Vidhyarthi Darpan %

UPSC 2014 Paper-I (General Studies) Previous Year Paper

UPSC 2014 General Studies

Q. 1 What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.

3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.

4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of

cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 2 If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

A. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference

B. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland.

C. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed

D. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Q. 3 Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

A. Andaman and Nicobar

B. Nicobar and Sumatra

C. Maldives and Lakshadweep

D. Sumatra and Java

Q. 4 Consider the following pairs:

Programme/Project Ministry

1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture

2. Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests

3. National Watershed Development

Project for Rainfed Areas : Ministry of Rural Development

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 5 With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statement :

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public

awareness.

3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 6 With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change’

B. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level

C. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 7 With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following

statement :

1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.

2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).

3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 8 Consider the following languages :

1. Gujarati

2. Kannada

3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the

Government?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 9 Consider the following pairs:

1. Dampa Tiger : Mizoram Reserve

2. Gumti Wildlife : Sikkim Sanctuary

3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 10 With reference to conservation organization called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.

2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical

experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 11 With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements :

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.

2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 12 Consider the following diseases :

1. Diphtheria

2. Chickenpox

3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 13 Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift

2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 14 Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers

2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers

3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally

4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 15 The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

A. solve the problem of minorities in India

B. give effect to the Independence Bill

C. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan

D. enquire into the riots in East Bengal

Q. 16 Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.

2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 17 Consider the following :

1. Bats

2. Bears

3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

Q. 18 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

A. The Committee on Public Accounts

B. The Committee on Estimates

C. The Committee on Public Undertakings

D. The Committee on Petitions

Q. 19 Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action

2. Respiration

3. Photosynthesis

4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 20 If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork

2. Common Myna

3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Q. 21 In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

A. military officers

B. village headmen

C. specialists in Vedic rituals

D. chiefs of craft guilds

Q. 22 Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even of a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

A. algae and bacteria

B. algae and fungi

C. bacteria and fungi

D. fungi and mosses

Q. 23 If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

1. Oak

2. Rhododendron

3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 24 Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur

2. Oxides of nitrogen

3. Carbon monoxide

4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 25 Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti

2. Gandhara

3. Kosala

4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4

Q. 26 Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

A. Bhutia and Lepcha

B. Gond and Korku

C. Irula and Toda

D. Sahariya and Agariya

Q. 27 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

A. tax imposed by the Central Government

B. tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government

C. tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government

D. tax imposed and collected by the State Government

Q. 28 What does venture capital mean?

A. A short-term capital provided to industries

B. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs

C. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses

D. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

Q. 29 The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

A. inclusive growth and poverty reduction

B. inclusive and sustainable growth

C. sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment

D. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth

Q. 30 With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

1. Balance of trade

2. Foreign assets

3. Balance of invisibles

4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 4

Q. 31 The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

A. banking operations

B. communication networking

C. military strategies

D. supply and demand of agricultural products

Q. 32 What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.

2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 33 In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create

2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid

3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits

4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 34 Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

A. Egypt

B. Lebanon

C. Syria

D. Tunisia

Q. 35 Consider the following countries :

1. Denmark

2. Japan

3. Russian Federation

4. United Kingdom

5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 4 and 5

D. 1, 3 and 5

Q. 36 Consider the following pairs :

Region often in news Country

1. Chechnya : Russian Federation

2. Darfur : Mali

3. Swat Valley : Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 37 With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.

2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.

3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 38 With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements :

1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.

2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist. but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 39 With reference of ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements :

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.

2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.

3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 40 In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

A. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics

B. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas

C. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of antihistamines

D. It is a source of high quality biodiesel

Q. 41 Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Gulf of Kachchh

3. Gulf of Mannar

4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 42 In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation

2. Deforestation

3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 43 The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

A. Equatorial climate

B. Mediterranean climate

C. Monsoon climate

D. All of the above climates

Q. 44 With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

A. an assembly of village elders

B. a religious sect

C. a style of temple construction

D. an administrative functionary

Q. 45 Consider the following rivers :

1. Barak

2. Lohit

3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 46 Consider the following pairs :

Wetlands Confluence of rivers

1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutej

2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal

3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 47 Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian

Philosophy?

A. Mimamsa and Vedanta

B. Nyaya and Vaisheshika

C. Lokayata and Kapalika

D. Sankhya and Yoga

Q. 48 Consider the following pairs :

Hills Region

1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast

2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast

3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India

4. Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4

Q. 49 Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defecation?

A. Second Schedule

B. Fifth Schedule

C. Eighth Schedule

D. Tenth Schedule

Q. 50 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

A. biosphere reserves

B. botanical gardens

C. national parks

D. wildlife sanctuaries

Q. 51 Turkey is located between

A. Black Sea and Caspian Sea

B. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

C. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea

D. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Q. 52 What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok

2. Hanoi

3. Jakarta

4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 4-2-1-3

B. 3-2-4-1

C. 3-4-1-2

D. 4-3-2-1

Q. 53 The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 degrees Celsius above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends towards a net carbon source

2. Widespread coral mortality will occur

3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear

4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 54 The national motto of India, ‘Satyamev Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

A. Katha Upanishad

B. Chandogya Upanishad

C. Aitareya Upanishad

D. Mundaka Upanishad

Q. 55 In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

A. Preamble to the Constitution

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Duties

D. Ninth Schedule

Q. 56 What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development

Programme’?

1. Prevention of soil runoff

2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers

3. Rainwater harvesting and recharging of groundwater table

4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 57 Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q. 58 Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees

3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 59 Consider the following statements :

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority

2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual

liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 60 Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule

2. Appointing the Ministers

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 61 If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

A. decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy

B. increase the tax collection of the Government

C. increase the investment expenditure in the economy

D. increase the total savings in the economy

Q. 62 Consider the following statements :

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 63 Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India :

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 64 With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements :

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of

insects and mites.

2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.

3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 65 Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

A. Potential energy is released to form free energy

B. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

C. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

D. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

Q. 66 In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning

2. Retinal scanning

3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 67 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.

2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.

3.. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 68 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft Purpose

1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth

2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating the Mercury

3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 69 Consider the following pairs :

Region Well-known for the production of

1. Kinnaur : Areca nut

2. Mewat : Mango

3. Coromandel : Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 70 Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride

2. Melting of ice

3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 71 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

A. advisory jurisdiction

B. appellate jurisdiction

C. original jurisdiction

D. writ jurisdiction

Q. 72 Consider the following techniques/phenomena :

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants

2. Cytoplasmic male sterility

3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. None

Q. 73 Consider the following statements :

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.

2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.

3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 74 Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

A. Crab

B. Mite

C. Scorpion

D. Spider

Q. 75 The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

A. the President of India

B. the Parliament

C. the Chief Justice of India

D. the Law Commission

Q. 76 Consider the following towns of India :

1. Bhadrachalam

2. Chanderi

3. Kancheepuram

4. Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 3 and 4

Q. 77 Consider the following pairs :

National Highway Cities connected

1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad

2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 78 Consider the following international agreements :

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desrtification

3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 79 Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.

2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.

3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 80 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

A. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings

B. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings

C. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans

D. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

Q. 81 The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

A. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition

was ended

B. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911

C. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement

D. the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

Q. 82 The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

A. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress

B. attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress

C. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched

D. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

Q. 83 With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements :

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.

2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.

3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 84 Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

A. 22nd March (or 21st March)

B. 15th May (or 16th May)

C. 31st March (or 30th March)

D. 21st April (or 20th April)

Q. 85 With reference to Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs :

Famous work of sculpture Site

1. A grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below : Ajanta

2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu , as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock : Mount Abu

3. “Arjuna’s Penance”/”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders : Mamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 86 The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

A. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco

B. nationalist organization operating from Singapore

C. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin

D. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent

Q. 87 With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

A. It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India

B. It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of Coromandel area

C. It is an ancient form of dance, drama and a living tradition in the northern part of

Malabar

D. It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

Q. 88 Consider the following pairs :

1. Garba : Gujarat

2. Mohiniattam : Odisha

3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 89 With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs :

Famous shrine Location

1. Tabo monastery and temple complex : Spiti Valley

2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako : Zanskar Valley

3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 90 Consider the following statement :

1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.

2. The Philosophy of Pushtimarg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 91 A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

A. martial arts in North-East India

B. musical tradition in North-West India

C. classical vocal music in South India

D. pietra dura tradition in Central India

Q. 92 What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States

2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown

3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 93 Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

A. the mosque for the use of Royal Family

B. Akbar’s private prayer chamber

C. the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions

D. the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss

religious affairs

Q. 94 In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.

2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.

3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high

volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 95 With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 96 Consider the following statements :

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.

3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 97 Consider the following pairs :

Vitamin Deficiency disease

1. Vitamin C : Scurvy

2. Vitamin D : Rickets

3. Vitamin E : Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Q. 98 There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil

2. They can enter the food chains.

3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 99 Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

A. The International Monetary Fund

B. The United Nations Development Programme

C. The World Economic Forum

D. The World Bank

Q. 100 With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

1. Defence expenditure

2. Interest payments

3. Salaries and pensions

4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	A	D	C	A	A	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	C	C	C	C	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	A	D	C	B	D	B	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	A	D	D	A	A	D	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	C	B	A	C	C	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	B	D	B	C	C	C	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	C	C	B	D	C	B	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	D	A	B	B	D	D	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	B	A	C	A	D	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	C	B	D	B	A	D	A	C

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 20

B. 24

C. 32

D. 28

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 01, 86, etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “FACE”.

A. 31, 32, 02, 56

B. 67, 86, 97, 98

C. 00, 12, 13, 01

D. 23, 89, 68, 23

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

43 + 18 ÷ 9 x 4 – 3 = 87

A. + and ÷

B. x and +

C. ÷ and –

D. – and +

Q. 9 If 5 @ 3 @ 1 = 3 and 6 @ 9 @ 1 = 4, then 5 @ 9 @ 11 = ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Form

2. Foaming

3. Flower

4. Flame

5. Fog

A. 43251

B. 43215

C. 34251

D. 34215

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 17, 19, 23, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 26

D. 24

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

AC,DF, GI, ?

A. JK

B. JL

C. KL

D. KM

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cone

B. Cylinder

C. Cube

D. Triangle

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 25

B. 144

C. 361

D. 143

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. MN

B. AB

C. CE

D. XY

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Humans, Female, Children

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Nile : River : : Atlas : ?

A. Paper

B. Map

C. Mountain

D. Nature

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3 : 28 : : 4 : ?

A. 62

B. 63

C. 65

D. 64

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AD : BE : : MP : ?

A. PR

B. NQ

C. QR

D. NR

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SUSTENANCE

A. TEEN

B. SUN

C. NEST

D. CRUST

Q. 21 Present ages of M and N are in the ratio 7 : 8 respectively. After five years this ratio becomes 8 : 9. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 30

Q. 22 N remembers his birthday is before 16th December. N’s brother remembers his birthday is after 14th December. On which date of December is his birthday?

A. 14

B. 16

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some plates are cups.

II. All cups are red.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are red.

II. All plates are red.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “GOLD” is written as “IQNF”. How is “DRUM” written in that code language?

A. HSWO

B. FSVP

C. FSWP

D. FTWO

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “MAN” is written as “56” and “WAN” is written as “76”. How is “OPT” written in that code language?

A. 100

B. 101

C. 102

D. 103

Q. 26 How many positive factors of 76 are there?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.9)³+(2.4)³] ÷ [(7.9)²−7.9×2.4+(2.4)²]?

A. 11.4

B. 13.1

C. 10.3

D. 12.7

Q. 28 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. 2⁶⁰⁰>7⁹⁰⁰

II.3⁴⁰⁰>9⁵⁰⁰

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 29 How many numbers are there from 200 to 285 which are divisible by 7?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 22

D. 32

Q. 30 If N = √9 + √7, then what is the value of (1/N)?

A. √9 – √7

B. 2(√9 – √7)

C. (√9 – √7)/2

D. 4(√9-√7)

Q. 31 What is the unit’s digit of 216²¹⁶?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 32 P, Q and R undertook a work for Rs 52000. Together P and Q complete (2/5)th part of the work. What is the share (in Rs) of R?

A. 30000

B. 31000

C. 31200

D. 30400

Q. 33 Two popes S and T can fill a tank in 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. Pipe U can alone empty the same tank in 4 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 34 If the area of an equilateral triangle is 12√3 m², then what is the value (in metres) of its height?

A. 4.5

B. 6.5

C. 6

D. 4√3

Q. 35 A trader gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. To earn profit of 12% , by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 20

B. 40

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 36 An article has marked price of Rs 7200 and is available at a discount of 20%. The shopkeeper gives another discount to the buyer and sells the article for Rs 4896. What is the second discount (in %) offered?

A. 20

B. 12

C. 15

D. 10

Q. 37 If M : N = 2 : 7 and M : O = 4 : 3, then what is (M+N) : (N+O)?

A. 18:17

B. 17:19

C. 17:7

D. 18:3

Q. 38 If the sum of two numbers is equal to five times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 3:2

B. 2:1

C. 4:3

D. 2:5

Q. 39 Average of 15 numbers is 20. If a number 4 is also included, then what will be the average of these 16 numbers?

A. 17

B. 18

C. 18.5

D. 19

Q. 40 Sahil sold a fan to Ankit at a profit of 10%. ANkit sold the fan to Pulkit at a profit of 20%. If Pulkit pays Rs 330 for fan, then for how much (in Rs) Sahil bought the fan?

A. 300

B. 280

C. 340

D. 250

Q. 41 On selling an article for Rs 455, a shopkeeper losses 30%. For how much (in Rs) he should sell the article in order to earn a profit of 30%?

A. 750

B. 245

C. 845

D. 680

Q. 42 A man saves 36% of his income in 9 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 6 months, then by how much percentage should he increases his monthly savings?

A. 50

B. 33.33

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 43 Two numbers are 25% and 15% less than the third number respectively. First number is what percent less than the second number?

A. 11.76

B. 13.5

C. 17.8

D. 20.4

Q. 44 A car travels at a speed of 75 m/s for 2 hours. What is the distance (in km) travelled by the car?

A. 500

B. 525

C. 540

D. 550

Q. 45 An 800 metre long train crosses a 450 metre long bridge in 50 seconds. What is speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 80

D. 85

Q. 46 What is the simple interest (in Rs) on a principal of Rs 2000 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years?

A. 250

B. 200

C. 150

D. 225

Q. 47 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the total number of students in section E and section B?

A. 3060

B. 2900

C. 5300

D. 6000

Q. 48 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the difference between the number of students in section C and section D?

A. 86

B. 180

C. 196

D. 42

Q. 49 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

The number of students in section A is what percent of that of section B?

A. 90

B. 110

C. 109

D. 111.11

Q. 50 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the average number of students of the 2 smallest sections?

A. 1860

B. 1170

C. 1600

D. 1730

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Sports other than cricket (1)/ should also be given (2)/ their due importance in India (3)/ No Error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Deeds (1)/ not words (2)/ are what (3)/ really count (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Risha ______ a salary of Rs 50,000 every month.

A. have earned

B. earning

C. earn

D. earns

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

She ______ her mind after seeing the damaged washing machine.

A. losing

B. lose

C. lost

D. was loses

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Brevity

A. Crispness

B. Greatness

C. Fondness

D. Meekness

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Accord

A. Confer

B. Refusal

C. Dissension

D. Opposition

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Absolute

A. Division

B. Complete

C. Small

D. Half

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Swift

A. Rapid

B. Slow

C. Fast

D. Lonely

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fragrance

A. Strength

B. Stench

C. Steal

D. Dirt

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Agony

A. Suffering

B. Pain

C. Grief

D. Delight

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Can’t judge a book by its cover

A. We should not buy books without checking the cover

B. We should not judge others

C. We should not judge something primarily on its appearance

D. We should judge something primarily on its appearance

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

To keep body and soul together

A. To be in love

B. To be undecided

C. To make hospitable

D. To manage to live

Q. 63 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

One must (be working in a job) for which one has a natural talent.

A. be taking up a job

B. to prfferring a job

C. take up a job

D. No improvement

Q. 64 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Ruby does not like (me coming so late).

A. me come so late

B. my coming so late

C. I coming so late

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to run away secretly with a romantic partner

A. Effect

B. Engage

C. Elope

D. Entice

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to express regret for something that one has done wrong

A. Action

B. Reaction

C. Anxiety

D. Apologize

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Disilusionment

B. Dissillusionment

C. Disillussionment

D. Disillusionment

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Cactuss

B. Cactus

C. Ccttus

D. Kaktus

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Mehak made

P: a terrible mistake

Q: by not going

R: to the party

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The next

P: generation should use

Q: the non-renewable energy

R: wisely and sparingly

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built.

A. continuity

B. destiny

C. choice

D. volition

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character.

A. big

B. huge

C. small

D. large

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

en and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves

A. under

B. upon

C. with

D. No option is correct

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great he ights, if weare lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our fe et is crumbling.

whether in public life or student ______,

A. life

B. thought

C. dilemma

D. apathy

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

A. heavens

B. ground

C. sky

D. roof

Q. 76 Which of the following approves the draft framework of the Five Year Plans?

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Inter State Council

C. Finance Ministry

D. National Development Council

Q. 77 Mira Seth Committee was related with development of ______.

A. primary education

B. women health

C. handlooms

D. gender equality

Q. 78 Which part of the Indian Constitution has been called its soul?

A. Fundamental Duties

B. Citizenship

C. Preamble

D. Directive Principles

Q. 79 How much time does it take in the creation of Indian Constitution?

A. 2 years 11 month and 17 days

B. 3 years 10 months 28 days

C. 4 years 8 months 10 days

D. 5 years 7 months and 15 days

Q. 80 Where was the capital of Gandhara, one of the sixteen Mahajanpadas?

A. Champa

B. Takshashila

C. Hataka

D. Patali

Q. 81 Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the ______.

A. Ramakrishna Mission

B. Brahma Samaj

C. Arya Samaj

D. Theosophical society

Q. 82 Between which of the following two planets are the asteroids found?

A. Saturn and Uranus

B. Jupiter and Saturn

C. Mars and Jupiter

D. Earth and Mars

Q. 83 In which of the following states of India bamboo drip irrigation method is prevalent?

A. Rajasthan

B. Meghalaya

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh

Q. 84 Which part of the patato is eaten?

A. Stem

B. Root

C. Leaf

D. Flower

Q. 85 Which of the following in NOT a part of the digestive system?

A. Small Intestine

B. Large Intestine

C. Vacuole

D. Pancreas

Q. 86 Which of the following is a group of invertebrate animals?

A. Mammalia

B. Pisces

C. Reptilia

D. Arthropoda

Q. 87 Which one of the following statement is true about the gravitational force between two bodies?

A. It’s always repulsive

B. It’s always attractive

C. It can be attractive or repulsive

D. It’s neutral

Q. 88 Which part of the magnet has the least magnetic power?

A. at north pole

B. at south pole

C. in the middle

D. No option is correct

Q. 89 A standard alphanumeric keyboard of a laptop usually consists of how many keys?

A. 76-80 keys

B. 81-84 keys

C. 100-104 keys

D. 108-12 keys

Q. 90 Which of the following fact is true about alpha particles in an atom?

A. are positively charged particles

B. are negatively charged particles

C. are beam of neutrons

D. emits gamma radiation

Q. 91 A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state (or vice versa) is called ______.

A. Evaporation

B. Condensation

C. Sublimation

D. Diffusion

Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a major component of biotic environment?

A. Plant

B. Animal

C. Dcomposer

D. Water

Q. 93 In which of the following year Sampurn Gramin Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched?

A. 1988

B. 2001

C. 2004

D. 2007

Q. 94 Who among the following scientists invented the Telephone?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. James Watt

C. J.L Baird

D. C. Sholes

Q. 95 With which sport is Novak Djokovic associated?

A. Football

B. Golf

C. Tennis

D. Baseball

Q. 96 Which place is originally related to the famous Meenakari named “Theva Kala”?

A. Kerala

B. West Bengal

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 97 In which of the following fields is the B. C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Environment

D. Medical

Q. 98 Whose biography is the book ‘Anything but Khamosh’?

A. Manoj Bajpai

B. Shatrughan SInha

C. Nana Patekar

D. Sonakshi SInha

Q. 99 India is NOT a member of which of the following organization?

A. SAARC

B. BRICS

C. BIMSTEC

D. NATO

Q. 100 In which of the following countries the river Padma flow?

A. Nepal

B. Bhutan

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	C	A	A	D	C	B	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	C	B	B	C	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	A	C	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	B	C	B	C	A	A	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	A	C	A	B	A	B	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	D	C	A	A	B	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	C	D	C	D	D	B	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	B	A	C	D	B	C	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	D	B	D	C

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 32

B. 63

C. 34

D. 20

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 01, 65, etc and ‘A’ can be represented by 44, 95, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘CAT’.

A. 10,44,11,41

B. 56,97,67,43

C. 58,44,59,87

D. 33,79,97,87

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘A’ means ‘ +’ , ‘ B ‘ means ‘-‘ and ‘C’ means ‘÷’ and ‘D’ means ‘x’, then

7 A 11 B 13 D 3 C 39 = ?

A. 27

B. 17

C. 19

D. 32

Q. 9 If 13 % 7 ÷ 4 = 16 and 14 % 6 ÷ 3 = 17, then

23 % 7 ÷ 2 = ?

A. 28

B. 32

C. 18

D. 20

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. PRINT

2. PRAWN

3. PAGER

4. PASTE

5. PAIN

A. 35421

B. 34512

C. 45321

D. 43512

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

9 , 11, 20 , 31 , 51 ?

A. 91

B. 84

C. 76

D. 82

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

ACE , HJL , OQS , ?

A. TVX

B. TUV

C. VXZ

D. UWY

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. water

B. glass

C. coffee

D. tea

Q. 14 Select the odd pair.

A. 14 – 2744

B. 18 – 5832

C. 10 – 10000

D. 19 – 6859

Q. 15 Select the odd letters.

A. ABC

B. MNO

C. RST

D. PQM

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

currency, dollar, pound1

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Palette : colours : : report card : ?

A. marks

B. syllabus

C. homework

D. attendance

Q. 18 Select the related number from following.

83 : 9 : : 146 : ?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

PM : LI : : BY : ?

A. WW

B. XU

C. XV

D. WU

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

UNEXCITABLE

A. BLADE

B. EXIT

C. BITE

D. TABLE

Q. 21 Weight of W is twice that of X. Weight of X is 1/3 of Y. Weight of Y of 3 times of Z. Weight of Z is 1/4 times of A. Who is the heaviest?

A. A

B. W

C. Y

D. X

Q. 22 W,X,Y,Z and A are sitting in a line facing west. W and X are sitting together. Y is sitting at south end and Z is sitting at north end. A is neighbour of X and Z. Who is sitting in the middle?

A. A

B. Z

C. X

D. W

Q. 23 Below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statemennts to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows the statements.

STATEMENTS:

1. All kites are red.

2.No red is blue.

CONCLUSION:

1.Some kite are blue.

2.No kite is blue.

A. only conclusion 1 follows.

B. only conclusion 2 follows.

C. both conclusion follows.

D. neither conclusion follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘HATCH’ is written as ‘ JXVZJ’. How is ‘SEDAN’ written in that code language?

A. UBFXP

B. CVFYP

C. FXPVB

D. HVWZM

Q. 25 In certain language, ‘VIRGE’ is written as ‘ 19635’ and ‘LOAD’ is written as ‘7480’. How is ‘glove’ written?

A. 37415

B. 34175

C. 56437

D. 96035

Q. 26 If 101 x 102 x 103 is divided by 10, then what will be the remainder?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of 249 x 251?

A. 64599

B. 62099

C. 62499

D. 64499

Q. 28 What is the value of [(5.3)³ – (3.8)³] ÷ [(5.3)² + (3.8)² + (5.3) x (3.8)] ?

A. 2.25

B. 2.7

C. 1.3

D. 1.5

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

1. 4√3 > 3√2

2. 3√2 > 6√5

A. only 1

B. only 2

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Q. 30 If 84B78 is divisble by 11, then what is the value of B?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 31 What is the value of 2² + 4² + 6² + ………, 20² ?

A. 1470

B. 1630

C. 1820

D. 1540

Q. 32 A , B and C undertook a work for Rs 26000. Together A and B complete (9/13)th work of the work. What is the share in Rs. of C?

A. 10000

B. 8000

C. 12000

D. 7000

Q. 33 Three taps A , B and C can fill a tank in 90 , 10 and 18 hours respectively. If all the taps are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 34 The length of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 40 cm and 50 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 180 cm², then what is the value of its height (in cm) ?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 2

D. 8

Q. 35 The cost price of an article is 81% of the marked price. What is the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 10% o the marked price?

A. 11.11

B. 9.09

C. 12.5

D. 7.5

Q. 36 A trader gives a discount of 15% on the marked price. To earn profit of 19%, by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 30

D. 35

Q. 37 If M : N = 3 : 5 and M :O = 4 : 6 ,then what is ( M+N) :(N+O) ?

A. 19 : 15

B. 16 : 19

C. 15 : 19

D. 25 : 16

Q. 38 If the sum of the two numbers is equal to two times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 4 : 3

B. 1 : 2

C. 3 : 5

D. 3 : 1

Q. 39 Average of 19 numbers is 15. If a number 25 is also included, then what will be the average of these 20 numbers?

A. 14.5

B. 16.5

C. 15.5

D. 17.5

Q. 40 An article was sold at 15% gain. Had it been sold for Rs 195 more, then the gain would have been 30 %. What is the cost price?

A. 1100

B. 2200

C. 1300

D. 1950

Q. 41 A man buys a toy for Rs. 40 and sells it for Rs. 60. What is his gain percent?

A. 30

B. 50

C. 75

D. 25

Q. 42 A man saves 12 % of his income in 6 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 4 months, then by how much percent should he increase his monthly savings?

A. 33.33

B. 50

C. 66.66

D. 25

Q. 43 J is 10 % more than K. K is 10 % less than L. L is 10 % less than M. If M is 2000, then what is the value of J?

A. 1844

B. 1806

C. 1782

D. 1756

Q. 44 A train running with a speed of 3km/hr , crosses a telephone pole. If the length of train is 9000 meters, then what is the time taken by train to cross the pole? (in sec)

A. 1000

B. 1080

C. 1020

D. 900

Q. 45 A 950 meters long train crosses a 850 meters long bridge. If the speed of the train is 60km/hr, then what is the time taken (in sec) to cross the bridge?

A. 120

B. 108

C. 115

D. 102

Q. 46 What is the sum (in Rs ) of money which became Rs 17545 at the rate of 10% per annum at compound interest in two years?

A. 14500

B. 13800

C. 12800

D. 15200

Q. 47 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the maximum difference (in 000′) between the number of tourists in Mumbai and Amritsar for any year?

A. 68

B. 52

C. 100

D. 80

Q. 48 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the percentage change in the number of tourists in Mumbai from year 2003 to 2004?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 16

D. 68

Q. 49 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. The number of tourists in Amritsar in year 2005 is what percent of the number of tourists in Mumbai in year 2001?

A. 75

B. 80

C. 120

D. 70

Q. 50 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the average number of tourist in Mumbai from year 2000 to 2004? (in 000′)

A. 150

B. 146

C. 168

D. 172

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. The justice Minister urged lawmakers (1)/ to back the bill and says that the (2)/ government would listen to the concerns (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’. The opposition Party had called to its (1)/ lawmakers to vote against the bill (2)/ if the government failed to make concessions (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Power yoga is ____________ exercise to reduce the belly fat.

A. a best

B. the best

C. one of the best

D. an best

Q. 54 Select the word to be filled in the blank in the sentence.

Megha has an _________ for music.

A. attitude

B. intuition

C. aptitude

D. imagination

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

PANORAMA

A. scene

B. hide

C. conquer

D. rise

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

PECULIAR

A. NORMAL

B. REGULAR

C. USUAL

D. STRANGE

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

REALM

A. chubby

B. field

C. treason

D. copy

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of the word.

UNFORESEEN

A. surprising

B. accidental

C. expected

D. sudden

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

INCLUDE

A. admit

B. build

C. comprise

D. reject

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

OVERT

A. clear

B. open

C. hidden

D. visible

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

over heard and ears.

A. very loud

B. very excited

C. completely trapped

D. very angry

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/ phrase.

giving a piece of one’s mind.

A. to flatter someone

B. to express oneself

C. to rebuke someone

D. to encourage someone

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Residents (says) the firing lasted just around 10 minutes, indicating at a well- planned trap.

A. said

B. tells

C. complains

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve bracketed part of the sentence.

“Militant leadership ( are to be) eliminated because they also misguide our children and lure them into this,” said Inspector General of Police.

A. has to be

B. were to be

C. would have be

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the one which best substitutes the idiom/phase.

one for whom money is the most important thing.

A. materialsitic

B. divine

C. disciple

D. extravagant

Q. 66 Select the one which best substitutes the idiom/phase.

one who hates reasoning.

A. misologist

B. abortionist

C. destructionalist

D. prohibitionist

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. chocolat

B. choclate

C. chokelate

D. chocolate

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. commentory

B. comentary

C. commentary

D. comenttary

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

An equitable distribution of

P: for a sustained quality

Q; of life and global peace

R: resources has become essential

A. RPQ

B. QRP

C. PQR

D. RQP

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Ploughing along the

P: contour lines can

Q: water down the slopes

R: decelerate ate the flow of

A. PRQ

B. QPR

C. RQP

D. QRP

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Govern mentsmust spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

where even now about fifty percent people are ______.

A. illiterate

B. educated

C. literate

D. experienced

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening. country must be mobilized to wage a ______ against

A. support

B. war

C. ceasefire

D. truce

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

There should be a _______ for students,

A. optional

B. easy

C. compulsion

D. temporary

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

personnel must be _______ to the utmost.

A. halt

B. stop

C. demobilize

D. mobilized

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

be thrown __________ for the illiterate adults.

A. open

B. close

C. shut

D. fold

Q. 76 Generally people engaged in which activity face seasonal and disguised unemployment?

A. service

B. agriculture

C. manufacturing

D. construction

Q. 77 Increase in unemployment indicates which type of economy?

A. healthy

B. depressed

C. developed

D. stagnant

Q. 78 Directive principles of state policy in Indian constitution has been taken from which country’s constitution?

A. Irish constitution

B. US constitution

C. British constitution

D. Australian constitution

Q. 79 Under which article supreme court of India issues writs?

A. Article 20

B. Article 56

C. Article 68

D. Article 32

Q. 80 Which among the following was NOT a chinese pilgrim to India?

A. Al – Biruni

B. Fa – hien

C. Xuan Zang

D. I – Sing

Q. 81 What was Akbar’s age when he became emperor?

A. 9

B. 13

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 82 The Earth rotates by what degree in four minutes?

A. 4°

B. 10°

C. 36°

D. 1°

Q. 83 Which strait connects Arctic ocean with the Pacific ocean?

A. Gibraltor Strait

B. Dover Strait

C. Berring Strait

D. Sunda Strait

Q. 84 Bowman’s capsules are found in __________.

A. kidney of mammals

B. heart of mammals

C. liver of mammals

D. cerebellum of rabbit

Q. 85 The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inhaled by humans is callled as _________.

A. inspirations capacity

B. vital lung capacity

C. residual volume

D. total lung capacity

Q. 86 What is broad , green part of leaf called?

A. base

B. top

C. petiole

D. lamina

Q. 87 The SI unit of density is _______.

A. kg m⁻³

B. g cm⁻³

C. kg ⁻²

D. g m³

Q. 88 When an object is lifted vertically upwards from ground , then its ______________.

A. potential energy decreases

B. potential energy increases

C. potential energy remains same

D. none

Q. 89 What is the process of transferring files from internet to computer memory called?

A. uploading

B. downloading

C. bookmarking

D. hyperlinking

Q. 90 Which of the following are isomers?

A. ethane and propane

B. methane and methene

C. propane and propene

D. butane and isobutane

Q. 91 The substance that looses electrons is called ________.

A. oxidizing agent

B. reducing agent

C. catalyst

D. none

Q. 92 Food web is a system of interlocking and interdependent _________.

A. food cycles

B. food chains

C. food system

D. none

Q. 93 What is the aim of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Unnat Krishi Shiksha Scheme?

A. To promote agricultural productivity

B. To promote agricultural health

C. To promote agricultural education

D. None

Q. 94 Which of the following is NOT correctly paired?

A. E. Torricelli – Barometer

B. Neutron – James Chadwick

C. Penicillin – F. Banting

D. Revolver – Samuel Colt

Q. 95 ‘Ring’ is the place where ____ is played.

A. boxing

B. cricket

C. football

D. skating

Q. 96 Alahi Darwaja is a _______ to the enclosure of Quwut -Ul-Islam mosque at Delhi.

A. gateway

B. minaret

C. dome

D. arch

Q. 97 Shankha Ghosh has won which award for the year 2016?

A. Dronacharya

B. Arjun

C. Jnanpith

D. Nobel

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “Out of my comfort zone”?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Steve Waugh

C. Harbhajan Singh

D. Sunil Gavaskar

Q. 99 India became the first non-member of the Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT) to have signed civilian nuclear deal with which country?

A. Japan

B. Nepal

C. Pakistan

D. Indonesia

Q. 100 Bagan city, the world’s largest and densest concentration of Buddhist temples, pagodas, stupas and ruins is situated in which country?

A. Myanmar

B. Bangladesh

C. Bhutan

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	D	A	C	A	D	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	B	A	A	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	B	A	A	B	C	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	B	B	D	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	C	B	B	A	D	B	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	B	C	A	D	B	C	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	A	D	C	A	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	B	B	A	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	C	A	D	D	A	B	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	B	A	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 34

B. 36

C. 38

D. 32

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 9

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘J’ can be represented by 42, 87, etc and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘BITE’.

A. OO , 12 , 88 , 21

B. 41, 40 , 02, 04

C. 67, 96, 12, 86

D. 23, 58, 68, 01

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘Q’ means ‘ +’ , ‘ N ‘ means ‘-‘ and ‘L’ means ‘÷’ and ‘T’ means ‘x’, then

44 T 4 L 11 Q 6 = ?

A. 17

B. 14

C. 88/17

D. 22

Q. 9 If 6 x 4 x 1 = 33 and 4 x 2 x 2 = 24, then 2 x 3 x 1 = ?

A. 18

B. 22

C. 20

D. 2

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. storm

2. string

3. stock

4. stream

5. store

A. 35142

B. 53142

C. 51342

D. 31542

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

9 , 11, 15, 21, ?

A. 28

B. 29

C. 27

D. 30

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

X, V, T, R, ?, ?

A. P, M

B. P, N

C. Q, O

D. Q, P

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. tongue

B. ear

C. nose

D. sweet

Q. 14 Select the odd number pair.

A. 64 – 512

B. 16 – 64

C. 9 – 27

D. 81 – 243

Q. 15 Select the odd letters from the options.

A. AC

B. DF

C. MO

D. XY

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

WORD , LETTER , PARAGRAPH

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Wool : Sheep : : Silk : ?

A. plant

B. tree

C. worm

D. animal

Q. 18 Select the related number from following.

9 : 729 : : 11 : ?

A. 121

B. 1331

C. 1221

D. 1100

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

AB : YZ : : BC : ?

A. YX

B. XZ

C. XW

D. XY

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

STRATEGIC

A. RAT

B. GREAT

C. CRANE

D. STAR

Q. 21 Shyam starts walking from a point. He walks 10km to the North. He then turns east and walks 12km west and walks 16km. In which direction is Shyam from his starting point?

A. West

B. North

C. north – west

D. south – west

Q. 22 Present age of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively. After nine years this ration becomes 4 :5 . What is present age of A?

A. 18

B. 27

C. 36

D. 45

Q. 23 Below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows the statements.

STATEMENTS:

1. Some blue are black.

2. Some black are blue.

CONCLUSIONS:

1. No red is black

2. Some black are blue.

A. only conclusion 1 follows.

B. only conclusion 2 follows.

C. both conclusion follows

D. neither conclusion follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘FOUR’ is written as ‘ GPVS’. How is ‘NAND’ written in that code language?

A. OBOC

B. OBME

C. MBOE

D. OBOE

Q. 25 In certain language, ‘TEA’ is written as ‘ 26’ and ‘PEA’ is written as ’22’. How is ‘TWO’ written?

A. 57

B. 56

C. 58

D. 59

Q. 26 What is the value of 3² + 4² + ….16² ?

A. 1373

B. 1261

C. 1491

D. 1563

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.8)³ + (3.4³)] ÷ [(7.8)² – 7.8 x 3.4 + (3.4)²] ?

A. 0.9

B. 11.2

C. 13.4

D. 9.8

Q. 28 What are the positive factors of 54?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 5

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

1. (5/9) > (7/11)

2.(6/7) > (8/9)

A. only 1

B. only 2

C. both

D. none

Q. 30 N is number divisible by 17. If (N +3) (N + 5) is divided by 17, then what will be the remainder?

A. 9

B. 11

C. 10

D. 15

Q. 31 If a number is as much as greater than 53 as it is less than 95, then what is that number?

A. 21

B. 76

C. 41

D. 74

Q. 32 Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours and B can fill in 6 hours. Pipe C can empty the same full tank in 3 hours. If all the pipes are opened together , then what portion of the tank will be filled after 6 hours?

A. 2/9

B. 1/5

C. 1/3

D. 2/3

Q. 33 Aman and Raman together can do a work in 40days. Aman alonee can do the work in 60 days. In how many days Raman alone can do the work?

A. 90

B. 120

C. 150

D. 105

Q. 34 The ratio of the angles of a triangle is 4 : 3 : 2. What is the measure of the largest angle (in degrees)?

A. 70

B. 80

C. 75

D. 60

Q. 35 A shopkeeper allows two successive discounts of 35% and 15% on selling an article. If he gets Rs 221 for the article, then what is the marked price of the article?

A. 400

B. 420

C. 380

D. 450

Q. 36 A trader gives a discount of 10% on the marked price. To earn profit of 62%, by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 80

B. 50

C. 60

D. 40

Q. 37 The ratio of two numbers is 9 : 2. If the difference is 91, then what is the smallest number?

A. 117

B. 13

C. 65

D. 26

Q. 38 Of three positive numbers, the ratio of first and second is 5 :7, that of second and third is 7 : 9 and the product of first and third is 18000. What is the sum of the three numbers?

A. 450

B. 420

C. 360

D. 340

Q. 39 The average of N numbers is 20. If a number 4 is removed, then average becomes 22.. What is the value of N?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 9

D. 11

Q. 40 By selling an article for Rs 352 there is a loss of 12%. What i s the cost price of the article?

A. 395

B. 450

C. 400

D. 475

Q. 41 A man sold 500 chairs and had a gain equal to selling price of 20 chairs. What is his profit percentage?

A. 12.5

B. 8.33

C. 4.16

D. 10

Q. 42 Sum of two numbers is 140 % of the larger number. If smaller number is 18, then what is the value of the larger number?

A. 27

B. 36

C. 45

D. 54

Q. 43 In a country 25% people are males. If the number of males is 6500, then what is the total population of the country?

A. 28000

B. 26000

C. 31000

D. 33000

Q. 44 The speed of boat in still water is 25 km/hr. It covers a distance of 45km upstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 45 Raman goes to a place at a speed of 9km/hr and returns back at 18 km/hr. What is his average speed?

A. 15

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 46 The population of a state increases at the rate of 10% per annum. If the present population of state is 439230, then what was the population of state 4 years ago?

A. 30000

B. 300000

C. 350000

D. 400000

Q. 47 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

What is the percentage change in the number of cars manufactured from year 2013 to 2014?

A. 16.66

B. 33.33

C. 83.33

D. 55.88

Q. 48 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

For how many years was the number of cars (in lacs) manufactured by company X more than 220 lacs?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 6

D. 4

Q. 49 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

What was the difference between number of acrs manufactured in 2012 and 2015 (in lacs) ?

A. 75

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

Q. 50 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

In the year 2016, the number of cars manufactured was more than that of which of the following year?

A. 2013

B. 2015

C. 2014

D. none

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

As the country would lacking laws (1)/ and a regulatory framework to (2)/ steer the process. (3) No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

The PM weekend by the loss of her (1)/ majority in June election , now (2)/ faces a battle against politicians(3)/. no error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Had I reached earlier, I __________ have caught the bus.

A. will

B. can

C. ought

D. would

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Pallavi along with me _____ to Goa.

A. had going

B. is going

C. were going

D. are going

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

GOSPEL

A. THEORY

B. HYPOTHESIS

C. FAITH

D. DISBELIEF

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

HOODWINK

A. CHEAT

B. HONEST

C. LOYAL

D. PERMIT

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

IMBECILE

A. BRAINY

B. SMART

C. INTELLIGENT

D. IDIOT

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

OUTLANDISH

A. alien

B. awkward

C. sensible

D. boorish

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

IMPECCABLE

A. pure

B. clean

C. sinless

D. flawed

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

PINNACLE

A. apex

B. base

C. climax

D. peak

Q. 61 Select the alternative for the idiom/phrase.

In a pickle

A. experiencing a difficult situation

B. earning money at the cost of other

C. taking advantage of a favorable opportunity

D. praising himself and others

Q. 62 Select the alternative for the idiom/phrase.

Trump card

A. that gives someone an advantage

B. fake identity

C. an unusual obstacle

D. an unforeseen liability

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

The photographer whose camera was used to take the photos (agree to donate) any future revenue from the image.

A. agreement to donate

B. agreeing to donate

C. agreed to donate

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Technologically, it was (one the) most advanced foundries in the world.

A. out of

B. one of the

C. between the

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

One who cannot make mistake.

A. infallible

B. reversible

C. negligible

D. eligible

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Murder of infant

A. germicide

B. infanticide

C. bactericide

D. fungicide

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. binoculor

B. binocular

C. byenocular

D. binoculer

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. ambiteous

B. ambitieus

C. ambittious

D. ambitious

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Globalisation is the

P: of countries

Q: rapid integration

R: process of

A. PQR

B. RPQ

C. QPR

D. RQP

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Producers need to

P: and regulations

Q: required safety rules

R: strictly follow the

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. RPQ

D. QRP

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Childhood depression is not just a mood swing where a child can plainly snap ___________ of it. This disorder goes beyond the sadness of having a bad day and having to cope with it. It’s worse than dealing _________ a deceased parent or _______ of a friend when the child has to move. This _______ involves the brain, and affects the way the child feels, thinks, and acts. This disease is highly treatable if ____ early on and the child can avoid school failure, thoughts of suicide and the like. where a child can plainly snap ____ of it.

A. out

B. in

C. away

D. forward

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. up

B. with

C. off

D. on

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. loss

B. slap

C. rebuke

D. fight

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. disorder

B. blessing

C. system

D. innovation

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. caught

B. detected

C. lost

D. created

Q. 76 Which is the most important aspect of closed economy?

A. import off

B. export off

C. both import export off

D. none is correct

Q. 77 What is full form of NSSO?

A. National Safety and Security Organisation

B. National Statistical Survey Organisation

C. National Sample Survey Organisation

D. None is correct

Q. 78 How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by President?

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 79 Who administers oath of the office and secrecy to the Lok Sabha Speaker?

A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

B. Vice President

C. President

D. Prime Minister

Q. 80 Which place of Indus Valley civilization is known as the Oasis of Sindh?

A. Dholavira

B. Mohenjodaro

C. Chanhudaro

D. Harappa

Q. 81 ‘One caste one religion, one god for man’ is the teaching of _________.

A. Rajaram Mohan Roy

B. Sree Naryana Guru

C. C. Kesavan

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Q. 82 Which landscape is not formed by volcanic activities?

A. cone

B. dome

C. cirque

D. lava cave

Q. 83 In which state Kakrapar project located?

A. Maharashtra

B. Rajasthan

C. Gujarat

D. Kerala

Q. 84 Which organelles in a cell is considered as a suicide bag?

A. centrosome

B. mesosomes

C. lysosomes

D. chromosome

Q. 85 Husk (outer cover) of a coconut is made of which tissue?

A. parenchyma tissue

B. sclerenchyma tissue

C. collenchyma

D. xylem

Q. 86 Which disease is cause by viral infection?

A. cholera

B. typhoid

C. diphtheria

D. influenza

Q. 87 Which statement is correct about the value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles?

A. it will be more than at the equator

B. it will be same as the equator

C. it will be less than at equator

D. it will be zero

Q. 88 Which is an incorrect pair?

Physical Quantity	SI Unit
1.	Length	Metre
2.	Mass	Kilogram
3.	Time	Hour

A. only 1

B. only II

C. ONLY III

D. both II and III

Q. 89 In which the length of word is measured in computer?

A. millimetre

B. centimeter

C. litre

D. bit

Q. 90 When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which is best method to separate liquids?

A. chromatography

B. filtration

C. evaporation

D. distillation

Q. 91 Materials having the properties of both metals and non metals are called ______.

A. alloys

B. metalloids

C. noble metals

D. mixtures

Q. 92 Which is threat to environment?

A. growing plant

B. growing population

C. growing crops

D. frowing flowers

Q. 93 Which is not a Maharatna company of India?

A. NTPC

B. CIL

C. BEL

D. BHEL

Q. 94 Which scientist invented the Zip fastener?

A. W. I. Judson

B. Thomas Edison

C. A. L .Breguet

D. G.S. Ohm

Q. 95 Of Which international game event is “Citius, Altius, Fortius” the motto?

A. football world cup

B. cricket world cup

C. wimbledon

D. olympics

Q. 96 Who build Jama Masjid of Delhi?Qutu

A. Qutubud – din Aibak

B. Akbar

C. Jahangir

D. Shahjahan

Q. 97 Grammy Award is given in which field?

A. music

B. journalism

C. environment

D. medicine

Q. 98 Who is the author of “Final test : Exit Sachin Tendulkar” ?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Dilip D’Souza

C. Yuvraj Singh

D. Kapil Dev

Q. 99 In which year United Nation officially came into existence?

A. 1942

B. 1944

C. 1945

D. 1947

Q. 100 Who was first Prime Minister of Pakistan?

A. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

B. Liaquat Ali Khan

C. Ayub Khan

D. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	D	A	A	A	A	A	D	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	D	A	C	B	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	C	B	C	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	A	D	B	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	B	B	B	B	A	D	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	D	B	C	A	D	C	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	C	B	A	B	B	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	A	A	B	C	C	C	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	C	C	B	D	A	C	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	D	A	B	C	B

SSC MTS Tier-I 13 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 13 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 27

B. 28

C. 26

D. 25

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘J’ can be represented by 42, 87, etc and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘REACT’.

A. 34, 01, 00, 88, 02

B. 13, 21, 31, 02, 44

C. 34, 86, 69, 13, 68

D. 34, 23, 21, 43, 88

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging given two signs and two numbers which equation will be correct?

x and + , 2 and 6

A. 2 + 3 ÷ 6 x 4 =13

B. 2 ÷ 6 + 3 x 4 =10

C. 4 x 3 + 2 – 6 =11

D. 3 + 4 ÷ 6 x 2 = 9

Q. 9 If 8 @ 4 @ 2 = 1 and 27 @ 9 @ 3 = 1, then

49 @ 7 @ 7 = ?

A. 2

B. -1

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. Monday

2. Murder

3. Muggot

4. Monkey

5. Monster

A. 15432

B. 14532

C. 15423

D. 14523

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

5 ,8, 14, 23, ? , 50

A. 34

B. 35

C. 36

D. 37

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

pam , qcn , reo , ? , tiq

A. sfq

B. sgp

C. shq

D. sfp

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. shirt

B. socks

C. pant

D. sweater

Q. 14 Select the odd number.

A. 83

B. 93

C. 65

D. 35

Q. 15 Select the odd letters from the options.

A. mark

B. shell

C. mall

D. bark

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

guava, apple, banana

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Time : seconds : : ? : ?

A. distance : kilometre

B. speed : time

C. pressure : seconds

D. temperature : metre

Q. 18 Select the related number.

288 : 72 : : 576 : ?

A. 500

B. 144

C. 140

D. 134

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

mate : ncug : : goat : ?

A. iqbv

B. hpbu

C. ipcv

D. hqbv

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

IMPATIENCE

A. TIME

B. CRATE

C. TAPE

D. MATE

Q. 21 In a row of 67 students, B is 24th from left end. What is his place from the right end?

A. 43

B. 44

C. 42

D. 45

Q. 22 P is brother of Q. Q is sister of R. R is is son of S. T is sister of S. How is T related to Q?

A. aunty

B. mother

C. sister

D. grandmother

STATEMENTS:

I. Some W are V.

II. All V are T.

CONCLUSIONS:

I. Some T are W.

II. Some V are not W.

A. only I follows.

B. only II follows.

C. both follows

D. none follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘ACID’ is written as ‘ BELH’. How is ‘LETS’ written in that code language?

A. MGWW

B. MFWW

C. MGWV

D. NGYW

Q. 25 In a certain code language, ‘CUP’ is written as ‘ 45’ and ‘CUM’ is written as ’42’. How is ‘ICE’ written in that code language?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 20

D. 17

Q. 26 Irfan bought a chair for Rs 517 with a discount of 6% on the marked price. Find the marked price of the chair.

A. 580

B. 520

C. 550

D. 540

Q. 27 The sum of all odd whole numbers between 8 and 32 is _____.

A. 240

B. 320

C. 360

D. 260

Q. 28 How many whole numbers are there between 52 and 356 which are exactly divisible by 6?

A. 49

B. 51

C. 53

D. 55

Q. 29 What is the sum of all 3 digit natural numbers divisible by 17?

A. 28736

B. 28632

C. 28832

D. 28732

Q. 30 When a manufacturer allows 10 % commission on the wholesale price of Rs 5000 for a particular item, he earns a profit of 25%. How much profit does the manufacturer earn on that item?

A. 1000

B. 800

C. 500

D. 900

Q. 31 A bus runs at an average speed of 32km/hr. If it completes 304km long journey with a break of 30 minutes, what is the total time taken during the journey?

A. 12 hrs

B. 11 hrs

C. 10 hrs

D. 9 hrs

Q. 32 Find value of (62% of 650) + (45% of 340).

A. 556

B. 506

C. 553

D. 453

Q. 33 A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B and C together can do it in 3 days, while A and C together can do it in 2 days. How many days will B take to do the work alone?

A. 8 days

B. 12 days

C. 10 days

D. 16 days

Q. 34 The average of 5 , 7, 12, 15 and X is 10. What will be the value of Y if the average of 9, 12, 13, 17, X and Y is 14.

A. 12

B. 13

C. 20

D. 22

Q. 35 A shopkeeper offers 23% discount on a bag with marked price of Rs4500.. If he stil earns profit of Rs 600, what is the cost price of bag?

A. 3900

B. 2865

C. 2965

D. 3465

Q. 36 The total surface area of a cube is 726 cm². What is the volume of this cube?

A. 1231 cm³

B. 1331cm³

C. 1431cm³

D. 1531cm³

Q. 37 What least number must be added to 748 so that the sum is completely divisible by 59?

A. 21

B. 13

C. 19

D. 7

Q. 38 What will be the annual simple interest rate if a principal amount of Rs 88,000 become Rs 1,61,920 in 6 years?

A. 11%

B. 12%

C. 13%

D. 14%

Q. 39 The monthly salaries of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 6. If both of them get a salary increment of Rs2000 per month, the new ration becomes 11 : 13. What is the new monthly salary of A?

A. Rs 20000

B. Rs 24000

C. Rs 26000

D. Rs 22000

Q. 40 A bullock cart covers a distance of 10 kms in 4 hours. What is the average speed of the bullock cart?

A. 8 km

B. 2.5 km/hr

C. 2 km/hr

D. 10 km/hr

Q. 41 How many of the following numbers are divisible by 232?

192, 1008, 832, 656, 1264, 1822

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 42 A shopkeeper buys a dozen umbrella for Rs1200. Two of the umbrellas were damaged during transportation. Find his profit percentage, if he sells rest of the umbrellas at Rs 150 each?

A. 5%

B. 8%

C. 3.5%

D. 4.5%

Q. 43 A shopkeeper buys a dozen umbrella for Rs 1200. Two of the umbrellas were damaged during transportation. Find his profit percentage, if he sells rest of the umbrella at Rs 150 each?

A. 20%

B. 15%

C. 25%

D. 10%

Q. 44 Rahul does complete a work in 25 hours. If Rajesh is 25% more efficient than Rahul then how much hours will Rajesh take to complete the same work?

A. 20hrs

B. 30hrs

C. 21hrs

D. 22hrs

Q. 45 If Rs 1638 is divided in the ration of 8 : 7 : 11 among A, B ,C respectively, what will be the share of C?

A. Rs 693

B. Rs 504

C. Rs 593

D. Rs 441

Q. 46 The largest 5- digit number divisible by 21 is ______.

A. 99981

B. 9988

C. 9991

D. 9993

Q. 47 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. What is the amount spent on apple in the particular month?

A. Rs 345

B. Rs 360

C. Rs 375

D. Rs 355

Q. 48 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. How much more amount is spent on banana than orange?

A. rs 120

B. rs 90

C. rs 300

D. rs 900

Q. 49 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month.

What is the ratio of amount spent on orange and grapes?

A. 4/3

B. 7/3

C. 15/4

D. 20/3

Q. 50 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. The amount spent on Pomegranate is how much less than spent on Orange?

A. rs 80

B. rs 75

C. rs 20

D. rs 60

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. A pretty dispute between a police constable (1)/ and a motorcycle- borne couple late lead (2)/ to clashes between the locals and the police (3)/ nO error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

Residents from nearby areas came out to (1)/ protest against the police and a verbal spat turned into a (2)/ full – fledged clash amongst cops and the protesters (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Rohan stood ____ the crowd quite amazed.

A. in

B. from

C. for

D. into

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

This is Ritika’s lunchbox, _______ is the empty one.

A. yours

B. your

C. you

D. yourselves

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

ALLURE

A. ATTRACT

B. PREVENT

C. WARN

D. DETER

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

COLLOQUIAL

A. CORRECT

B. FORMAL

C. FAMILIAR

D. STANDARD

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

CONTEMPLATE

A. DESIGN

B. NEGLECT

C. DESIGN

D. FORGET

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

JUDICIOUS

A. ACUTE

B. RASH

C. CAREFUL

D. WISE

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

CITE

A. PRESENT

B. OFFER

C. FORGET

D. ALLEGE

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

CLASH

A. BATTLE

B. ARGUMENT

C. BRUSH

D. HARMONY

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

kick the bucket

A. to abuse someone

B. to emphasize

C. to die

D. to turn pale

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

bear the palm

A. to win

B. emotionless

C. in disgrace

D. with a heavy heart

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

As Ministers, their mandate ( was to be) single – mindedly focus on results without having to worry about reporting a career politician.

A. will be to

B. willing be to

C. must to

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

But the choices (is also an) indication of the small talent pool before Mr. Modi.

A. might also an

B. are also an

C. can also an

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Gold and silver before using for manufacturing ornaments.

A. stones

B. bullion

C. currency

D. money

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Anything tending to move away from center.

A. centrifugal

B. centripetal

C. centripede

D. circumcentre

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. accorate

B. accuearate

C. acurrate

D. accurate

Q. 68 Select the correctly splet word.

A. adequate

B. adecute

C. adecuate

D. edequate

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Activities in the

P: guided by the motive

Q: private sector are

R: to earn profits

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Rohan and Ranjan

P: about the terms

Q: had finished reading

R: of credit in class

A. PQR

B. QPR

C. RPQ

D. PRQ

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a dominant part. As man’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural methods, that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. mankind moves from the ______ isolated.

A. small

B. large

C. immense

D. big

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a dominant part. As man’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural m ethods,that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. , complex, ________, industrialised

A. rural

B. urban

C. uncivilised

D. destitute

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. secondary

B. collateral

C. primary

D. higher

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a domin ant part. Asman’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural m ethods, that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. natural forces _____,

A. shrinks

B. deteorates

C. drops

D. grows

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. symposiums

B. origins

C. summons

D. destructions

Q. 76 To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as _____.

A. inter cropping

B. multiple cropping

C. mixed cropping

D. none

Q. 77 In India, what is the accepted average calories requirement per person per day in rural areas?

A. 2100

B. 2200

C. 2300

D. 2400

Q. 78 Who appoints the Judges of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Prime Minister

B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

C. Vice President

D. President

Q. 79 For whom are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian Constitution?

A. For government employees

B. for all citizens

C. for all the senior citizens

D. none

Q. 80 Which places of Indus Valley was situated on the bank of Luni river?

A. dholavia

B. mohenjodaro

C. chanhudaro

D. harappa

Q. 81 Who has written ‘Satyarth Prakash’ ?

A. Lala Lajpat Rai

B. Dayanand Saraswati

C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

D. Lokmanya Tilak

Q. 82 Which landscape is not formed by the sea- water?

A. lagoon

B. kayal

C. cirque

D. beach

Q. 83 To which project is Narmada Bachao Andolan related?

A. Sardar Sarovar

B. Bhakla Nangal

C. Rihand

D. Tehri

Q. 84 What is a fundamental function of Centriole in a cell?

A. protien synthesis

B. nucleolus formation

C. cell – wall formation

D. cell division initiation

Q. 85 Bone in most of big animals is an example of which tissues?

A. muscular tissues

B. connective tissues

C. epithelial tissues

D. nervous tissues

Q. 86 Ascaris, a kind of worm, lives in which part of the human body?

A. small intestine

B. large intestine

C. kidneys

D. liver

Q. 87 What is the value of acceleration due to gravity of the surface of Earth?

A. 2 m/s²

B. 4.9 m/s²

C. 9.8 m/s²

D. 8 m/s²

Q. 88 Speed of the sound is maximum in which medium?

A. air

B. water

C. steel

D. kerosene

Q. 89 One TB approximately comprises which data or space size?

A. 1000KB

B. 1024 MB

C. 1024 GB

D. 1000 GB

Q. 90 Which is heterogeneous mixture?

A. air

B. brass

C. vinegar

D. lime water

Q. 91 Which metal is found in liquid form at room temperature?

A. potassium

B. sodium

C. mercury

D. aluminium

Q. 92 Where are mangroves forests mainly found in India?

A. Kaziranga National Park

B. Western Ghats

C. Sunderban Delta

D. Bhakhra Nangal Dam

Q. 93 In which year, “Vande Mataram Scheme” was launched?

A. 2002

B. 2004

C. 2006

D. 2008

Q. 94 Which scientist invented Stainless Steel?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. Mendeleev

C. Max Plank

D. Harry Brearley

Q. 95 Which sport is Tour de France associated with?

A. football

B. golf

C. tennis

D. bicycle race

Q. 96 Which classical dance form relates to Tamil Nadu?

A. Kathakali

B. Bharatnatyam

C. Kuchipudi

D. none

Q. 97 Which state confers ‘Mewar Award’?

A. Haryana

B. Punjab

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 98 Who wrote the book “We The People” ?

A. Khushwant Singh

B. Nani A. Palkhivala

C. T. N. Kaul

D. J.R.D Tata

Q. 99 Which country is a permanent member of UN Security Council?

A. Brazil

B. China

C. japan

D. India

Q. 100 What is official language of Bhutan?

A. Dzongkkha

B. Gorkha

C. Bhutanese

D. Assamese

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	C	B	C	D	D	A	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	C	A	B	A	A	B	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	A	A	A	C	A	B	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	B	D	B	B	C	D	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	C	A	A	A	A	B	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	A	B	B	A	D	A	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	B	D	D	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	A	D	B	A	C	C	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	D	D	B	C	B	B	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 13 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 13 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the number at place of question mark.

A. 6

B. 9

C. 8

D. 7

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘F’ can be represented by 31, 67, etc and ‘L’ can be represented by 33, 75, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘ENACT’.

A. 01, 04, 14, 13, 97

B. 56, 32, 02, 03, 44

C. 97, 89, 86, 95, 98

D. 01, 89, 03, 68, 23

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging given two signs and two numbers which equation will be correct?

÷ and x, 10 and 5

A. 10 x 5 ÷ 3 + 1 = 7/2

B. 5 + 4 x 10 ÷ 1 = 29/2

C. 10 x 5 ÷ 4 ÷ 1 = 3

D. 5 ÷ 4 + 10 x 1 = -6

Q. 9 If 11 H 14 H 3 = 28 and 9 H 4 H 17 = 30 then 5 H 6 H 19 = ?

A. 30

B. 26

C. 28

D. 40

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1.Inking

2.Innings

3.India

4.Indica

5.Inglot

A. 34512

B. 34521

C. 43512

D. 43521

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

2, 5, 9, 14, ?, 27

A. 22

B. 20

C. 21

D. 19

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

A, CD, FGH, JKLM, ?

A. NOPQR

B. OPQRS

C. OPQR

D. PQ

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. coffee

B. cup

C. tea

D. water

Q. 14 Select the odd one.

A. 1

B. 64

C. 216

D. 256

Q. 15 Select the odd letters.

A. PRT

B. ACE

C. MNO

D. MOQ

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

Director, Actor, Book

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

MONEY : BANK : : EDUCATION : ?

A. TEACHER

B. SCHOOL

C. BUILDING

D. STUDENT

Q. 18 Select the related number.

18 : 289 : : 15 : ?

A. 256

B. 225

C. 196

D. 144

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

AM : NZ : : BC : ?

A. YZ

B. XZ

C. XY

D. DO

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

NOURISHMENT

A. TRIM

B. NOURISH

C. TRAUMA

D. SOUR

Q. 21 If the ratio of the present ages of P and Q is 3 : 4 and the sum of their ages 3 years ago was 36, then what is the ratio of their ages 3 years ago?

A. 5 : 7

B. 3 : 5

C. 4 : 7

D. 6 : 7

Q. 22 Present ages of R and S are in ratio 3 : 5 respectively. After 6 years this ration becomes 2: 3. What is the present age?

A. 18

B. 24

C. 30

D. 36

STATEMENTS:

I. Some X and Y.

II. All Y are Z.

CONCLUSIONS:

I.All Z are Y.

II. Some Z are X.

A. only I follows.

B. only II follows

C. both follows

D. none follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘RUST’ is written as ‘ PSQR’. How is ‘KENT’ written in that code language?

A. ICLR

B. ICMS

C. IDMR

D. JCLS

Q. 25 In a certain code language, ‘BUZ’ is written as ’59’ and ‘BIZ’ is written as ’47’. How is ‘FOG’ written in that code language?

A. 37

B. 38

C. 39

D. 40

Q. 26 What is the value of 76 + 77 + 78 …………….. 100?

A. 2100

B. 2120

C. 2200

D. 2380

Q. 27 If 2347X is completely divisible by 4, then what is the value of X?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 2 or 6

Q. 28 Which number is divisible by 6 ?

A. 354324

B. 533212

C. 93242

D. 85232

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

I. is even.

II. is odd.

A. only I

B. only II

C. both I and II

D. none

Q. 30 What is the value of 25 ÷5 – 2 x 4 + 10 ?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 8

D. 17

Q. 31 If 439 x 441 x 443 is divisible by 6, then what will be the remainder?

A. 5

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 32 Two pipes A and B can fill tank in 60 minute and 75 minutes respectively. Pipe C can alone empty the same tank in 100 minutes. If all three pipes are opened together , then in how much minutes tank will fill?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 75

D. 80

Q. 33 A pipe can fill a tank in 140 hours. Due to the leak in its bottom, the tank is filled in 160 hours. If the tank is full, then that leak can empty the tank in how many hours?

A. 1000

B. 1500

C. 1120

D. 1200

Q. 34 What is the area (in cm²) of an equilateral triangle whose side is 14 cm?

A. 28√3

B. 50√3

C. 49√3

D. 51√3

Q. 35 A merchant purchases a watch for Rs 600 and fixes its marked price in such a way that after allowing a discount of 20%, he earns a profit of 10%. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the watch?

A. 850

B. 725

C. 750

D. 825

Q. 36 The cost price of an article is 70% of the marked price. What is the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 16% ?

A. 15

B. 30

C. 10

D. 20

Q. 37 The ratio os two positive numbers is 3 : 4. Their product is 588. What is the smallest number?

A. 21

B. 28

C. 14

D. 35

Q. 38 B starts a business by investing Rs60000. After 5 months, D joins business by investing Rs 75000. At the end of year, in what ratio will they share the profit?

A. 169 : 144

B. 48 : 35

C. 14 : 11

D. 12 : 15

Q. 39 The average of N numbers is 16. If a number 10 is removed, then average becomes 17. What is the value of N?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 40 By selling 5 articles for 1Rupee, a man loses 20 %. If he sells 3 srticles per rupee, then what will be the profit percentage?75

A. 75

B. 66.67

C. 30

D. 33.33

Q. 41 By selling an article for Rs 510, there is a loss of 15%. What is the cost price in Rs?

A. 600

B. 580

C. 400

D. 450

Q. 42 A number is multiplied by 2/9 instead of 3/7. New value is what percent of expected value?

A. 62.66

B. 51.85

C. 57.21

D. 68.76

Q. 43 Total cost of 60 tablets is Rs 30000. If cost of each is increased by 20% and number of tables decrease by 20% , then what will be the total cost?

A. 28800

B. 27500

C. 30000

D. 25500

Q. 44 The speed of a boat in still water is 10km/hr. I t covers a distance of 50km upstream in 6 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

A. 1.2

B. 1.5

C. 1.6

D. 2

Q. 45 A 600m long train crosses a bridge 600m long in 60seconds. What is speed of the train?

A. 70

B. 72

C. 75

D. 65

Q. 46 What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs12000 for 2 years at rate of 10% per annum compounded anually?

A. 2520

B. 2400

C. 2620

D. 2340

Q. 47 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. In how many years was the sale of Audi more than that of BMW?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 2

B. 5

C. 1

D. 3

Q. 48 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. What was the percentage change in the sale of Audi from year 2000 to 2004?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 30

B. 80

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 49 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005.What was the average sale in lacs of BMW from 2001 to 2005?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 22

B. 23.2

C. 27.2

D. 21.4

Q. 50 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. The sale of BMW in 2004 is what percent of the sale of Audi in 2000?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 120

B. 100

C. 135

D. 300

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. Although he get to (1)/ visit a lot of places and (2)/ meet interesting people. (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. What if you could get all the (1)/ benefits of readings without (2)/ giving up your other interests (3)/. no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

The moment _________ is lost is lost forever.

A. where

B. which

C. whom

D. who

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Rajesh called his cousin a _________.

A. layer

B. liar

C. mair

D. care

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

Jettison

A. Space bound

B. splessness

C. conjure

D. hurl

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

Laconic

A. Verbose

B. wordy

C. crisp

D. health

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

MORBID

A. happy

B. outgoing

C. ranger

D. depressed

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

ENRICH

A. adorn

B. better

C. reduce

D. build

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

INSERT

A. active

B. asleep

C. dull

D. idle

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

SECURE

A. safe

B. endangered

C. immune

D. protected

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

be on the square

A. to be away from home

B. to make someone fool

C. to squander money

D. to act and speak honestly

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of phase.

let the cat out of the bag

A. reveal a secret carelessly or by mistake

B. talking ignorantly

C. to destroy at the end

D. to make use of time

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

They have been hesitant to form ( ourselves) as a breakaway group for fear of being

disqualified for defection.

A. themself

B. themselves

C. itselves

D. none

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Reconciliation is (closed) to impossible now, although he has not been expelled from the group.

A. imposed

B. closing

C. close

D. none

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the phase.

Speed of an object in one direction.

A. ferocity

B. capacity

C. velocity

D. felicity

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the phase.

full of criticism and mockery

A. admire

B. affaire

C. satire

D. allure

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. familear

B. familiar

C. familar

D. famelear

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. envelope

B. envelop

C. envelap

D. enwelope

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts in correct order.

We had been told to

P; we can put our hands and feet

Q: and identify places where

R: first observe the rock carefully

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

I tried to explain

P: them could understand it

Q: in Hindi but

R: but neither of

A. PQR

B. QRP

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Life In urban India is marked by wide – ranging disparity. There are residents who have ____ means of enjoyment but ______ people are so poor that they have to live in slums. Economic inequality, pollution and garbage are the _______ of urban existence. People also have to face lack of adequate water supply. Yet people want to live in cities because they get facilities for good education, healthcare, transport and so many modes of comforts and entertainment. There are also _____ opportunities for employment in cities ______ villages where very few people are gainfully employed. residents who have ____ means

A. unlimited

B. fair

C. pragmatic

D. circular

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Life In urban India is marked by wide – ranging disparity. There are residents who have _____ means of enjoyment but ______ people are so poor that they have to live in slums. Economic inequality, pollution and garbage are the _______ of urban existence. People also have to face lack of adequate water supply. Yet people want to live in cities because they get facilities for good education, healthcare, transport and so many modes of comforts and entertainment. There are also _____ opportunities for employment in cities ______ villages where very few people are gainfully employed. but _____ people are so poor

A. long

B. some

C. least

D. good

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. boon

B. blessing

C. bane

D. resource

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. bad

B. worst

C. least

D. good

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. unlike

B. similar

C. alike

D. example

Q. 76 The economic activities are divided into three sectors – primary, secondary and tertiary on the basis of ______.

A. employment conditions

B. nature of economic activity

C. ownership of enterprises

D. number of workers employed in enterprise

Q. 77 Which among the following result in connecting the market or integration of markets in different countries?

A. mass production

B. urban trade

C. foreign trade

D. tourism

Q. 78 Who is head of government?

A. president

B. prime minister

C. finance minister

D. foreign secretary

Q. 79 Fundamental rights in Indian constitution has been taken from which country’s

constitution?

A. U.S.

B. Irish

C. Australian

D. British

Q. 80 At which place did Gautam Buddha passed away?

A. Bodh Gaya

B. Kushinagar

C. Lumbini

D. Sarnath

Q. 81 The demand for separate electorate for muslims was conceded in which year?

A. 1906

B. 1909

C. 1919

D. 1922

Q. 82 What are the small pieces of rock which move around the sun is called?

A. asteroids

B. meteoroids

C. stars

D. satellites

Q. 83 What is the shape of Indian Ocean?

A. almost circular

B. S’ shaped

C. almost triangular

D. none

Q. 84 Who is ‘Father of zoology’?

A. Huxley

B. Aristotle

C. Lamarck

D. Cuvier

Q. 85 Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to action of_____

A. myosin

B. rennin

C. HCL

D. PEPSIN

Q. 86 Amount of O₂ normally carried by 100ml of pure blood is_______.

A. 50ml

B. 2 ml

C. 20ml

D. 5ml

Q. 87 Newton used the phrase quantity of motion for______.

A. momentum

B. force

C. speed

D. mass

Q. 88 When salt is properly mixed with ice. the melting point of ice _______.

A. decrease

B. increase

C. remains same

D. becomes infinite

Q. 89 Which is not example of extension used in computer?

A. doc

B. xls

C. fat32

D. htm

Q. 90 Metals are ___.

A. malleable and ductile

B. non-malleable and ductile

C. brittle and ductile

D. non malleable and non ductile

Q. 91 White phosphorous is stored in _____.

A. ether

B. water

C. mercury

D. petro;

Q. 92 The herbivore are called ______.

A. primary consumers

B. secondary consumers

C. tertiary consumers

D. none

Q. 93 Vittiya Sakshatarata Abhiyan was launched to make people aware about ______.

A. mutual funds

B. cashless economic system

C. financial inclusion

D. investment

Q. 94 James watt is famous for __

A. diesel engine

B. steam engine

C. electric motor

D. thermometer

Q. 95 Who was the winner of first ever formula 1 Grand Prix held in India?

A. Sebastian Vettel

B. Nico Rosberg

C. Lewis Hamilton

D. Michael Schumacher

Q. 96 Garba is famous dance of which state?

A. punjab

B. gujarat

C. madhya pradesh

D. west bengal

Q. 97 Who has won Dhyan Chand Award 2017 for hockey?

A. P.A. Raphel

B. Mariyappan

C. Sumarai Tete

D. Cheteswar Pujara

Q. 98 Who is author of ‘Dynasties of India and beyond’?

A. Inder Malhotra

B. HP Nanda

C. Amrita Pritam

D. Anita Desai

Q. 99 APTTA is transit trade agreement between AFGHANISTAN and ______.

A. Pakistan

B. Iran

C. Kazakhstan

D. Vietnam

Q. 100 India has signed an agreement to join global terror database maintained by the Terrorist Screening Centre of which country?

A. Pakistan

B. Britain

C. Russia

D. United States of America

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	A	A	D	C	C	C	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	B	A	B	C	D	A	C	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	D	A	B	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	A	C	B	A	A	A	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	B	B	D	C	D	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	C	B	A	B	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	B	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	D	B	B	C	A	A	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	B	B	A	B	C	A	A	D