500

C. Rs. 3,800

D. Rs. 3,600

 

Q. 63 The marked price of a helmet is 30% more than its cost price. If the helmet is sold for Rs. 744 after a discount of Rs. 36, then what will be profit percentage?

A. 24

B. 18

C. 21

D. 27

 

Q. 64 Which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?

I. 4√3 > 3√4

II. 8√2 > 2√8

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Neither I nor II

D. Both I and II

 

Q. 65 S, T and U together can complete a work in 30 days. If the ratio of efficiency of S, T and U is 20 : 15 : 12 respectively, then in how many days U alone can complete the same work?

A. 195 / 2

B. 235 / 2

C. 225 / 2

D. 215 / 2

 

Q. 66 A train is moving at the speed of 90 km/hr. How many seconds it will take to cover a distance of 2,275 meters?

A. 96

B. 91

C. 86

D. 93

 

Q. 67 The line graph shows the number of deaths due to rail accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

In which year were the number of deaths greater than that of the previous year?

A. 2013

B. 2012

C. 2014

D. 2015

 

Q. 68 The line graph shows the number of deaths due to rail accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

What was the difference in the number of deaths between the years 2012 and 2015?

A. 6,500

B. 8,500

C. 7,500

D. 5,500

 

Q. 69 The line graph shows the number of deaths due to rail accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

The number of deaths in 2017 were greater than that in 2013 by __________.

A. 50%

B. 35%

C. 62.5%

D. 37.5%

 

Q. 70 The line graph shows the number of deaths due to rail accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

If on an average Rs 5 lakhs were paid as insurance for each death due to rail accident, then how much insurance was paid (In Rs crore) in the year 2014?

A. 225

B. 275

C. 125

D. 175

 

Q. 71 What must be the length (in cm) of the diagonal of a rectangle if its area and breadth are 120 cm² and 8 cm respectively?

A. 34

B. 17

C. 15

D. 30

 

Q. 72 If the measure of the interior angle of a rectangular polygon is 90° greater than the measure of its exterior angle, then how many sides does it have?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

 

Q. 73 Find the volume (in cm³) of a hemisphere of diameter 21 cm.

A. 2,235.5

B. 2,425.5

C. 2,040

D. 1,860

 

Q. 74 What is the value of (cosec 30° – 1/√3)?

A. (2√3 – 1) / √3

B. (√3 – 4) / 2√3

C. -1/√3

D. 2/√3

 

Q. 75 In △ XYZ measure of angle Y is 90°. If cosec X = 13 / 12, and XY = 1 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side YZ?

A. 2.6

B. 1.5

C. 2.4

D. 2

 

Q. 76 Disguised unemployment generally means __________________.

A. Large number of people remain unemployed.

B. alternative employment is NOT available.

C. marginal productivity of labour is zero.

D. productivity of workers is low.

 

Q. 77 The state financial corporations have given assistance mainly to develop ________________.

A. agriculture farms

B. cottage industries

C. medium and small-scale industries

D. large scale industries

 

Q. 78 Which of the following Pratyahara king took the title of ‘Pramana’?

A. Mihirbhoj

B. Watsraj

C. Ram Bhoj

D. Nagabhata II

 

Q. 79 Where did the telegraph line be laid first?

A. Calcutta to Agra

B. Agra to Jaipur

C. Delhi to Shimla

D. Raniganj to Calcutta

 

Q. 80 Equinox means the date when ____________.

A. duration of day and night are equal

B. day is longer than the night

C. night is longer than the day

D. it is the shortest day and the shortest night of the year

 

Q. 81 Which of the following countries does NOT has the international border with India?

A. Pakistan

B. Bangladesh

C. Bhutan

D. Sri Lanka

 

Q. 82 Where was Guru Nanak Dev (the originator of Sikh religion) born?

A. Amritsar

B. Anandpur Sahib

C. Talwandi

D. Patna Sahib

 

Q. 83 The 48th World Economic Forum (WEF) annual meeting was held in which of the following countries?

A. Australia

B. China

C. Switzerland

D. France

 

Q. 84 Who among the following is NOT one of the recipients of Major Dhyan Chand Award for the year 2017?

A. Bhupender Singh

B. Syed Shahid Hakim

C. Sumarai Tete

D. Brij Bhushan Mohanty

 

Q. 85 Which of the following counties border touches with China?

A. Uzbekistan

B. Thailand

C. Vietnam

D. South Korea

 

Q. 86 Polycot is a mixture of which among the following?

A. Polyester and Cotton

B. Polyester and Wool

C. Rayon and Cotton

D. Rayon and Wool

 

Q. 87 Which of the following is Inexhaustible Natural Resources?

A. Air

B. Minerals

C. Forests

D. Coal

 

Q. 88 According to Dr. Ambedkar which article is the most important article of Indian

constitution?

A. Article 21

B. Article 24

C. Article 32

D. Article 256

 

Q. 89 How many seats are reserved for women in Municipality?

A. 1 / 5

B. 1 / 7

C. 1 / 3

D. 1 / 4

 

Q. 90 How is the nitrogen taken up by the plants?

I. In the form of inorganic nitrates or nitrites.

II. In the form of organic compounds.

III. Directly taken up from the atmosphere.

A. Only I and II

B. Only I and III

C. Only II and III

D. All I, II and III

 

Q. 91 Which of the following relation is true regarding the amounts of genetic material contributed by the father and mother to the child?

A. Father >> Mother

B. Father << Mother

C. Father = Mother

D. No relation can be determined

 

Q. 92 In August 2017, the Government of India decided to launch a new scheme named “AGEY”. 

This new scheme is a part of the Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojna – National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY – NRLM). What does ‘E’ stand for in ‘AGEY’?

A. Enterprise

B. Energy

C. Express

D. Engineering

 

Q. 93 SARAS PT1N is how many seater passenger aircraft designed and developed by CSIR-NAL?

A. 10

B. 14

C. 20

D. 25

 

Q. 94 What was the debt-to-GDP ratio for the Financial Year 2016-17?

A. 60.40%

B. 49.40%

C. 50.40%

D. 55.40%

 

Q. 95 On 10 April 2017, Lok Sabha passed Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill, 2017. The bill seeks to give Constitutional Status to ________.

A. National Human Rights Commission

B. National Commission on Backward Class

C. National Finance Commission

D. National Commission for Women

 

Q. 96 What is the heat generated (in J) in a heating element of resistance 900 Ω when a current of 0.3 A passes through it for 10 seconds?

A. 2,700

B. 810

C. 405

D. 1,350

 

Q. 97 As the object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in __________ motion.

A. uniform

B. linear

C. non-uniform

D. equilibrium

 

Q. 98 The day-to-day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc. is called the ___________ at that place.

A. climate

B. ecology

C. environment

D. weather

 

Q. 99 Which of the statements given below are correct? 

A) In 2017, Glenn Maxwell captained the IPL team Kings XI Punjab.

B) Roger Federer won the Table Tennis 2017 ITTF World Tour Grand Finals Men’s Singles.

C) Bernhard Langer won the Golf 2017 Senior PGA Championship.

A. Only A

B. B and C

C. A and C

D. A and B

 

Q. 100 In Microsoft Word, __________ provides information about the current document.

A. Drawing Toolbar

B. View Button

C. Status Bar

D. Tab stop

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A B D C C B A B A B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D B B D A C C B B C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C A A C C C B B C D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A D B B B C A D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B B C A B D D B D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B C C D C D D A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D A D B B B C C D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B A B A C C C A A A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D C C D B A A C C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C C B B B B C D C C

SSC CHSL Tier-I 21 March 2018 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier 1 2018  21 March Shift 1 

Q. 1 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

I look up (1)/ after the blast (2)/ of light enveloped the park. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 2 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

According to the Copernican principle, the Earth does not (1)/ occupy a unique position in the Universe while (2)/ implies life on other planets can be a possibility. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 3 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The ______ age movies are quite popular.

A. come of

B. long

C. coming of

D. Over

 

Q. 4 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The love which is based on physical beauty is not ______.

A. imminent

B. deponent

C. remanent

D. Permanent

 

Q. 5 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Mollify

A. pacify

B. agitate

C. provoke

D. Worry

 

Q. 6 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 

Importune 

A. appeal

B. important

C. imply

D. Purchase

 

Q. 7 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Rotund

A. fat

B. broad

C. dumpy

D. slim

 

Q. 8 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Flamboyant 

A. glamorous

B. modest

C. colorful

D. sporty 

 

Q. 9 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Bringing equity

P : for the rural population should be

Q : a priority for the National Health Mission

R : in access to the doctors and medicines

A. QRP

B. RQP

C. PRQ

D. RPQ

 

Q. 10 A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

The cat caught a rat.

A. A rat has been caught by the cat.

B. A rat was caught by the cat.

C. A rat is caught by the cat.

D. A rat had been caught by the cat.

 

Q. 11 A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. The wolf cried out to the hound, “A thought has just come into my head.”

A. The wolf cried out that a thought had just came into his head.

B. The wolf cried out to the hound that a thought had just come into his head.

C. The wolf cried out about a thought into his head to the hound.

D. The wolf told hound about a thought into his head.

 

Q. 12 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Caetegory

B. Category

C. Cateigory

D. Categoury

 

Q. 13 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. Let us examine the facts in the case more _________. First of all, language is no more ________a medium; it is like air to the creatures of the land or water to fishes. If it is perfectly clear and pure, we do not notice it any more than we notice pure air when the sun is shining a clear sky, or the taste of pure cool water when we drink a glass ________a hot day. Unless the sun is shining, there is no brightness; unless the water is cool, there is _______refreshment.

in the case more ____________. First of all

A. closely

B. close

C. closed

D. closeness

 

Q. 14 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Let us examine the facts in the case more _________. First of all, language is no more _____a medium; it is like air to the creatures of the land or water to fishes. If it is perfectly clear and pure, we do not notice it any more than we notice pure air when the sun is shining a clear sky, or the taste of pure cool water when we drink a glass ______a hot day. Unless the sun is shining, there is no brightness; unless the water is cool, there is refreshment.

no more ____________ a medium;

A. then

B. so

C. such

D. than

 

Q. 15 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Let us examine the facts in the case more _______. First of all, language is no more _____a medium; it is like air to the creatures of the land or water to fishes. If it is perfectly clear and pure, we do not notice it any more than we notice pure air when the sun is shining _______a clear sky, or the taste of pure cool water when we drink a glass a hot day. Unless the sun is shining, there is no brightness; unless the water is cool, there is _____________refreshment.

sun is shining ________ a clear sky,

A. inside

B. in

C. into

D. inner

 

Q. 16 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Let us examine the facts in the case more __________. First of all, language is no more ___________a medium; it is like air to the creatures of the land or water to fishes. If it is

perfectly clear and pure, we do not notice it any more than we notice pure air when the Sun is shining a clear sky, or the taste of pure cool water when we drink a glass __________a hot day. Unless the sun is shining, there is no brightness; unless the water is cool, there is _______refreshment.

when we drink a glass __________ a hot day.

A. on

B. onto

C. of

D. for

 

Q. 17 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Let us examine the facts in the case more ___________. First of all, language is no more ______________a medium; it is like air to the creatures of the land or water to fishes. If it is perfectly clear and pure, we do not notice it any more than we notice pure air when the sun is shining a clear sky, or the taste of pure cool water when we drink a glass ______________a hot day. Unless the sun is shining, there is no brightness; unless the water is cool, there is _______refreshment.

there is __________ refreshment.

A. not

B. no

C. none

D. never

 

Q. 18 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Don’t put all your eggs in one basket

A. It is wise to have many baskets before you start collecting eggs.

B. The strength of the safe has to be in proportion to the value of goods it has to protect.

C. Have a fool proof plan before venturing on a risky mission.

D. Don’t risk everything on the success of one venture.

 

Q. 19 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Let your hair down

A. Behave uninhibitedly.

B. Accept your deeds.

C. Remove the mask.

D. Feel fresh and rejuvenated.

 

Q. 20 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Senseless talk or writing Options:

A. Astute

B. Balderdash

C. Sagacious

D. Prudent

 

Q. 21 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Made or done in the traditional or original way

A. Authentic

B. Effigy

C. Archetype

D. Forge

 

Q. 22 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

At one time, the lock industry here flourished and locks (was exported) on a major scale.

A. is exported

B. were export

C. were exported

D. no improvement

 

Q. 23 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

The bliss of (oversleeping) cuddled up under a warm and cosy blanket is just other-worldly.

A. oversleep

B. oversleeps

C. overslept

D. no improvement

 

Q. 24 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

Students who

A : intricacies of learning it

B : subject know the

C : study logic as a

A. CAB

B. BCA

C. BAC

D. CBA

 

Q. 25 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.

Select the correctly spelt word.

A. scintillaters

B. scintilators

C. scintillators

D. scintilaters

 

Q. 26 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Rabbit : Animal : : ? : ?

A. sun:moon

B. pentagon:figure

C. lion:bird

D. animal:cow

 

Q. 27 In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives.

63 : 36 : : ? : ?

A. 94:49

B. 35:54

C. 47:72

D. 73:39

 

Q. 28 In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives

ACD : ZXW : : PMN : ?

A. LMN

B. MPN

C. KOP

D. KNM

 

Q. 29 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. rhombus

B. cylinder

C. cone

D. sphere

 

Q. 30 In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number on the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given

options.

A. 14-18

B. 42-46

C. 22-28

D. 24-28

 

Q. 31 In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A. UQMI

B. SOKG

C. MIEB

D. PLHD

 

Q. 32 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Exception

2. Exceptional

3. Exchanging

4. Exchanged

5. Excess

A. 12543

B. 21453

C. 42531

D. 32154

 

Q. 33 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

11, 13, 17, 19, 23, ?

A. 29

B. 27

C. 31

D. 37

 

Q. 34 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BEG, DGI, FIK, HKM, ?

A. JNP

B. NMO

C. JMO

D. KLO

 

Q. 35 Saurav, Mohit, Mukesh, Sumit and Bhim are arranged in descending order of their height from top to bottom. Saurav is at third place. Bhim is between Sumit and Saurav while Sumit is not at the top end. Who is at second place from the top?

A. mohit

B. mukesh

C. bhim

D. can’t be determined

 

Q. 36 From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word.

Contemptuous

A. con

B. tom

C. pretty

D. post

 

Q. 37 In a certain code language, “DRAPE” is written as “IWFUJ”. How is “RIGID” written in thatcode language?

A. CPLPK

B. TVCVB

C. WNLNI

D. GTATK

 

Q. 38 In a certain code language, ‘x’ represents ‘+’, ‘÷’ represents ‘x’, ‘-‘ represents ‘÷’ and ‘+’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

4 x 18 ÷ 5 – 10 + 8 = ?

A. 35

B. 22

C. 5

D. 42

 

Q. 39 The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

12 – 16 x 25 ÷ 80 + 10 = 7

A. / and *

B. – and +

C. * and –

D. / and –

 

Q. 40 If 6α₁= 70, 2α₃ = 50 and 4α₅ = 90, then find the value of 1α₄ = ?

A. 50

B. 30

C. 10

D. 60

 

Q. 41 Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

BAAAAAAB, ABAAAAAB, AABAAAAB, AAABAAAB, AAAABAAB,

A. AAAAABAB

B. AAAAAABB

C. BAAAAAAB

D. ABAAAAAB

 

Q. 42 A shopper in a mart loads his trolley and walks 30 m through an alley which is going South, then he turns to his left and walks 10 m, then he turns North and walks another 10 m, then he turns West and walks 45 m and then he turns North and walks 20 m. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

A. 35km west

B. 55km west

C. 35km east

D. 55km east

 

Q. 43 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All watches are ornaments

Statement II: All clocks are watches

Conclusion I: All ornaments are clocks

Conclusion II: All clocks are ornaments

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

 

Q. 44 In the following figure, rectangle represented Physicians, circle represents racers, triangle represents writers and square represents mothers. Which set of letters represents

mothers who are not racers? 

A. FGH

B. ECA

C. DFG

D. DGFI

 

Q. 45 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series

GLN, HNQ, IPT, JRW, ?

A. KTZ

B. KUY

C. LTY

D. LUZ

 

Q. 46 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

87, 62, 42, 27, 17, ?

A. 7

B. 12

C. 8

D. 10

 

Q. 47 In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives

A. (1,29,43)

B. (11,23,34)

C. (15,31,46)

D. (21,42,64)

 

Q. 48 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 49 Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘C’ can be represented by 10,34 etc and ‘Q’ can be represented by 85,96 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘GOES’

A. 11,75,12,77

B. 32,76,44,95

C. 13,78,41,66

D. 33,88,21,89

 

Q. 51 FInd the remainder in the expression in the figure

A. 0

B. 3

C. 5

D. 6

 

Q. 52 Calculate the value of c according to the figure

A. 283

B. 276

C. 273

D. 374

 

Q. 53 How many solutions does a pair of linear equations will have, if the equations are 4x+5y- 6=0 and 16x+20y+20=0?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. infinite

 

Q. 54 Determine the value of m for which value in figure is a perfect square

A. 1/24

B. 1/12

C. 12

D. 24

 

Q. 55 Consider the circle as shown in the figure and choose the correct option for this case

A. QC//PB

B. QC is never parallel to PB

C. QC=(1/2)PB

D. QC//PB,QC=(1/2)PB

 

Q. 56 The angle subtended by the chord of length 10 cm is 120° at the centre. Calculate the distance of the chord (in cm) from the centre.

A. 5/√3

B. 6/√3

C. 4/√3

D. 5/2√3

 

Q. 57 If P : Q = 9 : 7, then what is the value of (P – Q) : (P + Q)?

A. 1:2

B. 1:8

C. 1:4

D. 2:13

 

Q. 58 How much quantity (in kg) of wheat costing Rs 84 per kg must be mixed with 81 kg of wheat costing Rs 60 per kg so that on selling the mixture at Rs 75.9 per kg, there is a gain of 15%?

A. 27

B. 20.5

C. 22.75

D. 24

 

Q. 59 The average height of A, B and C is 148 cm. If the average height of A and B is 136 cm and that of B and C is 125 cm, then what is the height (in cm) of B?

A. 56

B. 78

C. 112

D. 130

 

Q. 60 Some part of Rs 17500 was lent at the rate of 24% per annum simple interest and the remaining part at the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. The total interest received after 5 years is Rs 13300. What is the ratio of money lent at the rate of 24% and 10%?

A. 12:13

B. 3:4

C. 3:2

D. 13:22

 

Q. 61 If 60% of total articles are sold at a loss of 50% and remaining articles are sold at a profit of 50%, then what will be the overall loss percentage?

A. 20

B. 15

C. 25

D. 10

 

Q. 62 If three successive discounts of 20%, 30% and 40% are given, then what will be the net discount (in percentage)?

A. 80

B. 87.6

C. 90

D. 66.4

 

Q. 63 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Neither I nor II

D. Both I and II

 

Q. 64 R is 80% more efficient than S. If S alone can make a book in 90 days, then R alone can make the book in how many days?

A. 65

B. 60

C. 50

D. 70

 

Q. 65 Diameter of a car wheel is 21 cm. A car driver moving at the speed of 66 km/hr takes 36 seconds to reach a destination. How many revolutions will the wheel make during the journey?

A. 1800

B. 1500

C. 1200

D. 1000

 

Q. 66 What is the value of 88% of 1125 + 20% of 425?

A. 1025

B. 1125.2

C. 1075

D. 1055

 

Q. 67 The HR department of a company prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows number of employees in all the departments that the company has. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

The most number of employees belong to which department?

A. E

B. F

C. G

D. A

 

Q. 68 The HR department of a company prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows number of employees in all the departments that the company has. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

What is the total number of employees of the company?

A. 400

B. 600

C. 480

D. 540

 

Q. 69 The HR department of a company prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows number of employees in all the departments that the company has. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

The measure of the central angle of the sector representing department B is ____________ degrees.

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 70 The HR department of a company prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows

number of employees in all the departments that the company has. Study the diagram and

answer the following questions.

If the average monthly salary of the employees of this company is Rs 20,000 then what is

the total of the salaries (in Rs lakhs) paid to all the employees of this company?

A. 112

B. 120

C. 124

D. 108

 

Q. 71 The area of an equilateral triangle is 49√3 cm² Find its side (in cm).

A. 7

B. 14

C. 28

D. 42

 

Q. 72 What is the measure of an exterior angle of a regular polygon of 6 sides?

A. 45⁰B. 60⁰C. 40⁰D. 36⁰Q. 73

The total surface area of a hemisphere is 1039.5 cm² Find its diameter (in cm).

A. 21

B. 10.5

C. 42

D. 31.5

 

Q. 74 ΔDEF is right angled at E. If m∠F = 30⁰, then find the value of (cosD – 1/√2).

A. -1/2

B. (√6-1)/√3

C. (√2-2)/2√2

D. √3-2

 

Q. 75 In ΔQR measure of angle Q is 90⁰ If tanP = 24/7, and PQ = 14cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side QR?

A. 50

B. 20

C. 26

D. 48

 

Q. 76 The agricultural price support program is an example of ___________

A. a price ceiling

B. a price floor

C. equilibrium pricing

D. No option is correct

 

Q. 77 Which was the first modern industry to develop in India?

A. Iron and Steel Industry

B. Cement Industry

C. Cottage Industry

D. Engineering Industry

 

Q. 78 Which of the following lake lies on the Equator in Africa continent?

A. tanganyika

B. victoria

C. nyasa lake

D. lake kariba

 

Q. 79 Jog Falls is situated on which river?

A. shravati

B. cauvery

C. narmada

D. chambal

 

Q. 80 Faizi lived in the court of ____________

A. humayun

B. dara shikoh

C. bahadur shah zafar

D. akbar

 

Q. 81 Where did the leader of the Individual Satyagraha movement, Acharya Vinoba Bhave started this movement?

A. nashik

B. poona

C. pavnar

D. nagpur

 

Q. 82 The well-known dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in which Upanishada?

A. Chhandogyopanishad

B. Mundkopanishad

C. Kathopanishad

D. Kenopanishad

 

Q. 83 Which country, in January 2018 broke India’s monopoly in providing Internet access to Nepal by becoming country’s second Internet service provider?

A. south korea

B. china

C. japan

D. indonesia

 

Q. 84 Which among the following is NOT a recipient of Sangeet Natak Akamemi’s fellowships (Akademi Ratna)-2018?

A. gajendra chauhan

B. ram gopal bajaj

C. sunil kothari

D. arvind parikh

 

Q. 85 When was the “Boxer Rebellion” happened in China?

p

A. 1895

B. 1900

C. 1905

D. 1909

 

Q. 86 What is formed when helium atom loses one electron?

A. proton

B. positive helium ion

C. negative helium ion

D. alpha particle

 

Q. 87 Apart from proposing atomic thoery, what did John Dalton researched on?

A. plants

B. colour blindness

C. pencillin

D. plastic

 

Q. 88 Which among the following is/are the unitary feature(s) of Indian Constitution?

I. Single Constitution for State and Centre

II. Single Citizenship

III. Integrated Judiciary

A. only I

B. only II

C. both I and II

D. all I,II,III

 

Q. 89 Article 360 of Indian Constitution, empowers whom to proclaim a Financial Emergency?

A. The Finance Minister of India

B. The Governor of Reserve Bank of India

C. The President of India

D. Defence Minister of India

 

Q. 90 Match the following

 

A. I – 2, II – 3, III – 1

B. I – 1, II – 3, III – 2

C. I – 2, II – 1, III – 3

D. I – 3, II – 2, III – 1

 

Q. 91 What is the basis of classifying various plant tissues as meristematic tissue and permanent tissue?

A. size

B. dividing capacity

C. location

D. no option is correct

 

Q. 92 In December 2017, who launched project ‘DARPAN’ (Digital Advancement of Rural Post Office for a New India)?

A. jayant sinha

B. manoj sinha

C. ravi shankar prasad

D. prakash javadekar

 

Q. 93 Botanical Survey of India has discovered a new species of parasitic flowering plant Gleadovia Konyakianorum named in the honour of which community?

A. toda

B. caddo

C. nagas

D. tobu

 

Q. 94 In October 2017, State Bank of India announced to set up Country’s largest innovation centre in _______.

A. new delhi

B. banglore

C. new mumbai

D. hyderabad

 

Q. 95 The Union Home Ministry will set up an Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (14C), an apex coordination centre at which place to deal with cybercrimes?

Single Option Correct +2 -0.5

A. hyderabad

B. pune

C. bengaluru

D. new delhi

 

Q. 96 A body of mass 6 kg accelerates from 6 m/s to 18 m/s in 3 seconds due to the application of a force on it. Calculate the magnitude of this force (in N).

A. 48

B. 60

C. 24

D. 96

 

Q. 97 We obtain average ________by dividing the total energy consumed by the total time taken.

A. force

B. power

C. torque

D. momentum

 

Q. 98 Water covers __________% of the Earth’s surface.

A. 95

B. 75

C. 55

D. 35

 

Q. 99 Which of the statements given below are correct?

A) In 2017, Lewis Hamilton raced in Formula One for Mercedes.

B) In 2018 IPL auctions, Mumbai Indians retained Hardik Pandya.

C) Chen Meng won the Table Tennis 2017 ITTF World Tour Grand Finals Women’s Singles.

A. only A

B. only B

C. both B and C

D. A,B,C

 

Q. 100 ________ among the following is not an operating system.

A. Mozilla Firefox

B. microsoft windows

C. linux

D. apple macos  

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A B C D A A D B D B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B B A D B A B D A B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A C D D C B A D A C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C A A C D C C C B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A A B C A B D B D C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D C A B A A B A B D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D D B C D C A D B D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B B A C D B A B A D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C B A B B B D C D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B C D D C B B D A

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

 SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 2 

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Player : Team : : Minister : ?

A. Army

B. Troupe

C. Council

D. Crowd

 

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TRACK : MECTV : : POND : ?

A. EOPQ

B. FPQR

C. GOQQ

D. HPPR

 

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

850 : 863 : : 430 : ?

A. 437

B. 442

C. 435

D. 451

 

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cotton

B. Mustard

C. Peas

D. Sesame

 

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. CXA

B. MNQ

C. PKN

D. HSU

 

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 64 – 576

B. 17 – 343

C. 27 – 196

D. 32 – 36

 

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Yangtze

2. Yakking

3. Yakuzas

4. Yobbery

5. Yobbish

A. 24531

B. 23145

C. 54231

D. 54321

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AK12, GV29, LF18, PO?

A. 34

B. 31

C. 42

D. 40

 

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 26, 33, 42, 53, ?

A. 56

B. 63

C. 66

D. 69

 

Q. 10 Ratio of present ages of Pankaj and Punit is 5 : 6 and the sum of their ages is 33 years. What will be the difference (in years) of their ages?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 11 Kritika walks 40 metres towards south. Then turning to her right she rides 30 metres. Then, turning to her left, she rides 50 metres. Again, she turns to her left and rides 30 metres. How far (in metres) is she from her initial position?

A. 65

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

 

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONSOLIDATE

A. CONSOLE

B. ONSET

C. SALTY

D. SOLID

 

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “STUBBORN” is written as “VUTAAOSP”. How is “SHIPPING” written in that code language?

A. TIJOOHPJ

B. QFOLLSLO

C. TIJNNOJH

D. JITOOHOJ

 

Q. 14 Correct the following equation by interchanging the two signs and two numbers.

7 x 6 + 5 – 4 = 33

A. –, x an d 4, 5

B. –, x an d 4, 5

C. +, – and 5 , 6

D. x, – and 5, 6

 

Q. 15 If 3 @ 3 * 3 = 3 and 48 @ 4 * 3 = 36, then 91 @ 13 * 2 = ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 10

D. 14

 

Q. 16 In the following question select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark(?) from the given alternatives

A. 11

B. 16

C. 21

D. 31

 

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 11

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

 

Q. 18 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. No purse is cloth.

II. All purses are leather.

Conclusions:

I. No leather is cloth.

II. Some leather are cloth.

III. Some leather are purses.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (III ) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) and conclusion (II) follow.

D. All conclusions follow.

 

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘1’?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Brother, Husband, Men

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which of the following figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘D’ can be represented first by 68, 95, etc, and ‘P’ can be represented by 75, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “BAND”

A. 23, 76, 22, 77

B. 11, 67, 40, 95

C. 00, 55, 03, 59

D. 44, 89, 30, 87

 

Q. 26 In which of the following case, law of demand fails?

A. Giffen goods

B. Normal goods

C. Inferior goods

D. Both Giffen and Inferior goods

 

Q. 27 Match the following

A. 1-b, 2- c, 3-a

B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

 

Q. 28 How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Seven

D. Eight

 

Q. 29 Which of the following Article/Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?

A. Article 19

B. Article 20 and 21

C. Article 22 and 23

D. Article 24 and 25

 

Q. 30 Who was the first Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Canning

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Wavell

D. Lord Mountbatten

 

Q. 31 Who wrote ‘Nyaya Sutra’?

A. Vyasa

B. Gautam

C. Kapila

D. Charaka

 

Q. 32 Earth’s Deepest point in water is Mariana trench. It is located in which of the following oceans?

A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Arctic Ocean

C. Indian Ocean

D. Pacific Ocean

 

Q. 33 Masai is a tribe of which of the following country?

A. Kenya

B. Germany

C. Australia

D. India

 

Q. 34 With which of the following body organ is ‘pace-maker’ associated?

A. Liver

B. Brain

C. Heart

D. Lungs

 

Q. 35 Haemoglobin is an important component of _______.

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells

C. plasma

D. All options are correct

 

Q. 36 Anaemia is caused because of deficiency of which of the following?

A. Cobalt

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

 

Q. 37 What is the minimum distance (in metres) required to hear an echo?

A. 10

B. 13

C. 17

D. 21

 

Q. 38 Why does a black board appears black in colour?

A. It reflects black colour

B. It absorbs black colour

C. It reflects all colours

D. It absorbs all the colours

 

Q. 39 Which one among the following is a main system board of a computer?

A. CPU

B. Keyboard

C. Microchip

D. Mother board

 

Q. 40 Which among the following metal is used for galvanization?

A. Zinc

B. Copper

C. Iron

D. Silver

 

Q. 41 What is dry ice?

A. Solid Carbon dioxide

B. Solid Nitrogen dioxide

C. Solid Sulphur dioxide

D. Solid Water

 

Q. 42 Which of the following represents the most complex trophic level?

A. Community

B. Population

C. Ecosystem

D. Species

 

Q. 43 Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh launched a medical scheme for APL families. What is the name of that scheme?

A. Haritha Kalyanam

B. Arogya Raksha

C. Kalyanamsurvay

D. Swasthya Raksha

 

Q. 44 Who discovered X-rays?

A. W. C. Roentgen

B. Albert Einstein

C. Samuel Cohen

D. Edward Taylor

 

Q. 45 How many players are there in a water polo team?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

 

Q. 46 ‘Lavani’ is a dance form of which state in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 47 Who is being awarded with Asian Award 2016 as the Chivas Social entrepreneur of the year?

A. Vikram Patel

B. Shri Prakash Lohia

C. Rami Ranger

D. Anil Agarwal

 

Q. 48 The book “Azad Bachpan ki Aur” is written by which author?

A. Kailash Satyarthi

B. Radhakant Bharti

C. Dipak Misra

D. Subhash Chandra

 

Q. 49 India by the Nile’, was a cultural festival celebrated by India and _____.

A. Sudan

B. Kampala

C. Egypt

D. Kenya

 

Q. 50 Sheikh Hasina Wazed is the Prime Minister of which neighbouring country of India?

A. Pakistan

B. Bangladesh

C. Afghanistan

D. Nepal

 

Q. 51 What is the value of [12/(√5 + √3)] + [18/(√5 – √3)]?

A. 15(√5 – √3)

B. 3(5√5 + √3)

C. 15(√5 + √3)

D. 3(3√5 + √3)

 

Q. 52 S, T and U can complete a work in 40, 48 and 60 days respectively. They received Rs 10800 to complete the work. They begin the work together but T left 2 days before the completion of the work and U left 5 days before the completion of the work. S has completed the remaining work alone. What is the share of S(in Rs) from total money? 

A. 4000

B. 4320

C. 4500

D. 4860

 

Q. 53 A farmer’s land is in the shape of a trapezium which has its parallel sides measuring 2.56 yards and 3.44 yards and the distance between the parallel sides in 1.44 yards. The cost of ploughing the land is Rs 1800 per square yard. What amount will (in Rs) have to be spent in order to plough the entire land?

A. 3672

B. 6732

C. 7776

D. 8214

 

Q. 54 If after giving a discount of 18%, a book is sold for Rs 1599, then what will be the marked price (in Rs) of the book?

A. 1800

B. 1880

C. 1950

D. 2000

 

Q. 55 A man has 3 sons, 2 daughters and a wife. They divided a sum of Rs 19000 among themselves such that each daughter got 1.5 times the amount received by each son and his wife received 600 less than each son. What is the total amount (in Rs) received by the 3 sons together?

A. 2800

B. 3600

C. 5600

D. 8400

 

Q. 56 The average of 3 consecutive even numbers is A. If next 5 even numbers are added, then what is the average of these 8 numbers?

A. A + 3

B. A + 4

C. A + 5

D. A + 7

 

Q. 57 While selling an article for Rs 18450, a person suffered a loss of 50%. At what price he should have sold the article (in Rs) to earn a profit of 50%?

A. 13837

B. 52000

C. 55350

D. 56775

 

Q. 58 The present population of a town is 26010. It increases annually at the rate of 2%. What was the population of town 2 years ago?

A. 25000

B. 25100

C. 25200

D. 25500

 

Q. 59 A train of length 100 m crosses another train of length 150 m, running on a parallel track in the opposite direction in 9 seconds. If the speed of train having length 150 m is 40 km/hr, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of the other train?

A. 30

B. 48

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 60 What is the compound interest (in Rs) for 1 year on a sum of Rs 20000 at the rate of 40% per annum compounding half yearly?

A. 8000

B. 8650

C. 8750

D. 8800

 

Q. 61 What is the difference of the cube and square of the common root of (x2 – 8x + 15) = 0 and (y2 + 2y – 35) = 0?

A. 76

B. 100

C. 294

D. 318

 

Q. 62 If (x – 1/3)² +(y – 4)² = 0, then what is the value of y – x/y + x?

A. 11/13

B. 13/11

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

 

Q. 63 What is the difference of the factors of the expression x² + (1/x²) – 6?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

 

Q. 64 If x +(1/x) = √13, then what is the value of x⁵ -(1/x⁵)?

A. 169

B. 169√3

C. 393

D. 507

 

Q. 65 If D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a triangle ABC such that DE||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = (x – 3) cm, AE = (x + 3) cm and EC = (x – 2) cm, then what is the value (in cm) of x?

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5

 

Q. 66 If medians of a triangle have lengths 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the triangle?

A. 24√6

B. 244

C. 288

D. 360

 

Q. 67 Two smaller circles touch a large circle internally and pass through the center O of the larger circle. If the diameter of the bigger circle is 28 cm, then what is the area of the bigger circle which is not enclosed by the two smaller circles (in cm2)?

A. 154

B. 256

C. 308

D. 616

 

Q. 68 In the given figure, O is the in-center of triangle ABC. If AO/OE = 5/4 and CO/OD = 3/2, then what is the value of BO/OF?

A. 19/4

B. 38/17

C. 38/7

D. 19/7

 

Q. 69 What is the simplified value of tan (θ/2) + cot (θ/2)?

A. 2 cosec θ

B. 2 sec θ

C. sin θ

D. cosec θ

 

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of [(sec³x – tan³x)/(secx – tanx)] – 2tan²x – secxtanx?

A. 0

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

 

Q. 71 If sin⁸θ + cos⁸θ – 1 = 0, then what is the value of cos²θsin²θ(If θ ≠ 0 or n/2)?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The table given below represents the marks obtained by 5 students in 4 different

subjects. Each student was given marks out of 100 in each of the given subjects.

 

Q. 72 In which subject the total marks of all the students is highest?

A. English

B. Mathematics

C. Science

D. Hindi

 

Q. 73 Which student scored the maximum marks in all the 4 subjects taken together?

A. Student 1

B. Student 2

C. Student 3

D. Student 5

 

Q. 74 A new subject is added in which all the students have scored 100 marks. If total marks are calculated as sum of the marks of highest 4 subjects, then who will be second in terms of total marks?

A. Student 3

B. Student 2

C. Student 5

D. Student 4

 

Q. 75 The average marks per student in English is what percent of the average marks per student in Hindi?

A. 91.48

B. 97.12

C. 92.71

D. 98.18

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

My sister-in-laws (1)/ who lives in Kolkata (2)/ have come to stay with us. (3)/ No Error (4) 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

These kind of clothes (1)/ are rather expensive (2)/ for me to buy. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The employee did not _____ to the argument of the manager.

A. precede

B. exceed

C. concede

D. recede

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

He was sworn _____ as the Prime Minister of our country.

A. in

B. off

C. about

D. out

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Cantankerous

A. Humorous

B. Quarrelsome

C. Remorseful

D. Dullness

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Connoisseur

A. Decisive

B. Uncivilised

C. Discerning Judge

D. Narrow-minded

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Nugatory

A. Delusive

B. Futile

C. Unreal

D. Productive

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Naive

A. Artful

B. Candid

C. Credulous

D. Sincere

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

A. Ill-tempered

B. Soft-spoken

C. Enthusiastic

D. Depressed

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

By fits and starts

A. Occasionally

B. Totally

C. Finally

D. Irregularly

 

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

I had (not only helped her by) giving hints but also with providing him links.

A. helped not only to her by.

B. helped her not only by

C. not only helped her

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

We (has finished) our lunch half an hour ago.

A. finished

B. will have finished

C. had finished

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

The act of speaking irreverently about sacred things. 

A. Atheist

B. Blasphemy

C. Bellicose

D. Deflection

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who talks too much of himself.

A. Egoist

B. Elite

C. Emetic

D. Egotist

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Entrepreneur

B. Remuneration

C. Apprentice

D. Soveriegnity

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Tranquillity

B. Perseverence

C. Resplendence

D. Accommodation

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: In other countries which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is among them also

because they do “haves”.

Q: In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “havenots”.

R: Frustration is a global cancer.

S: It has spared no country.

A. RSQP

B. SQRP

C. PSRQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: The real purpose underlying this maxim lies in its utility in the worldly sense.

Q: He has within him a spirit which is ever exhorting him to cut down his needs and learn to be happy with what he has.

R: Man is something much greater than an intelligent being using his intellect to make newer inventions from time to time.

S: It tells us to be up and doing, not to be passive in our attitude to life.

A. PRQS

B. QPSR

C. RQPS

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Why do you waste money?

A. Why is money been wasted by you?

B. Why has money been wasted by you ?

C. Why is money wasted by you?

D. Why is money being wasted by you?

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The doctor said, “well, what can I do for you?”

A. The doctor wanted to know what he could do for her.

B. The doctor said that he couldn’t do anything for her.

C. The doctor asked what he couldn’t do for her.

D. The doctor wondered what he could do for her.

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres. Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth. We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be. We are not by a vision of hungry hordes overwhelming world food resources. Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries, are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

 

Q. 96 The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres.

A. tremendous

B. mere

C. hardly

D. slow

 

Q. 97 Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth.

A. equal

B. unprecedented

C. negligible

D. negative

 

Q. 98 We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be.

A. good

B. strong

C. bleak

D. high

 

Q. 99 Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries,

A. unclear

B. false

C. incorrect

D. true

 

Q. 100 are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

A. prone

B. averse

C. liable

D. engross

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B A A D B B B C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D C D C D A C B C B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B B A C D A A B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A C B B C D D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C B A C A A A C B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D C C D C C A D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C D C C C A A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D B C B C A A C A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D A B D B C B D D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C C A A B C D A

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 1 

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Power : Watt : : ? : ? 

A. Pressure : Newton

B. Force : Pascal

C. Resistance : Mho

D. Work : Joule

 

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

NPBG : OQCH : : AJOT : ?

A. BKPU

B. BUPK

C. BHKP

D. HBKU

 

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

101 : 10201 : : 107 : ?

A. 10707

B. 10749

C. 11449

D. 11407

 

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Lion

B. Leopard

C. Snake

D. Tiger

 

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. NPR

B. TVW

C. FHJ

D. KMO

 

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 69

B. 59

C. 61

D. 53

 

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Ropped

2. Roster

3. Roasted

4. Road

5. Roller

A. 35412

B. 45312

C. 34512

D. 43512

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BCF, CDG, DEH, ?

A. EFI

B. EFG

C. DFI

D. EGI

 

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2, 5, 12, 27, ?

A. 53

B. 56

C. 57

D. 58

 

Q. 10 If ‘P 3 Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’, ‘P 5 Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’, ‘P 7 Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ and ‘P 9 Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’, then how is J related to K in J 3 L 9 N 3 O 5 K?

A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Niece

D. Daughter

 

Q. 11 Rakhi got engaged 10 years ago. Rakhi’s present age is 5/3 of her age at the time of engagement. If the present age of Rakhi’s mother is twice that of present age of Rakhi, then what was her mother’s age (in years) at the time of her engagement?

A. 50

B. 40

C. 30

D. 60

 

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Suspensefulness

A. Sense

B. Fuels

C. Useful

D. Fullness

 

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “BAD” is written as “7” and “SAP” is written as “9”. How is “BAN” written in that code language?

A. 8

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 14 In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

9 x 3 + 8 ÷ 4 – 7 = 28

A. x and –

B. + and –

C. ÷ and +

D. x and ÷

 

Q. 15 If 4 * 5 % 3 = 8000 and 2 * 3 % 2 = 36, then

4 * 3 % 3 = ?

A. 432

B. 1728

C. 36

D. 144

 

Q. 16 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 43

B. 49

C. 59

D. 71

 

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in given figure ?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 28

D. 32

 

Q. 18 In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some pens are pencils.

II. All pencils are erasers.

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are erasers.

II. No pens are erasers.

III. Some erasers are pencils

A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.

D. No conclusion follows.

 

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘I’ ?

A. VI

B. IV

C. II

D. V

 

Q. 20 In the given figure, how many pens are blue ?

A. 23

B. 19

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the lie AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. 

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘K’ can be represented by 01,34,etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 65,99,etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word “BLAND”

A. 10, 14, 00, 68, 79

B. 31, 41, 33, 96, 86

C. 44, 20, 42, 88, 59

D. 23, 32, 24, 55, 66

 

Q. 26 At which rate, Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks?

A. Bank Rate

B. Repo Rate

C. Reverse Repo Rate

D. Statutory Liquidity Rate

 

Q. 27 Movement along the supply curve is known as ______ .

A. Contraction of supply

B. Expansion of supply

C. Increase in supply

D. Expansion and contraction of supply

 

Q. 28 What is the minimum age required to become vice-president of India?

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 40 years

D. 37 years

 

Q. 29 Which of the following “writ” of the High Court or the Supreme Court is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office which he is not entitled to?

A. Certiorari

B. Mandamus

C. Prohibition

D. Quo Warranto

 

Q. 30 Who was the son of Chandragupta Maurya?

A. Bindusara

B. Chandragupta

C. Ashoka

D. Bimbisara

 

Q. 31 Which dynasty came to power in India after the Tughlaq dynasty?

A. The Guptas

B. The Khiljis

C. The Mughals

D. The Sayyids

 

Q. 32 Which planet is considered as the Dwarf planet?

A. Earth

B. Jupiter

C. Pluto

D. Saturn

 

Q. 33 Sandstone is which type of rock?

A. Calcareous Rock

B. Igneous Rock

C. Metamorphic Rock

D. Sedimentary Rock

 

Q. 34 Wheat is a ______.

A. Creeper

B. Herb

C. Shrub

D. Tree

 

Q. 35 Snakes, turtle, lizards and crocodiles falls under which category of animals?

A. Pisces

B. Amphibian

C. Reptilian

D. Aves

 

Q. 36 Which of the following instrument is used to measure Soil Water Tension?

A. Photometer

B. Pyrometer

C. Psychrometer

D. Tensiometer

 

Q. 37 What is the SI unit of Force?

A. Pascal

B. Boyle

C. Newton

D. Watt

 

Q. 38 Which one of the following is a bad Thermal Conductor?

A. Aluminium

B. Copper

C. Glass

D. Silver

 

Q. 39 Which of the following stores data permanently in a computer?

A. ALU

B. Cache Memory

C. RAM

D. ROM

 

Q. 40 Rusting is _____

A. Electrolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Redox reaction (Oxidation and Reduction)

D. Reduction.

 

Q. 41 Which amongst the following is not a Cation?

A. Aluminium ion

B. Copper ion

C. Sulphate ion

D. Zinc ion

 

Q. 42 Which of the following is not a component of Smog?

A. Volatile organic compounds

B. Nitrogen Oxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Chlorine oxide

 

Q. 43 NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which of the following institution?

A. Planning Commission

B. IRDA

C. Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

D. Department of Information Technology

 

Q. 44 Who invented first working laser?

A. A. H. Taylor

B. W. K. Roentgen

C. T. H. Maiman

D. Fred Morrison

 

Q. 45 Which of the following venue hosted its first ever test match on 9th November, 2016 which was played between India and England?

A. JSCA International Stadium Complex, Ranchi

B. Saurashtra Cricket Association Stadium, Rajkot

C. Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association Stadium, Dharamshala

D. Holkar Cricket Stadium, Indore

 

Q. 46 Match the following.

Artist Art form

1. gauri Shankar Devilal 1. Flute

2. Hari prasad Chaurasia 2. Painting

3. M. F. Hussain 3. Kathak

4. Zakir Hussain 4. Tabla

A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b,4-d

D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

 

Q. 47 Who is the only Indian cricketer to have received the Polly Umrigar award 3 times?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Virender Sehwag

C. Virat Kohli

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

 

Q. 48 Who is the author of the book titled “The Sellout”?

A. Paul Beatty

B. Arvind Adiga

C. Eleanor Catton

D. Howard Jacobson

 

Q. 49 Which country was designated as the major defence partner of USA in December, 2016?

A. Canada

B. Israel

C. India

D. United Kingdom

 

Q. 50 With which country India did its seventh edition of bilateral EKUVERIN Exercise 2016 at Kadhdhoo?

A. Nepal

B. Pakistan

C. Maldives

D. Bhutan

 

Q. 51 If X and Y are the two digits of the number 347XY such that the number is completely divisible by 80, then what is the value of X + Y?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

 

Q. 52 A, B and C can complete a work in 20, 24 and 30 days respectively. All three of them starts together but after 4 days A leaves the job and B left the job 6 days before the work was completed. C completed the remaining work alone. In how many days was the total work completed?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

 

Q. 53 A solid sphere of diameter 17.5 cm is cut into two equal halves. What will be the increase (in cm2 ) in the total surface area?

A. 289

B. 361.5

C. 481.25

D. 962.5

 

Q. 54 After a discount of 34% an article is sold for Rs 3168. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 4750

B. 4800

C. 4850

D. 5000

 

Q. 55 If 3/7 P = 4/11 Q then what is the ratio of P and Q respectively ?

A. 12 : 77

B. 12 : 33

C. 28 : 33

D. 3 : 28

 

Q. 56 The average of 17 results is 60. If the average of first 9 results is 57 and that of the last 9 results is 65, then what will be the value of 9th result?

A. 39

B. 78

C. 117

D. 156

 

Q. 57 For an article the profit is 170% of the cost price. If the cost price increases by 20% but the selling price remains same, then what is the new profit percentage?

A. 41

B. 50

C. 75

D. 125

 

Q. 58 32% of a number exceeds 17% of the same number by 120. What is the value of the number?

A. 900

B. 860

C. 940

D. 800

 

Q. 59 A boat goes 15 km upstream and 10 1/2 km downstream in 3 hours 15 minutes. It goes 12 km upstream and 14 km downstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

 

Q. 60 A person lent certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest and in 15 years the interest amounted to Rs 250 less than the sum lent. What was the sum lent (in Rs)?

A. 1000

B. 1500

C. 2400

D. 3000

 

Q. 61 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of x+ 1/x ?

A. 14

B. 8√3

C. 0

D. 18

 

Q. 62 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of √(2x) – 1/ √(2x) ?

A. 2√3

B. 3√3

C. (3√3 + 1)/2

D. 2√3 + 1

 

Q. 63 If x+1/x = 4 , then what is the value of x⁶ + 1/x⁶ ?

A. 52

B. 256

C. 1026

D. 2702

 

Q. 64 If y= 2-x/1+x, then what is the value of (1/y+1) + (2y-1/y²-1) ?

A. ((1+x)(2-x))/(2x-1)

B. ((1-x)(2+x))/(x-1)

C. ((1+x)(2-x))/(1-2x)

D. ((1+x)(1-2x))/(1-2x)

 

Q. 65 In the triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 50° and the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meets at P. What is the value (in degrees) of ∠BPC?

A. 100

B. 105

C. 115

D. 125

 

Q. 66 Two circles of same radius intersect each other at P and Q. If the length of the common chord is 30 cm and distance between the centres of the two circles is 40 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circles?

A. 25

B. 25√2

C. 50

D. 50√2

 

Q. 67 In the given figure, , ∠QRN =40⁰ , ∠PQR= 46⁰ and MN is a tangent at R. What is the value (in degrees) of x,y and z respectively ?

A. 40, 46, 94

B. 40, 50, 90

C. 46, 54, 80

D. 50, 40, 90

 

Q. 68 In ΔPQR, ∠R = 54°, the perpendicular bisector of PQ at S meets QR at T. If ∠TPR = 46°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠PQR?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 69 what is the simplified value of (cot A + tan B)/(cot B + tan A) ?

A. tan B cot A

B. tan A cot B

C. tan A tan B

D. cot A cot B

 

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of (1/(cosec Ac+ cot A))² ?

A. sec A + tan A

B. (1 – cos A)/(1 + cos A)

C. (1 – cosec A)/(1 + cosec A)

D. sin A

 

Q. 71 If cos2 θ – sin θ = 1/4, then what is the value of sin θ?1)

A. -1

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 3/2

 

Q. 72 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the percentage increase in number of students of Commerce from 2012 to 2016?

A. 11.16

B. 17.28

C. 13.51

D. 15.67

 

Q. 73 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the simple annual growth rate (in %) of the number of students of Business from 2012 to 2016?

A. 10

B. 12.5

C. 15

D. 17.5

 

Q. 74 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the ratio of average number of students studying Arts per year and average number of students studying Science per year?

A. 169 : 331

B. 66 : 169

C. 127 : 261

D. 32 : 75

 

Q. 75 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. Which year shows the maximum percentage increase in the total number of students in these 4 subjects over the previous year?

A. 2013

B. 2014

C. 2015

D. 2016

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The two men were (1)/ quarrelling with one another (2)/ claiming the same watch as their own. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Everybody knows (1)/ that Bhutan is the most peaceful (2)/ of all other countries of the

world. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The higher you climb, the more difficult it _____ to breathe.

A. became

B. becomes

C. has become

D. is becoming

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Neha has been crying _____ morning.

A. from

B. of

C. since

D. till

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Opulent

A. Fake

B. Gloomy

C. Rich

D. Selfish

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Morose

A. Flatter

B. Gloomy

C. friendly

D. Savvy

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Irk

A. Attract

B. Discourage

C. Irritate

D. Please

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Grotesque

A. Free

B. Odd

C. Plain

D. Queer

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To keep the wolf from the door.

A. Avoid starvation

B. Crack the deal

C. Entry prohibited

D. Have a pleasant tour

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Teething problems

A. Oral problems

B. Problems at the start of a new project

C. Problems for quite a long time in adjusting in the new place

D. Problem of having good dentist

 

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

She did not like to have coffee (nor I did).

A. neither I liked it

B. nor did I

C. nor I like it

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Taj Mahal is ( a worth seeing monument) in Agra.

A. a monument to see its worth

B. a monument worth seeing

C. one of worth seeing monuments

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

That which cannot be corrected

A. Impregnable

B. Immolation

C. Incorrigible

D. Ineligible

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who is blamed for the wrong doings of others

A. Bursar

B. Captor

C. Phlegmatic

D. Scapegoat

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Conceive

B. Leisure

C. Neice

D. Reign

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Dictionory

B. Irrelevant

C. Perishable

D. Tangible

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- It had been umpteen years since we had seen each other.

Q- One dull dark day in autumn, I was travelling on horseback through a dreary stretch of countryside.

R- This was the house of Roderick Usher, who had been my childhood pal.

S- At night fall, I came in sight of the house of Usher.

A. PQSR

B. PSQR

C. QSRP

D. QRSP

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- According to various estimates, between 1942 and 1944 there were approximately 400 victims of this practice daily in Warsaw alone, with numbers on some days reaching several thousands.

Q- A common German practice in occupied Poland was to round up random civilians on the streets of Polish cities.

R- For example, on 19th September 1942 close to 3000 men and women were transported by train to Germany – they had been caught in the massive round-ups all over Warsaw the previous two days.

S- The term, “lapanka” carried a sardonic connotation from the word’s earlier use for the children’s game known in English as “tag”.

A. SQRP

B. SRPQ

C. QSPR

D. QSPR

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

An elephant may be helped even by an ant.

A. An ant can even help a elephant.

B. An ant may even help a elephant.

C. Even an ant may help an elephant

D. Even an ant ought to help an elephant.

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect speech.

“Please don’t cry” he said.

A. He begged that I should not cry.

B. He begged me not to cry.

C. He said to please him and not cry.

D. He told me to not to cry

 

Q. 96 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture

A. condition

B. effectiveness

C. efficiency

D. interest

 

Q. 97 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated

A. ascending

B. preceding

C. reciting

D. succeeding

 

Q. 98 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. 

A. adds

B. fits

C. gets

D. lets

 

Q. 99 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and

indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. 

A. continuously

B. often

C. randomly

D. seldom

 

Q. 100 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. A long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought.

A. authority

B. capacity

C. comfortability

D. reasonability

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D A C C B A D A D C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B D A D B D B C A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A A B C D C D B D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C D B C D C C D C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D A C B C C A C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A C C B C B D D C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A C D C C A A B A B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C B A B B C B C C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B D C A B B B C D C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A C C C B B B B D B

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 2 

 

Q. 1 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: 

Sanitation : Illness : : Care : ?

A. Rest

B. Ignore

C. Accident

D. Suggestion

 

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

GrtK : KtrG : : FjbH : ?

A. HbjF

B. jHbF

C. FbjH

D. HjbF

 

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

20 : 11 : : 102 : ?

A. 49

B. 52

C. 61

D. 58

 

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Man : Garage

B. Pig : Sty

C. Horse : Stable

D. Cow : Shed

 

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. WVU

B. DBA

C. NML

D. HGF

 

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 1629

B. 3418

C. 2349

D. 1834

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Exploit 2. Explosive 3. Exponent 4. Exposition 5. Explore

A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CAR, GCO, KEL, OGI, ?

A. SIK

B. SIF

C. TIK

D. TIL

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? , 16, 8

A. 14

B. 30

C. 32

D. 38

 

Q. 10 Mithilesh said to Neha, ‘Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.’ How is Neha related to the wife of Mithilesh?

A. Aunt

B. Mother – in – law

C. Sister

D. Mother

 

Q. 11 W, X, Y and Z are four friends. W is shorter than X, but taller than Y, who is shorter than Z. Who is the shortest among all?

A. W

B. X

C. Y

D. Z

 

Q. 12 From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SPECULATION

A. SPECIAL

B. TOPIC

C. SECULAR

D. CAUTION

 

Q. 13 If A = 26 and X-RAY = 40, then WHAT = ?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 56

D. 58

 

Q. 14 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘-‘ , ‘C’ stands for ‘x’ , what is the value of (10C4)A(4C4)B6 = ?

A. 46

B. 50

C. 56

D. 60

 

Q. 15 If 324⊕289 = 35, 441⊕484 = 43, then 625⊕400 = ?

A. 31

B. 43

C. 34

D. 45

 

Q. 16 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

12 8 4 8 4 12 4 12 8 100 44 ?

A. 80

B. 56

C. 48

D. 36

 

Q. 17 A person started walking towards West and covered a distance of 15 m, he turned right and walked 10 m. Again he turned right and walked 5 m and in the end he turned left and walked 15 m. Which direction is this person facing now?

A. North

B. South

C. East

D. West

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Statements :

1. All cycles are ducks.

2. All ducks are swans.

Conclusions :

I. All swans are cycles.

II. Some swans are cycles.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

 

Q. 19 Find the number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

 

Q. 20 Which of the diagrams given below correctly represent the relationship among WOMEN, MOTHERS, SPINSTERS

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which question figure is hidden.

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 25 In this question, the sets of numbers given in alternatives are represented. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these Matrices can represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 02, 11, etc., and ‘L’ can be represented by 65, 86, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘GATE’

A. 30, 89, 11, 57

B. 21, 68, 34, 78

C. 21, 96, 24, 78

D. 12, 89, 42, 68

 

Q. 26 Which institution is known as ‘Soft Loan Window’ of World Bank?

A. IDBI

B. IDA

C. IMF

D. RBI

 

Q. 27 Which curve shows the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation rates 

A. Supply curve

B. Indifference curve

C. IS curve

D. Phillips curve

 

Q. 28 The longest sea beach in India is

A. Chapora beach

B. Diu beach

C. Aksa beach

D. Marina beach

 

Q. 29 The Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of ________________

A. Six years

B. Five years

C. Four years

D. Seven years

Q. 30 Which of the following Committees is described as the ‘twin sister’ of the Estimates Committee?

A. Public Accounts Committee

B. Committee on Public Undertakings

C. Departmental Standing Committee

D. Privilege Committee

 

Q. 31

Potato is a ?

A. Root

B. Stem

C. Bud

D. Fruit

 

Q. 32 English education was introduced in India by

A. Curzon

B. Macaulay

C. Dalhousie

D. Bentick

 

Q. 33 Short term contractions and expansions in economic activity are called ________________

A. Expansions

B. Recession

C. Deficits

D. The business cycle

 

Q. 34 Which one of the following region is most rich in coal deposits?

A. Brahmaputra valley

B. Damodar valley

C. Mahanadi valley

D. Godavari valley

 

Q. 35 Rainfall caused by intense evaporation in equatorial areas is called ____________

A. Orographic rainfall

B. Cyclonic rainfall

C. Frontal rainfall

D. Convectional rainfall

 

Q. 36 Haematopoiesis is take place in ______________

A. Lungs

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Bone marrow

 

Q. 37 __________________ is a hormone that regulates the amount of glucose in the blood

A. Glucogen

B. Thyroxine

C. Oxytocin

D. Insulin

 

Q. 38 Wall Street collapse led to _________________

A. World War II

B. Recession

C. U.S. Attack on Iraq

D. Great Depression

 

Q. 39 Gandhara Art is t

he combination of

A. Indo – Roman

B. Indo – Greek

C. Indo – Islamic

D. Indo – China

 

Q. 40 If electric resistance is to be decreased, then the number of resistances should be connected in __________________

A. Series

B. Parallel

C. Mixed arrangement

D. None of these

 

Q. 41 Related to computers, what is ‘Wetware’ ?

A. Computer programs

B. Circuitry

C. Human brain

D. Chemical storage devices

 

Q. 42 Indira Goswami, the famous editor, poet, scholar and writter won the Jnanpith Award in which language?

A. Bengali

B. Odisha

C. Assamese

D. Hindi

 

Q. 43 Ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere is absorbed by

A. SO2

B. Ozone

C. Oxygen

D. Argon

 

Q. 44 All isotopes of same element have ____________

A. different atomic numbers and different atomic mass

B. different atomic numbers and the same atomic mass

C. the same atomic number but different atomic masses

D. the same atomic number and the atomic mass

 

Q. 45 Nitric acid does not react wit

A. Gold

B. Copper

C. Zinc

D. Iron

 

Q. 46 Nanda Devi peak is located in ________________ State

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttarakhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Sikkim

 

Q. 47 Which one of the following industries is known as ‘Sunrise Industry’ ?

A. Iron & Steel

B. Cotton Textile

C. Information Technology

D. Tea & Coffee

 

Q. 48 The material used in electric heater is ….

A. Tungsten

B. Nichrome

C. Brass

D. Steel

 

Q. 49 Pellagra and Scurvy are caused by which pair of vitamin deficiency respectively____________________

A. Vitamin C and Vitamin D

B. Vitamin B-12 and Vitamin C

C. Vitamin C and Vitamin A

D. Vitamin A and Vitamin B-12

 

Q. 50 Who appoints the Finance Commission in India?

A. Governor, R. B. I.

B. CAG of India

C. President of India

D. Central Finance minister

 

Q. 51 A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then B can do the same piece of work in

A. 8 days

B. 15/2 days

C. 25/4 days

D. 6 days

 

Q. 52 A rectangle with one side 4 cm is inscribed in a circle of radius 2.5 cm. The area of the rectangle is :

A. 8 cm^2

B. 12 cm^2

C. 16 cm^2

D. 20 cm^2

 

Q. 53 A merchant marked cloth at Rs. 50/metre . He offers two successive discounts of 15% and 20%. The net price/metre is :

A. Rs. 32.50

B. Rs. 42.50

C. Rs. 34.00

D. Rs. 40.00

 

Q. 54 3 brothers divided Rs. 1620 among them in such a way that the share of second is equal to 5/13 of share of other two, combined. What is the share of the second one ?

A. Rs. 1170

B. Rs. 450

C. Rs. 540

D. Rs. 500

 

Q. 55 A dealer marks his goods 20% above their cost prices. then, he allows such a discount on the marked price so that he makes a profit of 8%. The rate of discount is :

A. 12%

B. 10%

C. 6%

D. 4%

 

Q. 56 The salary of a person is reduced by 20% . To restore the previous salary, his present salary is to be increased by

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 17.5%

D. 22.5%

 

Q. 57 Two buses travel to a place at 45 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. If the second bus takes 11/2 hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is :

A. 900 km

B. 945 km

C. 990 km

D. 1350 km

 

Q. 58 If (x + 1/x) : (x – 1/x) = 5 : 3, then the value(s) of x is / are

A. ±1

B. ±2

C. ±3

D. 0

 

Q. 59 An exterior angle of a triangle is 115° and one of the interior opposite angle is 45° . Then the other two angles are

A. 65° , 70°

B. 60° , 75°

C. 45° , 90°

D. 50° , 85°

 

Q. 60 In a ΔABC, ∠A + ∠B = 75° and ∠B + ∠C = 140° , then ∠B is

A. 40°

B. 35°

C. 55°

D. 45°

 

Q. 61 The value of (1 + tanθ^2)(1 – sinθ^2) is

A. 2

B. 1

C. -1

D. -2

 

Q. 62 If 4x^2 – 12x + k is a perfect square, then the value of k is

A. 2

B. 9

C. 12

D. 10

 

Q. 63 ((113^2) + (115^2) + (117^2) – 113 x 115 – 115 x 117 – 117 x 113) is equal to

A. 0

B. 4

C. 8

D. 12

 

Q. 64 The average of runs scored by a cricketer in his 99 innings is 99. How many runs will he have to score in his 100th innings so that his average of runs in 100 innings may be 100 ?

A. 100

B. 99

C. 199

D. 200

 

Q. 65 If rsinθ = 1, rcosθ = √3 then the value of (r^2)tanθ is

A. 4

B. 1/√3

C. 4/√3

D. 4√3

 

Q. 66 If p^3 – q^3 = (p – q) ((p – q)^2 + x p q) then value of x is

A. 1

B. -1

C. 3

D. 2

 

Q. 67 If (a + 1/a)^2 = 3, then the value of a^18 + a^12 + a^6 + 1 is

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

 

Q. 68 The top of a broken tree touches the ground at a distance of 15 m from its base. If a tree is broken at a height of 8 m from the ground, then the actual height of the tree is

A. 17 m

B. 20 m

C. 25 m

D. 30 m

 

Q. 69 In ΔPQR, straight line parallel to the base QR cuts PQ at X and PR at Y. If PX : XQ = 5 : 6, then the XY : QR will be

A. 5 : 11

B. 6 : 5

C. 11 : 6

D. 11 : 5

 

Q. 70 A man borrowed some money from a private organisation at 5% simple interest per annum. He lended this money to another person at 10% compound interest per annum, and made a profit of Rs 26,410 in 4 years. The man borrowed

A. 200000

B. 150000

C. 132050

D. 100000

 

Q. 71 From two points, lying on the same horizontal line, the angles of elevation of the top of the pillar are θ and Φ (θ < Φ). If the height of the pillar is ‘h’ m and the two points lie on the same sides of the pillar, then the distance between the two points is

A. h(tanθ – tanΦ) m

B. h(cotΦ – cotθ) m

C. h(cotθ – cotΦ) m

D. h((tanθ tanΦ)/(tanΦ – tanθ)) m

 

Q. 72 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The total number of road accidents in the year 2009, 2011 and 2013 combined together is

A. 180000

B. 110000

C. 70000

D. 160000

 

Q. 73 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the road accidents due to bus in the year 2008 to that by Car in the year 2012 is

A. 2 : 1

B. 1 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 4

 

Q. 74 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The respective ratio between the accidents by cars in the year 2012, 2010 and 2009 is 

A. 2 : 5 : 4

B. 4 : 5 : 4

C. 4 : 3 : 2

D. 4 : 5 : 2

 

Q. 75 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the averages of the road accidents due to Bus to that by Car in the year 2008, 2011 and 2013 is

A. 4 : 5

B. 5 : 4 

C. 5 : 1

D. 1 : 4

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

LETHARGIC

A. ENERGETIC

B. LAZY

C. LETHAL

D. LEGAL

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

MALLEABLE

A. TEACHABLE

B. INTRACTABLE

C. MANAGEABLE

D. PLIABLE

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Persemonious

B. Persimonoius

C. Parsemonious

D. Parsimonious

 

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

Sooner had he come (A) / his colleagues (B) / organised a get together (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

I enjoyed during (A) / my tenure (B) / at Shimla (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

The Government offered him (A) / derical job (B) / but he turned it over (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

After a noisy and tumultuous supper, we ______________ for the day.

A. retirement

B. retiring

C. retired

D. retire

 

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The villager cried ____________________ his voice for help

A. on the top of

B. in the top of

C. from the top of

D. at the top of

 

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Simon teaches children ________________ water colour painting

A. the art on

B. the art in

C. the art by

D. the art of

 

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Be down with

A. Suffering from

B. In grief with

C. In pain with

D. Aching with

 

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Fair – weather friend

A. Honest only when easy and convenient

B. Truthful only when easy and convenient

C. Supports only when easy and convenient

D. Temporary only when easy and convenient

 

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Pull together

A. Become friends

B. Work harmoniously

C. Be successful

D. Live happily

 

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A place where soldiers live

A. Tanks

B. Shacks

C. Ordnance Depots

D. Barracks

 

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A man who collects old and new coins

A. Geologist

B. Numismatist

C. Archaeologist

D. Zoologist

 

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Regular users of places/restaurants etc.

A. Client

B. Clientele

C. Often

D. Usage

 

Q. 91 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This material is “not much enough” for me

A. not more enough

B. not so much enough

C. not enough

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This is a change “of my usual work”.

A. from my usual work

B. for my usual work

C. in my usual work

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Maharana Pratap killed many enemy soldiers “through his sword”

A. by his sword

B. with his sword

C. across his sword

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Everyone hoped “of” good weather on the day of the wedding.

A. for

B. at

C. about

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

He asked the child to go and play with “some others” children

A. some other’s children

B. some others

C. some other

D. No improvement

 

Q. 96 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it. Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What were the two men talking about while walking along the forest path? 

A. About their wives & children

B. About money & fame

C. About friendship & enjoyment

D. About courage & loyalty

 

Q. 97 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt.

The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.”

What is the meaning of the word “fidelity” ? 

A. Muscle

B. Strength

C. Faithfulness

D. Courage

 

Q. 98  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” After seeing the bear, what happened to the boaster ? 

A. He fled home.

B. He hid himself behind the rock.

C. He hid himself behind a shed

D. He fled & climbed up the nearest tree.

 

Q. 99  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What made the bear go away after examining the man ?

A. The bear thought the man was dead

B. The bear could not stand the bad odour of the man.

C. The bear did not want to eat the man

D. The bear heard a noise & was scarred

 

Q. 100  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What saved the little man ?

A. The aid from the villagers

B. His friend’s bravery

C. His own presence of mind

D. His own courage

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C A B A B D B B A A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C C C B D B A B D D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B D A C B D D A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B B D B D D D D B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C C B C A B C B B C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B B C B B B C B A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C C C C C A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C A D B B B B D A A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C D D A C B D B B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C A B A C D C D A C

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 August 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 1 

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives: 

CURE : DISEASE :: HEAL ?

A. Illness

B. Injury

C. Recover

D. Sick

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

DBCE : QOPR :: JLKI : ?

A. YWXU

B. WYXV

C. WXYV

D. WYVX

 

Q. 3 Select the related numbers from the given alternatives:

6 : 42 :: 12 : ?

A. 48

B. 72

C. 60

D. 84

 

Q. 4 Find the odd word pair from the given alternative.

A. High – Up

B. Past – Present

C. Often – Seldom

D. Fresh – Stale

 

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. AOU

B. EOI

C. UIE

D. ALO

 

Q. 6 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 13

B. 17

C. 29

D. 87

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary and choose the one that comes first:

1. Temple

2. Tenant

3. Terminate

4. Temperature

A. Temple

B. Tenant

C. Terminate

D. Temperature

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

NOM, QRP, TUS, ?

A. WAX

B. HUT

C. WXV

D. HTU

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

1, 3, 7, 13, 21, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 31

D. 33

 

Q. 10 If it is Saturday on 27th September, what day will it be on 27th October of the same year?

A. Thursday

B. Sunday

C. Friday

D. Monday

 

Q. 11 The ratio of the ages of man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, the ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of marriage, the ratio was 5 : 3, how many years ago were they married?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 5

D. 8

 

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ALTERNATIVES

A. ALTER

B. NATIVE

C. TEN

D. NATIONAL

 

Q. 13 If code P is denoted by 7, X by 9, M by 5, Z by 8, L by 2, T by 1, then ZLTPXM WILL BE

A. 812851

B. 821591

C. 812715

D. 821795

 

Q. 14 If 24 x 2 = 84 and 32 x 3 = 69, then 13 x 3 = ?

A. 38

B. 93

C. 16

D. 10

 

Q. 15 If ‘+’ means division, ‘-‘ means multiplication, ‘÷’ means subtraction, ‘x’ means addition and ‘<‘ means less than, then which of the following is false?

A. (10 + 2) ÷ 7 < (10 ÷ 7) + 2

B. (10 – 7) x 2 < (10 x 2) – 7

C. (10 x 7) – 2 < (10 – 2) x 7

D. (10 ÷ 2) + 7 < (10 + 7) x 2

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number in figure (1) from the given responses.

A. 1

B. 4

C. 9

D. 25

 

Q. 17 Ram went 20 metres to the north then turned towards east and walked another 5 metres, then he turned towards right and covered 20 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 3 metre

B. 4 metre

C. 5 metre

D. 6 metre

 

Q. 18 One or two statements are given followed by two or more conclusions/assumptions, I, II, III, IV. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statements:

1. All goats are tiger.

2. All tigers are lions.

Conclusions:

I. All tigers are goats.

II. All lions are tigers.

III. No goat is a lion.

IV. No lion is a goat.

A. Only conclusions III and IV follow

B. Only conclusion I and II follow

C. None of the conclusions follows

D. All conclusions follow

 

Q. 19 In the question figure how many squares are there in all? Select from the given alternatives

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 11

 

Q. 20 In the following figure, triangle represents teachers, square represents merchants and circle represents social workers. Which number space represents Teachers who are social workers?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 21 Which answer figures among (1), (2), (3), (4) complete the pattern in the question figure (A)?

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4), select the one in which the question figure (A) is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in figure (A). From the given answer figures(1), (2), (3), (4), indicate how many it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4) is the right image of the given figure (A).

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given in figure (1). The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., D can be represented by 02, 10, etc., and R can be represented by 55, 67, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEAR’.

 

A. 13, 11, 12, 78

B. 31, 22, 23, 97

C. 42, 34, 42, 79

D. 24, 40, 23, 67

 

Q. 26 Money market is a market for

A. Short term fund

B. Long term fund

C. Negotiable instrument

D. Sale of shares

 

Q. 27 India shares longest international boundary with which country?

A. Bangladesh

B. China

C. Nepal

D. Bhutan

 

Q. 28 The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Parliament

D. States

 

Q. 29 Appointments for all India Services are made by

A. UPSC

B. President

C. Prime mInister

D. Parliament

 

Q. 30 The people of the Indus valley civilisation worshipped

A. Vishnu

B. Pashupati

C. Indra

D. Brahma

 

Q. 31 The Upanishads are the

A. Great Epics

B. Story Books

C. Source of Hindu Philosophy

D. Law Books

 

Q. 32 Tsangpo is the other name in Tibet for

A. Kosi

B. Gandak

C. Brahmaputra

D. Ganga

 

Q. 33 The largest herbarium of India is located at

A. Kolkata

B. Lucknow

C. Mumbai

D. Coimbatore

 

Q. 34 Temperature of distant luminous bodies can be determined by

A. Mercury thermometers

B. Gas thermometers

C. Pyrometers

D. Colour thermometers

 

Q. 35 In IT terminology, failure is the kernel is called as

A. Crash

B. Crash dump

C. Dump

D. Kernel error

 

Q. 36 Which of the following institutions was not founded by Mahatma Gandhi?

A. Sabarmati Ashram

B. Sevagram Ashram

C. Vishwa Bharti

D. Phoenix Ashram

 

Q. 37 Which of the following State has become India’s first carbon free State?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

 

Q. 38 Energy travels from Sun to Earth through?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. modulation

 

Q. 39 C. K. Naidu Cup is associated with which of the following sporting events?

A. Tennis

B. Cricket

C. Hockey

D. Golf

 

Q. 40 Pump priming should be resorted to at a time of:

A. Inflation

B. Deflation

C. Stagflation

D. Reflation

 

Q. 41 Which is the highest award for gallantry during peacetime?

A. Vir Chakra

B. Param Vir Chakra

C. Ashok Chakra

D. Mahavir Chakra

 

Q. 42 At Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in

A. Andaman Islands

B. Nicobar Islands

C. Lakshadweep

D. Minicoy

 

Q. 43 The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called?

A. Percolation

B. Conduction

C. Leaching

D. Transpiration

 

Q. 44 Heat is transmitted from higher temperature to lower temperature through the actual motion of the molecules in

A. Conduction

B. Convection

C. Radiation

D. Both conduction and convection

 

Q. 45 Polio is caused by

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Protozoa

 

Q. 46 Which country is in the process of building the largest single Aperture Radio Telescope – FAST?

A. Japan

B. China

C. USA

D. Russia

 

Q. 47 The Kovvada Nuclear Park project is proposed to be set up in which state?

A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Karnataka

 

Q. 48 Fixed Foreign Exchange Rate can be changed by

A. RBI

B. SEBI

C. Ministry of Finance

D. FIPB

 

Q. 49 In bio fortification technique plant breeders use breeding to overcome

A. loss due to insect pests

B. Decrease in food production

C. Deficiencies of micronutrients and vitamins

D. Loss due to plant diseases

 

Q. 50 Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

A. Parliament

B. Supreme Court of India

C. President

D. Attorney General of India

 

Q. 51 A and B together can do a piece of work in 9 days. If A does thrice the work of B in a given time, the time A alone will take to finish the work is

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 12 days

 

Q. 52 The diameters of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their volumes are equal. The ratio of their heights is

A. 2 : 3

B. 3 : 2

C. 9 : 4

D. 4 : 9

 

Q. 53 A trader sold a cycle at a loss of 10%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 200, there would have been a gain of 6%. The cost price of the cycle is

A. Rs. 1200

B. Rs. 1205

C. Rs. 1250

D. Rs. 1275

 

Q. 54 In a city, 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich, 10% are illiterate. The percentage of the illiterate poor population is

A. 36

B. 60

C. 40

D. 50

 

Q. 55 In which time will a 100 metre long train running with a speed of 50 km/hr cross a pillar?

A. 7.0 seconds

B. 72 seconds

C. 7.2 seconds

D. 70 seconds

 

Q. 56 If 2p/(p^2 – 2p + 1) = 1/4, then the value of p + 1/p will be

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. None of these

 

Q. 57 If l + m + n = 9 and l^2 + m^2 + n^2 = 31, then the value of (lm + mn + nl) will be

A. 22

B. 50

C. 25

D. -25

 

Q. 58 The centroid of a triangle is the point where

A. the medians meet

B. the altitudes meet

C. The right bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet

D. the bisectors of the angles of the triangles meet

 

Q. 59 In a triangle PQR, the side QR is extended to S. ∠QPR = 72° and ∠PRS = 110°, then the value of ∠PQR is:

A. 38°

B. 32°

C. 25°

D. 29°

 

Q. 60 In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD, AB < CD, CD = 6 cm and distance between the parallel sides is 4 cm. if the area of ABCD is 16 cm^2, then AB is

A. 1 cm

B. 2 cm

C. 3 cm

D. 8 cm

 

Q. 61 If tanθ + cotθ = 5, then the value of tan^2θ + cot^2θ is

A. 22

B. 25

C. 23

D. 27

 

Q. 62 When a number is divided by 56, the remainder will be 29. If the same number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

 

Q. 63 If a shopkeeper marks his goods for a certain amount so as to get 25% gain after allowing a discount of 20%, then marked price is

A. Rs. 156.25

B. Rs. 146.25

C. Rs. 166.25

D. Rs. 150.25

 

Q. 64 The average of marks of 17 students in an examination was calculated as 71. But it was later found that the mark of one student had been wrongly entered as 65 instead of 56 and another as 24 instead of 50. The correct average is

A. 70

B. 71

C. 72

D. 73

 

Q. 65 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is two-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 0.1

B. 0.08

C. 0.06

D. 0.04

 

Q. 66 If (x + 1/x)^2 = 3, then the value of (x^3 + 1/x^3) is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

 

Q. 67 If (a – b) = 3 and (a^2 + b^2) = 25, then the value of (ab) is

A. 16

B. 8

C. 10

D. 15

 

Q. 68 In ΔABC, ∠B = 70° and ∠C = 60°. The internal bisectors of the two smallest angles of ΔABC meet at O. The angle so formed at O is:

A. 125°

B. 120°

C. 115°

D. 110°

 

Q. 69 If θ be positive acute angle and 5cosθ + 12sinθ = 13, then the value of cosθ is

A. 12/13

B. 5/13

C. 5/12

D. 1/5

 

Q. 70 A cylindrical container of 32 cm height and 18 cm radius is filled with sand. Now all this sand is used to form a conical heap of sand. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, what is the radius of its base?

A. 12 cm

B. 24 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 48 cm

 

Q. 71 The angle of elevation of the top of a pillar from the foot and the top of a building 20 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. The height of the pillar is

A. 10 m

B. 10√3

C. 60 m

D. 30 m

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The pie-chart given in figure (1) shows the percentage of literate and illiterate males and females in a state.

Q. 72 If the total number is 35000, then the difference between the number of literate males and that of literate females is

A. 3500

B. 3700

C. 400

D. 4500

 

Q. 73 The difference of central angles corresponding to illiterate male and illiterate female is:

A. 12.2°

B. 13.4°

C. 11.2°

D. 14.4°

 

Q. 74 If the difference between the two categories of people are represented by 36° in the diagram, then these categories are

A. literate males and literate females

B. literate males and illiterate males

C. illiterate males and literate females

D. illiterate males and illiterate females

 

Q. 75 If two categories together have a central angle of 169.2°, then these categories are 

A. literate females and illiterate females

B. literate males and illiterate females

C. illiterate males and illiterate females

D. illiterate males and literate females

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

CONSTRAIN

A. stress

B. contradict

C. restrict

D. obstruct

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

NONCONFORMIST

A. conventional

B. practical

C. fashionable

D. nomad

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Erroneous

B. Eronneous

C. Erronous

D. Eroneous

 

Questions: 79 – 81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the correct alternative. If the sentence is free from error, choose “No error”. 

 

Q. 79 Although I have never seen the girl before, (1)/ I recognized her at home (2)/ from her photograph. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 80 There was a (1)/ comparison between (2)/ you and he (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 81 He flowed into a rage (1)/ at the very (2)/ sight of that man. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Questions: 82 – 84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.

 

Q. 82 He is _________________ connected

A. respectively

B. respected

C. respectably

D. respectable

 

Q. 83 After retirement Surti lived ____________ Australia

A. in

B. at

C. over in

D. over at

 

Q. 84 He _________________ the low pay.

A. moan at

B. complain about

C. grumbled at

D. ran after

 

Questions: 85 – 87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

 

Q. 85 Pros and Cons

A. Professionals

B. Con artists

C. Professionals and con artists

D. Advantages and disadvantages

 

Q. 86 Once in a blue moon

A. Very rarely

B. Common

C. Predictable

D. Ordinary

 

Q. 87 Fish out of water

A. Dehydrated

B. Comfortable position

C. An uncomfortable position

D. Fish in an aquarium

 

Questions: 88 – 90

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences. 

 

Q. 88 A remedy for all diseases

A. Antiseptic

B. Antibiotic

C. Narcotics

D. Panacea

 

Q. 89 Of the highest quality

A. Productive

B. Reactive

C. Superlative

D. Relative

 

Q. 90 A place of shelter for ships

A. Harbour

B. Helipad

C. Port

D. Barrack

 

Questions: 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is quoted. Four alternatives are given which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case of no improvement is needed, choose the option of “No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 His wife is “as tall if not”, taller than him

A. as tall as, if not

B. as taller if not

C. not as tall but as

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 He is a fast bowler of repute, but “his yesterday’s performance” was not up to the mark.

A. performance for yesterday

B. yesterday performance

C. performances for yesterday

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 Owing to his respiratory problems the doctor has told him “to refrain from” smoking. 

A. to not refrain from

B. to refrain to

C. to refrain not from

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 He “is suffering” from fever for a week.

A. was suffering

B. had suffering

C. has been suffering

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 None knows how it “was happened”

A. was happen

B. has happened

C. happened

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100

The snowstorm was getting worse. White flakes whirled around us as we fought our way against the wind. I had almost given up hope of sheltering, when we found an abandoned log cabin in front of us. I squeezed through the door of the cabin and stepped cautiously inside with Jane close behind me. It was dark and musty-smelling, but at least it was sheltered and dry. Glad to be out of the storm, we settled down on the dusty floor to wait for a break in the weather. “What’s this?” asked Jane curiously. Her hand closing over something shiny. She held it up to the weak ray of light that pierced the gloom. A gold necklace glittered and shone. Its ruby pendant was a lustrous wine-red in the faint beam. Strangely, there was no dust on the necklace. It was almost as though it had dropped from the throat of its owner moments ago. We gazed at each other speechlessly. What strange mystery had we accidently stumbled upon?

 

Q. 96 What had the writer given up hope?

A. To be able to withstand this snowstorm

B. To be able to fight her way against the wind

C. That the snowstorm would improve

D. To find shelter from the wind

 

Q. 97 What did the two friends find while searching for shelter?

A. A haunted hut

B. A deserted hut

C. A very old hut

D. A very small hut

 

Q. 98 Why did the writer step cautiously inside the cabin?

A. Because she was feeling so cold that her legs had become numb

B. Because she could not see clearly in the dark

C. Because the wind made it difficulty for her to enter quickly

D. Because the cabin was very dusty

 

Q. 99 What did Jane find?

A. A necklace made of gold

B. A necklace made of red ruby

C. A red-coloured necklace

D. A golden necklace with a pendant on it

 

Q. 100 What was the strange thing about the necklace?

A. It was made of marble

B. It was pink in colour

C. There was no dust in it

D. There was a picture on the pendant

 

Answer Shee
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B B D A D D D C C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A D D B C D C C B B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A D D A D A A C B B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C A C A C A C B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C A C B B B C C C B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D D C B C B C A A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C C A C B A B A B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A D A A C A A A C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A C A C D A C D C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A D D C C D B B D C
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