GATE 2021 Biotechnology Engineering Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Biotechnology Engineering Previous Year Paper
General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 7 to 3.Among the options below, an acceptable value for the total number of students in the class is:
(A) 21
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 73
Q.2 A polygon is convex if, for every pair of points, P and Q belonging to the polygon, the line segment PQ lies completely inside or on the polygon.Which one of the following is NOT a convex polygon?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.3 Consider the following sentences:(i) Everybody in the class is prepared for the exam.(ii) Babu invited Danish to his home because he enjoys playing chess.Which of the following is the CORRECT observation about the above two sentences?
(A) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is unambiguous
(B) (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is unambiguous
(C) (i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is ambiguous
(D) (i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is ambiguous
Q.4

A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines in the directions shown. The paper, after being punched in the final folded state as shown and unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look like            .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.5 _________is to surgery as writer is to   ___________            Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A) Plan, outline
(B) Hospital, library
(C) Doctor, book
(D) Medicine, grammar

Q.  6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6 We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, of dimensions 6 cm x 1 cm each. Sheet M is rolled to form an open cylinder by bringing the short edges of the sheet together. Sheet N is cut into equal square patches and assembled to form the largest possible closed cube. Assuming the ends of the cylinder are closed, the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cube is
(A) 𝜋2
(B) 3𝜋
(C) 9𝜋
(D) 3𝜋
Q.7

Details of prices of two items P and Q are presented in the above table. The ratio of cost of item P to cost of item Q is 3:4. Discount is calculated as the difference between the marked price and the selling price. The profit percentage is calculated as the ratio of the difference between selling price and cost, to the cost (Profit % = Selling price−Costcost× 100)(Profit % = Selling price−Cost × 100).CostThe discount on item Q, as a percentage of its marked price, is           
(A) 25
(B) 12.5
(C) 10
(D) 5
Q.8 There are five bags each containing identical sets of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is picked from each bag.The probability that at least two chocolates are identical is__________                      
(A) 0.3024
(B) 0.4235
(C) 0.6976
(D) 0.8125
Q.9 Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two conclusions I and II. Statement 1: All bacteria are microorganisms.Statement 2: All pathogens are microorganisms. Conclusion I: Some pathogens are bacteria.Conclusion II: All pathogens are not bacteria.Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?
(A) Only conclusion I is correct
(B) Only conclusion II is correct
(C) Either conclusion I or II is correct.
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct.
Q.10 Some people suggest anti-obesity measures (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep addressing the core problems that cause obesity: poverty and income inequality.Which one of the following statements summarizes the passage?
(A) The proposed AOM addresses the core problems that cause obesity.
(B) If obesity reduces, poverty will naturally reduce, since obesity causes poverty.
(C) AOM are addressing the core problems and are likely to succeed.
(D) AOM are addressing the problem superficially.
Biotechnology (BT)

Q.1  – Q.17 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 Coronavirus genome consists of
(A) double-stranded DNA
(B) double-stranded RNA
(C) negative-sense single-stranded RNA
(D) positive-sense single-stranded RNA
Q.2 The enzyme that transcribes the eukaryotic genes encoding precursor ribosomal RNAs (pre-rRNAs) of 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs is
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) RNA polymerase IV
Q.3 Number of unrooted trees in a phylogeny of five sequences is
(A) 3
(B) 15
(C) 105
(D) 945
Q.4 Which one of the following methods is used to test the significance of a predicted phylogeny?
(A) Bootstrap
(B) Maximum likelihood
(C) Maximum parsimony
(D) Minimum evolution
Q.5 The Cartesian coordinates (x, y) of a point A with polar coordinates (4, /4) is
(A) (√3, 2 √2 )
(B) (2, 2 √3)
(C) (2 √2, √3 )
(D) (2 √2, 2 √2 )

Q.6 The order of genes present in a chromosome is as follows.

Q.7 Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT about hybridoma production?
(A) Hybridoma cells can use hypoxanthine and thymidine
(B) DNA synthesis in myeloma cells is blocked by aminopterin
(C) Hybridoma cells are made to produce polyclonal antibodies
(D) Polyethylene glycol is used to fuse myeloma cells to B-cells
Q.8 d  [ln (2x)] is equal todx
(A) 1/2x
(B) 1/
(C) 1/2
(D) x
Q.9 Which one of the following techniques/tools is NOT used for inserting a foreign gene into a cell?
(A) DNA microarray
(B) Electroporation
(C) Gene gun
(D) Microinjection
Q.10 Under standard temperature ( T ) and pressure ( P ) conditions, 128 g of an ideal gas molecule A occupies a volume of 1L . The gas molecule A obeys the relationship RT = 0.25PV . R and V are universal gas constant and ideal gas volume, respectively. The molecule A is
(A) CO2
(B) H2
(C) N2
(D) O2
Q.11 CRISPR-Cas system is associated with
(A) adaptive immunity in eukaryotes
(B) adaptive immunity in prokaryotes
(C) innate immunity in eukaryotes
(D) innate immunity in prokaryotes
Q.12 The process by which intracellular macromolecules are supplied for lysosomal degradation during nutrient starvation is
(A) apoptosis
(B) autophagy
(C) phagocytosis
(D) pinocytosis
Q.13

The process and instrumentation diagram for a feedback control strategy to maintain the level (h) of a liquid by regulating a valve (V ) in a tank is shown below. F1 is inlet liquid flow rate, F2 is outlet liquid flow rate, LT is the liquid level transmitter, LC is the liquid level controller, hsp is the setpoint value of the liquid level, hm is the measured value of the liquid level and PV is the valve pressure. 

The manipulating variable(s) is/are
(A) F1 only
(B) F2 only
(C) hm and PV only
(D) hsp and PV only
Q.14 A protein without its prosthetic group is known as
(A) apoprotein
(B) hemoprotein
(C) holoprotein
(D) lipoprotein
Q.15 The enzyme which adds phosphate group to the free 5¢ terminus of a DNA sequence is
(A) adenosine kinase
(B) alkaline phosphatase
(C) polynucleotide kinase
(D) terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
Q.16 Which one of the following is CORRECT about microbial growth medium?
(A) Luria-Bertani broth is a synthetic medium
(B) Nutrient broth is a defined medium
(C) Sabouraud dextrose agar is a differential medium
(D) Trypticase soy agar is a complex medium
Q.17 The cellular process which utilizes RNA-induced silencing complex to block gene expression is
(A) RNA editing
(B) RNA interference
(C) RNA polyadenylation
(D) RNA splicing

Q.18 – Q.19 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.18 Which of the following layer(s) is/are formed from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst?
(A) Ectoderm
(B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm
(D) Trophectoderm
Q.19 Which of the following cell organelle(s) is/are surrounded by a single phospholipid membrane?
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Nucleus

Q.20 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.20 The sum of the infinite geometric series 1+ ⅓  + ⅓2 + ⅓ 3+ … (rounded off to one decimal place) is____________.
Q.21 Three balls, colored in blue, green and red, are successively transferred from box A to box B in the order BLUE-GREEN-RED. The probability of a reverse transfer of the balls to the box A in the same order (rounded off to two decimal places)is             .
Q.22 Decimal reduction time of a bacterial strain is 20 min . Specific death rate constant in min-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.
Q.23 The value of (rounded off to two decimal places) is___.
Q.24 A system consists of two reactors, connected by a valve. The first reactor ( R1) contains an ideal gas A of volume 5 L and the second reactor ( R2 ) has an ideal gas B of volume 10 L . Initially, the valve is closed and pressure P in R1 and R2 are 9 and 6 atm , respectively. Later, when the valve is opened, the system reaches equilibrium. If the temperature T of both the reactors is maintained constant, the final equilibrium pressure in atm of the system is               .
Q.25 The enzyme α-amylase used in starch hydrolysis has an affinity constant (Km ) value of 0.005 M . To achieve one-fourth of the maximum rate of hydrolysis, the required starch concentration in mM (rounded off to two decimal places) is   .

Q.26 – Q.34 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.26 Which one of the following represents non-growth associated product formation kinetics in a bioprocess system? X and P denote viable cell and product concentrations, respectively.

Q.27 Match enzymes in Group I with their corresponding industrial application in Group II.
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.28 Match separation methods in Group I with associated properties in Group II. 
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
Q.29 Match the autoimmune diseases in Group I with the corresponding primarily affected organ in Group II. 
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
Q.30 Match hypersensitivity types in Group I with their corresponding condition in Group II. 
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
Q.31 Which of the following combinations of plant hormones and their associated function are CORRECT?
(A) P and R only
(B) P and S only
(C) Q and R only
(D) Q and S only
Q.32 Which one of the following tools is used to compare all the possible six-open reading frames of a given nucleotide query sequence with all the available six-open reading frames of the nucleotide sequence database?
(A) BLASTN
(B) BLASTX
(C) TBLASTN
(D) TBLASTX
Q.33

In Neurospora crassa, a mutation in the poky gene results in a slow growth phenotype (poky). The results of four crosses are given below.

(1)   wild-type ♀ × wild-type ♂ → All progeny are wild-type

(2)   wild-type ♀ × poky ♂ → All progeny are wild-type

(3)   poky ♀ × wild-type ♂ → All progeny are poky

(4)   poky ♀ × poky ♂ → All progeny are poky

Which one of the following explains the inheritance mode of poky?
(A) Episomal inheritance
(B) Mendelian inheritance
(C) Mitochondrial inheritance
(D) X-linked inheritance
Q.34 Tertiary structure of a protein consisting of α-helices and β-strands can be determined by
(A) circular dichroism spectroscopy
(B) mass spectrometry
(C) nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
(D) UV spectroscopy

Q.35 – Q.38 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
(A) It contains tumor inducing plasmid
(B) It causes crown gall disease in dicotyledonous plants
(C) It is a Gram-positive soil bacterium
(D) It is used in generating transgenic plants
Q.36 Which of the following antimicrobial agent(s) is/are growth factor analog(s)?
(A) 5-Fluorouracil
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Sulfanilamide
(D) Tetracycline
Q.37 Which of the following chemical messenger(s) is/are derivative(s) of tryptophan?
(A) γ-amino butyric acid
(B) Indole acetic acid
(C) Melatonin
(D) Serotonin
Q.38 Which of the following nucleus/nuclei is/are NMR active?
(A) 1H
(B) 13C
(C) 16O
(D) 32S

Q.39 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO marks each (no negative marks).

Q.39 In a Mendel’s dihybrid experiment, a homozygous pea plant with round yellow seeds was crossed with a homozygous plant with wrinkled green seeds.F1 intercross produced 560 F2 progeny. The number of F2 progeny having both dominant traits (round and yellow) is___________.
Q.40 A 0.1 mL aliquot of a bacteriophage stock having a concentration of 4´109 phages mL-1 is added to 0.5 mL of E. coli culture having a concentration of 2´108 cells mL-1 . The multiplicity of infection is_____________.
Q.41 If the area of a triangle with the vertices (k, 0) , (2, 0) and (0, – 2) is 2 square units, the value of k is______________.
Q.42 In a chemostat with a dilution rate of 0.8 h-1 , the steady state biomass concentration and the specific product formation rate are 8 mol m-3 and0.2 (mol product)(mol biomass)-1 h-1 , respectively. The steady state product concentration in mol m-3 is______________.
Q.43 If the values of two random variables ( X , Y ) are (121, 360) , (242, 364) and (363, 362) , the value of correlation coefficient between X and Y (rounded off to one decimal place) is_____________.
Q.44 The determinant of matrix is _________.
Q.45 It is desired to scale-up a fermentation from 1L to 1000 L vessel by maintaining a constant power-to-volume ratio. The small fermenter is operated at an agitator speed of 300 rotations per minute (rpm) . If the value of scale up factor is 10 , agitator speed in rpm (rounded off to the nearest integer) for the large fermenter is____________.
Q.46 The specific growth rate of a mold during exponential phase of its growth in a batch cultivation is 0.15 h-1 . If the cell concentration at 30 h is 33 g L-1 , the cell concentration in g L-1 (rounded off to the nearest integer) at 24 h is_______________.
Q.47 A sedimentation tank of height 100 cm is used in a conventional activated sludge process to separate a suspension of spherical shaped granular sludge biomass of 0.5 mm diameter. The viscosity of the liquid is 1 cP . The difference in density between the suspended biomass and the liquid is 0.1g cm-3 . If the biomass reach their terminal velocity instantaneously, the biomass settling time in min (rounded off to two decimal places) is_______________.
Q.48 In a random mating population, Y and y are dominant and recessive alleles, respectively. If the frequency of Y allele in both sperm and egg is 0.70, then the frequency of Y y heterozygotes (rounded off to two decimal places) is_________________.
Q.49 Calculate the following integral
Q.50 A feed stream ( F1 ) containing components A and B is processed in a system comprising of separation unit and a mixer as shown below in the schematic diagram. The mole fractions of the components A and B are xA   and xB , respectively. If F1 + F2 = 100 kg h-1 , the degrees of freedom of the system is _______________________. 
Q.51 A batch cultivation of E. coli follows zeroth order Monod’s growth kinetics. The cell growth is terminated when the residual dissolved oxygen concentration attains 10% of its saturation value and oxygen mass transfer coefficient (kLa) reaches its maximum value (80 h-1 ) . The saturation value of dissolved oxygen concentration is 0.007 kg m-3 . If the maximum specific growth rate and yield coefficient Equation are 0.2 h-1 and 1.5 (kg cells) (kgO)-1 , respectively, then the final cell concentration in kg m-3 (rounded off to two decimal places) at the end of the batch cultivation is__________.
Q.52 Milk flowing through a stainless steel inner tube (𝟒𝟎 𝒎𝒎 inner diameter) of double tube-type heater is to be heated from 10 oC to 85 oC by saturated steam condensing at 120 oC on the outer surface of the inner tube. Total heat transferred (Q) is 𝟏𝟒𝟔𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝒌𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒉−𝟏 and the overall heat transfer coefficient is 𝟕𝟓𝟎 𝒌𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒉−𝟏 𝒎−𝟐 ∘𝑪−𝟏. The total length of the heating tube in 𝒎 (rounded off to one decimal place) is  __________ .
Q.53 A DNA solution of 50 mg mL-1 concentration gives an absorbance of 1.0 at 260 nm . An aliquot of 20 mL from a 50 mL purified plasmid solution is diluted with distilled water to a total volume of 1000 mL . The diluted plasmid solution gives an absorbance of 0.550 at 260 nm . The concentration of the purified plasmid in mg mL-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is____________  .
Q.54 The possible number of SalI restriction sites in a 9 kb double-stranded DNA, with all four bases occurring in equal proportion (rounded off to the nearest integer)is __________.
Q.55 A bacterium produces acetic acid from ethanol as per the following reaction𝟐𝑪𝑯𝟑𝑪𝑯𝟐𝑶𝑯 + 𝟐𝑶𝟐 → 𝟐𝑪𝑯𝟑𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯 + 𝟐𝑯𝟐𝑶The thermodynamic maximum  yield of acetic acid from ethanol in g g-1(rounded off to two decimal places) is___________.



Answer Key 

Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 C  1 D  11 B  21

0.16

to

0.18 

 31 C  41

0 to 0

OR

4 to  4 

 51 3.70 to 3.80 
2 A  2 A  12 B  22

0.10

to

0.13 

 32 D  42 2 to 2  52 23.0 to 24.0 
3 C  3 B  13 A  23

0.25

to

0.25 

 33 C  43 0.5 to 0.5  53 1.37 to 1.38 
4 A  4 A  14 A  24 7 to 7  34 C  44 8 to 8  54 2 to 2 
5 C  5 D  15 C  25

1.60

to 1.80 

 35 A; B; D  45 64 to 65  55 1.90 to 2.00 
6 C  6 B  16 D  26 C  36 A; B; C  46 13 to 14     
7 C  7 C  17 B  27 B  37 B; C; D  47 1.20 to 1.30     
8 C  8 B  18 A; B; C  28 D  38 A; B  48 0.41 to 0.43     
9

C

OR

D 

 9 A  19 A; B  29 C  39 315 to 315  49 2 to 2     
10 D  10 D  20 1.5 to 1.5  30 D  40 4 to 4  50 6 to 6     

GATE 2021 Biomedical Engineering Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Biomedical Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3). 

Q.1 (i)  Arun and Aparna are here.
(ii)  Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii) Arun’s families is here.
(iv) Arun’s family is here.
Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Q.2

The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.3  Two identical cube shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each dice is:
(A) 1/36
(B) 1/12 
(C) ⅛ 
(D) ¼ 
Q.4 Å and ⊙ are two operators on numbers p and q such that𝑝 ⊙ 𝑞 = 𝑝 − 𝑞, and p Å q = p✗ q Then, (9 ⊙ (6 ⊕ 7)) ⊙ (7 ⊕ (6 ⊙ 5))=
(A) 40
(B) -26
(C) -33
(D) -40
Q.5 Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated at the second position from the left end of the row. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 24

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6 On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of point P.The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be            
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Q.7 The author said, “Musicians rehearse before their concerts. Actors rehearse their roles before the opening of a new play. On the other hand, I find it strange that many public speakers think they can just walk on to the stage and start speaking. In my opinion, it is no less important for public speakers to rehearse their talks.”Based on the above passage, which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
(B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
(C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
(D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.
Q.8

1. Some football players play cricket.

2. All cricket players play hockey.

Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:
(A) No football player plays hockey.
(B) Some football players play hockey.
(C) All football players play hockey.
(D) All hockey players play football.
Q.9

 

 In the figure shown above, PQRS is a square. The shaded portion is formed by the intersection of sectors of circles with radius equal to the side of the square and centers at S and Q.The probability that any point picked randomly within the square falls in the shaded area is          
(A) 4 − 𝜋/2
(B) ½ 
(C) 𝜋− -12
(D) 𝜋/4
Q.10 In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts. The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm2, is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C)  48√3
(D)  144√3

Biomedical Engineering (BM)

Q.1 – Q.17 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3)

Q.1 For𝟏      𝒒𝒇𝑿(𝒙) = 𝝅 ( 𝒙 + 𝒆−𝒙 )𝒆to be a valid probability distribution function of a random variable X, the value of 𝒒 is       .
(A) 2
(B) 𝜋
(C) 4
(D) −𝜋
Q.2 Given a scalar function 𝑽(𝒙, 𝒚) = 𝟏 (𝒙𝟐 + 𝒚𝟐), the directional derivative of𝟐𝑽 in the direction of the vector field 𝟑𝒚𝒊 – 𝟑𝒙𝒋 at the point (𝟏, 𝟏) is       .(Note: 𝒊 and 𝒋 are the unit vectors along the x and y directions, respectively.)
(A)  √18
(B) 0
(C) 1√18
(D) 3/2
Q.3

Three resistive loads are connected to ideal voltage and current sources as shown in the circuit below. The voltage 𝑽𝑨𝑩 across the terminals A and B is equal to ________________V.
(A) +10
(B) −10
(C) −6
(D) +6
 
Q.4 An ideal inductor with an inductance value of 1/3 H is connected to a 50 Hz sinusoidal AC voltage source. The energy stored in the inductor is 6 J. The value of the maximum power delivered to the inductor is______ W.
(A) 1200𝜋
(B) 600𝜋
(C) 1200
(D) 0
 
Q.5 Let 𝑿(𝒋𝑚) denote the Fourier transform of 𝒙(𝒕). If 𝑿(𝒋𝑚) =Equation
(A) 10π
(B) 100
(C) 10
(D) 20π
Q.6

In the circuit shown below, Y is a 2-bit (Y1Y0) output of the combinational logic. What is the maximum value of Y for any given digital inputs, A1A0 and B1B 0?
(A) 01
(B) 10
(C) 00
(D) 11
Q.7 In the block diagram shown below, an analog signal, 𝑽𝑰𝑵 = 𝐬𝐢𝐧(𝟐𝝅𝟏𝟎𝟔𝒕) is quantized by a 10-bit Nyquist ADC. Later, 4 LSBs are dropped and 6 MSBs are converted to an analog signal (𝑽𝑶𝑼𝑻) while using a 6-bit DAC. Assume uniform distribution for the quantization noise. The peak SQNR at the output of DAC is_____________dB.
(A) 61.96
(B) 25.84
(C) 49.92
(D) 37.88
Q.8 For a linear stable second order system, if the unit step response is such that the peak time is twice the rise time, then the system is         .
(A) underdamped
(B) undamped
(C) overdamped
(D) critically damped
 
Q.9 Which of the following displacement sensors is known to have a high sensitivity and a relatively larger measurement range?
(A) Strain gauge
(B) Capacitive sensor
(C) LVDT
(D) Piezoelectric sensor
 
Q.10 Which of the following temperature sensors is used in contact-type digital thermometers for measuring body temperature?
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Thermistor
(C) Resistance temperature detector
(D) Infrared LED-photodetector pair
 
Q.11 The pH of blood in a healthy human is precisely in the range of          .
(A) 7.10 – 8.10
(B) 6.95 – 7.05
(C) 7.15 – 7.20
(D) 7.35 – 7.45
Q.12 Which of the following is a cranial bone in the human body?
(A) Occipital
(B) Mandible
(C) Coccyx
(D) Sternum
 
Q.13 Which of the following glands produces the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
(A) Thyroid
(B) Parathyroid
(C) Pituitary
(D) Pineal
 
Q.14 Which of the following causes Myocardial Infarction (MI)?
(A) Obstruction in one of the arteries supplying blood to the heart
(B) Obstruction in one of the arteries supplying blood to the brain
(C) Obstruction in one of the veins draining blood from the heart
(D) Obstruction in one of the veins draining blood from the brain
 
Q.15 If we consider blood as a suspension of RBCs in a Newtonian fluid, the shear forces experienced by the RBCs during blood flow would _______.
(A) Randomize the orientation of blood cells
(B) Align RBCs along their long axes with streamlines
(C) Align RBCs along their short axes with streamlines
(D) Create an equal distribution of RBCs aligned in their long and short axes
Q.16 As shown in the figure, the water contact angles of surfaces A and B are θA and θB, respectively. Based on the figure, which of the following statements given below is TRUE?
(A) Surface A is hydrophilic and surface B is hydrophobic
(B) Surface A is hydrophobic and surface B is hydrophilic
(C) Both surfaces are hydrophilic
(D) Both surfaces are hydrophobic
 
Q.17 Which of the following is a bone resorbing cell?
(A) Osteoblasts
(B) Osteoclasts
(C) Osteocytes
(D) Osteocalcin

Q.18 – Q.20 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.18 Which of the following statements are CORRECT in the context of planar X-ray imaging?
(A) Using fast X-ray screen improves spatial resolution
(B) Using fast X-ray screen worsens spatial resolution
(C) Decreasing tube current decreases signal to noise ratio
(D) Decreasing tube current increases signal to noise ratio
Q.19 While comparing parallel fiber and pinnate muscles of a given volume, which of the following statements are TRUE?
(A) Pinnate muscles provide more muscle force
(B) Parallel fiber muscles provide more muscle force
(C) Pinnate muscles facilitate better muscle shortening
(D) Parallel fiber muscles facilitate better muscle shortening
Q.20 Which of the following may cause failure of bone implants?
(A) Stress shielding – reduction of bone density due to removal of a typical stress from bone by an implant
(B) Aseptic loosening – loss of bond between bone and implant in the absence of an infection
(C) Fretting fatigue – progressive deterioration of material by small scale rubbing
(D) Osseointegration – formation of a direct interface between an implant and a bone, without intervening soft tissues

Q.21 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

 
Q.21 The minimum value, 𝒇𝒎𝒊𝒏, of the function given below is  __________ . (rounded off to the nearest integer)
Equation
   
Q.22 𝟔A continuous time transfer function 𝑯(𝒔) = 𝟏+𝒔/𝟏𝟎6/s is converted to a discrete time transfer function 𝑯(𝒛) using a bilinear transform at 100 MHz sampling rate. The pole of 𝑯(𝒛) is located at 𝒛 =  _________    .
   
Q.23 Consider a type 2, unity feedback system. The intersection of the initial −𝟒𝟎 𝒅𝑩/𝒅𝒆𝒄 segment, of its Bode plot, with the zero dB line occurs at a frequency of 2 rad/s. The acceleration error constant of the system 𝑲𝒂 is______.
   
Q.24 The radioactivity of a radionuclide with decay constant of 𝟑. 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟓 𝒔−𝟏 is 6 mCi at 10:30 AM. The radioactivity of the radionuclide at 4:30 PM on the same day will be________mCi. (rounded off to two decimal places)
   
Q.25 A polymeric scaffold has been developed for cartilage tissue engineering. To understand the biodegradability of the material, this polymeric scaffold with a dry weight of 20 mg is kept in a lysozyme solution for 7 days. At the end of 7 days, the scaffold is freeze-dried, and the dry weight is measured to be 18 mg. The degradation of the polymeric scaffold after 7 days is________%.

Q.26 – Q.42 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.26 The Trace and Determinant of a 𝟐 ×  𝟐 nonsingular matrix 𝑨 are 12 and 32, respectively. The eigenvalues of 𝑨−𝟏 are________and________.
(A) 0.6, 0.8
(B) 0.25, 0.125
(C) 6, 16
(D) 1/12, 1/32
 
Q.27 A unit step input is applied to a system with impulse response 𝑯(𝒔) =𝟏−𝒔/𝑚𝒛 at 𝒕 = 𝟎. The output of the system 𝒚(𝒕) at 𝒕 = 𝟎+ is __________.𝟏+𝒔/𝑚𝒑
(A) 1
(B) −𝜔𝑧/𝜔𝑝
(C) −𝜔𝑝/𝜔𝑧
(D) 0
 
Q.28

Consider the following first order partial differential equation, also known as the transport equation

with initial conditions given by 𝒚(𝒙, 𝟎) = 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒙, − ∞ < 𝒙 < ∞. The value of𝒚(𝒙, 𝒕) 𝐚𝐭 𝒙 = 𝝅 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝒕 = is_______.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 0.5
Q.29 In the circuit shown below, 𝑽𝒔 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝑽, 𝑹𝟏 = 𝟑𝟎 𝛀, 𝑹𝟐 = 𝟔𝟎 𝛀, 𝑹𝟑 = 𝟗𝟎 𝛀,   𝑹𝟒 = 𝟒𝟓 𝛀, and 𝑹𝟓 = 𝟑𝟎 𝛀. The current flowing through resistor 𝑹𝟑 is______. A.(rounded off to two decimal places)
(A) +0.30
(B) +0.21
(C) −0.21
(D) −0.30
 
Q.30 𝒙[𝒏] is convolved with 𝒉[𝒏] to give 𝒚[𝒏]. If 𝒚[𝟐] = 𝟏 and 𝒚[𝟑] = 𝟎,𝒉[𝟎] =__________. (Graphs are not uniformly scaled)
(A) 1.85
(B) −2.50
(C) −1.90
(D) 2.38
Q.31

In the block diagram shown below, an infinite tap FIR filter with transfer function 𝑯(𝒛) = 𝒀(𝒛)/𝑿(𝒛) is realized. If H(z)=11-0.5z-1the value of α is__________.
(A) 2
(B)  1/√2
(C) 1/2
(D)  √2
 
Q.32 An analog signal is sampled at 100 MHz to generate 1024 samples. Only these samples are used to evaluate 1024-point FFT. The separation between adjacent frequency points (ΔF) in FFT is______________kHz.
(A) 102.16
(B) 97.66
(C) 100.00
(D) 95.63
Q.33

In the circuit diagram shown below, all OPAMPs are ideal with infinite gain and bandwidth. 𝑽𝑶𝑼𝑻/𝑽𝑰𝑵  for this  circuit is____________.
(A) 5.00
(B) 5.33
(C) 4.80
(D) 6.00
Q.34

In the circuit diagram shown below, NMOS is in saturation region,µ𝐧𝐂𝐨𝐱 = 𝟐𝟎𝟎 µ𝐀/𝐕𝟐, width 𝐖 = 𝟒𝟎 µ𝐦, length 𝐋 = 𝟏 µ𝐦, the threshold voltage is 0.4 V, and the ratio of body-effect transconductance (𝐠𝐦𝐛) to transconductance (𝐠𝐦) is 0.1. A small input voltage vin is applied at the bulk-terminal to produce a small change in the output voltage vout. The dc gain for vout/vin is  _________ . (Neglect channel-length modulation for NMOS and all intrinsic capacitors)

 

 
(A) −0.4
(B) −4.0
(C) −4.4
(D) −3.6
Q.35

As shown in the circuit below, a constant voltage source is connected to two ideal resistors.

The voltage drop across a resistor is measured using two different voltmeters V1 and V2 at five different time instances and the following values are recorded from V1 and V2. 

Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) V1 is less accurate, V2 is more precise
(B) V1 is more accurate, V2 is more precise
(C) V1 is less accurate, V2 is less precise
(D) V1 is more accurate, V2 is less precise
Q.36 The closed-loop characteristic equation of a system is given by𝒔𝟒 + 𝟐𝒔𝟑 + 𝟖𝒔𝟐 + 𝟖𝒔 + 𝟏𝟔 = 𝟎The frequency of oscillations of this closed-loop system at steady state is_____rad/s.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
Q.37 Match the following in the context of biomaterial characterization:
(A) P-L, Q-N, R-K, S-M
(B) P-N, Q-M, R-K, S-L
(C) P-N, Q-K, R-L, S-M
(D) P-M, Q-K, R-N, S-L
Q.38 In comparison to ECG amplifiers, the surface-EMG amplifiers have
(A) A comparable gain and smaller bandwidth
(B) A comparable gain and larger bandwidth
(C) At least 20 dB higher gain and a larger bandwidth
(D) At least 20 dB lower gain and a smaller bandwidth
 
Q.39 Match the following organs with their functions:
(A) P-M, Q-N, R-K, S-L
(B) P-N, Q-M, R-K, S-L
(C) P-N, Q-K, R-L, S-M
(D) P-L, Q-M, R-K, S-N
 
Q.40 An RF pulse is applied to acquire an axial MR image at the isocenter of a 1.5T MRI scanner with slice thickness of 2.5 mm. Assuming a gradient field strength of 2 Gauss/cm is applied and Gyromagnetic ratio of protons is 42.58 MHz/T, the RF pulse bandwidth required for slice selection is_________kHz.
(A) 1.06
(B) 2.13
(C) 6.66
(D) 13.31
Q.41 A longitudinal pressure wave travelling inside a muscle tissue is incident at an angle of 60° at the interface between the muscle and kidney. Let the wave impedance be Zmuscle = 1.70× 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝒈 𝒄𝒎−𝟐 𝒔−𝟏, Zkidney = 1.62× 𝟏𝟎𝟓𝒈 𝒄𝒎−𝟐 𝒔−𝟏 and wave velocities in muscle and kidney tissues be 1590 and 1560 𝒎/𝒔 respectively. The transducer centre frequency is 1.5 MHz. The pressure wave propagation angle in the kidney tissue and intensity transmission coefficient at the tissue interface are              degrees (rounded off to the nearest integer) and          (rounded off to two decimal places), respectively.
(A) 58, 0.24
(B) 30, 0.68
(C) 58, 0.94
(D) 30, 0.99
Q.42 A novel biomaterial was tested for its tensile properties. The experiment was conducted using a cylindrical sample of this material, which was 10 cm long with 1 cm diameter. When a tensile force of 50 kN was applied, this cylindrical sample elongated by 4 mm. Based on the experimental results described above and the tensile moduli of different tissues given in the table below, this biomaterial would be a suitable replacement for___________.
(A) Bone
(B) Tendon
(C) Ligament
(D) Articular cartilage

Q.43 – Q.45 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.43

In the circuit shown below, 𝑹𝟏= 2 W, 𝑹𝟐= 1 W, 𝑳𝟏= 2 H, and 𝑳𝟐= 0.5 H. Which of the following describe(s) the characteristics of the circuit?
(A) Second order high pass filter
(B) Second order low pass filter
(C) Underdamped system
(D) Overdamped system
Q.44

An inexperienced clinician was measuring the cardiac output of a healthy human by thermodilution technique. A 2.0 mL of cold saline solution of volume (𝑽𝒊) at 𝟕 ℃ was injected at the entrance of the right atrium. The change in blood temperature (∫𝒕𝟏 ∆𝑻 𝒅𝒕) at the pulmonary artery was measured to be −𝟐𝟎 𝑲𝒆𝒍𝒗𝒊𝒏. 𝒔𝒆𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒅.The cardiac output 𝑭 was calculated using the following formula

 

where 𝑸 is the heat content of injectate in Joules, given by 𝑽𝒊∆𝑻𝒊𝝆𝒊𝒄𝒊 and∆𝑻𝒊 is the temperature difference between the injectate and blood. It was assumed that the density of blood (𝝆𝒃 in kg/m3) and the specific heat capacity of blood (𝒄𝒃 in J/(kg. K)) were respectively equal to that of the injectate 𝝆𝒊 and 𝒄𝒊.The clinician realized that there was an error in the measurement of 𝑭. Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Cardiac output is too low because the cold saline volume was too small
(B) Cardiac output is too low because Equation 𝑑𝑡 is too large
(C) Cardiac output is too high because the cold saline volume was too large
(D) Cardiac output is too high because Equation 𝑑𝑡 is too small
 
Q.45 Which of the following statements about smooth muscles are TRUE?
(A) Smooth muscles are found in the walls of hollow organs
(B) Smooth muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system
(C) Smooth muscles are made up of non-striated cells
(D) Smooth muscles are made up of striated cells
Q.46 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).
 
Q.46 Consider a unity feedback system with closed loop transfer functionThe steady state error with respect to a unit ramp input is________. (rounded off to one decimal place)
   
Q.47 The diameter of a renal artery lumen in humans is 5 mm. If the mean velocity of the blood flowing in the renal artery is 40 cm/s, the density of blood (r) is 1060 kg/m3, and the viscosity of blood (m) is 3 cP, the Reynolds number for the blood flowing in the renal artery is___________(rounded off to the nearest integer).
   
Q.48 A drug manufacturer believes that there is a 95% chance that the drug controller will approve a new drug the company plans to distribute if the results of the current testing show that the drug causes no side effects. The manufacturer further believes that there is a 0.50 probability that the drug will be approved even if the test shows side effects. A physician working for the drug manufacturer believes there is a 0.20 probability that tests will show side effects. If the drug is approved by the drug controller, the probability that the drug causes side effects is__________. (rounded off to three decimal places)
   
Q.49 In a measurement process, groups A and B recorded 10 and 15 values, respectively. The arithmetic means and standard deviations of group A are µA = 35, σA = 0.4 and group B are µB = 38, σB = 0.6, respectively. The standard deviation for the combined set of group A and group B measurements is      __________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
Q.50

In the circuit given below, 𝑽𝒔 = 𝟓𝟎 𝑽. Let the circuit reach steady state for the SPDT switch at position 1. Once the circuit is switched to position 2, the energy dissipated in the resistors is_____J.(rounded off to one decimal place)
Q.51 In the circuit shown below, the output voltage VOUT is____________V.
Q.52 A pacemaker was implanted in a cardiac patient. It has a battery of 2.4 A.h (Ampere.hour). It is designed to deliver a rectangular pulse of amplitude 1.5 V for 1 ms ON time for every one second. The electrode – heart resistance is 150 W. Assuming the current drained from the battery is negligible, the lifetime of the pacemaker is______ years. (rounded off to the nearest integer)
Q.53 A radiographic system is using X-ray tube operating at 80 kVp. In order to filter the low energy X-rays, an aluminum (Al) filter of 2.5 mm thickness is used. The Al filter is replaced with a copper (Cu) filter to have the same energy filtered. The mass attenuation coefficients of Al and Cu at 80 kVp are 0.02015 m2/kg and 0.07519 m2/kg, respectively. The densities of Al and Cu are 2699 kg/m3 and 8960 kg/m3 respectively. The thickness of the new Cu filter is___________mm. (rounded off to two decimal places)
   
Q.54 In a radioactive isotope, N nuclei are needed to produce radioactivity level of 2 mCi. Assuming decay constant of 𝟑. 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟓 𝒔−𝟏 and atomic weight of    98 𝒈/𝒎𝒐𝒍 and Avogadro’s number = 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏 , the mass of N radionuclide is_________picograms. (rounded off to the nearest integer)
   
Q.55 A PZT crystal of thickness 1 mm and wave velocity 4000 m/s is emitting a longitudinal pressure wave, which is incident on a blood vessel at an angle of 30°. The doppler shift in the ultrasound wave for a blood flow of 10 cm/s and wave velocity in the soft tissue of 1540 m/s is________ Hz.

Answer Key 

Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 B  1 A  11 D  21 -6 to -6  31 B  41 C  51 -10 to -10 
2 B  2 B  12 A  22 1 to 1  32 B  42 A  52 27 to 28 
3 D  3 B  13 C  23 4 to 4  33 C  43 B; D  53 0.15 to 0.25 
4 D  4 A  14 A  24 2.96 to 3.02  34 A  44 A; B  54 372 to 376 
5 C  5 C  15 B  25 10 to 10  35 B  45 A; B; C  55 222 to 228 
6 C  6 A  16 A  26 B  36 B  46 0.1 to 0.1     
7 A  7 D  17 B  27 C  37 B  47 700 to 710     
8 B  8 B  18 B; C  28 D  38 B  48 0.111 to  0.121     
9 C  9 C  19 A; D  29 B  39 B  49 1.54 to 1.58     
10 D  10 B  20 A; B; C  30 D  40 B  50 0.2 to 0.2     

Latest Current Affairs 24 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Vice President of India tests positive for COVID-19

Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu tested positive for COVID-19 on January 23, 2022. The Vice President is currently under self-isolation in Hyderabad. He had earlier paid floral tributes to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose on his 125th birth anniversary yesterday in Hyderabad. The VP had also attended the first convocation ceremony of the Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy (IIPE) in Visakhapatnam on January 22nd.

National Girl Child Day 2022 observed today

National Girl Child Day is celebrated in India every year on January 24th since 2008. The day aims to spread awareness among the public about inequities faced by girls in the Indian society. It also aims to promote awareness about girl child’s rights and the importance of female education, health, and nutrition.

India suffers 3-0 ODI series whitewash against South Africa

N suffered 3-0 whitewash in its ODI series against South Africa after a narrow loss in the third and final ODI against South Africa by four runs at the Newlands Cricket ground on January 23, 2022. India had won the toss and chosen to field first. Chasing 288 runs to win, India stumbled early after losing captain KL Rahul in the 5th over for 9 runs. India fell short of the target by 4 runs after being bowled out for 283.

Omicron wave to turn to villages after metros: Expert 

The Omicron variant of COVID-19 is likely to spread in small towns and villages after its transmission in metro cities, said Dr Rajeev Jayadevan who is advising the COVID-19 task force at IMA Kochi, Kerala. The medical expert said that each time, a wave first hit mobility areas that include metro cities and then smaller areas and villages. 

India withdraws from AFC Women’s Asia Cup 2022

 The Indian women’s football team has withdrawn from the ongoing AFC Women’s Asian Cup 2022. The decision came after several players tested positive for COVID-19. India is the host of the ongoing football tournament. The Asian Football Confederation (AFC) confirmed that India has withdrawn and their remaining matches stand canceled.

Health Minister Mandaviya launches revamped central govt health schemes websites

The Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya launched the revamped Central Government Health scheme website and the mobile app. The Minister stated that the mobile app has several features which will benefit more than 40 lakh beneficiaries with the real-time information from the convenience of their homes. Among the various features of the upgraded website is also that it has been made bilingual with Hindi and English with a provision to make it multi-lingual in the future. The website also has a link to the beneficiary login to access various online facilities such as tracking of the grievances, medical claims, downloading of CGHS card, and the online appointment system.

12th National Voters’ Day to be observed on January 25

 The 12th National Voters’ Day will be observed on January 25. The theme is ‘Making Elections Inclusive, Accessible and Participative’. Vice-President Venkaiah Naidu will be the Chief Guest for the event. The National Awards for the Best Electoral Practices for 2021-22 will also be conferred on the State and District Level Officers for their outstanding performance in the conduct of elections. During the National Voters’ Day function, the newly enrolled voters will also be felicitated and will be handed over their Elector Photo Identity Card. National Voters’ Day in India has been celebrated since 2011 on January 25 to mark the foundation day of Election Commission of India.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Russia planning to install pro-Russian leader in Ukraine: UK

The UK foreign office informed on January 22, 2022 that it has information that the Russian government is planning to install a pro-Russian leader in Ukraine while it considers whether to invade and occupy the country. Former Ukrainian MP Yevhen Murayev is reportedly being considered as a potential candidate for the role. 

New Zealand PM Jacinda Ardern cancels her wedding amid new Omicron restrictions

New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Arden has cancelled her wedding as the nation imposes new restrictions to slow the community spread of the COVID-19 Omicron variant, she told reporters on Sunday. New Zealand will impose mask rules and limit gathering from midnight on Sunday after a cluster of nine COVID-19 Omicron cases showed community spread from the North to South islands after a wedding. New Zealand will move to a red setting under its COVID-19 protection framework, with more mask wearing. Indoor hospitality settings such as bars and restaurants and events like weddings will be capped at 100 people. The limit is lowered to 25 people if venues are not using vaccine passes, Ms. Arden said. The country has kept its borders shut to foreigners since March 2020. The government pushed back plans for a phased reopening from mid-January to the end of February out of concern about a potential Omicron outbreak in neighbouring Australia. About 94% of New Zealand’s population over the age of 12 is fully vaccinated and about 56% of those eligible have had booster shots.

Beijing to test 2 million ahead of Winter Olympics

China’s capital, Beijing, will test more than two million residents as it deals with a new cluster of COVID-19 cases just two weeks before it hosts the Winter Olympics, city officials said on Sunday. Beijing’s Fengtai district, the centre of the latest outbreak, reported nine new cases on Sunday — a small number in most places but a break from normalcy in a city where a strict zero-COVID strategy has been in place — with the total number over the weekend nearing two dozen. Xu Hejian, a spokesperson for the Beijing government, said all of Fengtai’s two million residents would be tested in coming days. Under China’s Zero-COVID approach, the country still maintains tight restrictions on international travel, and carries out mass testing and quarantining of all close contacts in centralised facilities until cases are brought to zero. The approach has helped China avoid a major second wave and maintain normalcy at home for much of the past year, although it has come at the cost of continued international isolation. Beijing is particularly on edge ahead of the Winter Olympics, which President Xi Jinping will open on February 4. Russia’s Vladimir Putin and Pakistan’s Imran Khan are among foreign leaders expected to attend.

 

Latest Current Affairs 23 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS 

PM Modi asks districts to set time-bound targets for Government programmes to increase ease of living 

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has asked District Magistrates (DMs) to work on time-bound targets for 100% saturation of government services and facilities and urged every district to prepare a vision for next two years that aims to increase ease of living for people.  Mr. Modi, who virtually interacted with DMs and Chief Ministers of select States after reviewing the the implementation of various government schemes, said the teamwork of Centre, States and local administration has yielded good results in the Aspirational Districts.  Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacts with District Magistrates through video conference, in New Delhi on January 22, 2022. In his closing remarks, the Prime Minister dwelt upon the successes of the Aspirational Districts programme — aimed at quickly and effectively transforming 112 most under-developed districts across the country — and lauded the officials as well as the State governments.  While the Prime Minister sought direct feedback from the DMs about the key steps taken by them that has resulted in success in the districts and the challenges faced by them, the officials shared their experiences, the PMO said in a statement.     

Plea in Supreme Court seeks action against political parties that promise ‘irrational’ freebies from public funds 

A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court seeking a direction to the Election Commission of India (ECI) to seize the election symbol or de-register a political party that promises or distributes irrational freebies from public funds before elections.  It said there should be a total ban on such populist measures to gain undue political favours from the voters as they violate the Constitution and the ECI should take suitable deterrent measures.  The plea urged the court to declare that the promise of irrational freebies from public funds before elections unduly influences the voters, disturbs the level playing field and vitiates the purity of the poll process.  The petition has also sought a direction to the ECI to insert an additional condition in the relevant paragraphs of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968, which deals with conditions for recognition as a State party, that a political party shall not promise/distribute irrational freebies from the public fund before the election.  The plea has referred to the promises being made by certain political parties in the ongoing Assembly poll process in some States.     

Mahatma Gandhi’s favourite hymn ‘Abide with me’ dropped from Beating Retreat tunes 

The traditional Christian hymn ‘Abide with me’, a favourite of Mahatma Gandhi, has been dropped from the list of tunes for this year’s Beating Retreat (BTR) ceremony. The tune had been played at the annual ceremony every year since 1950.  ‘Abide with me’ is played by the Massed Bands at the end of the ceremony, and this year there are three tunes without it instead of the four tunes played in 2021 including the hymn.  Members of the Indian military band rest before rehearsals for the Beating Retreat ceremony in New Delhi on January 21, 2022.   The three tunes to be played by Massed Bands this year are ‘Kadam kadam badhaye ja’, ‘Drummers call’ and ‘Ae mere watan ke logon’. In contrast, the four tunes in 2021 were ‘Bharat ke jawan’ (new composition in 2021), ‘Kadam kadam badhaye ja’, ‘Drummers call’ and ‘Abide with me’.  Beating Retreat is a centuries-old military tradition going back to the days when troops disengaged from battle at sunset. As soon as the buglers sounded the ‘retreat’, troops ceased fighting, sheathed their arms and withdrew from the battlefield.  

Why have States raised questions about Centre’s proposed changes on IAS deputation? 

The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) sent a communication to all States on January 12 seeking their opinion on the proposal to amend Rule 6 (deputation of cadre officers) of the Indian Administrative Service (Cadre) Rules 1954. Similar letters were also sent proposing changes in cadre rules of the other two All India Services (AIS): the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service (IFoS). Through the amendments, the Union government plans to acquire powers to depute IAS/IPS and IfoS officers to the Central Government and Ministries without necessarily taking the State government’s nod.   The Centre proposes four amendments including two new insertions, including one that says if the State government delays posting a State cadre officer to the Centre and does not give effect to the Central government’s decision within the specified time, the officer shall stand relieved from cadre from the date as may be specified by the Central government.  The DoPT says in spite of existing provisions, States are not sponsoring adequate numbers of officers for Central deputation and the available officers are not sufficient to meet requirements, and has sent multiple letters in this regard to the States. However, half-a-dozen States opposed the move and the rest did not respond.  The Centre then revised its proposal and States have been given time till January 25 to reply.  Read our explainer here.  

Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments  

A team of researchers, including an Indian-origin scientist at the prestigious University of British Columbia, has become the first in the world to conduct a molecular-level structural analysis of the Omicron spike protein, which could help accelerate the development of more effective treatments against the variant.  Spike protein helps the virus enter and infect cells.  Dr. Sriram Subramaniam, professor in UBC faculty of medicine’s department of biochemistry and molecular biology, said that Omicron has greater binding affinity than the original SARS-CoV-2 virus, with levels more comparable to what seen with the Delta variant.  The findings, published in Science journal, sheds new light on why Omicron is highly transmissible and will help accelerate the development of more effective treatments, according to a statement issued by the Vancouver-based university.  The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 3,89,06,225 at the time of publishing this newsletter, with the death toll at 4,88,923.  

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

Louie Anderson, an Emmy winning comedian, dies at 68

The Emmy-winning comedian, actor, and game show host Louie Anderson passed away at the age of 68 after battling cancer. He was undergoing treatment after he was diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Anderson was one of America’s most beloved comedians.

Family of four, believed to be Indians, frozen to death along U.S.-Canada border

In a heartbreaking tragedy, a family of four, including a baby, all believed to be Indians, has died from exposure to cold weather on the Canadian side of the border with the U.S. in an apparent human smuggling operation, according to media reports. Manitoba Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) on Thursday said that the bodies of four people — two adults, a teen and an infant — were found on the Canadian side of the U.S./Canada border near Emerson on Wednesday. U.S. officials say the dead are believed to be a family from India. They are thought to have been attempting to cross into the U.S., according to media reports. RCMP Assistant Commissioner Jane MacLatchy shared the discovery with reporters in a news conference on Thursday. What I am about to share is going to be difficult for many people to hear, she said, calling it an absolute and heartbreaking tragedy. At this very early stage of the investigation, it appears that they all died due to exposure to the cold weather, MacLatchy said, adding RCMP believe the four people are connected to the group that was apprehended on the U.S. side of the border. She said all four were located within 9-12 metres of the border. MacLatchy said that the group was on their own in the middle of a blizzard and faced not only the cold weather but endless fields, large snowdrifts and complete darkness.

GATE 2021 Architecture and Planning Engineering Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Architecture and Planning Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 (i) Arun and Aparna are here.
(ii) Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii)Arun’s families is here.
(iv)Arun’s family is here.
Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Q.2
The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.3 Two identical cube shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each dice is:
(A) 1/36
(B) 1/12 
(C) ⅛ 
(D) ¼ 
Q.4 Å and ⊙ are two operators on numbers p and q such that𝑝 ⊙ 𝑞 = 𝑝 − 𝑞, and p Å q = p✗ q Then, (9 ⊙ (6 ⊕ 7)) ⊙ (7 ⊕ (6 ⊙ 5))=
(A) 40
(B) -26
(C) -33
(D) -40
Q.5 Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated at the second position from the left end of the row. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 24

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6 On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of point P.The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be            
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Q.7 The author said, “Musicians rehearse before their concerts. Actors rehearse their roles before the opening of a new play. On the other hand, I find it strange that many public speakers think they can just walk on to the stage and start speaking. In my opinion, it is no less important for public speakers to rehearse their talks.”Based on the above passage, which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
(B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
(C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
(D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.
Q.8

1.      Some football players play cricket.

2.      All cricket players play hockey.

Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:
(A) No football player plays hockey.
(B) Some football players play hockey.
(C) All football players play hockey.
(D) All hockey players play football.
Q.9

 

 In the figure shown above, PQRS is a square. The shaded portion is formed by the intersection of sectors of circles with radius equal to the side of the square and centers at S and Q.The probability that any point picked randomly within the square falls in the shaded area is          
(A) 4 − 𝜋/2
(B) ½ 
(C) 𝜋− -12
(D) 𝜋/4
Q.10 In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts. The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm2, is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C)  48√3
(D)  144√3

Q.1  – Q.25 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 As per National Building Code of India, 2016, the function of an Automatic Rescue Device is to
(A) bring a stuck lift to the nearest landing level.
(B) control fire in electrical system at plenum level.
(C) control the escape route lighting system.
(D) trigger fire sprinkler system.
Q.2 Which among the following acronyms represents a thermal comfort index?
(A) PMV
(B) NDVI
(C) DEM
(D) PCA
Q.3 Indian satellite sensor that can be used for very high resolution mapping of urban areas is
(A) LANDSAT.
(B) CARTOSAT.
(C) RESOURCESAT.
(D) MODIS.
Q.4 What is the smallest entity of raster data used in GIS?
(A) Line
(B) Pixel
(C) Point
(D) Polygon
 
Q.5 The correct sequence of stages during firing/burning of bricks is
(A) Dehydration – Oxidation – Vitrification – Cooling.
(B) Vitrification – Dehydration – Oxidation – Cooling.
(C) Oxidation – Dehydration – Vitrification – Cooling.
(D) Cooling – Oxidation – Vitrification – Dehydration.
 
Q.6 Industry Foundation Classes (IFC) in BIM is
(A) a module used to improve energy savings.
(B) an algorithm related to the precision of the BIM model.
(C) a program based on Bezier Splines.
(D) an object oriented data model to facilitate interoperability.
 
Q.7 As per urban design principles proposed by Gordon Cullen, Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi, is an example of
(A) Serial Vision.
(B) Pinpointing.
(C) Occupied territory.
(D) Here and there.
Q.8 A waste water pipe connecting two inspection chambers (IC) is laid at a slope of 1:200. The Invert Level of the starting IC is -450 mm. The Invert level of the second pit at a distance of 40 m from the first IC is
(A) -650 mm.
(B) -200 mm.
(C) -250 mm.
(D) -550 mm.
Q.9

From the images P, Q and R given below, select the corresponding land use categories according to Alonso’s Bid Rent Theory.

 
(A) P–Manufacturing; Q–Residential; R–Retail
(B) P–Retail; Q–Residential; R–Manufacturing
(C) P–Residential; Q–Retail; R–Manufacturing
(D) P–Retail; Q–Manufacturing; R–Residential
 
Q.10 The urban land use model based on the concept of a polycentric city is known as
(A) Burgess Model.
(B) Harris and Ullman model.
(C) Hagerstrand’s Model.
(D) Homer Hoyt’s model.
Q.11 The total head or total lift against which a pump works includes suction lift, discharge lift and
(A) cone of depression.
(B) salvage lift.
(C) water horse power.
(D) frictional head loss.
 
Q.12 The two components for measuring time of concentration for storm water are
(A) overland flow time and retention time.
(B) overland flow time and gutter flow time.
(C) detention time and gutter flow time.
(D) retention time and inlet time.
   
Q.13 The traffic assignment technique where the traffic arranges itself in congested networks such that the journey time in all used routes between an Origin-Destination pair are equal and less than those that would be experienced in all unused routes. This is known as
(A) System equilibrium.
(B) All–or–nothing.
(C) User equilibrium.
(D) Incremental.
Q.14 What is the dependent variable in a regression based trip generation model?
(A) Population of Traffic Analysis Zone
(B) Number of trips
(C) Number of employees
(D) Number of households
 
Q.15 The curve traced by a point on a circle rolling inside another circle is known as
(A) hypocycloid.
(B) helix.
(C) involute.
(D) hyperbola.
 
Q.16 The law of Primate City was first proposed by
(A) Samuel A. Stouffer.
(B) Colin Clark.
(C) Mark Jefferson.
(D) Harold Hotelling.
 
Q.17 In the European Union which constitutes the cities namely, London, Paris, Brussels, Amsterdam, Cologne, Frankfurt, Munich and Milan, lie within a linear megalopolitan zone known as
(A) Purple Zone.
(B) Golden Polygon.
(C) Blue Banana.
(D) Yellow Corridor.
Q.18 An urban governance tool to mobilize financial resources by permitting additional FAR over and above the prescribed FAR by imposing a charge or fee for the same is known as
(A) Betterment Levy.
(B) Impact Fee.
(C) Land Value Increment Tax.
(D) Floor Area Incentive Tax.
 
Q.19 Identify the colour palette that is created using any three equally spaced hues around the colour wheel.
(A) Split – complementary
(B) Analogous
(C) Triads
(D) Complementary
 
Q.20 Coefficient of Performance (COP) for heat pump is used to calculate
(A) the number of air changes.
(B) the Energy Efficiency Ratio.
(C) the Energy Select Sector index.
(D) the Indoor Air Quality index.
Q.21 Freight flows are converted to truck flows using
(A) Volume factor.
(B) Weight factor.
(C) Payload factor.
(D) Distance load factor.
 
Q.22 Rebound hammer test is used to measure
(A) permeability of concrete.
(B) bond stress between rebar and concrete.
(C) compressive strength of concrete.
(D) tensile strength of concrete.
 
Q.23 Which type of temporary supporting structure can be used in case of rebuilding the lower part of a load bearing wall at ground floor above plinth level?
(A) Dead Shore
(B) Pit Underpinning
(C) Flying Shore
(D) Needle Scaffolding
 
Q.24 During earthquake, soft storey failure in a building is due to
(A) shear failure initiated by short column effect.
(B) stress discontinuity initiated by abrupt changes of stiffness.
(C) failure of column initiated by weak column – strong beam effect.
(D) drift of building storey initiated by pounding effect.
Q.25 Following five activities are associated with construction contract management. Choose the option showing the correct progressive sequence of the activities.
POpening of BidQSubmission of Security DepositRPublication of Notice Inviting Tender (NIT)SIssue of Letter of Intent (LOI)TSubmission of Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
(A) R – Q – P – T – S
(B) S – P – R – T – Q
(C) R – T – P – S – Q
(D) S – T – P – R – Q

Q.26 – Q.36 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3). 

Q.26 Match the acronyms in Group I with the particulars in Group II.
(A) P–3, Q–5, R–4, S–2
(B) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
(C) P–5, Q–4, R–2, S–1
(D) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–1
Q.27 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding architect in Group II.
(A) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
(B) P–2, Q–4, R–2, S–5
(C) P–3, Q–5, R–4, S–1
(D) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–5
Q.28 Match the heritage conservation charters in Group I with their focus areas in Group II.
(A) P–3, Q–1, R–4, S–5
(B) P–5, Q–4, R–1, S–2
(C) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–2
(D) P–4, Q–1, R–3, S–2
Q.29 Match the Buildings (name of architects) in Group I with the abstractions used in Group II. 
(A) P–4, Q–2, R–1, S–3
(B) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–3
(C) P–2, Q–1, R–3, S–2
(D) P–5, Q–2, R–4, S–1
Q.30 Match the names of the gardens in Group I with their type in Group II.
(A) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–4
(B) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–3
(C) P–5, Q–3, R–4, S–2
(D) P–5, Q–4, R–1, S–3
Q.31 Match the various types of impurities present in water in Group I with the appropriate water treatment process given in Group II.
(A) P–2, Q–5, R–3, S–4
(B) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
(C) P–1, Q–4, R–3, S–2
(D) P–3, Q–5, R–1, S–4
Q.32 Match the temples in Group I with their style of Architecture in Group II
(A) P–3, Q–1, R–2, S–5
(B) P–3, Q–4, R–2, S–1
(C) P–2, Q–1, R–3, S–5
(D) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–2
Q.33 Match the urban form/structure in Group I with their respective proponents in Group II.
(A) P–4, Q–1, R–5, S–3
(B) P–5, Q–1, R–4, S–2
(C) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–2
(D) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
Q.34 Match the elements in Group I to their description in Group II.
(A) P–3, Q–1, R–5, S–4
(B) P–4, Q–3, R–1, S–2
(C) P–5, Q–4, R–2, S–1
(D) P–5, Q–1, R–2, S–4
Q.35 Match the position of feet in Group I to the most appropriate description of stability of human body in Group II.
(A) P–5, Q–5, R–2, S–1
(B) P–5, Q–3, R–1, S–2
(C) P–1, Q–3, R–4, S–2
(D) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
Q.36 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding structural systems in Group II.
(A) P–5 , Q–3 , R–4 , S–1
(B) P–3 , Q–5 , R–1 , S–2
(C) P–5 , Q–4, R–1 , S–2
(D) P–5 , Q–1 , R–4 , S–2

Q.37 – Q.43 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO marks each (no negative marks).

Q.37

 Choose the correct options with respect to cycle track design as per Indian Road Congress guidelines.
(A) The minimum width of cycle track is 3 m if overtaking is to be provided for
(B) Cycle tracks may be provided when peak hour cycle traffic is 400 or more on routes with a traffic of 100 to 200 vehicles/hour
(C) Maximum gradient allowed for cycle tracks is 1 in 15
(D) Cyclist should have a clear view of at least 80 m
Q.38 As per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, for which purposes can the urgency clause for land acquisition be invoked?
(A) National defence and security purposes
(B) Affordable housing program
(C) Industrial projects
(D) Emergency arising out of natural calamities
Q.39 Which of the following international treaties are related to Climate Change and global warming?
(A) Cartagena protocol, 2000
(B) Copenhagen summit, 2001
(C) Nagoya protocol, 2010
(D) Paris Agreement, 2016
Q.40 Which of the following algorithms are used for finding the shortest path in an urban transportation network?
(A) Logit
(B) Huff
(C) Floyd Warshall
(D) Dijkstra
 
Q.41 Which of the following statements are true with respect to surface paint?
(A) Paint is glossy when Pigment Volume Concentration is high
(B) Vehicle is the volatile part of the paint
(C) Base of the paint is usually oxides of metals
(D) High VOC content is preferred in paints
 
Q.42 As per the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, which among the following are ‘Duties of waste generators’?
(A) Segregate and store waste generated in four separate streams namely, combustible, non-combustible, organic and domestic hazardous waste
(B) Store construction and demolition waste separately within own premise before disposal
(C) All waste generator shall pay user fee for solid waste management
(D) Compost horticulture waste and garden waste separately within own premise
 
Q.43 Choose the correct options with regard to activated sludge process.
(A) The activated sludge process is an aerobic process
(B) The entire settled sludge is sent back to the aeration tank
(C) The entire effluent from the final settling tank is sent back to the aeration tank
(D) In aeration tanks, sewage is aerated and agitated for a few hours

Q.44 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

 
Q.44  A rectangular hall having dimension of 8.0 m × 14.0 m × 4.0 m has total 4 windows (1.5 m x 1.0 m each) and 2 doors (1.0 m × 2.0 m each).The coefficients of absorption are given below. Considering all windows open and doors closed, the reverberation time in seconds is            .[round off to 2 decimal places]Description of itemAbsorption coefficientCoefficient of absorption of wall, floor and ceiling0.2Coefficient of absorption of door and window0.4
     
Q.45 If surface conductance of external surface is 20 W/m2 oC, absorbance of the surface is 0.66 and U value of the wall is 1.2 W/m2 oC, the solar gain factor of a wall is________. [round off to 2 decimal places]  
     
Q.46 The initial cost of a property is INR 4,00,000 and its future life is 30 years. Considering the scrap value as 10% of its initial cost and rate of interest as 5%, the sinking fund (deposited at the end of year) for the property is INR__________.[round off to 2 decimal places]  
Q.47

Reading in the staff stationed at P measured by a dumpy level is 3.5 m. The dumpy level is stationed at Q. The Reference Level (RL) at point P is 96.5 m and the height of the dumpy level is 1.25 m. The RL at point Q is_____________m.[round off to 2 decimal places]
   
Q.48 A circular cricket field of 180 m diameter is illuminated by four floodlight towers. The floodlight towers are equally spaced along the perimeter of the field. The height of the floodlight tower is 48 m. Using ‘Inverse Square Law’, the illumination level at the center of the field is found as 750 Lux. Each tower is consisting of 50 lamps. The rating of each lamp is 700 Watt. The efficacy of each lamp is________Lumen /Watt. [round off to 2 decimal places]
   
Q.49 A building is constructed on a plot measuring 70 m × 40 m. The utilized FAR of the building is 1.5. An energy audit team found that the average monthly electricity bill of the building is INR 2,94,000. The unit cost of the electricity is INR 7. The Building Energy Index is                   kW-hr/m2/year. [in integer]
Q.50 A simply-supported steel beam made of an I-section has a span of 8 m. The beam is carrying a uniformly distributed load of 15 kN/m. The overall depth of the beam is 450 mm. The moment of inertia of the beam section is 18000 cm4. The maximum bending stress in the beam will be           N/mm2.[in integer]
Q.51 The slenderness ratio of a circular column of diameter 300 mm and effective height 3 m is                _. [in integer]
Q.51 A construction project consists of the following five activities. The immediate successor activity relationship and duration of each activity are mentioned in the table below.
Activity Immediate Successor Activity Duration (Weeks)PR2QR and S4RT5S–6T–3The total duration of the project is __________ weeks. [in integer]
Q.53 It is proposed to have ceramic tile flooring in a room having internal clear dimension of 1.8 m × 2.4 m. Tile sizes are 300 mm × 300 mm. The door opening is 900 mm and the door is flushed with the internal face of the wall. The height of skirting is 600 mm. The number of ceramic tiles required for internal flooring and skirting is_________.[in integer]
Q.54 In a housing project, 75% of the permissible FAR was utilised after constructing four numbers eight storey MIG towers with identical floor area of 400 sqm. If three numbers seven storey LIG towers with identical floor area are built utilising the remaining FAR, the floor area of each LIG tower is_______________sqm.[round off to 2 decimal places]
Q.55 Using the following values of thermal conductance, surface conductance and thermal resistance, the U value across the given wall cross-section is__________W/m2 oC. [round off to 2 decimal places]

Answer Key 

Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 B  1 A  11 D  21 C  31 D  41 B; C  51 40 to 40 
2 B  2 A  12 B  22 C  32 A  42 B; C  52 12 to 12 
3 D  3 MTA  13 C  23 A  33 C  43 A; D  53 98 to 98 
4 D  4 B  14 B  24 B  34 D  44 0.82 to 0.86  54 MTA 
5 C  5 A  15 A  25 C  35 B  45 0.03 to 0.05  55 MTA 
6 C  6 D  16 C  26 D  36 D  46 5405.00 to  5422.00     
7 A  7 A  17 C  27 D  37 A; B  47 98.75 to 98.75     
8 B  8 A  18 MTA  28 C  38 A; D  48 117.00 to  119.00 OR  1483.00 to  1496.00    
9 C  9 D  19 C  29 B  39 B; D OR D  49 120 to 120     
10 D  10 B  20 B  30 B  40 C; D  50 150 to 150     

Latest Current Affairs 22 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Election Commission of India to take call on holding physical poll rallies today

The Election Commission of India will hold a meeting with the Health Secretaries and the Chief Health Secretaries of the five-poll bound states on January 22, 2022. The officials will review a ban on holding physical roadshows and rallied by the political parties before assembly elections.

Ladakh gets its first open synthetic track

Ladakh has got its open synthetic track and the football turf in Leh under Khelo India Programme. According to a coach, before this, the athletes had to run on the roads but now they can witness improvement because they can now measure distance and speed easily.

Government releases guidelines for management of COVID-19 in children

The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued guidelines for the management of COVID-19 in children. The Government has recommended not to use antivirals or monoclonal antibodies for children less than 18 years of age irrespective of the severity of infection.

Supreme Court to steer ex gratia payment to kin of COVID-19 deceased 

The Supreme Court on Wednesday decided to take the reins and marshal the efforts to pay compensation to families that lost their relatives to COVID-19, after noticing some States responded to the humanitarian move in a lukewarm fashion.  A Bench of Justices M.R. Shah and Sanjiv Khanna told the States that many of these families were economically challenged. They may have been further crippled by the fact that COVID-19 took away their sole breadwinner.  The court said payment of ₹ 50,000 each as ex gratia to the loved ones of every COVID-19 patient was a welfare gesture and essential to a welfare state. File   The court said payment of ₹50,000 each as ex gratia to the loved ones of every COVID-19 patient was a welfare gesture, and so, essential to a welfare State. Delays and bureaucratic red-tape to release the money or process the application did not augur well. Moreover, applications for compensation ought not to be rejected merely on technical glitches. Every reason for denying a claim should be recorded, it noted.  The court ordered the States to reach out especially to children orphaned by the pandemic and whose details have been uploaded in the Bal Swaraj portal of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).  The Commission, through its web portal, is identifying and collecting information from across the country about children orphaned, abandoned or left with one parent.  

No foreign dignitary as Republic Day chief guest this year too Prime Minister Narendra Modi will host a meeting with five Central Asian leaders virtually next week, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) announced on Wednesday, formally indicating that they will not travel to Delhi, as planned, as chief guests at the Republic Day celebrations.  An official also confirmed that there will be no foreign dignitary as chief guest during the events around January 26.  The MEA had not officially confirmed their presence, but sources said the Presidents of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan had in December accepted an invitation to jointly attend the parade and Republic Day reception. They were due to also participate in the first India-Central Asia summit meeting during their visit to Delhi.  Sources said proposals to this effect had been sent out to Presidents Kassym-Jomart Tokayev (Kazakhstan), Sadyr Japarov (Kyrgyzstan), Emomali Rahmon (Tajikistan), Gurbanguly Berdimuhamedov (Turkmenistan) and Shavkat Mirziyoyev (Uzbekistan), suggesting changing the summit to the virtual format. This is the second year in a row the government has had to cancel invitations to chief guests due to the COVID-19 pandemic after U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson was unable to attend the celebrations in 2021.  Foreign leaders have graced the Republic Day parades every year barring 1952, 1953 and 1966. The then Indonesian President Sukarno was the first chief guest to grace Republic Day in 1950. In 2020, Brazil President Jair Bolsonaro was the chief guest.  

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

WEF announces annual meeting to be held in person in May 2022

The World Economic Forum has announced its annual meeting to be held in person for the first time during the pandemic. The meeting will be from May 22 to May 26, 2022, at Davos in Switzerland. The annual gathering of the forum has not been held since January 2020 due to the pandemic.

World faces shortage of lithium for electric vehicle batteries

Lithium is in hot demand due to rapidly growing production of electric vehicles that use lithium-ion batteries, but there is a global supply shortage of the metal, with western countries racing to bring on new mines to compete with China. The Serbian government on Thursday cancelled licenses for a major lithium project owned by Anglo-Australian miner Rio Tinto Plc, which industry experts said is likely to prolong the supply shortage to mid-decade. Lithium is currently produced from hard rock or brine mines. Australia is the world’s biggest supplier, with production from hard rock mines. Argentina, Chile and China are mainly producing it from salt lakes. Total global production, measured as lithium carbonate equivalent, was forecast in December at 485,000 tonnes in 2021, growing to 615,000 tonnes in 2022 and 821,000 tonnes in 2023, according to Australia’s Department of Industry.

 

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