Vidhyarthi Darpan %

VDO Pre Exam 27 December 2021 Shift -I Previous Year Paper

VDO Pre Exam 27 December 2021 Shift -I Previous Year Paper

Q.1. Which one of the following is not a type of sand dune in Rajasthan?

(A) Thali

(B) Barkhan

(D) Seif

राजस्थान में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक बालुका स्तूप का प्रकार नहीं है?

(A) थली

(B) बरखान

(D) सीफ

Answer – A

Q.2. Dajiya and Chimata are associated with which tribe of Rajasthan?

(A) Meena

(B) Bhil

(D) Sahariya

दजिया और चिमाता राजस्थान की किस जनजाति से सहसम्बन्धित हैं?

(A) मीना

(B) भील

(D) सहरिया

Answer – B

Q.3. Which one of the following (Breed – Animal) is not matched correctly?

(A) Sanchori – Cattle

(B) Mehsana – Buffalo

(D) Kheri – Goat

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा (नस्ल – पशु) सुमेलित नहीं है?

(A) सांचौरी – गाय

(B) मेहसाना – भैंस

(D) खेरी – बकरी

Answer – D

Q.4. The maximum number of dust storms occur in May and June in which district of Rajasthan?

(A) Jaisalmer

(B) Bikaner

(D) Barmer

राजस्थान में मई और जून में सर्वाधिक धूल भरी आंधियाँ किस जिले में आती हैं?

(A) जैसलमेर

(B) बीकानेर

(D) बाड़मेर

Answer – C

Q.5. The Anatolian Plateau is located in –

(A) New Zealand

(B) Turkey

(D) France

अनातोलिया का पठार अवस्थित है –

(A) न्यूज़ीलैण्ड में

(B) टर्की में

(D) फ्रान्स में

Answer – B

Q.6. The two famous painters who came to India during Humayun’s reign were –

(A) Mohammad Nazir and Abdus Samad

(B) Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad

(D) Mansur and Sayyid Ali

हुमायूँ के शासनकाल में भारत आने वाले दो प्रसिद्ध चित्रकार कौन थे?

(A) मुहम्मद नज़ीर तथा अब्दुस्समद

(B) सैयद अली तथा अब्दुस्समद

(D) मंसूर तथा सैयद अली

Answer – B

Q.7. Folk drama Charbait is related to which of the following cities?

(A) Bharatpur

(B) Tonk

(D) Alwar

लोकनाट्य चारबैत किस शहर से संबंधित है?

(A) भरतपुर

(B) टोंक

(D) अलवर

Answer – B

Q.8. Which of the following is a couple dance?

(A) Chari dance

(B) Geendar dance

(D) Mandal dance

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युगल नृत्य है?

(A) चरी नृत्य

(B) गींदड़ नृत्य

(D) मांदल नृत्य

Answer – A

Q.9. Who was the architect of Taj Mahal?

(A) Ustad Mansur

(B) Rahim

(D) Khafi Khan

ताजमहल का वास्तुकार था –

(A) उस्ताद मंसूर

(B) रहीम

(D) खफी खाँ

Answer – C

Q.10. The musical instrument, which is played in Kachchi Godi dance is –

(A) Kamayacha

(B) Algoja

(D) Surnai

वाद्य यंत्र, जो कच्छी घोड़ी नृत्य में बजाया जाता

(A) कामायचा

(B) अलगोजा

(D) सुरनाई

Answer – C

Q.11. The medieval ruler who significantly contributed in the development of Khayal style of classical music –

(A) Ibrahim Adil Shah

(B) Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Wajid Ali Shah

मध्यकालीन शासक, जिसने शास्त्रीय संगीत की ख्याल शैली के विकास में उल्लेखनीय योगदान दिया –

(A) इब्राहिम आदिल शाह

(B) फिरोज़ शाह तुगलक

(D) वाजिद अली शाह

Answer – C

Q.12. The Mascot of Tokyo Olympics is –

(A) Panda

(B) Suminski

(D) Eagle

टोक्यो ओलंपिक का शुभंकर है –

(A) पाण्डा

(B) सुमिन्सकी

(D) ईगल

Answer – C

Q.13. In the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana – Micro Irrigation (PMKSY-MI) the funding pattern with respect to center : state is –

(A) 50:50

(B) 80:20

(D) 70:30

प्रधानमंत्री कृषि सिंचाई योजना – सूक्ष्म सिंचाई के वित्त पोषण का पैटर्न केन्द्र : राज्य के संबंध में है –

(A) 50:50

(B) 80:20

(D) 70:30

Answer – C

Q.14. As per Agricultural Census 2015-16 total number of male operational land holdings in Rajasthan is

(A) 7.75 Lakhs

(B) 196.6 Lakhs

(D) 6.86 Lakhs

राजस्थान राज्य में कृषि गणना 2015-16 के अनुसार कुल पुरुष प्रचालित जोतों की संख्या है –

(A) 7.75 लाख

(B) 196.6 लाख

(D) 6.86 लाख

Answer – C

Q.15. The Headquarters of Merwara Battalion formed in 1822 was –

(A) Jahazpur

(B) Nasirabad

(D) Deoli

1822 ई. में गठित मेरवाड़ा बटालियन का मुख्यालय था –

(A) जहाजपुर

(B) नसीराबाद

(D) देवली

Answer – C

Q.16. The highest peak in Rocky Mountains is –

(A) Mt. Hood

(B) Elbert

(D) Robson

रॉकी पर्वतों की सर्वोच्च चोटी है –

(A) माउण्ट हुड

(B) एल्बर्ट

(D) रॉबसन

Answer – B

Q.17. The ‘S’ shaped oceanic ridge is –

(A) Prince Edward Ridge

(B) Mid Atlantic Ridge

(D) Eastern Pacific Ridge

‘S’ आकार का महासागरीय कटक है –

(A) प्रिंस एडवर्ड कटक

(B) मध्य अटलाण्टिक कटक

(D) पूर्वी प्रशान्त कटक

Answer – B

Q.18. Which one of the following (Tropical Cyclone – Affecting Area) is not correctly matched?

(A) Hurricane – Atlantic Ocean

(B) Typhoon – Western Pacific Ocean

(D) Willy-Willies – South China Sea

निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा (उष्ण कटिबन्धीय चक्रवात – प्रभावित क्षेत्र) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

(A) हरिकेन – अटलाण्टिक महासागर

(B) टायफून – पश्चिमी प्रशांत महासागर

(D) विली-विलीज़ – दक्षिण चीन सागर

Answer – D

Q.19. ‘Vande Bharat Mission’ is related to –

(A) send astronomers on moon

(B) bring back Indian nationals stranded in foreign countries during Covid pandemic

(D) make compulsory recitation of Vande Mataram in all the theatres

‘वन्दे भारत मिशन’ संबंधित है

(A) चन्द्रमा पर अंतरिक्ष यात्री भेजने से

(B) कोविड महामारी के दौरान विदेशों में फंसे भारतियों को वापिस लाने से

(D) समस्त सिनेमाघरों में वंदे मातरम् गाने को अनिवार्य बनाने से

Answer – B

Q.20. ‘Abhanga’ means –

(A) clothes worn by the Saints of Maharashtra Dharma

(B) devotional poetry dedicated to Vithoba

(D) literature of Nirguna Saints

‘अभंग’ का तात्पर्य है –

(A) महाराष्ट्र धर्म के संतों द्वारा पहने गए वस्त्र

(B) विठोबा को समर्पित भक्ति काव्य

(D) निर्गुण संतों का साहित्य

Answer – B

Q.21. How many urban local bodies have been declared open defecation free under Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) Phase-I?

(A) 3258

(B) 3974

(D) 2876

स्वच्छ भारत मिशन (शहरी) चरण-I के अंतर्गत कितने शहरी स्थानीय निकायों को खुले में शौच मुक्त घोषित किया गया. है?

(A) 3258

(B) 3974

(D) 2876

Answer – C

Q.22. ‘Furious Fifties’ winds are associated with –

(A) westerly winds

(B) tropical cyclones

(D) trade winds

‘भयंकर पचासा पवनें संबंधित हैं –

(A) पछुवा पवनों से

(B) उष्ण कटिबंधीय चक्रवातों से

(D) व्यापारिक पवनों से

Answer – A

Q.23. Which one of the following (Topography – Location) is not correctly matched?

(A) Bhorat Plateau – Kumbhalgarh to Gogunda

(B) Bhakar – East Sirohi

(D) Girwa – Udaipur

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा (स्थलाकृति – अवस्थिति) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

(A) भोराठ पठार – कुम्भलगढ़ से गोगुन्दा

(B) भाकर – पूर्वी सिरोही

(D) गिरवा – उदयपुर

Answer – C

Q.24. The Sea of Marmara connects –

(A) the Black Sea and Aegean Sea

(B) the Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(D) the Black Sea and Caspian Sea

मरमरा सागर जोड़ता है –

(A) काला सागर और एजियन सागर को

(B) काला सागर और भूमध्य सागर को

(D) काला सागर और कैस्पियन सागर को

Answer – A

Q.25. On whose recommendation Abu and Bilwara Tehsil were merged in Rajasthan?

(A) Fazal Ali

(B) Gokul Bhai Bhatt

(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

किसकी सिफारिशों के आधार पर आबू एवं देलवाड़ा तहसील को राजस्थान में मिलाया गया था?

(A) फजल अली

(B) गोकुल भाई भट्ट

(D) सरदार वल्लभ भाई पटेल

Answer – A

Q.26. The first solar power plant under the PM-KUSUM Scheme has been set up in India at –

(A) Pinan, Alwar

(B) Bhaloji, Jaipur

(D) Deolia, Jodhpur

प्रधानमंत्री कुसुम योजना के तहत भारत में पहला सौर ऊर्जा संयंत्र स्थापित किया गया है –

(A) पिनान, अलवर में

(B) भालोजी, जयपुर में

(D) देवलिया, जोधपुर में

Answer – B

Q.27. Which tree is called the ‘Flame of the Forest’ in Rajasthan?

(A) Mahua

(B) Khejri

(D) Dhokra

राजस्थान में किस पेड़ को ‘जंगल की आग’ कहते

(A) महुआ

(B) खेजड़ी

(D) धोकड़ा

Answer – C

Q.28. Which one of the following (Biosphere Reserve Area – State) is not matched correctly?

(A) Nokrek – Meghalaya

(B) Manas – Assam

(D) Agasthyamalai – Karnataka

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा (जैवमण्डलीय सुरक्षित क्षेत्र – राज्य) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

(A) नोकरेक – मेघालय

(B) मानस – असम

(D) अगस्त्यमलाई – कर्नाटक

Answer – D

Q.29. Which of the following (Ruler – Painting Style) is not correctly matched?

(A) Anoop Singh – Bikaner

(B) Raj Singh I – Nathdwara

(D) Vijay Singh – Deogarh

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा (शासक – चित्रकला शैली) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

(A) अनूपसिंह – बीकानेर

(B) राजसिंह I – नाथद्वारा

(D) विजयसिंह – देवगढ़

Answer – D

Q.30. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below –

List – 1 (Animal Fair)

1. Veer Tejaji

2. Shivratri

3. Chandrabhaga

4. Mallinath

List – II (Place)

(i) Barmer

(ii) Bharatpur

(iii) Parbatsar

(iv) Jhalrapatan

Code –

(A) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)

(B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

(D) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)

सूची-I का सूची-II से मिलान कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए –

। सूची-I (पशु मेला)

1. वीर तेजाजी

2. शिवरात्रि

3. चन्द्रभागा

4. मल्लीनाथ

सूची-II

(स्थान)

(i) बाड़मेर

(ii) भरतपुर

(iii) परबतसर

(iv) झालरापाटन

कूट –

(A) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)

(B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

(D) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)

Answer – A

Q.31. Which of the following (Book – Author) is correctly matched?

(A) India Divided – Maulana Azad

(B) India Wins Freedom – Rajendra Prasad

(D) Unhappy India – Jawahar Lal Nehru

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा (पुस्तक – लेखक) सही सुमेलित है?

(A) इण्डिया डिवाइडेड – मौलाना आजाद

(B) इण्डिया विन्स फ्रीडम – राजेन्द्र प्रसाद

(D) अनहैप्पी इण्डिया – जवाहर लाल नेहरु

Answer – C

Q.32. Which dialect did Grierson also call as dialect of Bhil tribe?

(A) Wagdi

(B) Dingal

(D) Nimadi

ग्रियर्सन ने किस बोली को भीलों की बोली की संज्ञा दी है?

(A) वागड़ी

(B) डिंगल

(D) नीमाड़ी

Answer – A

Q.33. Mirzai, Dutai and Dagla are the types of –

(A) Turbans

(B) Lahariyas

(D) Dhotis

मिरज़ाई, दुतई और डगला किसके प्रकार हैं?

(A) पगड़ी के

(B) लहरिया के

(D) धोती के

Answer – C

Q.34. As compared to 2001, the sex ratio in urban. regions of Rajasthan as per census 2011, has been improved by how many females per 1000 males?

(A) 18

(B) 24

(D) 12

2001 की तुलना में, 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार, राजस्थान के नगरीय क्षेत्रों में लिंगानुपात प्रति 1000 पुरुषों पर कितनी महिलाओं से बढ़ा है?

(A) 18

(B) 24

(D) 12

Answer – D

Q.35. Kamala and Ilaichi are the foremost women painters of which school of painting?

(A) Bundi

(B) Nathdwara

(D) Jodhpur

कमला और इलाइची किस चित्रकला शैली की अग्रगण्य महिला चित्रकार हैं?

(A) बूंदी

(B) नाथद्वारा

(D) जोधपुर

Answer – B

Q.36. The Department of Tourism in Rajasthan was established in –

(A) 1956

(B) 1954

(D) 1958

राजस्थान में पर्यटन विभाग की स्थापना हुई थी –

(A) 1956 में

(B) 1954 में

(D) 1958 में

Answer – A

Q.37. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below –

List -I (Saint)

I. Ramanuja

II. Madhvacharya

III. Nimbarka

IV. Vallabhacharya

List – II (Sect)

(A) Shuddhadvaita

(B) Dvaitadvaita

(D) Dvaita Code

(A) I – (C), II – (D), III – (B), IV – (A)

(B) I – (D), II – (C), III – (B), IV – (A)

(D) I – (C), II – (B), III – (D), IV – (A)

सूची-I (संत)

I. रामानुज

II. माधवाचार्य

III. निम्बार्क

IV. वल्लभाचार्य

सूची-II (सम्प्रदाय)

(A) शुद्धाद्वैत

(B) द्वैताद्वैत

(D) द्वैत कूट

(A) I – (C), II – (D), III – (B), IV – (A)

(B) I – (D), II – (C), III – (B), IV – (A)

(D) I – (C), II – (B), III – (D), IV – (A)

Answer – A

Q.38. The new name given to the Industry Department by Rajasthan Government is –

(A) Industry and Co-operative Department

(B) Industry and Technology Department

(D) Industry and Commerce Department

राजस्थान सरकार ने उद्योग विभाग का नया नाम बदलकर रख दिया है –

(A) उद्योग और सहकारिता विभाग

(B) उद्योग और तकनीकी विभाग

(D) उद्योग एवं वाणिज्य विभाग

Answer – D

Q.39. The correct increasing order of the following three districts of Rajasthan with minimum population (as per census-2011) is

(A) Sirohi > Pratapgarh > Jaisalmer

(B) Jaisalmer > Sirohi > Pratapgarh

(D) Pratapgarh > Sirohi > Jaisalmer

राजस्थान में न्यूनतम जनसंख्या वाले निम्नलिखित तीन जिलों का सही बढ़ता क्रम (जनसंख्या-2011 के अनुसार) है –

(A) सिरोही > प्रतापगढ़ > जैसलमेर

(B) जैसलमेर > सिरोही > प्रतापगढ़

(D) प्रतापगढ़ > सिरोही > जैसलमेर

Answer – C

Q.40. If we travel along the Luni River from its origin to the end, in which order would we find its tributaries?

(1) Jawai

(2) Bandi

(3) Sukari

(4) Guhiya

Code –

(A) 3, 2, 1, 4

(B) 4, 2, 3, 1

(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

यदि हम लूनी नदी के किनारे इसके उद्गम से अंत तक यात्रा करते हैं, तो हम इसकी सहायक नदियों को किस क्रम में पायेंगे?

(1) जवाई

(2) बाण्डी

(3) सूकड़ी

(4) गुहिया कूट

(A) 3, 2, 1, 4

(B) 4, 2, 3, 1

(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer – B

Q.41. Answer the question based on the set of numbers given below –

429 738 273 894 156

If the positions of the first two digits in each number are reversed, then the difference between the first digit of the greatest number as well as of the lowest number is equal to –

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 7

नीचे दिए गए संख्याओं के समुच्चय पर आधारित प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए –

429 738 273 894 156

यदि प्रत्येक संख्या के प्रथम दो अंकों का स्थान परस्पर बदल दिया जाता है, तो सबसे बड़ी संख्या के प्रथम अंक और सबसे छोटी संख्या के प्रथम अंक का अंतर बराबर है –

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 7

Answer – D

Q.42. In a certain code, DEAF is written as 3587 and FILE is written as 7465. How is IDEAL written in that code?

(A) 63648

(B) 63854

(D) 43568

एक विशेष कोड में, DEAF को 3587 लिखते हैं तथा FILE को 7465 लिखा जाता है। इस कूट (कोड) में IDEAL को कैसे लिखेंगे?

(A) 63648

(B) 63854

(D) 43568

Answer – C

Q.43. Here, a statement is followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statement –

Statement: Most of the teachers are Rekha is honest.

Conclusion :

(A) Rekha is a teacher.

(B) Those who are not honest are not teachers.

(D) Some teachers are not honest.

यहाँ, एक कथन के पश्चात् कुछ निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं। वह निष्कर्ष चुनिए जो तार्किक रूप से दिए गए कथन का अनुसरण करता है –

कथन : अधिकांश अध्यापक ईमानदार हैं। रेखा ईमानदार है।

निष्कर्ष :

(A) रेखा एक अध्यापिका है।

(B) जो ईमानदार नहीं हैं वे अध्यापक नहीं हैं।

(D) कुछ अध्यापक ईमानदार नहीं हैं।

Answer – D

Q.44. A cube is painted on all its faces and it is cut into 64 identical smaller cubes. The difference between number of smaller cubes which are painted on one face and two faces, is –

(A) 8

(B) 4

(D) 0

एक घन के सभी फलेकों को रंगा जाता है एवं इसे 64 एक समान छोडे घनों में काटा जाता है। एक फलक एवं दो फलकों पर रंग वाले छोटे. घनों की संख्या का अन्तर हैं

(B) 4

(A) 8

(D) 0

Answer – D

Q.45. Arrange the following words as found in the dictionary, now what will be the fourth letter from the left in the last word?

INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION

(A) T

(B) I

(D) O

निम्न शब्दों को डिक्शनरी में पाए जाने के क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए, अब अन्तिम शब्द में बायीं ओर से चौथा अक्षर क्या होगा?

INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION

(A) T

(B) I

(D) O

Answer – B

Q.46. Fill in the missing value –

(A) 5

(B) 1

(D) 3

लुप्त संख्या को भरें –

(A) 5

(B) 1

(D) 3

Answer – D

Q.47. In the following figure number of triangles are –

(A) 20

(B) 17

(D) 18

निम्न चित्र में त्रिभुजों की संख्या हैं –

(A) 20

(B) 17

(D) 18

Answer – B

Q.48. A is the son of B. C is sister of B. C has son D and daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How many nephews does F have?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(D) 2

A, B का पुत्र है। C, B की बहन है। C के पुत्र D और पत्री E हैं। F, D का मामा है। F के कितने भतीजे/भान्जे हैं?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(D) 2

Answer – D

Q.49. P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. But R and S cannot be together. Also, Q cannot be at the third place, then which of the following must be false?

(A) P is at the second place

(B) P is at the third place

(D) P is at the first place

P, Q, R और S को एक पंक्ति में बैठना है। परन्तु R और S एक साथ नहीं बैठ सकते। Q तीसरे स्थान पर भी नहीं हो सकता, तो निम्न में से कौन-सा असत्य होना चाहिए?

(A) P द्वितीय स्थान पर है

(B) P तृतीय स्थान पर है

(D) P प्रथम स्थान पर है

Answer – D

Q.50. Read the following information carefully to answer the question given below

(i) P × Q means P is brother of Q

(ii) P + Q means Q is mother of P

(iii) P – Q means Q is sister of P

(iv) P ÷ Q means P is father of Q

Which of the following means T is nephew of R?

(A) R × J ÷ T × K

(B) R – M + T – J

(D) P × J ÷ T – R

निम्नलिखित जानकारी को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए –

(i) P × Q का अर्थ है P, Q का भाई है।

(ii) P + Q का अर्थ है Q,P की माताजी है।

(iii) P – Q का अर्थ है Q,P की बहन है।

(iv) P ÷ Q का अर्थ है P, Q के पिताजी हैं।

निम्नलिखित में से किसका अर्थ है कि T, R का भतीजा है?

(A) R × J ÷ T × K

(B) R – M + T – J

(D) P × J ÷ T – R

Answer – A

Q.51. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then –

(A) r < 2

(B) r = 2

(D) 2 < r <8

यदि दो वृत्त (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 तथा x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 दो भिन्न-भिन्न बिन्दुओं पर प्रतिच्छेद करते हैं, तो –

(A) r < 2

(B) r = 2

(D) 2 < r <8

Answer – D

Q.52. The value of is

(A) tan

(B) sec

(D) sec – tan

का मान है –

(A) tanΘ

(B) secΘ

(D) secΘ – taΘn

Answer – D

Q.53. If the selling price of 16 items is equal to the cost price of 20 items, then profit or loss percent is –

(A) 25% Loss

(B) 20% Loss

(D) 25% Profit

यदि 16 वस्तुओं का विक्रय मूल्य, 20 वस्तुओं के क्रय मूल्य के बराबर है, तो लाभ या हानि प्रतिशत है –

(A) 25% हानि

(B) 20% हानि

(D) 25% लाभ

Answer – D

Q.54. The probability of a shooter hitting a target is 0.75. How many minimum number of times must he/she fire so that the probability of hitting the target at least once is more than 0.99?

(A) 4

(B) 2

(D) 1

एक निशानेबाज के लक्ष्य-भेदन की प्रायिकता 0.75 है। वह कम से कम कितनी बार गोली चलाए कि लक्ष्य को कम से कम एक बार भेदने की प्रायिकता 0.99 से अधिक हो?

(A) 4

(B) 2

(D) 1

Answer – A

Q.55. In an office, ⅗ of total employees are females and rest are males. If 2/9 part of females and ¼ part of males are absent, then what part of total employees are absent?

(A) 19/30 part

(B) 17/29 part

(D) 23/30 part

एक कार्यालय में, कुल कर्मचारियों का ⅗ भाग महिलाएँ हैं तथा शेष पुरुष हैं। यदि महिलाओं का 2/9 भाग तथा पुरुषों का ¼ भाग अनुपस्थित हो, तो कुल कर्मचारियों का कौनसा भाग अनुपस्थित है?

(A) 19/30 भाग

(B) 17/29 भाग

(D) 23/30 भाग

Answer – D

Q.56. ‘X’ can complete a work in 14 days and ‘Y’ can complete in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before the completion of the work, ‘X’ leaves off. What is the total number of days to complete the work?

(A) 6 ⅗ days

(B) 9 ⅕ days

(D) 8 ½ days

‘X’ एक कार्य को 14 दिन में तथा ‘Y’ उसे 21 दिन में पूरा कर सकता है। दोनों साथ मिलकर कार्य प्रारंभ करते हैं, परन्तु कार्य पूर्ण होने से 3. दिन पहले ‘X’ कार्य छोड़ देता है। कार्य को पूर्ण होने में लगने वाले दिनों की कुल संख्या क्या है?

(A) 6 ⅗ दिन

(B) 9 ⅕ दिन

(D) 8 ½ दिन

Q.57. If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression and x, y, z are in geometric progression, then the value of xb-c yc-a za-b is equal to –

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) xyz

यदि a, b, c समान्तर श्रेणी में हो और x, y, z गुणोत्तर श्रेणी में हो, तो xb-c yc-a za-b का मान बराबर है

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) xyz

Answer – B

Q.58. Suppose and . If ū is unit vector, then the maximum value of scalar triple product is –

(A) √10 + √6

(B) √59

(D) √6

माना और . यदि । एक इकाई सदिश है, तो अदिश त्रिक गुणन का अधिकतम मान है –

(A) √10 + √6

(B) √59

(D) √6

Answer – B

Q.59. What is the unit digit in product of (4387)245 × (621)72?

(A) 7

(B) 5

(D) 1

(4387)245 × (621)72 के गुणनफल में इकाई अंक क्या है?

(A) 7

(B) 5

(D) 1

Answer – A

Q.60. The value of 1² + 3² + 5² + 7² + ……… + 19² is

(A) 1430

(B) 1230

(D) 1330

1² + 3² + 5² + 7² + ……… + 19² का मान है –

(A) 1430

(B) 1230

(D) 1330

Answer – D

Q.61. Read the statements carefully –

I – The Governor shall declare that he reserves the Bill for the consideration of the President. [Article-200]

II – The President may direct the Governor to return the Bill to the house. [Article-201]

Which of the following options is correct?

(A) Only statement I is correct.

(B) Only statement II is correct.

(D) Both statements I & II are incorrect.

कंथनों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए –

I – राज्यपाल यह घोषित करेगा कि वह विधेयक को राष्ट्रपति के विचार के लिए आरक्षित रखता है। (अनुच्छेद-200)

II – राष्ट्रपति, राज्यपाल को यह निर्देश दे सकेगा कि वह विधेयक को सदन को लौटा दे। (अनुच्छेद-201)

निम्न में से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?

(A) केवल कथन I सही है।

(B) केवल कथन II सही है।

(D) I एवं II दोनों कथन गलत हैं।

Answer – C

Q.62. Extension of Scheduled Area Act-1996 is related to –

(A) Education

(B) Panchayat Raj Empowerment

(D) Extension of reservation area

अनुसूचित क्षेत्र विस्तार अधिनियम-1996 का सम्बन्ध है –

(A) शिक्षा

(B) पंचायत राज सशक्तीकरण

(D) आरक्षण क्षेत्र में विस्तार

Answer – B

Q.63. How many general elections of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly have been held till 2018?

(A) 14

(B) 16

(D) 13

2018 तक राजस्थान विधानसभा के कितने आम चुनाव सम्पन्न हो चुके हैं?

(A) 14

(B) 16

(D) 13

Answer – C

Q.64. In which year the District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) has been merged with Zila – Parishad in Rajasthan?

(A) 2003

(B) 2008

(D) 2001

राजस्थान में किस वर्ष जिला ग्रामीण विकास अभिकरण (डी.आर.डी.ए.) का विलय जिला परिषद् में किया गया है?

(A) 2003

(B) 2008

(D) 2001

Answer – A

Q.65. Who among the following Chief Minister had to resign after the Deeg shootout and when did he resign?

(A) Shiv Charan Mathur; Feb 23rd, 1985

(B) Jagannath Pahadia ; July 13th, 1981

(D) Mohan Lal Sukhadia ; Feb 16th, 1980

निम्न में से किस मुख्यमंत्री को डीग – गोलीकांड के बाद इस्तीफा देना पड़ा और उन्होंने कब इस्तीफा दिया?

(A) शिव चरण माथुर ; 23 फरवरी, 1985

(B) जगन्नाथ पहाड़िया ; 13 जुलाई, 1981

(D) मोहन लाल सुखाड़िया ; 16 फरवरी, 1980

Answer – A

Q.66. To whom does the Lokayukta present the annual report in Rajasthan?

(A) President

(B) Chief Minister

(D) Governor

राजस्थान में लोकायुक्त वार्षिक प्रतिवेदन किसको प्रस्तुत करता है?

(A) राष्ट्रपति

(B) मुख्यमंत्री

(D) राज्यपाल

Answer – D

Q.67. How many times the elections of Panchayati . Raj Institutions have been held till the year 2020?

(A) Nine times

(B) Ten times

(D) Eleven times

वर्ष 2020 तक राजस्थान में पंचायतीराज संस्थाओं के लिए कितनी बार चुनाव आयोजित किए गए?

(A) 9 बार

(B) 10 बार

(D) 11 बार

Answer – D

Q.68. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Rajasthan State Women Commission?

(i) The chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor.

(ii) The commission was formed on 15 May, 1999.

(iii) It is a non-constitutional and advisory body.

(iv) Its function is to hear and investigate complaints related to harassment of women.

(A) i, ii, iii

(B) ii, iii, iv

(D) i, ii, iii, iv

राजस्थान राज्य महिला आयोग के संबंध में कौनसा/कौनसे कथन सत्य है/हैं?

(i) आयोग के अध्यक्ष व सदस्यों की नियुक्ति राज्यपाल करता है।

(ii) आयोग का गठन 15 मई, 1999 को हुआ।

(iii) यह गैर-संवैधानिक व परामर्शकारी निकाय है।

(iv) इसका कार्य महिला उत्पीड़न से संबंधित शिकायतें सुनना तथा उनकी जाँच करना है।

(A) i, ii, iii

(B) ii, iii, iv

(D) i, ii, iii, iv

Answer – D

Q.69. In which Article of Indian Constitution the definition of “Gram Sabha” is mentioned?

(A) Article – 243C

(B) Article – 243

(D) Article-243B

भारतीय संविधान के कौनसे अनुच्छेद में “ग्राम सभा’ की परिभाषा है?

(A) अनुच्छेद – 243 ग

(B) अनुच्छेद – 243

(D) अनुच्छेद – 243 ख

Answer – C

Q.70. Where is the Rajasthan Civil Services Appellate tribunal located?

(A) Jodhpur

(B) Bikaner

(D) Bharatpur

राजस्थान सिविल सेवा अपील अधिकरण कहाँ स्थित है?

(A) जोधपुर

(B) बीकानेर

(D) भरतपुर

Answer – C

Q.71. In context of flow chart symbols, choose an invalid pair –

(A) Rhombus, Decision

(B) Triangle, Terminal

(D) Parallelogram, Input / Output

फ्लोचार्ट प्रतीकों के संदर्भ में, अनुचित युग्म का चयन कीजिए –

(A) समचतुर्भुज, डिसीजन

(B) त्रिभुज, टर्मिनल

(D) समानांतर चतुर्भुज, इनपुट/आउटपुट

Answer – B

Q.72. Let the currently selected/active MS Excel cell is M130, on pressing “Home” button on keyboard, selection will move to which of the following cell?

(A) A130

(B) M1

(D) No movements

मान लें एम.एस. एक्सेल की हाल चयनित/सक्रिय रोल M130 है, की-बोर्ड पर “होम” बटन दबाने से, चयन निम्न में से किस सेल पर आ जाएगा?

(A) A130

(B) M1

(D) कोई गमनागमन नहीं

Answer – C

Q.73. in which generation, transistor was used?

(A) First

(B) Fourth

(D) Third

किस पीढ़ी में ट्रांजिस्टर को प्रयोग में लाया गया था?

(A) प्रथम

(B) चतुर्थ

(D) तृतीय

Answer – C

Q.74. In a PowerPoint presentation –

(A) Both sound clips and movie clips can be inserted

(B) Sound clips cannot be inserted

(D) Movie clips cannot be inserted

पावर पॉइंट प्रस्तुतीकरण में –

(A) ध्वनि क्लिप्स और चलचित्र क्लिप्स दोनों प्रविष्ट कर सकते हैं

(B) ध्वनि क्लिप्स प्रविष्ट नहीं कर सकते

(D) चलचित्र क्लिप्स प्रविष्ट नहीं कर सकते

Answer – A

Q.75. Which of the following is not a type of hard disk?

(A) Winchester

(B) Disk Pack

(D) Bernoulli

निम्न में से कौन-सा हार्ड डिस्क का एक प्रकार नहीं

(A) विन्चेस्टर

(B) डिस्क पैक

(D) बरनौली

Answer – C

Q.76. Which language is being used as the basis for the Japanese fifth generation computers?

(A) ALGOL

(B) COBOL

(D) PROLOG

जापानी पंचम जनन कम्प्यूटर्स के लिए किस भाषा का आधार की तरह प्रयोग में लिया जा रहा है?

(A) ALGOL

(B) COBOL

(D) PROLOG

Answer – D

Q.77. In context of Internet news groups, ……. deals with rules of framing messages that will not hurt others.

(A) telnet

(B) netiquette

(D) net neutrality

इन्टरनेट न्यूज़ ग्रुप्स के संदर्भ में, …………. दूसरों को आहत ना करने वाले संदेश बनाने के नियमों से संबन्धित है।

(A) टेलनेट

(B) नेटीकेट

(D) नेट न्यूट्रालिटी

Answer – B

Q.78. When was vacuum tube invented?

(A) 1900

(B) 1910

(D) 1906

वैक्यूम ट्यूब का आविष्कार कब किया गया?

(A) 1900

(B) 1910

(D) 1906

Answer – D

Q.79. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?

(A) Dot matrix

(B) Plotter printer

(D) Laser printer

निम्न में से कौन-सा सबसे श्रेष्ठ गुणधर्म का ग्राफिक्स रिप्रोडक्शन उत्पादित करता है?

(A) डॉट मैट्रिक्स प्रिंटर

(B) प्लॉटर

(D) लेज़र प्रिंटर

Answer – B

Q.80. In context of MS Word-2019, keystroke . “Ctrl + Shift + F5″ is related to –

(A) mail marge

(B) macros

(D) footnote

एम.एस. वर्ड-2019 के संदर्भ में, की-स्ट्रोक “Ctrl + Shift + F5” सम्बन्धित है –

(A) मेल मर्ज से

(B) मैक्रोज़ से

(D) फुटनोट से

Answer – C

Q.81. One whose only motive is to earn money is :

(A) Spendthrift

(B) Vagabond

(D) Mercenary

Answer – D

Q.82. Select the correct sentence from the given options which rightly transforms the Direct speech sentence in reported speech –

Sentence: She said to me, “I thought I heard. you coming down the stairs”.

(A) She told me I thought she had heard me coming down the stairs.

(B) She told me she thought she had heard me coming down the stairs.

(D) She told me she thought I had heard her coming down the stairs.

Answer – B

Q.83. Change into passive voice : There is no form to reject.

(A) There has been no form to get reject.

(B) There is no form that was rejected.

(D) There is no form to be rejected.

Answer – D

Q.84. Fill in the blank space in the sentence by choosing the correct form of the verb/tense from the given options –

“As soon as she ……….. the book, she informed the publisher.”

(A) has finished

(B) finishes

(D) finished

Answer – D

Q.85. Match the words in (A) with their synonyms in (B) :

(A) Words

(A) Amend

(B) Revamp

(D) Diminish

(B) Synonyms

(i) Rebuild

(ii) Increase

(iii) Reduce

(iv) Modify

(A) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

(B) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii)

(D) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

Answer – D

Q.86. Out of the following proverbs, which one is correctly framed or does not have any error in its form:

(A) As you sow, you shall so reap

(B) A stitch on time saves nine

(D) Make hay while the sun shines

Answer – A

Q.87. Match the items in column

(A) with appropriate items in column

(B) so as to form meaningful sentences :

Column – (A)

(A) If you had tried…..

(B) Unless you tell me the truth.

(D) Do you know………..

Column – (B)

(i) ………..whether the match has been postponed.

(ii) …………you’ll need a lot of money.

(iii) ………..I’ll not let you go.

(iv)…………you would have succeeded.

(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)

(B) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

(D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)

Answer – B

Q.88. Fill in the blank with the correct article:

He works in………………… L.I.C. of India.

(A) zero

(B) the

(D) an

Answer – D

Q.89. Choose the correct alternative from the given options to fill in the blank space in the sentence –

“She is ………………than her sister.”

(A) very pretty

(B) most pretty

(D) prettier

Answer – D

Q.90. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate phrasal verb: How did you……. …. (come) that rare diamond?

(A) come by

(B) come around

(D) come down

Answer – A

Q.91. समश्रुत भिन्ना मिश्रुत भिन्नार्थक शब्द की दृष्टि से असंगत युग्म चुनिए –

(A) कृतिका – कृत्यका = एक त्यका = एक नक्षत्र, भयंकर कार्य

(B) ऊमक – उभक = वेग, रीछ

(D) क्षमा – क्ष्मा = माफ़ी, पृथ्वी

Answer – C

Q.92. किस वाक्याश के लिए प्रयुक्त शब्द सार्थक नहीं है?

(A) जहाँ कोई विघ्न न हो – निर्विघ्न

(B) जिसे जीतना आसान हो – दुर्जेय

(D) जो ज्यादा दीर्घ न हो – नातिदीर्घ

Answer – B

Q.93. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द शुद्ध हैं?

(A) मुनेश्वर, निरूत्साही

(B) हस्ताक्षेप, तिरिस्कार

(D) प्रमाणिक, धैर्यता

Answer – C

Q.94. विलोम शब्द की दृष्टि से अनुचित युग्म का चयन कीजिए –

(A) आभ्यन्तर – बाह्य

(B) अथ – इति

(D) अस्त – उदय

Answer – C

Q.95. प्रत्यय की दृष्टि से असुमेलित विकल्प बताइए –

(A) वृष्णि + एय = वार्ष्णेय

(B) वल्मीक + इ = वाल्मीकि

(D) दृश् + तव्य = द्रष्टव्य

Answer – C

Q.96. किस शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद सही किया गया है?

(A) वयोवृद्ध = वयोः + वृद्ध

(B) अन्योन्य = अन्यः + अन्य

(D) शिरोभाग = शिराः + भाग

Answer – B

Q.97. समास-विग्रह की दृष्टि से असुमेलित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए –

(A) आकाशपतित – आकाश को प्राप्त किया हुआ

(B) आपादमस्तक – पाद से लेकर मस्तक पर्यन्त

(D) चतुष्पथ – चार पथों का समूह

Answer – A

Q.98. तत्सम तद्भव की दृष्टि से कौन-सा युग्म सही नहीं

(A) दंष्ट्रिका – दाढ़ी

(B) गोधूम – गाहक

(D) पाषाण – पाहन

Answer – B

Q.99. निम्न में से किस विकल्प के सभी शब्द परस्पर पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं हैं?

(A) अम्बिका, गौरी

(B) शची, पुलोमजा

(D) सिन्धुजा, गिरा

Answer – B

Q.100. “तबेले की बला बन्दर के सिर” उक्त लोकोक्ति का उचित भावार्थ है –

(A) कम सामग्री से काम पूरा करना

(B) अपराधी कोई और दण्ड किसी और को

(D) बेइज्जत होकर कुछ पाना

Answer – B

GATE 2020 Statistics Previous Year Paper

GATE 2020 Statistics Previous Year Paper

GA – General Aptitude

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was conferred Mary Kom, a six-time world champion in boxing, recently in a ceremony the Rashtrapati Bhawan (the President’s official residence) in New Delhi.

(A)with,

(B)at on,

(C)on, at

(D)to, at

Q.No. 2 Despite a string of poor performances, the chances of K. L. Rahul’s selection in the team are

(A) slim

(B) bright

(D) uncertain

Q.No. 3 Select the word that fits the analogy:

Cover : Uncover :: Associate :

(A) Unassociate

(B) Inassociate

(D) Dissociate

Q.No. 4 Hit by floods, the kharif (summer sown) crops in various parts of the country have been affected. Officials believe that the loss in production of the kharif crops can be recovered in the output of the rabi (winter sown) crops so that the country can achieve its food-grain production target of 291 million tons in the crop year 2019-20 (July-June). They are hopeful that good rains in July-August will help the soil retain moisture for a longer period, helping winter sown crops such as wheat and pulses during the November-February period.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A)Officials declared that the food-grain production target will be met due to good rains.

(B)Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period.

(C)Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods.

(D)Officials hope that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Q.No. 5 The difference between the sum of the first 2n natural numbers and the sum of the first n odd natural numbers is _____________

(A) n²

(B) n² + n

(D) 2n² +n

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 6 Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

(A)Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(B)Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

(C)Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks.

(D)Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Q.No. 7 P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table.

I. S is seated opposite to W.

II. U is seated at the second place to the right of R.

III. T is seated at the third place to the left of R.

IV. V is a neighbour of S.

Which of the following must be true?

(A) P is a neighbour of R.

(B) Q is a neighbour of R.

(D) R is the left neighbour of S.

Q.No. 8 The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car started from Agra to Delhi along the same road 1 hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The speed of car P was 10 km/hr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other?

(A) 66.6

(B) 75.2

(D) 116.5

Q. No. 9 For a matrix M = [m_ij]; i, j = 1,2,3,4, the diagonal elements are all zero and m_ij = -m_ij: The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix is______

(A) 0

(B) 6

(D) 16

Q.No. 10 The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. If the two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013 – 2018 is Company P Company Q

(A) 15:17

(B) 16:17

(D) 17:16

Q1 – Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1 Let M be a 3 × 3 non-zero idempotent matrix and let I₃ denote the 3 × 3 identity matrix. Then which of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) The eigenvalues of M are 0 and 1

(B) Rank(M) = Trace(M)

(D) (I₃ + M)^-1 = I₃ – 2M

Q.No.2 Let C denote the set of all complex numbers. Consider the vector space

V = {(a,b,c): a,b,c e C, a + 5 = 0, b + c = 0},

over the field of real numbers, where for any complex number z, z denotes its complex conjugate. If i = √-1, then a basis of V is

(A){(1,-1,1),(i,i,i)}

(B){(1,-1,1), (i, -i,i)}

(C){(1, -i, 1), (i,1,1)}

(D){(1, -i,1),(i,1,-1)}

Q.No. 3 Let S = {(x, y) E R R: x² – y² = 4} and f: S ⟶ R be defined by f(x,y) = 6 x + y2, where R denotes the set of all real numbers. Then

(A) f is bounded on S

(B) the maximum value off on S is 13

(D) the minimum value off on S is -13

Q.No. 4 Let f: R XR → R be defined by

Where R denotes the set of all real numbers and c E R is a fixed constant. Then, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) There does NOT exist a value of c for which f is continuous at (0,0)

(B) f is continuous at (0,0) if c = 0

(D) f is continuous at (0,0) if c = 16

Q.No. 5 The moment generating function of a random variable X is given by

Then P(X ≤ 2) equals

(A) 1/3

(B) 1/6

(D)5/6

Q.No. 6 Consider the following two-way fixed effects analysis of variance model

Where ε_ijk‘s are independently and identically distributed N(0,0%) random variables, .

Let SSE denote the sum of squares due to error. For any positive integer v and any ∝ € (0,1), let X_V²∝ denote the (1 – ∝)-th quantile of the central chi-square distribution with v degrees of freedom. Then a 95% confidence interval for σ² is given by SSE x?

Q.No. 7 Let X₁,…,X₂₀ be independent and identically distributed random variables with the common probability density function

Then the distribution of the random variable is

(A) central chi-square with 10 degrees of freedom

(B) central chi-square with 20 degrees of freedom

(D) central chi-square with 40 degrees of freedom

Q.No. 8 Let X₁, …, X₁₀ be a random sample from a Weibull distribution with the probability density function

where For any positive integer v and any a the quantile of the central chi-square distribution with v degrees of freedom. Then, a 90% confidence interval for θ is

Q.No. 9 Let X₁, …, X_n be a random sample of size n (≥ 2) from a uniform distribution on the interval [-θ, θ], where θ ε (θ,∞). A minimal sufficient statistic for θ is

Q.No. 10 Let X₁, …, X_n be a random sample of size n (≥ 2) from N(θ,2θ²) distribution, where θ ε (0,∞). Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Q.No. 11 Let be a Poisson process with rate λ= 2. Given that N(3) = 1, the expected arrival time of the first event of the process is

(A) 1

(B) 3/2

(D) 3

Q.No. 12 Consider the regression model

where β₀ and β₁ are unknown parameters and εi’s are random errors. Let y_i be the observed value of Y_i, i = 1, …, n. Using the method of ordinary least squares, the estimate of β₁ is

Q.No. 13 Let In be a random sample of size n (≥2) from N_p (0, Σ) distribution, where is a positive definite matrix. Define

where for any column vector U, U^t denotes its transpose. Then the distribution of the statistic is

Q.No. 14 Consider a two-way fixed effects analysis of variance model without interaction effect and one observation per cell. If there are 5 factors and 4 columns, then the degrees of freedom for the error sum of squares is

(A) 20

(B) 19

(D) 11

Q.No. 15 Let X₁, …, X_n be a random sample of size n (≥2) from an exponential distribution with the probability density function

where Consider the problem of testing against based on X₁, …, X_n. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Likelihood ratio test at level leads to the same critical region as the corresponding most powerful test at the same level.

(B) Critical region of level likelihood ratio test is is the a-th quantile of the central chi-square distribution with 2n degrees of freedom

(D) At any fixed level , the power of the likelihood ratio test is lower than that of the most powerful test

Q.No. 16 The characteristic function of a random variable X is given by

Q.No. 17 Let the random vector X = (X₁, X₂, X₃, X₄) follow N₄(μ, ∑) distribution, where

Then P(X₁ + X₂ + X₃ + X₄ > 0) = _______________ (correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 18 Let {X_n}_n_≥₀ be a homogeneous Markov chain with state space {0,1} and one

step transition probability matrix , then 27 × E(X₂) ______________= (correct up to two decimal places).

Q. No. 19 Let E, F and G be mutually independent events with P(E) = 1/2, P(F) = 1/3 and P(G) = 1/4. Let p be the probability that at least two of the events among E,F and G occur. Then 12 × p = __________ (correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 20 Let the joint probability mass function of (X,Y,Z) be

where k = 10 – x – y – z; x, y, z = 0,1, … , 10; x + y + z ≤ 10. Then the variance of the random variable Y + Z equals _____________ (correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 21 The total number of standard 4 X 4 Latin squares is___________

Q.No. 22 Let X be a 4 × 1 random vector with E(X) = 0 and variance-covariance matrix

Let Y be the 4 × 1 random vector of principal components derived from ∑. The proportion of total variation explained by the first two principal components equals __________ (correct up to two decimal places).

Q.No. 23 Let X₁, …,X_n be a random sample of size n (≥2) from an exponential distribution with the probability density function

Q.No. 24 Let where x_i‘s are fixed covariates and εi’s are independent and identically distributed random variables with mean zero and finite variance. Suppose that α and β are the least squares estimators of α and β, respectively. Given the following data:

where y_i is the observed value of Y_i, i = 1, …, 7. Then the correlation coefficient between and equals

Q.No. 25 Let {0,1,2,3} be an observed sample of size 4 from N(θ,5) distribution, where θ ε [2,∞). Then the maximum likelihood estimate of θ based on the observed sample is _________.

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26 Let f: $\mathbb{R}$ × $\mathbb{R}$ → $\mathbb{R}$ be defined by

where $\mathbb{R}$ denotes the set of all real numbers. Then

Q.No. 27 Consider the linear transformation T: $\mathbb{C}$ ³ → $\mathbb{C}$ ³ defined by

Where $\mathbb{C}$ is the set of all complex numbers and $\mathbb{C}$ ³ = $\mathbb{C}$ × $\mathbb{C}$ × $\mathbb{C}$ . Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) There exists a non-zero vector X such that T(X) = -X

(B) There exist a non-zero vector Y and a real number λ ≠ 1 such that T(Y) = λY

(D) T² = I₃, where I₃ is the 3 × 3 identity matrix

Q.No. 28 For real numbers a, b and c, let

Then, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Rank(M) = 3 for every a, b, c ∈ $\mathbb{R}$

(B) If a + c = 0 then M is diagonalizable for every b ∈ $\mathbb{R}$

(D) If b = 0 and a + c = 1 then M is NOT idempotent

Q.No. 29 Let M be a 4 × 4 matrix with (x – 1)²(x – 3)² as its minimal polynomial. Then, which of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) The eigenvalues of M are 1 and 3

(B) The algebraic multiplicity of the eigenvalue 1 is 3

(D) Trace(M) = 8

Q.No. 30 Let f: $\mathbb{R}$ × $\mathbb{R}$ → $\mathbb{R}$ be defined by

f(x.y)=|y-2||x-1|, (x,y) $\mathbb{R}$ × $\mathbb{R}$

where $\mathbb{R}$ denotes the set of all real numbers. Then which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) f is differentiable at (1,2)

(B) f is continuous at (1,2) but NOT differentiable at (1,2)

(D) The directional derivative of f at (1,2) along u=12,12equals 1

Q.No. 31 Which of the following functions is uniformly continuous on the specified domain?

Q.No. 32 Let the random vector X = (X₁, X₂,X₃) have the joint probability density

function

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) X₁, X₂ and X₃ are mutually independent

(B) X₁, X₂, and X₃ are pairwise independent

(D) Variance of X₁ + X₂ is π²

Q.No. 33 Suppose that P₁ and P₂ are two populations having bivariate normal distributions with mean vectors respectively, and the same variance-covariance matrix be two new observations. If the prior probabilities for P₁ and P₂ are assumed to be equal and the misclassification costs are also assumed to be equal then, according to linear discriminant rule,

(A) Z₁ is assigned to P₁ and Z₂, is assigned to P₂

(B) Z₁ is assigned to P₂ and Z₂ is assigned to P₁

(D) both Z₁ and Z₂ are assigned to P₂

Q.No. 34 Let X₁, …, X_n be a random sample of size n (≥2) from an exponential distribution with the probability density function

where Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Q.No. 35. Let the joint distribution of (X, Y) be bivariate normal with mean vector and variance-covariance matrix where -1 < p < 1. Then E[max (X , Y)] equals

Q.No. 36 Let X₁, X₂, …, X₁₀ be independent and identically distributed N₃(0,I₃) random vectors, where I₃ is the 3 × 3 identity matrix. Let

where J₃ is the 3 × 3 matrix with each entry 1 and for any column vector U, U^t denotes its transpose. Then the distribution of T is

(A) central chi-square with 5 degrees of freedom

(B) central chi-square with 10 degrees of freedom

(D) central chi-square with 30 degrees of freedom

Q.No. 37 Let be independent and identically distributed random vectors, where is a positive definite matrix. Further, let matrix, where for any matrix M, M^t denotes its transpose. If W_m(n, ∑) denotes a Wishart distribution of order m with n degrees of freedom and variance covariance matrix 2, then which of the following statements is TRUE?

Q.No. 38 Let the joint distribution of the random variables where

Then which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) X₁ – X₂ + X₃ and X₁ are independent

(B) X₁ + X₂ and X₃ – X₁ are independent

(D) X₁ – 2X₂ and 2X₁ + X₂ are independent

Q.No. 39 Consider the following one-way fixed effects analysis of variance model

Q.No. 40 Let X₁, …, X_n be a random sample of size from N(θ,1) distribution, where θ∈ (-∞,∞). Consider the problem of testing Ho: θ ∈ [1,2] against H:θ <1 or θ > 2, based on X₁, …,X_n. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Q.No. 41 In a pure birth process with birth rates λ_n = 2ⁿ, n ≥ 0, let the random variable T denote the time taken for the population size to grow from 0 to 5. If Var(T) denotes the variance of the random variable T, then 256 ×Var(T) = _____________

Q.No. 42 Let {X_n]_n_≥₀ be a homogeneous Markov chain whose state space is {0,1,2} and TO 1 01 whose one-step transition probability matrix is Then nP(X2n=2|X0=2)= ________________(correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 43 Let (X,Y) be a random vector such that, for any y > 0, the conditional probability density function of X given Y = y is

If the marginal probability density function of Y is

then E(Y|X = 1) = ________ (correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 44 Let (X,Y) be a random vector with the joint moment generating function

Let Φ(.) denote the distribution function of the standard normal distribution and and Φ (1.5) = 0.9332 then the value of 2 p + 1 (round off to two decimal places) equals _______

Q.No. 45 Consider a homogeneous Markov chain {X_n}_n_≥₀ with state space {0,1,2,3} and one-step transition probability matrix

Assume that P(X₀ = 1) = 1. Let p be the probability that state 0 will be visited before state 3. Then 6 × p = __________

Q.No. 46 Let (X,Y) be a random vector with joint probability mass function

where Then the variance of Y equals ____________

Q.No. 47 Let X be a discrete random variable with probability mass function f ∈{f₀, f₁},

where

The power of the most powerful level α = 0.1 test for testing H₀: X ~ f₀ against H₁:X ~ f₁, based on X, equals ___________ (correct up to two decimal places).

Q.No. 48 Let X = (X₁,X₂,X₃) be a random vector following N₃ (0, ∑) distribution,

where . Then the partial correlation coefficient between X₂ and X₃, with fixed X₁, equals _______ (correct up to two decimal places).

Q.No. 49 Let X₁, X₂, X₃ and X₄ be a random sample from a population having probability density function and f(-x) = f(x), for all For testing H₀: θ = 0 against H₁: θ <0, let T⁺ denote the Wilcoxon Signed-rank statistic. Then under H₀,

Q.No. 50 A simple linear regression model with unknown intercept and unknown slope is fitted to the following data

using the method of ordinary least squares. Then the predicted value of y corresponding to x = 5 is _________

Q.No. 51 Let where $\mathbb{R}$ denotes the set of all real numbers. If then 84 × 1 = _____________________________

Q.No. 52 Let the random vector (X,Y) have the joint distribution function

Let Var(X) and Var(Y) denote the variances of random variables X and Y, respectively. Then 16 Var(x) + 32 Var(Y) = _________________

Q.No. 53 Let {X_n}_n_≥₁ be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables with Further, let

where Φ (.) denotes the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution, then c² = _______________(correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 54 Let the random vector X = (X₁, X₂, X₃) have the joint probability density function

Then the variance of the random variable X₁ + X₂ + X₃ equals _____________. (correct up to one decimal place).

Q.No. 55 Let X₁, …,X₅ be a random sample from a distribution with the probability density function

where For testing H₀: θ = 0 against the sign test statistic, where

otherwise Then the size of the test, which rejects H, if and only if equals _______________ (correct up to one decimal place).

Latest Current Affairs 15 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Government scraps chopper, missiles tenders to push ‘Make in India’

The Central Government to promote ‘Make in India’ has decided to withdraw the tenders for deals that are related to buying the short-range surface-to-air missiles and 14 helicopters. However, the forces are allowed to go ahead with a deal to buy air-to-ground missiles from France and overhaul Russian helicopters.

Delhi CM Arvind Kejriwal to visit Goa for two-day tour

The Chief Minister of Delhi Arvind Kejriwal, ahead of the assembly polls, will visit Goa for a two-day tour on January 15 and January 16. In the poll-bound state, he will participate in the door-to-door campaign and other activities.

Government launches three new initiatives for welfare of ex-servicemen

The Defence Ministry has launched three new initiatives for the welfare of the ex-servicemen and their families on the occasion of Armed Forces Veteran Day. It is celebrated on January 14 every year.

World’s largest Khadi National Flag to be displayed on Army Day

The world’s largest National Flag which is made of Khadi fabric will be displayed along the India-Pakistan border in Jaisalmer to celebrate Army Day on January 15. The flag will be displayed at Longewala which was also the center stage of the historic battle between India and Pakistan in 1971.

EC to double the telecast time allotted to political parties

The Election Commission of India has decided to double the broadcast and telecast time allotted to each National Party and recognized the State Parties in the poll-bound states. The decision has been taken in consultation with Prasar Bharti in view of Pandemic.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

President of European Parliament David Sassoli passes away

The President of the European Parliament David Sassoli passed away in a hospital in Italy at the age of 65. Sassoli was undergoing treatment for immune system disorder. He had led the European Union body that approves or rejects legislation and is responsible for establishing budgets and supervising a combination of institutions.

US to distribute at-home, Rapid COVID-19 tests for free to ainstitutions

The Government of the United States has decided to expand the testing capacity by distributing rapid COVID-19 tests for free to Americans. The half-billion tests will be available for order from January 19, 2022, and will be mailed directly.

North Korea announces firing 2 train-borne guided missiles

North Korea has announced that its railway-based missile regiment conducted a firing drill with two tactical guided missiles hitting a set target in the East Sea. It has marked North Korea’s second known missile test using a railway launch platform since the last one on September 2021.

Latest Current Affairs 14 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Madhya Pradesh to bring law to regulate online gaming

Madhya Pradesh Home Minister Narottam Mishra informed on January 13, 2022 that the state government will bring a law to regulate online games after an 11-year-old boy committed suicide by hanging himself due to his addiction to an online game. The Minister said that to prevent such a tragic incident again, we are bringing a law to regulate online gaming. He said that a draft of the law has already been prepared and will be finalised soon.

Budget Session 2022 to begin from January 31

The Budget Session of Parliament will begin on January 31, 2022. It will be held in two parts. The session will begin with the address of President Kovind to the joint sitting of both the Houses. The Budget will be presented on February 1. The final conclusion of Budget 2022 session will be on April 8.

Critics Choice Awards Awards postponed

The Critics Choice Awards ceremony has been postponed and will now be conducted at a later date. The ceremony is likely to be conducted on a date when BAFTA Awards will be conducted. The 27th edition of the Critics Choice Awards will be hosted by Taye Diggs and Nicole Byer in an in-person event in Century City in California.

Indian Naval Ships undertook maritime exercise with Japanese ships

Indian Naval ships Kadmatt and Shivalik participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise with Japan Maritime Self-Defence Force Ships Uraga and Hirado in the Bay of Bengal on January 13, 2022. The maritime exercise included a wide range of operations including flying operations, tactical maneuvers and replenishment approaches.

Omicron mild, does affect children: Expert

AIIMS Director Dr. Randeep Guleria said during an interactive webinar session on January 13, 2022 highlighted that it is important for us to understand that children are not like adults and need to be treated separately. Another medical expert from AIIMS, Dr. Prof Ashok Deorari said that Omicron does affect children but it is a mild disease. He also spoke about curtailing the fear and panic created among families.

Omicron wave likely to subside by March 2022: Experts

The current COVID-19 wave caused by Omicron is likely to subside by March 2022 as per public health experts. The spread due to the Omicron variant of COVID-19 is much faster than Delta and the last few days have seen a steep rise in cases. As per experts, the threat level is very high currently especially in regions with low population immunity.

India Open 2022: 7 Indian players test COVID-19 positive including Kidambi Srikanth

India Open 2022 has been struck with COVID-19 cases with 7 Indian players testing positive on January 13, 2022 including Kidambi Srikanth. The others include Ashwini pappa, Treesa Jolly, Ritika Thaker, Mithun Manjunath, Khushi Gupta and Simran Aman Singh. The Badminton Association of India (BAI) will not be able to replace these players in the main draw and their opponents will get a walk over to the next round automatically.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Rishi Sunak of Indian-Origin to be the frontrunner for Britain’s PM position

Rishi Sunak, Indian-origin Chancellor of the Exchequer, has a major chance of becoming Britain’s next Prime Minister after the odds tipped in his favour. The latest development has come as the pressure mounts on embattled British Prime Minister Boris Johnson even from within his own Conservative Party to exit 10 Downing Street.

Former West Indies Cricketer Clive Lloyd awarded knighthood

The former Captain of the West Indies Cricket team, Clive Lloyd has been given the honour of knighthood for his services to the game of Cricket. The investiture was performed by the Duke of Cambridge at Windsor Castle. The Cricket West Indies (CWI) also congratulated Clive Llyod on receiving the knighthood and acknowledged his massive contribution to the growth of the game in the West Indies.

Prince Andrew stripped of royal patronages

Prince Andrew, Duke of York, has been stripped of all his military and royal titles. He is the third child and second son of Queen Elizabeth II and Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh. Prince Andrew who was the ninth in line of succession to the British throne has been forced to relinquish all his ties with royal titles after being involved in a sexual abuse scandal.

Philippines awards Contract for BrahMos Missiles to India

The Philippines Government has accepted the proposal of the Indian BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited to supply shore-based anti-ship missile systems for the Indian Navy. The contract is worth USD 375 million. The move will prove to be a major success for the Indian Government’s plans to increase defence exports.

Latest Current Affairs 13 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

S Somanath appointed new ISRO Chief

S Somanath has been appointed as the new ISRO Chief after the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved his appointment on January 12, 2022. Somanath has been appointed as Secretary of the Department of Space and ISRO Chairman for a combined term of three years from the date of joining. He is currently the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre. He will be succeeding K Sivan.

PM Modi to meet all Chief Ministers to discuss COVID situation today

Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be meeting with the Chief Ministers of all states at 4.30 pm today, January 13, 2022 to discuss the COVID situation through video conferencing. This is the first meeting of the Prime Minister with all the CMs this year. He had held several such meetings last year during the second wave.

COVID-19 caused by Omicron should not be considered as common cold: Dr. VK Paul

Amid a steep rise in COVID-19 cases, NITI Aayog Member Dr. VK Paul cautioned that COVID-19 caused by Omicron variant should not be considered as common cold and taken lightly. He reiterated that Omicron is replacing Delta variant of Covid as it is highly transmissible. He said that normally this transmission takes longer but it is rapid this time because of high transmissibility.

Ganga Sagar Mela begins in West Bengal

Ganga Sagar Mela began on January 12, 2022 with strict COVID-19 protocols after it was given a go-ahead by Calcutta High Court. The Ganga Sagar Mela was inaugurated by West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee. The Mela is held every year at Gangasagar in West Bengal. It is the biggest fair in Eastern India and witnesses over lakhs of devotees every year.

Antiviral drug Molnupiravir not included in National Treatment Task Force for COVID-19

The ICMR DG Balram Bhargava clarified on January 12, 2022 that the antiviral drug Molnupiravir is not included in the National treatment task force for COVID-19. He said that the decision was taken after a long discussion among national experts. He said that they had reviewed whatever data was available after the three trials. He said that the antiviral drug has certain risks that warrant caution in its use and experts were of the view that its known and unknown harms outweigh its claimed benefits.

Gangasagar Mela 2022

West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee inaugurated Gangasagar Mela following strict COVID-19 protocols after receiving approval from the Calcutta High Court. The Mela is the biggest fair in Eastern India and witnesses footfall from over lakhs of devotees each year. It is held at Gangasagar in West Bengal.

15-year-old student is India’s batonbearer at Queen’s Baton Relay

15-years-old Vinisha Umashankar, a student innovator, has been selected as India’s baton bearer at the ongoing 16th official Queen’s Baton relay (January 12-15, 2022). The student innovator turned environmentalist from Tiruvannamalai district in Tamil Nadu. She had inspired the world with her solar ironing cart, which uses solar panels to power a steam iron box.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

India-US agree to advance cooperation in counter-terrorism & cyber security

India and the United States agreed to advance cooperation in counter-terrorism, cyber security and other areas including global supply chains and securing critical infrastructure on January 12, 2022. This was agreed upon during a senior officers meeting of the India-US Homeland Security Dialogue. Other focus areas of the dialogue were aviation security, maritime security, trade security and customs enforcement.

India, UK to begin Free Trade Agreement negotiations today

India and the United Kingdom will begin negatiations on the Free Trade Agreement today at an event in New Delhi. Union Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal will meet UK’s International Trade Secretary Anne-Marie Trevelyan to formally kcik-start the talks. The free trade agreement deal is expected to benefit both the nations.

Nigeria lifts ban on Twitter after 7 months

Nigeria has lifted a ban on Twitter after a period of 7 months. The Government of Nigeria had suspended Twitter in June 2021 after the company deleted a tweet by the country’s president about punishing regional secessionists. Nigerian authorities had accused Twitter of siding with the secessionists; however, the government had said it will reverse the ban after Twitter agreed to the conditions including opening a local office in Nigeria. Twitter did not say that it agreed with the demands but tweeted that it was pleased to be restored in Nigeria. The latest move has allowed millions of people in the most populous country in Africa to use the platform again.

GATE 2020 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Previous Year Paper

GATE 2020 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science Previous Year Paper

GA – General Aptitude

Q1 – Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 This book, including all its chapters____interesting. The students as well as the, instructor __________in agreement about it.

(A)is, was

(B)are, are

(C)is, are

(D)were, was

Q.2 their vehicles near the entrance of the main administrative People were prohibited building

(A)to park

(B)from parking

(C)parking

(D)to have parked

Q.No.3 Select the word that fits the analogy:

Do: Undo :: Trust :

(A)Entrust

(B)Intrust

(C)Distrust

(D)Untrust

Q.No.4 Stock markets ________ at the news of the coup.

(A) poised

(B) plunged

(D) probed

Q.5 If P,Q,R,S are four individuals, how many teams of size exceeding one can be formed, with Q as a member?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(D) 8

Q6 – Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No.6 Non-performing Assets (NPAs) of a bank in India is defined as an asset, which remains unpaid by a borrower for a certain period of time in terms of interest, principal, or both. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has changed the definition of NPA thrice during 1993-2004, in terms of the holding period of loans. The holding period was reduced by one quarter each time. In 1993, the holding period was four quarters (360 days).

(A) √2

(B) √3

(D) 3

Q.10 The revenue and expenditure of four different companies P, Q, R and S in 2015 are shown in the figure. If the revenue of company Q in 2015 was 20% more than that in 2014, and company Q had earned a profit of 10% on expenditure in 2014, then its expenditure (in million rupees) in 2014 was _______

(A) 32.7
(B) 33.7
(C) 34.1
(D) 35.1

TF: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q1-Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 For the matrix , the eigenvalues of the matrix AP are

(A)1,0,1

(B)1,0,0

(D)1,1,1

Q.2 The integrating factor of the differential equation dy/dx + y = e-x is

(A)ex

(B)e-x

(C)xe-x

(D)xex

Q.3 Laplace transform of cosh(t) is

(A)1/S2 – 1

(B)S/S-1

(C)S/S2 – 1

(D)S/S2+1

Q.4 In wool, the sulfur containing amino acid is

(A)Alanine

(B)Cystine

(C)Glycine

(D)Serine

Q.5 Viscose rayon is soluble in

(A) Acetone

(B) Chloroform

(D) acid Sulfuric acid 59% (w/w)

Q.6 In carding, the highest draft is kept between

(A) Lap roller and feed roller

(B) Feed roller and licker-in

(D) Cylinder and doffer

Q.7 The spinning system in which one revolution of twisting element imparts several turns to the fibre strand is

(A) Ring

(B) Rotor

(D) Wrap

Q.8 The technology that does NOT produce a nonwoven fabric is

(A) Spunbonding

(B) Hydroentangling

(D) Braiding

Q.9 For the same yarn and fabric sett, the weave that gives the maximum tearing strength is

(A) Plain

(B) 2×2 matt

(D) 2/1 twill

Q.10 Two yarns have variance of strength as V1 and V2. If Vi< V2, the variance ratio F would be

(A)V2 /V1

(B)V1 /V2

(C)V12 /V22

(D)V22 /V12

Q.11 Cotton fibre length parameter that CANNOT be obtained from Baer Sorter diagram is

(A) Mean length

(B) Dispersion

(D) Modal length

Q.12 The purpose of carbonization of wool fibres is to remove

(A) Waxy matter

(B) Surface scales

(D) Ortho-cortex

Q.13 Biopolishing of cotton fabrics is done using

(A) Cellulase

(B) Amylase

(D) Esterase

Q.14 For the given system of linear equations, 2x -z = 1; 5x + y = 7; y + 3z = 5, the sum of x, y and z is _______________.

Q.15 If F = xi + yj + zk, then the magnitude of 7x F is ______________.

Q.16 A polypropylene filament is drawn in two stages with draw ratios of 1.5 and 2 respectively. The overall draw ratio is ___________.

Q.17 The refractive indices of a filament in axial and radial directions are 1.58 and 1.52 respectively. The birefringence of the filament (correct up to 2 decimal places) is._____________

Q.18 A twin-delivery drawframe, running at a delivery speed of 800 m/min with an efficiency of 95%, is producing 5.9 ktex sliver. The rate of production of the draw frame in kg/h (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _____________

Q.19 The diameter (mm) of a yarn having twist of 700 turns per meter and surface twist angle of 20° (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _________________

Q.20 A magazine creel has 800 package holders. The effective creel capacity (number) is ___________

Q.21 A shuttle loom is running at 180 picks per minute. The angular velocity of crank shaft (degree/second) is _____________

Q.22 The length (km) of 5 kg of 30 Ne yarn (rounded off to the nearest integer) is __________

Q.23 The limit irregularity and measured irregularity of a yarn are 8.4% and 9.6%,

respectively. The Index of Irregularity (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is __________

Q.24 A padding mangle is processing a fabric at 1320 m/h. The bottom bowl of the mangle is rotating at 25 rpm. Assuming zero slippage at the nip, the diameter (cm) of this bowl is ___________

Q.25 A Procion H (monochlorotriazine based) reactive dye used for printing of cotton has a molecular weight of 471. Taking the atomic weight of H=1, C=12, N=14, O=16, CI=35.5, the molecular weight of the fully hydrolyzed dye (correct up to 1 decimal place) would be ____________

Q26 – Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Let L = lim(sin x) tanx. The value of L is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) ∞

Q.27 The solution of the differential equation = 0, which satisfies the conditions, y(0) = 0, y'(0) = 3 is

(A) e-x

(B) ex

(D) ex – e-2x

Q.28 In melt spinning of poly(ethylene terephthalate), pre-drying of polymer chips is essential to avoid

(A) Hydrolytic degradation

(B) Oxidative degradation

(D) Photo-induced degradation

Q.29 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason

[a]: Caprolactam is polymerized in the presence of a small amount of water to produce fibre grade nylon 6.

Im I

[r]: Water acts as a catalyst and converts caprolactam to aminocaproic acid.

(A) Both [a] and [1] are true and [7] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.30 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason

[r]

[a]: Melting point of nylon 66 fibre is much higher than that of polyethylene fibre.

[r]: The molecular weight of nylon 66 fibre is significantly higher than that of polyethylene fibre.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.31 Carding of polyester fibres requires that the values of wire-point density

(points/inch2) of

(P) Licker-in

(Q) Cylinder

(R) Flat

follow the order

(A) P<Q R

(B) P<R<Q

(D) Q<P<R

Q.32 For combing with forward feed, the given parameters are: Detachment setting = 15 mm, Length of feed per combing cycle=6 mm, Longest fiber length = 30 mm. According to Gégauff’s theory, the noil (%) would be

(A) 9

(B) 16

(D) 49

Q.33 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason

[r]

[a]: Open-loop auto levelling system needs a signal storage device with time delay

function.

[r]: The signal must be stored until the material reaches the adjusting point.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [1] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.34 If both the concentration (%, w/w) of size paste and target add-on are 12%, the total wet pick-up (kg) by 12 kg bone-dry warp sheet is

(A) 6

(B) 12

(D) 24

Q.35 At front centre (0°) and at back centre (180°) of a shuttle loom,

(A)The sley velocities are the same but accelerations are different.

(B)The sley velocities are different but accelerations are the same.

(C)The sley velocities are the same and also accelerations are the same.

(D)The sley velocities are different and also accelerations are different.

Q.36 Match the looms listed in Group I with the corresponding components given in Group II. The correct option is

Group I Group II

P. Multiphase 1. Matched cam

Q. Projectile 2. Profile reed

R. Air-jet 3. Crank shaft

S. Shuttle 4. Weaving rotor

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.37 Consider two yarns, one 100% wool and the other 100% cotton, each containing 100 fibres in the yarn cross-section. The respective limit irregularities (%) of wool and cotton yarns will approximately be

(A) 11.2 and 10.6

(B) 10.6 and 11.2

(D) 11.8 and 10.6

Q.38 If the numerical value X of yarn linear density, expressed in denier is the same as that expressed in English (Ne) system, then X approximately is

(A) 24.3

(B) 48.6

(D) 97.2

Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason

[r]

[a]: Sodium chlorite is a bleaching agent for cotton.

[r]: Sodium chlorite is an effective reducing agent.

(A)Both [a] and [] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B)Both [a] and [r) are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C)Both [a] and [r] are false

(D)[a] is true but [r] is false

Q.40 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason

[a]: Acrylic fibres are dyed with basic dyes in acidic medium.

[r]: In acidic medium the acrylic fibre acquires positive charge.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B)Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.41 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason

[a]: Foam finishing significantly reduces the energy consumed in drying.

[r]: The specific heat of air is significantly lower than that of water.

(A) Both [a] and [f] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(D) [a] is true but [7] is false

Q.42 If the probability density function of a continuous random variable X is given by f(x) = e-*, 0<x<co, the mean of random variable X is _____________

Q.43 Assuming the step size h = 1, the numerical value of the definite integral r2 x2 Jo 1+x3 dx obtained using Trapezoidal rule (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is_____

Q.44 In the production of PET, diglycol terephthalate (DGT) is an intermediate. Taking the atomic weights of H=1, C=12, 0=16, the molecular weight of DGT is _____

Q.45 In wet spinning of acrylic filament yarn, the volumetric flow rate of the spinning dope per spinneret hole is 0.1 cm3/min. If the surface speed at the first take up roller is 1.5 m/min and the diameter of spinneret hole is 0.02 cm, then the jet stretch (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _____________

Q.46 Two types of polyester staple fibers of fineness 3 and 6 denier and having the same length are mixed in a ratio of 2:3 by weight. The mean fibre fineness (denier) of the mix (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ______________

Q.47 Two rovings, each with a mass CV of 10%, are fed to a ring spinning machine that adds a mass CV of 20%. The mass CV (%) of the yarn (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ________________

Q.48 In a drum-driven winder, the grooved drum having a width of 20 cm is rotating at 1000 rpm. If the drum makes 5 revolutions per double traverse, the traverse speed (m/min) is _____________

Q.49 The whale constant and course constant are 4.2 and 5.04 respectively. If the loop length is 4.2 mm, then stitch density (number/cm’) is _________

Q.50 A cotton fibre has a degree of cell wall thickening (O) of 0.9 and perimeter of 40 um. The actual cross-sectional area of the wall (um) of the fibre (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is __________

Q.51 A fabric with mass per unit area of 250 g/m2 has flexural rigidity of 275 uN-m. The bending length (mm) of the fabric (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is _______

Q.52 The ‘standard machine rate of loading of a tensile tester, working on pendulum lever principle, is 440 N/cm. As the pendulum lever swings from 30° 10 45°, the *machine rate of loading’ (N/cm), reduces by___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Q.53 Under a load of 500 cN, the extension of a yarn of 300 mm length is 10%. If the elastic recovery is 90%, then the length (mm) of the yarn after removal of load is_____

Q.54 Given that one gram mole of a gas occupies 22.4 L of volume at STP, the atomic weights of H=1, and that of O=16, the concentration (g/L) of hydrogen peroxide solution of 25 volume strength (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ______________

Q.55 The work of adhesion (Ws) depends on the surface tension (Ylv) of the liquid and the contact angle (6) formed on a surface and is expressed as Yuv(1 + cose). The Wsz for a given fabric and a liquid is reduced to 1/3rd of the original value after oil repellent treatment. If the measured contact angle of the untreated fabric is 60°, the percent change in the contact angle after the treatment is ____________

ANSWER KEY

Q.No.	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
ANS	C	B	C	B	C	B	C	C	A	C
Q.No.	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
ANS	D	A	C	B	D	B	C	D	C	A
Q.No.	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
ANS	C	C	A	4 TO 4	0 TO 0	3 TO 3	0.06 TO 0.06	537.00 TO 539.00	0.16 TO 0.18	400 TO 400
Q.No.	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
ANS	1080 TO 1080	253 TO 253	1.10 TO 1.15	28.00 TO 29.00	452.5 TO 452.5	B	D	A	A	D
Q.No.	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
ANS	B	B	A	B	A	C	A	C	D	D
Q.No.	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
ANS	B	1 TO 1	0.70 TO 0.75	254 TO 254	0.46 TO 0.48	4.25 TO 4.35	21.00 TO 22.00	80 TO 80	120 TO 120	112.2 TO 117.0
Q.No.	51	52	53	54	55
ANS	46.00 TO 50.00	69.00 TO 71.00	303 TO 303	75.00 TO 77.00	100 TO 100

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