Vidhyarthi Darpan %

UGC NET 2015 June Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 June Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 The first worlds electronic stock market is

A. KOSPI

B. Nikkie

C. Nas DAQ

D. Dow jones

Q. 2 The human development index (HDI) is introduced by

A. UNDP

B. UNICEF

C. IMF

D. World bank

Q. 3 Examine the following statements and choose the correct code ;

Assertion (A) : American style option , compared to European style provides more freedom to option holders in excersising the options.

Reason(R): American style option can be exercised only at a specific date which is generally the expiration date

A. Both A and R are correct

B. Both A and R are wrong

C. A is correct , but R is wrong

D. A is wrong , but R is correct

Q. 4 From the statements given below identify the correct code ;

I.The key strategy behind acquiring a company is to create share holder’s value

II. Conglmeration is the merger between 2 companies that have common business areas

III. MRTP act gor replaced by competition act ,2002 in India

A. All three statements are correct

B. statements I and II are correct

C. statements I and III are correct

D. statements II is only correct

Q. 5 From the following identify the tools of fiscal policy ;

I. Public expenditures

II. Open market operations

III.Deficit finances

IV.Taxation

V. Reserve requirements

A. I , III , IV and V

B. I , II , IV and V

C. II and V

D. I , III , V

Q. 6 The basic diference between a static budget and a flexible budget is that :

A. A flexible budget considers only variable costs but a static budget considers all costs

B. A flexible budget allows management latitude in meeting goals , where as static

budget is based on fixed standards.

C. A flexible budget is applicable for single department only but static budget is

applicable for the entire facility

D. A flexible budget can be prepared for any production level within a revelant range but static budget is based on specific level of production

Q. 7 A retiring partner continous to be liable for obligations for incurred after his retirement :

A. if unpaid amount is transferred to his loan account

B. If he does not give public notice

C. if he starts similar business elsewhere

D. in all the situations till he survives

Q. 8 In what order the following assets are shown in the balance sheet of a company

I.Trade receivables

II.Cash

III.Furniture fittings

Iv. Investment in shares and debentures

A. II , I , IV ,III

B. I , II , III IV

C. III IV I , II

D. IV ,III,II , I

Q. 9 When opening stock is R. 50,000 and closing stock is rs.60,000 and the cost of goods sold is Rs.2,20,000 the stock turnover ratio is :

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 4 times

D. 5 times

Q. 10 If stock ratio is 6 times

Average stock is Rs.8,000

Seling price = above 25% cost

What is the amount of gross profit ?

A. Rs. 2,000

B. Rs, 4000

C. Rs. 10,000

D. Rs. 12,000

Q. 11 A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has

A. equal slopes of price demand curve

B. price elasticity equal to unity

C. varying price elasticity

D. both slope and price elasticity equal

Q. 12 In case of short run equilibrium , a perfectly competitive firm while earning abnormal profits operates at an output level where :

A. Marginal cost is minimum

B. Average cost is minimum

C. Both Marginal cost and Average cost are equal

D. Marginal cost is higher than Average cost

Q. 13 Which one of the following statements is false ?

A. Normally a price demand curve slopes downwards from left to right

B. Economies of scale and economies of scope are same

C. For optimization , equaity between marginal cost and marginal curve revenue is

necessary condition but its not a sufficinet one.

D. LAw of variable proportion denotes input- output relationship during short -run

Q. 14 Match the items in List – I with the items in List – II and indicate the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 15 The following are the demand and supply equations in a perfectly competitive market:

P = 12 + 0.3 Qₛ

P = 40 – 0.4 Q6

The equilibrium market price would be

A. 24

B. 10

C. 40

D. 20

Q. 16 Which of the following is not an accounting software package ?

A. quick books

B. sage one

C. sage M

D. sage 50

Q. 17 Which one of the following formula is used to calculate probable error pf co-relation – coefficient between 2 variables on n pairs of observations ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 18 If the population is heterogenous ,which one of the following is probability sampling methods is more appropriate ?

A. sequential sampling

B. quota sampling

C. double sampling

D. stratified sampling

Q. 19 Which of the following relating to normal distribution are not correct ?

I . coefficient of skewness is three

II. it is mesokuritic

III.Mean deviation for it is 2/3σ

Iv. μ±2σ covers 95.46% area .

V.mean , median and mode are equal

Vi.The standard normal variate Z has mean one and SD zero

A. I , III , IV

B. III , IV ,V

C. I , III , V

D. I , III , VI

Q. 20 Which one of the following statements is false ?

A. Both co-relation and regression coeffiecients have same sign

B. arithematic mean of the regression coefficients is always more than the corelation coeffiecinet

C. regression coeffiecients are independent of both the origin and scale

D. corelation coeffiecinet is the sqaure root of 2 regression coeffiecients

Q. 21 Match the items of List-I with List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 Assertion (A) : managemnet is only associated with economic affairs

Reason (R) :Big business houses are the result of effective financial management

A. A is correct and R is the right exlpaination of A

B. A is correct and R is not the right exlpaination of A

C. A is incorrect but R is in isolation

D. Both A and R are incorrect

Q. 23 Areas of establishing objectives under MBO are :

I. market standing

II. innovation

III Industrail relations

IV. Public Accountability

V. Productivity

VI.Industrial policy

A. III , IV , V , VI

B. I, II ,IV ,V

C. I, II ,V ,VI

D. II , III ,Iv, VI

Q. 24 Match the items of List-I with List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 Narayan murthy committee revised its recommondatios on corporate governance on 29th oct 2004 which diluted the following areas

I . Independence of directives

II. Whistle bowler policy

III.Performance evaluation of non -executive directors

IV.mandatory tarining of non -executive directors

A. I , II , III only

B. I and, III only

C. I , II , IV only

D. all of them

Q. 26 The service marketing mix is an extended marketing mix and it includes :

I.People

II. Process

III.Service

IV. Physical evidence

A. II , III IV

B. I, II ,III

C. I , II IV

D. I , III IV

Q. 27 Black box model in marketing relates to :

A. marketing planning

B. marketing mix

C. marketing control

D. consumer behavioir

Q. 28 Items , considered part of augmented product , do not include :

A. guarentee

B. warrantee

C. complementory products

D. channels of distribution

Q. 29 Which one is not a type of direct marketing ?

A. direct mail marketing

B. retail marketing

C. telemarketing

D. email direct marketing

Q. 30 press release is a part of :

A. public relations

B. advertsising

C. sales promotion

D. none of the above

Q. 31 In capital budgeting , the term capital rationing implies :

A. that no retained earnings are avaialble

B. that limited funds are available for investment

C. that no external funds can be raised

D. that no fresh investment is required in current year

Q. 32 In certainly equivalent approach , adjusted cash flows are discounted at :

A. Accounting rate of return

B. internal rate of return

C. hurdle rate

D. risk free rate

Q. 33 Combined levareage is calculated as

A. operating leverage + financial leverage

B. operating leverage – financial leverage

C. operating leverage x financial leverage

D. operating leverage / financial leverage

Q. 34 Which one of the following is not true with respect to the capital budgeting ?

A. capital budgeting is related to asset replacement decisions

B. cost of capital is eqaul to minimum required return

C. existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost

D. timing of cash flows is relevant

Q. 35 What is economic quantity order ?

A. cost of order

B. cost of stock

C. recorder level

D. optimum order size

Q. 36 Which of the following is not a basic objective of HRM ?

A. to attract HR into organisation

B. To develop and motivate HR for better performance

C. To have a reward and punishment for HR

D. To integrate and maintain HR in the organisation

Q. 37 What is gare hiring ?

A. to select people who approach on their own for employment in the organisation

B. to select people who are recommended by the employees

C. to select people from public employement exchanges

D. to select people supplied by labour contarctors

Q. 38 Matching essential managers and essential positions is a step inthe process of :

A. career cycle

B. succession planning

C. career planning

D. career stages

Q. 39 The barriers of effective performance appraisal are :

I . psychological blocks of managers

II. faulty assumptions of parties concerned

III. technical pitfalls

IV. faulty written communications

A. All are correct

B. Only II and III are correct

C. Only I and II are correct

D. Only I, II and III are correct

Q. 40 Who has developed the systems approach of industrial relations ?

A. john dunlop

B. garry s. becker

C. michael J.Jucius

D. edwin B. Flippo

Q. 41 In 1992 , the banking sector reforms were introduced as per :

A. C. Rangarajan committee report

B. M . Narasimhan committee report

C. suresh tendulkar committee report

D. sukhamoy chakraborty committee report

Q. 42 For the purpose of extending rural banking and agro finance , the NABARD :

A. Directly lends and monitors and rural borrowers

B. refinances the banks extending rural finance

C. refinances the rural borrowers obtaining credit from banks

D. directly finances the rural borrowers and gets refinances from government

Q. 43 When RBI grants loan to commercial banks and charges interest on it , it is called :

A. rapo rate

B. reverse rapo rate

C. sweep stack rate , basic rate

D. bank rate

Q. 44 E- banking business is essentially regulated by the information technology act 2000 , under which personal signature is replaced by :

A. encrypted signature

B. image signature

C. digital signature

D. online signature

Q. 45 In order to control infaltion and ensure stability in money market :

A. The RBI works under direction of ministry of finance, governmnet of India

B. The RBI works independenly and can refuse the government directive

C. The RBI acts under the board of directors

D. The RBI’s board of govrners shall abide by the goevernment directive

Q. 46 In respect of international business , a project is called a turnkey project because :

A. The license agrees to construct an entire plant in his hoem country and hands over the key

B. The licensor starts the operation and hands over the key of operating plant to the

licensee

C. The licensor starts the operation and then invites the licensee and hands over the key to complete the remaining work

D. The licensor and the licensee jointly carry out the projcet and agree to share profit eqaully

Q. 47 Match the items in List-I with the items in List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 48 Assertion (A) : The member nations consistently finding balance of payments crisis, may approach the world bank seeking financial accomdation to mitigate the crisis.

Reason (R) : The member nations facing balance of payment crisis can appraoch the IMF seeking redressal of the BOP crisis.

A. A is correct and R is the correct explainataion of A

B. A is correct but R is wrong

C. R is correct but A is wrong

D. Both are worng

Q. 49 In computation of balance payments overall payments of balance equals to :

A. Balance of current account + Balance of capital account+ statistical discrepency

B. Export of goods and invisbles – import of goods

C. foreign exchnage inflow -foreign exchnage outflow

D. Export of goods and invisbles +import of goods and invisbles

Q. 50 The instrument choosen for enhancement of international liquidity is :

A. Society for wild wide inter bank financial telecommuninactions

B. special driving balls

C. multilateral nettting

D. netting of payments

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	C	C	D	D	B	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	B	C	A	C	A	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	B	D	D	C	D	D	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	C	C	D	C	A	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	A	B

UGC NET 2015 Dec Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Paper 1

Q. 1 Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions greater the demand on the:

A. family

B. society

C. teacher

D. state

Q. 2 What are the characteristics of continuous and comprehensive evaluation ?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (b),(c) and (d)

Q. 3 which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a)full time active involvement in the institutional management

(b)setting examples

(c)willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d)acknowledging mistakes

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (a), (b) and (d)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 4 which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple-choice type questions?

A. they are more objective than true-false type questions

B. they are less objective than essay type questions

C. they are more subjective than short-answer type questions

D. they are more subjective than true-false type questions

Q. 5 As chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titles:

A. international commission on education report

B. millenmium development report

C. learning : the treasure within

D. world declaration on education for all

Q. 6 What are required for good teaching?

(a) diagnosis

(b) remedy

(d) feedback

select the correct option from the codes given below:

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a) and (b)

C. (a),(c) and (d)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 7 which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

A. it recognizes knowledge as power

B. it emphasizes on people as experts

C. it is a collective process of enquiry

D. its sole purpose is production of knowledge

Q. 8 which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?

A. it is only attractive hypothesis that can be tested

B. it is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested

C. both, the alternative and the null hypothesis can be tested

D. both, the alternative and the null hypotheisis cannot be tested

Q. 9 which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format

(a) italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) invert authors names(last name first)

(d) alphabetically index reference list

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b),(c) and (d)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 10 which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar ?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) it involves questioning, discussion and debates

(d) it needs involvement of the skilled persons

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (b), (c) and (d)

D. (a),(b) and (d)

Q. 11 A reseacher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. what tool should he prefer for the study?

A. rating scale

B. interviewer

C. questionnaire

D. schedule

Q. 12 Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

A. thesis format

B. copyright

C. patenting policy

D. data sharing policies

Questions: 13 – 17

I did that recently when you have to sign a big card- which is horror into itself, especially as the keeper of the big card was learning over me at the time. suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelming by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write: “Good luck, best, Joel.” It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire exisistence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on. A poll of 1000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 dont own a pen, a third have never written a letter and half of 13 to 19 years-old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter,. more than 80% have nevr written a love letter, 56% dont have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen in on an exam paper. Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? have you heard of e-mail , face book and snap chatting ? this is the future. pens are dead. handwriting is a relic. “Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Q. 13 when confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight .” what does this phrase mean?

A. a state of confusion

B. a state of pleasure

C. a state of anxiety

D. a state of pain

Q. 14 According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit ?

A. hand writing

B. photography

C. sketching

D. reading

Q. 15 the entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) computer

(b) mobile phone

identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (b) only

B. (a) and (b) only

C. (a),(b) and (c)

D. (b) and (c) only

Q. 16 how many teens, as per the BIc survey, do not own a pen?

A. 800

B. 560

C. 500

D. 100

Q. 17 what is the main concern of the author?

A. that the teens use social networks for communication

B. that the teens use mobile phones

C. that the teens use computer

D. that the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting

Q. 18 The main objectives student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) to gather information about student weakness

(b) to make teachers take teaching seriously

(d) to identify the areas of further improvement in teacher trails

identify the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (b),(c) and (d) only

C. (a),(b) and (c) only

D. (a) only

Q. 19 using the central point of the class room communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:

A. systemisation

B. problem-orientation

C. idea protocol

D. mind mapping

Q. 20 aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :

A. physical language

B. personal language

C. para language

D. delivery language

Q. 21 every type of communication is affected by its:

A. reception

B. transmission

C. non regulation

D. delivery language

Q. 22 attitudes, action and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:

A. verbal

B. non-verbal

C. impersonal

D. irrational

Q. 23 most often the teacher-student communication is :

A. spurious

B. critical

C. utilitarian

D. confrontational

Q. 24 In a classroom a communicators trust level is determined by :

A. the use of hyperbole

B. the change of voice level

C. the use of abstract concepts

D. eye contact

Q. 25 The next term in the series 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?

A. 50

B. 57

C. 62

D. 72

Q. 26 A group of 210 students appeared in some test. the mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. the mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. the mean of the whole group will be :

A. 80

B. 76

C. 74

D. 72

Q. 27 anil after travelling 6 km towards east from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards west, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is

A. 20 km

B. 14 km

C. 12 km

D. 10 km

Q. 28 The next term in the series

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?

A. J561

B. 162Q

C. Q62J

D. J58Q

Q. 29 A party was held in which a grand mother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:

A. 12

B. 14

C. 18

D. 24

Q. 30 P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S , Q is related to R as:

A. son

B. brother

C. uncle

D. father

Q. 31 consider the argument given below:

‘pre-employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such testing ‘

what type of argument it is?

A. deductive

B. analogical

C. psychological

D. biological

Q. 32 among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions ? select the correct code.

propositions:

(a) some priests are cunning

(b) no priest is cunning

(d) some priests are not cunning.

codes:

A. (a) and (b)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (d)

Q. 33 A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:

A. an inference

B. an argument

C. an explanation

D. a valid argument

Q. 34 consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A) : No man is perfect

(R) : some men are not perfect.

A. both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A)

B. both (A) and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 35 A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

A. lexical

B. precising

C. stipulative

D. persuasive

Q. 36 If the propositions ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/prepositions :

A. all men are honest

B. some men are honest

C. some men are not honest

D. no honest person is man

Questions: 37 – 42

given below in the table is the decadal data of population and electrical power production of a country. based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to 42

Q. 37 which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population ?

A. 1961-71

B. 1971-81

C. 1991-2001

D. 2001-2011

Q. 38 average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

A. -12.21%

B. -9.82%

C. -6.73%

D. -5%

Q. 39 based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?

A. 40.34 million

B. 38. 49 million

C. 37.28 million

D. 36.62 million

Q. 40 In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?

A. 100 W

B. 200 W

C. 400 W

D. 500 W

Q. 41 In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?

A. 1981-1991

B. 1991-2001

C. 2001-2011

D. 1971-1981

Q. 42 By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951to 2011 ?

A. 100%

B. 300%

C. 600%

D. 900%

Q. 43 NMEICT stands for :

A. national mission on educational through ICT

B. national mission on e-governance through ICT

C. national mission on e-commerce through ICT

D. national mission on e-learning through ICT

Q. 44 which of the following is an instant messaging application ?

(a) whatsapp

(b) google talk

select the correct option form the codes given below:

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (b) and (c) only

C. (a) only

D. (a),(b) and (c)

Q. 45 In a computer a byte generally consists of :

A. 4 bits

B. 8 bits

C. 16 bits

D. 10 bits

Q. 46 Which of the following is not an input device?

A. microphone

B. keyboard

C. joystick

D. monitor

Q. 47 which of the following in an open source software?

A. MS word

B. windows

C. mozilla firefox

D. acrobat reader

Q. 48 which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS word?

A. Mail join

B. mail copy

C. mail insert

D. mail merge

Q. 49 inside the rural homes, the source/ sources of nitrogen oxide pollution may be:

(a) unvented gas stoves

(b) wood stoves

choose the correct option

A. (a) and (b only)

B. (b) and (c) only

C. (b) only

D. (a),(b) and (c)

Q. 50 which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

A. pesticides

B. mercury

C. lead

D. ozone

Q. 51 Assertion : people population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.

reason : the relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex

A. both (A) and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 52 which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard

A. wild fire

B. lightning

C. landslide

D. chemical contamination

Q. 53 as part of national climate change policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :

A. 175 GW

B. 200 GW

C. 250 GW

D. 350 GW

Q. 54 at present, in terms of per capita energy consumption(kWh/ year), identify the correct sequence.

A. brazil > russia > china > india

B. russia > china > india > brazil

C. russia > china > brazil > india

D. china > russia > brazil > india

Q. 55 which of the following are the objectives of rashritya uchchatar shiksha abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) to improve the oevrall quality of state instituions

(b) to ensure adequate availability of quality factor

(d) to downgradeuniversities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges

select the answer from the codes given below

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a),(c) and (d)

D. (a),(b) and (d)

Q. 56 the grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is

constitutionally prohibited are:

(a) religion

(b) sex

(d) nationality

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

Q. 57 which of the following statements are correct about lok sabha

(a) the constitution puts a limit on the size of the lok sabha

(b) the size and shape of the parliamentry constituents is determined by the election

commision

(d) the speaker of lok sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes

select the correct option from the codes given below:

A. (a) and (c)

B. (a),(b) and (c)

C. (a),(b) and (d)

D. (a),(b), (c) and (d)

Q. 58 public order as an item in the constitution figures in

A. the union list

B. the state list

C. the concurrent list

D. the residuary list

Q. 59 the term office of the advocate general of a state is

A. 4 years

B. 5 years

C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

D. not fixed

Q. 60 Which among the following states has the highest number of seats in the lok sabha?

A. maharastra

B. rajasthan

C. tamil nadu

D. west bengal

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	A	D	B	D	D	B	D	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	C	D	A	D	D	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	B	A	C	B	A	B	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	D	C	D	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	D	C	B	B	A	B	D	A

UGC NET 2015 Dec Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 Consider the following statements

I.According to the keynes , as income rises ,lower proportion of income is spent on

consumption

II.According to Kunzels, as income rises average propensity to save remains fairly stable and constant

Of the above which statements are correct ?

A. Both I and II are true

B. Neither I and II are true

C. Only I is correct

D. Only II is correct

Q. 2 The marginal Propensity to consume (MPC) is eqaul to Average Propensity to consume (APC) for all levels of income (Y),the correct corresponding consumption (C) function will be:

A. C=a+bY

B. C=a +b/Y

C. C=bY

D. C=bY²

Q. 3 Transfer payments by the government are not included in the net domestic product because :

A. These are gifts from government to the recepients

B. They are not counted as commodities

C. No corresponding production of goods and services has taken place to match such

payments

D. There maybe leakages in payments

Q. 4 Philips curve sets up relation between :

A. Taxes and inflation

B. inflation and employment

C. money supply and aggregate demand

D. price and cost of production

Q. 5 If economy is operating at potential GDP ,an increase in money supply will lead to

A. Stragflation

B. Stuctural inflation

C. Demand pull inflation

D. Cost push inflation

Q. 6 In the long sum , the transitory consumption will :

A. Be infinity

B. Remain unchnaged

C. Decline but will remain positive

D. Be Zero

Q. 7 According to keynes ,investment demand depends on which of the following two factors ?

a.Rate of interest

b. income of consumer

c.marginal efficiency of capital

d.marginal propensity to consume

A. a and d

B. b and d

C. a and c

D. c and d

Q. 8 For the demand function D= P(p) and supply function S=S(p) , the excess demand brings about market eqiulibrium in which of the following situations ?

A. dE(p)/dp>0

B. dE(p)/dp<0

C. dE(p)/dp=0

D. dE(p)/dp=∞

Q. 9 Consider the following statements :

a.Profit maximization by the producer

b.Cournouts deploy equilibrium

Which of these appropriate examples of Nash Equilibrium ?Answer from the code below

A. only a

B. only b

C. both a and b

D. neither a nor b

Q. 10 In which of the following market situations /forms, firms are able to maximise profits ?

A. price leardership

B. cartel

C. at the kink point

D. monopolistic competition

Q. 11 Consider the following factors in determine of wage :

a. Demand for supply and labour

b.MRP of labour = marginal wage

c.MRP of labour =Average productivity of labour

d.MRP= average wage

Which of the above codes is true ?

A. a and b

B. c and d

C. a and c

D. a and d

Q. 12 In the context of a staright line demand curve touching both the axes , which one of the following is correct ? the demand is elastic :

A. below the mid -point

B. above the mid -point

C. at the mid -point of curve

D. throughtout the length of the demand curve

Q. 13 Slutsky equation deals with decomposition of

A. price effect in substitution and income effects

B. goods into superior and inferior goods

C. goods into necessities and luxuries

D. consumer and producer supplies

Q. 14 A discriminitating monopolist will charge a higher price in the market in which the price elasticity of :

A. demand is greater

B. supply is smaller

C. supply is greater

D. demand is smaller

Q. 15 Inclusive growth of objectives was given for the first time in which plan of india ?

A. 9th five year plan

B. 10th five year plan

C. 11th five year plan

D. 12th five year plan

Q. 16 Match the following

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 17 Which of the following variables factors are used in constructing human development index of india ?

a. life expectency at birth

b.Real GDP per capita

c.morbidity

A. All the three above

B. Both a and b

C. both b and c

D. both a and c

Q. 18 Which of the following is credited with introduction of LPG model of economic development in India ?

A. Dr.C .Rangarajan

B. Dr. Montek singh alhuwalia

C. Dr. Amartya sen

D. Dr.Manmohan singh

Q. 19 Which one of the following models explains the paradox pertaining to rural – urban migration in the context of rising urban employment ?

A. solow model

B. lewis model

C. vakil and brhmanand model

D. todaro model

Q. 20 In Harrod model of growth ,if warranted rate of growth ,if warranted rate of growth is below the natural rate of growth then it is possible to maintain steady growth with :

A. continously increasing unemployment

B. a constant rate of unemployemnt

C. continously decreasing unemployement

D. none of the above

Q. 21 Report of the task force on the implementation of fiscal responisbility and budget management act,headed by kelkar committee suggests some points given below

I.Fiscal deficit to be abolished by 2008-09

II.Revenue deficit should be 3% of GDP

which of the above statements is correct ?

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 22 Tobin tax is a tax on :

A. transactions in the share market

B. transactions in the money market

C. transactions in the commodity market

D. transactions in the foriegn exchange market

Q. 23 Budget incidence refers to :

A. the effect of both government expenditure and tax policies on the distribution of

economies

B. the effect government expenditure on the allocation of taxes

C. the tax policies on the distribution on income and wealth in the private sector

D. none of the above

Q. 24 In case of deficit of budget , when the deficits are covered through taxes ,that budget is called :

A. unbalanced budget

B. surplus budget

C. balanced budget

D. none of these

Q. 25 Match the following

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 26 Efficinecy reequires that the production of pure public goods be undertaken to the point where ?

A. the sum of marginal private benefits is exactly equal to the marginal social cost of

production

B. the marginal private benefit is exactly equal to the marginal social cost of production

C. the marginal social cost exceeds the sum of the marginal private benefits

D. none of the above

Q. 27 Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched

A. Rekhi committee : simplification of export and import procedures

B. Namjundappa committee :Railway fare

C. Rangarajan committee :Balance of payments

D. Goiporia committee : Banking service improvements

Q. 28 Consider the following statements :

I. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the reserve bank of India

II.A value of 1 for gini coeffiecient in a country implies that there is perfectly equality in income distribution

Which of the following is correct ?

A. II only

B. I only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I and II

Q. 29 Retail banking is to provide banking services :

A. only to individual customers in an integrated manner

B. entirely to agricultural sector only

C. only to self help group for their survival

D. none of the above

Q. 30 Labour market reforms aim at :

A. job security

B. minimum wage

C. labour market flexibillity

D. employment insurance

Q. 31 Jan -Dhan yojna concerns :

A. credit

B. tax payment

C. bank deposit

D. insurance premium

Q. 32 Which of the following does not does not represent the features of Indian labour market ?

A. Disguised unemployement ;lack of skills ;lack of mobility

B. Disguised unemployement; perfect mobility ; lack of skills

C. Disguised unemployement; perfect mobility ;migrative labour

D. poverty; illiteracy ;homogenity

Q. 33 The Geometric mean of four numbers 2,X,16,32 is 8 .What is the value of x?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 34 If mean = 28 and mode = 25 the value of median will be :

A. 27

B. 29

C. 24

D. 25

Q. 35 If the probability of solving a statistical problem by A is 1/4 and B is 1/3 , when a problem is given to them ,probability that the problm will be solved is ?

A. 1/2

B. 7/12

C. 1/12

D. 2/3

Q. 36 Type -I error is defined as

A. Reject null-hypothesis when it is false

B. Reject null-hypothesis when it is true

C. Accept null-hypothesis when it is true

D. Accept null-hypothesis when it is false

Q. 37 Given that √xy =0.6, σᵧ = 50, σₓ = 10, x̅ = 30 and ȳ = 140, the correct regression of Y on X is given by

A. Y = 50 + 3X

B. Y = 110 + 0.6X

C. Y = 140 + 3X

D. Y = 140 – 3X

Q. 38 Which one of the following is not a method of sampling?

A. systematic sampling

B. Quota sampling

C. Snowball sampling

D. large sampling

Q. 39 Growth in software in industry in india can be best explained by:

A. Porter’s approach

B. Recordo’s approach

C. Vernon;s approach

D. Bella Balassa’s approach39

Q. 40 The form of commodity terms of trade is most closely related to:

A. Laspeyre’s index number

B. Paasche;s index number

C. edgworth marshall index number

D. fisher’s index number

Q. 41 If the foreign offer curve has the unitary elasticity ,then the optimum tariff will be

A. unity

B. infinity

C. zero

D. -1

Q. 42 An over valued indian rupee in the foreign exchange market will have which one of the following consequences ?

A. Make imports cheaper and exports costiler

B. Make imports costlier and exports cheaper

C. give protection to domestic industry against foreign competency

D. will improve balance of payments

Q. 43 Which of the following were not addressed in urugvay round?

A. migration

B. IPRs

C. services

D. tariff

Q. 44 The terms of trade refers to :

A. the export of import expenditure over export earnings

B. trade argument between 2 nations

C. the ratio between export and import prices

D. the terms and conditions on which a country is offered loan in the event of BOP

difficulties

Q. 45 Plan holiday in Indian planning is identified with the period :

A. 1966- 69

B. 1979-81

C. 1985-87

D. 1991- 93

Questions: 46 – 50

In questions 46- 50 2 statments are labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) .In the context of 2 statements which one of the following is correct ?

1 .Both A and R are true , R is the correct explaination of A.

2. Both A and R are true , R is not the correct explaination of A.

3. A is true , R is false

4. A is false , R is true

Q. 46 Assertion :Pareto optimality criterion cannot be used alone to measure welfare level of the people

Reason :The concept Pareto optimality fails in externalities , public goods and missing markets

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 47 Assertion : APC can never be zero while it can be 1.

Reason : Consumption expenditure will always be positive even if income is zero

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 48 Assertion :the indegenous growth theory examines production function that shows increasing returns

Reason: There is specialization and investment in knowledge capital

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 49 Assertion : on a bell shaped curve the value of mean , mode , median would be identical

Reason :There is no skewness in such a curve

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 50 Assertion : competition act of 2002 came into a force and MRTP act was repealed

Reason : MRTP act was too restructive and curtailed fair competition in the market

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	C	B	C	D	C	B	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	C	B	D	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	A	C	B	A	A	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	B	A	A	B	D	D	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	A	C	A	B	A	A	B	A

UGC NET 2015 Dec Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 environmental degeneration does not consist of:

A. land degeneration and soil erodion

B. problem of over grazing and ecological degeneration

C. floods

D. none of the above

Q. 2 which of the following is not the main objective of “fiscal policy of India”?

A. to increase liquidity in economy

B. to promote price stability

C. to minimize the in equality in income and wealth

D. to promote employment opportunities

Q. 3 liberalization means:

A. reducing number of reserved industries from 17 to 8

B. liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restriction

C. opening up economy to the world by attaining international competetiveness

D. free determination of interest rate

Q. 4 Assertion(A): Industrilization of an economy is considered synonymous with growth.

Reason(R): the transfer of resources from agrarian to industrial may be capital or labour or both

A. both (A) and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 5 globalization is the term used to describe process of removal of restriction on which one of the following?

A. foreign trade

B. investment

C. both (1) and (2)

D. none of the above

Q. 6 interest on loan for the purchase of fixed assets is a:

A. revenue expenditure

B. capital expenditure

C. deferred revenue expenditure

D. capital loss

Q. 7 dual aspect concept results in the following accounting equation:

A. revenue = expenses

B. capital + profits = assets + expenses

C. capital + liabilities = assets

D. capital + drawings = owners equity

Q. 8 match the following items in column -I with the items in column – II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 9 ‘X’ Ltd. has a liquid ratio of 2:1. If its stock is Rs. 40,000 and its current liabilities are of Rs. 1 lac , its current ratio will be :

A. 1.4 times

B. 2.4 times

C. 1.2 times

D. 3.4 times

Q. 10 The marshallian utility analysis is based on a less valid assumption of :

A. cardinal measurability of the utility

B. given marginal utility of money

C. diminishing marginal utility of the goods

D. additivity of the utility

Q. 11 match the items of the list-I with those of the list-II and indicate the correct code

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 12 firms producing and selling a large variety of goods will generally follow:

A. cost plus pricing

B. marginal pricing

C. skimming pricing

D. product line pricing

Q. 13 for the following two statements of assertion(A) and reasoning (R) indicate the correct code assertion(A): all firms under perfect competition in long run earn only run earn only normal profit.

Reasoning(R): all firms under perfect competition in long run operate at the minimum average cost level.

A. (A) and (R) both are correct

B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

C. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

D. (A) and (R) both are incorrect

Q. 14 match the items list-I with those of list-II and indicate the correct code

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 15 match the items of list-I with those of list-II and indicate the correct code:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 16 which of the following is not a method of studying association of attributes?

A. concurrent division method

B. proportion method

C. yule’s method

D. coefficient of contingency

Q. 17 identify which of the following steps would be included in hypothesis testing:

(a) state the null and alternative hypothesis

(b) set the significance level before the research study

(d) obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS

(e) compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical desicions

A. (a),(c) and (d)

B. (c),(d) and (e)

C. (a),(b),(d) and (e)

D. (b),(c),(d) and (e)

Q. 18 select the methods of finding out correlation from the following

(a) karl pearsons method

(b) spearmans rank method

(d) concurrent deviation method

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

C. (a),(b) and (e)

D. (c),(d) and (e)

Q. 19 A set of data can be distinguished from other set of data by means of :

A. central value and dispersion

B. central value, dispersion and skewness

C. central value, dispersion, skewness and kurtosis

D. none of the above

Q. 20 the advent of computers in research has led to:

A. limitations of options in analysis

B. tremendous amount of flexibility with marginal increase in cost

C. myopic exposure of statistics to the researcher

D. none of the above

Q. 21 who among the following is not related to the planing function given by Taylor?

A. route clerk

B. time and cost clerk

C. inspector

D. disciplinarian

Q. 22 match the following

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 The classical organisation theory treats organisation as a/an

A. open system

B. closed system

C. technical system

D. macro system

Q. 24 which of the following is a systematic interactive forecasting method that relies on a panel of experts ?

A. pay-off matrix

B. game theory

C. queing theory

D. delphi technique

Q. 25 according to hersey and blanchards situational approach to leadership, the participation style of leadership has:

A. high task and low relationship orientation

B. high task and high relationship orientation

C. low task and high relationship orientation

D. low task and low relationship orientation

Q. 26 which of the following is not a reason for the failure of new products?

A. good idea but overestimated market size

B. correctly positioned new product, not promoted effectively or overpriced.

C. development costs are lower than or equal to estimated or expected

D. competitors fight back harder than expected

Q. 27 which of the following is true for the calculation of overall market share?

A. (customer penetration) x (customer loyalty) x(price selectivity)

B. (customer selectivity) x (customer loyalty) x(price selectivity)

C. (customer selectivity) x (price selectivity) x (customer penetration)

D. (customer selectivity) x (price selectivity) x (customer penetration)x (customer loyalty)

Q. 28 ________is widely by a manufacturer that threatens to with draw a resource aor terminate a relationship if intermediaries fail to cooperate

A. coercive power

B. legitimate power

C. expert power

D. reference power

Q. 29 when the consumers favour those products which offer the most quality, performance or innovative features, then it is called as:

A. production concept

B. product concept

C. sales concept

D. marketing concept

Q. 30 match the items of list-I with list-II where the PLC curve patterns are given for different categories:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 31 the term capital structure implies:

A. share capital + reserves + long term debts

B. share capital + long and short terms debts

C. share capital + long term debts

D. equity and preference share capital

Q. 32 a company has issued 10 percent percapital debt of Rs.1 lac at 5 percent premium. If tax rate is 30 percent, then the cost of the debt will be:

A. 10 percent

B. 15 percent

C. 6.66 percent

D. 8.21 percent

Q. 33 dividend is not relevant in determining the value of the company. who among the following held this opinion

A. j.E. Walter

B. ezra soloman

C. modigliani-miller

D. M.J.Gordon

Q. 34 The formula Q/2 is used to compute the

A. total ordering cost

B. total carrying cost

C. opportunity cost

D. re-order cost

Q. 35 financial leverage is measured by:

A. EBIT/EAT

B. EBIT/EBT

C. EAIT/EBT

D. C/EBIT

Q. 36 which of the following is a key role of HR manager as defined by Ulrich et al(2009)?

A. personal administor

B. business ally

C. payroll advisor

D. organisational geographer

Q. 37 which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment?

A. reduced job performance

B. high labour turnover

C. lack of motivation

D. internal resistance

Q. 38 match the methods of performance appraisal given in list-I with the explanations given in the list-II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 39 the internal factors affecting the wage mix include:

(a) relative worth of the job

(b) area wage rates

(d) manpower market conditions

A. (a),(b) and (c)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (b),(c) and (d)

D. all of the above

Q. 40 match the items list-I with the items of list-II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 41 Assertion(A): taking of deposits and granting of loans single out banks.

Reasoning(R): banks acts as intermediates when they mobilize savings from surplus units to shortage units in order to finance productive activities.

A. (A) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

D. (R) is the correct but (A) is incorrect

Q. 42 skimming in e-banking refers to

A. identifying the fraudsters copying vital information from credit cards

B. multiple transactions by one credit card

C. conversion of a debit card into credit card

D. none of the above

Q. 43 match the items of list-I and with list-II in terms of functions of a bank.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 44 which among the following is not a subsidiary of reserve bank of India?

(a) deposit insurance and credit gaurantee corporation of India.

(b) bharatiya reserve bank note mudran private limited

A. only (a)

B. only (b)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

Q. 45 which among the following is not associated with NABARD?

A. (a) only

B. (b) only

C. (b) and (c) only

D. none of the above

Q. 46 examine the following statements and choose the correct code

statement I : companies with low cash reserves normally prefer licensing mode rather than foreign direct investment.

statement II: cash rich firms normally prefer foreign direct investment

A. both I and II are correct

B. both I and II are wrong

C. I is correct but II is wrong

D. I is not correct but II is correct

Q. 47 which one of the following is not a feature of business process outsourcing (BPO)?

A. it enables executives to concentrate on strategy

B. it improves process and saves money

C. it decreases organisational capabilities

D. none of the above

Q. 48 the major outcome of the bretton woods conference was

A. establishment of IMF and IFC

B. establishment of IBRD and IFC

C. establishment of IBRD and ADB

D. establishment of IMF and IBRD

Q. 49 which one of the following is an important activity of the world bank borrowings?

A. it borrows in the international capital market

B. it borrows on currency on swap agreements

C. it borrows under the discount net programme

D. all of the above

Q. 50 which one of the following statements is false?

A. IFC was established in july 1956

B. IFC encourages the growth and developement of public sector enterprises in member countries

C. IFC is an affiliate of the world bank

D. IFC encourages the growth of productive private enterprises in member countries

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	B	B	C	B	C	A	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	A	B	A	C	C	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	C	D	A	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	C	B	B	B	D	C	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	C	D	D	A	C	D	D	B

UGC NET 2014 Dec Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2014 Dec Paper 1

Q. 1 The term ‘Yellow Journalism’ refers to

A. sensational news about terrorism and violence

B. sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers

C. sensational news about arts and culture

D. sensational news prints in yellow paper

Q. 2 In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are really

A. Encoders

B. Decoders

C. Agitators

D. Propagators

Q. 3 Media is known as

A. First Estate

B. Second Estate

C. Third Estate

D. Fourth Estate

Q. 4 The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called

A. Group Communication

B. Mass Communication

C. Intrapersonal Communication

D. Interpersonal Communication

Q. 5 A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.

(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.

(iii) Document camera and specialized software

(iv) Projector and screen

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (i) and (ii) only

B. (ii) and (iv) only

C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 6 Digital Empowerment means

(i) Universal digit literacy

(ii) Universal access to all digital resources

(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance

(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (i) and (ii) only

B. (ii) and (iii) only

C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 7 The next term in the series :

2, 7, 28, 63, 126, _______ is

A. 215

B. 245

C. 276

D. 296

Q. 8 The next term in the series :

AB, ED, IH, NM, ________ is

A. TS

B. ST

C. TU

D. SU

Q. 9 If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded as

A. MQPYLCDFD

B. MPQYLDCFD

C. PMYQLDFCD

D. YMQPLDDFC

Q. 10 A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is related to E as

A. Daughter

B. Daughter-in-law

C. Sister-in-law

D. Sister

Q. 11 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. The numbers are

A. 30, 50

B. 36, 60

C. 33, 55

D. 42, 70

Q. 12 The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years, father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are

A. 42, 12

B. 40, 14

C. 30, 24

D. 36, 18

Questions: 13 – 17

Passage : 1

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to

violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‘We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us’. Another reason why politics does not seem menable to the highest kind of

literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‘felt reality’ of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ‘ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel’ though that was not so in ‘former days’, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : ‘An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them. Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel… the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them – most often with weapons of mockery.’

Q. 13 According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a

A. Literary distaste for politics

B. Literary representation of politics

C. Novel with its own politics

D. Depiction of murky practice of politics

Q. 14 A political novel reveals

A. Reality of the things

B. Writer’s perception

C. Particular ideology of the readers

D. The spirit of literature

Q. 15 The constructs of politics by its nature is

A. Prevalent political situation

B. Ideas and Ideologies

C. Political propaganda

D. Understanding of human nature

Q. 16 Literature deals with

A. Human experiences in politics

B. Intellectual abstractions

C. Dry and empty ideas

D. Felt reality of human life

Q. 17 The observation of the novelist, Mary McCarthy reveals

A. unseen felt ideas of today in the novel

B. dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels

C. compatibility between idea and novel

D. endless ideas and novels

Q. 18 When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, that group of propositions is called

A. An argument

B. A valid argument

C. An explanation

D. An invalid argument

Q. 19 Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular. Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient, regular and studious ?

A. Samita alone

B. Namita and Samita

C. Kabita alone

D. Anita alone

Q. 20 Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw, farmer is related to plough. In the same way, the author is related to

A. Book

B. Fame

C. Reader

D. Pen

Q. 21 Given is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s, U, X, Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.

A. X

B. q

C. p

D. s

Q. 22 “A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.”

The above passage is an instance of

A. Deductive argument

B. Hypothetical argument

C. Analogical argument

D. Factual argument

Q. 23 By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘wise men are hardly afraid of death’ is contradicted ?

A. Some wise men are afraid of death.

B. All wise men are afraid of death.

C. No wise men is afraid of death.

D. Some wise men are not afraid of death.

Questions: 24 – 29

For a country CO₂ emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given in the following table.

Q. 24 What is the percentage (%) growth of CO₂ emissions from power sector during 2005 to 2009 ?

A. 60

B. 50

C. 40

D. 80

Q. 25 Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO₂ emissions during 2005 to 2009 ?

A. Power

B. Industry

C. Commercial

D. Agriculture

Q. 26 By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO₂ have increased from 2005 to 2009 ?

A. ~89.32%

B. ~57.62%

C. ~40.32%

D. ~113.12%

Q. 27 What is the average annual growth rate of CO₂ emissions in power sector ?

A. ~12.57%

B. ~16.87%

C. ~30.81%

D. ~50.25%

Q. 28 What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO₂ emissions in the year 2008 ?

A. ~30.82%

B. ~41.18%

C. ~51.38%

D. ~60.25%

Q. 29 In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO₂ emissions was minimum?

A. 2005

B. 2006

C. 2007

D. 2009

Q. 30 Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?

A. Binary number system

B. Decimal number system

C. Hexadecimal number system

D. Octal number system

Q. 31 Which one of the following is not a search engine ?

A. Google

B. Chrome

C. Yahoo

D. Bing

Q. 32 CSS stands for

A. Cascading Style Sheets

B. Collecting Style Sheets

C. Comparative Style Sheets

D. Comprehensive Style Sheets

Q. 33 MOOC stands for

A. Media Online Open Course

B. Massachusetts Open Online Course

C. Massive Open Online Course

D. Myrind Open Online Course

Q. 34 Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is

A. 100011

B. 110001

C. 110101

D. 101011

Q. 35 gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store

A. audio data

B. image data

C. video data

D. text data

Q. 36 Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of global water consumption ?

A. Agriculture

B. Hydropower generation

C. Industry

D. Domestic and Municipal usage

Q. 37 One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is

A. Cement industry

B. Fertiliser industry

C. Foam industry

D. Pesticide industry

Q. 38 In terms of total CO₂emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence :

A. U.S.A. > China > India > Russia

B. China > U.S.A. > India > Russia

C. China > U.S.A. > Russia > India

D. U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

Q. 39 Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code :

A. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

B. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

D. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

Q. 40 The cyclone ‘Hudhud’ hit the coast of which State ?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Gujarat

Q. 41 Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

A. Clean air

B. Fresh water

C. Fertile soil

D. Salt

Q. 42 The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Delhi

Q. 43 Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act,1956 ?

1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.

2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.

3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.

4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.

Select the correct answer from the code:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 44 Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?

1. Social Audit

2. Separation of Powers

3. Citizen’s Charter

4. Right to Information

Select the correct answer from the code:

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 45 Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?

1. Summoning

2. Adjournment – sine die

3. Prorogation

4. Dissolution

Select the correct answer from the codes:

A. 1 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 46 The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed

A. 3 months

B. 6 months

C. 4 months

D. 100 days

Q. 47 Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

A. Right to Freedom

B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty

C. Right to Equality

D. Right against Exploitation

Q. 48 Which of the following organizations deals with ‘capacity building program’ on Educational Planning ?

A. NCERT

B. UGC

C. NAAC

D. NUEPA

Q. 49 “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man” was stated by

A. M.K. Gandhi

B. R.N. Tagore

C. Swami Vivekanand

D. Sri Aurobindo

Q. 50 Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching ?

A. Memory

B. Understanding

C. Reflective

D. Differentiation

Q. 51 Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

A. Lecture method

B. Demonstration method

C. Inductive method

D. Textbook method

Q. 52 Diagnostic evaluation ascertains

A. Students performance at the beginning of instructions.

B. Learning progress and failures during instructions.

C. Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.

D. Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.

Q. 53 Instructional aids are used by the teacher to

A. glorify the class

B. attract the students

C. clarify the concepts

D. ensure discipline

Q. 54 Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to

A. Affective domain

B. Cognitive domain

C. Connative domain

D. Psychomotor domain

Q. 55 When planning to do as social research, it is better to

A. approach the topic with an open mind

B. do a pilot study before getting stuck into it

C. be familiar with literature on the topic

D. forget about theory because this is a very practical

Q. 56 When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called

A. Training Program

B. Seminar

C. Workshop

D. Symposium

Q. 57 The core elements of a dissertation are

A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations

B. Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography

C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References

D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and

Conclusion

Q. 58 What is a Research Design ?

A. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.

B. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

C. The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.

D. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

Q. 59 ‘Sampling Cases’ means

A. Sampling using a sampling frame

B. Identifying people who are suitable for research

C. Literally the researcher’s brief case

D. Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

Q. 60 The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is

A. Skewed

B. Mesokurtic

C. Leptokurtic

D. Platykurtic

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	B	D	D	A	A	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	D	A	A	A	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	B	A	D	A	A	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	C	A	B	A	C	B	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	C	A	C	B	B	D	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	C	A	C	B	D	D	D	C

UGC NET 2014 Dec Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2014 Dec Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 Which is called Gossen’s second law ?

A. Law of Equi-marginal Utility

B. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

C. Revealed Preference Theory

D. Indifference Curve Approach

Q. 2 When a consumer is in equilibrium, MRS(XY) is 2.5. If the price of commodity Y is 16, then what will be the price of commodity X ?

A. 40

B. 6.4

C. 23.2

D. 24

Q. 3 Which of the conditions support long run equilibrium in monopolistic competition ?

A. MR = MC, AR = AC

B. P = MC, AR = AC

C. MR = MC = AR = AC

D. AR = MC = AC

Q. 4 Who explained importance of time element in price determination, for the first time ?

A. Chamberlin

B. Stigler

C. Mrs. Joan Robinson

D. Marshall

Q. 5 Law of diminishing returns begins to operate when :

A. Total product begins to rise.

B. Total product begins to fall.

C. Marginal product begins to rise.

D. Marginal product begins to fall.

Q. 6 Consider the following statements regarding Edgeworth Duopoly model :

I. It takes as given output decision of rival.

II. It takes as given price decision of rival.

III. It is an explanation of price rigidity.

Of these, the correct answer is :

A. Only Statement I is true.

B. Both I & II are true.

C. Both II & III are true.

D. Only III is true.

Q. 7 Public goods are characterised by

1. Collective consumption 2. Divisibility

3. Non-exclusion 4. Rival consumption

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

A. 1 & 2 are correct.

B. 1 & 3 are correct.

C. 1 & 4 are correct.

D. 2 & 4 are correct.

Q. 8 Among the following what causes market failure ?

1. Externality

2. Asymmetry of information

3. Perfect competition

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

A. 1, 2 & 3 are correct.

B. Only 1 is correct.

C. 1 & 2 are correct.

D. 2 & 3 are correct.

Q. 9 Assuming wage-price flexibility, the classical economists asserted that a decline in money wages and price would lead to

A. Unemployment

B. Deflation

C. High level of employment and output

D. Unemployment and decline in output

Q. 10 The classical theory of interest postulates that both savings and investments are a function of

A. the level of National income

B. the level of employment and output

C. monetary and fiscal policy

D. rate of interest

Q. 11 The relative income hypothesis of Duesenberry suggests that as income increases, consumption function curve shifts above and therefore,

A. Average propensity to consume rises.

B. Average propensity to consume falls.

C. Average propensity to consume remains constant.

D. Average propensity to consume is equal to 1.

Q. 12 Who among the following said, “Inflation is everywhere and always a monetary phenomenon” ?

A. James Tobin

B. John M. Keynes

C. Milton Friedman

D. Anna J. Schwartz

Q. 13 Accelerator is most closely related to

A. interest rate

B. inventories

C. idle capacity

D. induced investment

Q. 14 Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 15 Which one of the following would be inconsistent with the Keynesian view about the effectiveness of monetary policy ?

A. Velocity of money is relatively stable.

B. The demand for money is unstable.

C. The demand for money is interest sensitive.

D. Investment demand is unstable.

Q. 16 Which of the following statement is true ?

A. Sporadic dumping is selling of goods at a low price in the foreign market to get rid of the inventory stocks.

B. Predatory dumping is destroying of competitors even at a loss initially and then, after eliminating of competitors, selling product at a high price.

C. Persistent dumping is selling a product at a lower price in foreign markets due to

differences in elasticity of demand at home and in the foreign market.

D. All the above.

Q. 17 According to Comparative Advantage Theory, International Trade will not take place if

A. one country is efficient in the production of both the products.

B. one country is inefficient in the production of both the products.

C. opportunity costs of the two products are same in both the countries.

D. None of the above.

Q. 18 Imposition of tariff will lead to

A. Deterioration in terms of trade

B. Improvement in terms of trade

C. No effect on terms of trade

D. None of the above

Q. 19 Under a freely exchange rate system, a deficit in a Nation’s Balance of Payments Account is automatically corrected by

A. a depreciation of its currency

B. an appreciation of its currency

C. domestic inflation

D. deflation and rise in National income

Q. 20 Maastricht Treaty led to the creation of which one of the following ?

A. European Parliament

B. Euro

C. European Court of Justice

D. European Union

Q. 21 Assertion (A) : According to Mundell, “Imbalances in the balance of payments is caused by initial differences in unit factor costs.”

Reason (R) : Free movement of goods will correct the imbalance in the balance of payments of two countries.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. 22 The Stolper-Samuelson theorem postulates that the imposition of a tariff by a nation causes the real income of the nation’s

A. abundant factor to rise

B. scarce factor to rise

C. scarce factor to fall

D. both (A) & (B) are possible

Q. 23 What is perspective planning ?

A. Overall appraisal of planning.

B. Review of planning in different fields.

C. Taking up past experience and reviewing the future in that light.

D. Planning for future so as to meet the long term requirement of development in the

country.

Q. 24 Who formulated the ‘People’s Plan’ for India in 1944 ?

A. J.L. Nehru

B. M.N. Roy

C. Subhas Chandra Bose

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Q. 25 “Trickle down” strategy implies

A. growing GNP taking care of poverty.

B. reduction in the income of the upper class by deliberate redistribution.

C. direct achievement of better nourishment, health, education, etc. instead of growth of GNP first.

D. to target a particular sector of economy for betterment.

Q. 26 What is the correct sequence of the following approaches to development in terms of their chronological emergency ?

1. Basic needs approach

2. Per capita income approach

3. Human Development Index approach

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. 1,2,3

B. 2,1,3

C. 2,3,1

D. 1,3,2

Q. 27 Choose the correct statements for economic development and answer from the code below :

Statements : I. Continuous process

II. Short-term process

III. Long-term process

Codes :

A. II only

B. I and III

C. III only

D. I and II

Q. 28 Which of the following economists are proponents of dependency theory of development ?

Choose from the code below :

I. Ragnar Nurkse II. Andre Gunther Frank

III. Raul Prebisch IV. John Kenneth Galbraith

Codes :

A. I, II and III are correct.

B. II and III are correct

C. II, III and IV are correct.

D. III and IV are correct.

Q. 29 What is true for neo-classical growth models ?

I. Rate of interest and profit are flexible.

II. Capital is heterogeneous.

III. Perfect competition prevails.

IV. Capital and labour are substitutable.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. Only I, II and III are true.

B. Only II and III are true.

C. Only I, III and IV are true.

D. All the above are true.

Q. 30 Choose the top three trading partners of India in 2013-14 :

I. UAE II. Korea

III. China IV. USA

Choose the correct answer from codes given below :

Codes :

A. I, II, III

B. II, III, IV

C. I, III, IV

D. II, I, IV

Q. 31 Of the following, which combination of two deficits is most significant for the Indian economy ?

A. Fiscal deficit and Revenue deficit

B. Revenue deficit and Primary deficit

C. Budget deficit and Fiscal deficit

D. Current Account deficit and Fiscal deficit

Q. 32 Of the following, which sector witnessed the highest growth rate in year 2013-14 ?

A. Agriculture, forestry and fishery

B. Mining and quarrying

C. Manufacturing

D. Construction

Q. 33 Who has advocated the concept of PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) for our country ?

A. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

B. Manmohan Singh

C. Charan Singh

D. None of the above

Q. 34 ECOMARC is a symbol related to

A. Export Goods

B. Import Goods

C. Goods Safe for Environment

D. Best Quality Goods

Q. 35 Arrange following countries as per their HDI rank in the descending order (on the basis of 2013, UNDP Report on Human Development) :

1. Vietnam 2. China

3. India 4. Sri Lanka

A. 4,2,1,3

B. 2,1,4,3

C. 2,4,3,1

D. 1,2,3,4

Q. 36 Consider the following export groups from India for the year 2013-14 :

1. Agri. and allied products

2. Engineering goods

3. Gems and Jewellery

4. Textile and Readymade Garments

Arrange them in descending order of magnitude as a percent to total exports.

A. 2,1,4,3

B. 2,1,3,4

C. 4,2,1,3

D. 3,4,2,1

Q. 37 Techniques used to encourage the production and consumption of goods that generate positive externalities are referred to as

A. Tax incentives and vouchers

B. Fees and fines

C. Taxes and charges

D. Special assessment

Q. 38 Which of the canons of taxations have been propounded by Adam Smith ?

A. Economy, Elasticity, Simplicity and Sufficiency

B. Equity, Certainty, Convenience and Economy

C. Certainty, Convenience, Economy and Elasticity

D. Economy, Coordination, Convenience and Expediency

Q. 39 Displacement effect explained in Peacock-Wiseman hypothesis implies :

A. An upward displacement of public expenditure according to higher economic growth

B. The movement from older level of public expenditure and taxation to a newer and

higher level

C. Public expenditure increases at steady rate and reaches higher level

D. Government undertakes more and more newer activities and hence public

expenditure rises steeply upwards

Q. 40 The most important characteristic of a federation is :

A. Perfect match between the functions and resources of the Central and State

Governments

B. Non-correspondence between the functions and resources of the Central and State

Governments

C. Centre’s supremacy over the States

D. None of the above

Q. 41 Fiscal consolidation at the Centre can be achieved by :

A. Rationalization of major subsidies alone

B. Reducing the defence expenditure only

C. Raising the tax-GDP ratio and rationalisation of subsidies

D. Minimising the Central assistance to the States

Q. 42 Arrange the following Reports in chronological order :

I. Direct Taxes Enquiry Committee, Final Report

II. Final Report on Rationalising and Simplifications of the Tax Structure

III. Indian Tax Reforms – Report of a Survey

IV. Taxation Enquiry Commission

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. IV, III, II, I

B. I, II, III, IV

C. III, I, IV, II

D. II, III, I, IV

Q. 43 Identify correctly the taxes in State List (List – II) of the Constitution of India :

I. Taxes on mineral rights

II. Taxes on luxuries

III. Rates of stamp duty in respect of bills of exchange, cheques and promissory notes

IV. Excise duties on tobacco

Choose the right answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. I and III are correct.

B. I and II are correct.

C. I, III and IV are correct.

D. II, III and IV are correct.

Q. 44 Lump sum grant means :

A. A grant whose amount is sufficient to meet the expenditure.

B. A matching and conditional grant.

C. Grant given for a special purpose and it can be utilised only for that purpose.

D. A grant whose amount is not dependent on any matching effort of the recipient.

Q. 45 Geometric mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s indices provides :

A. Marshall-Edgeworth Index

B. Bowley’s Index

C. Fisher’s Index

D. Kelley’s Index

Q. 46 Assertion (A) : Moving averages method can be used to estimate trend in time series.

Reasoning (R) : Moving averages is a device to smoothen the fluctuations in time series.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

D. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

Q. 47 Which one of the following denotes the power of the Test ? [α is probability of Type I error and β is probability of Type II error]

A. α

B. β

C. 1 – α

D. 1 – β

Q. 48 In a frequency distribution the standard deviation of which is 15.8, the value of median is more than mean by 4, what will be its coefficient of skewness ?

A. – 0.76

B. + 0.76

C. – 0.86

D. + 0.86

Q. 49 Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability that they will fall 2 heads and 1 tail ?

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 3/4

D. 3/8

Q. 50 In a frequency distribution if each item is multiplied by 5, the coefficient of variation will remain

A. unchanged

B. will be multiplied by 5

C. will be multiplied by 25

D. will be multiplied by 1/5

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	D	D	A	B	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	D	A	C	D	C	B	A	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	D	B	A	B	B	B	C	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	A	A	C	A	B	A	B	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	A	D	A	D	A