Vidhyarthi Darpan %

Latest Current Affairs 29 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

1000 drones to light up sky during Beating Retreat Ceremony

10000 drones will dazzle the sky during the ‘Beating Retreat’ ceremony in New Delhi today. This will be the first time ever that there will be drone show at the ceremony. The event is scheduled to take place at Vijay Chowk and will see in attendance the President of India and Supreme Commander of the armed forces, Ram Nath Kovind. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will also be present on the occasion along with Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and many other dignitaries.

India witnesses dip in daily positivity rate

India reported 2,35,532 new COVID-19 cases in the last 24 hours, taking the total active case count to 20,04,333. The daily positivity rate has fallen further to 13.39 percent. India also reported 871 deaths and 3,35,939 recoveries in the last 24 hours.

No Zero Hour on January 31st, February 1st

There will be No Zero Hour on January 31st and February 1, 2022, as the President will be addressing both the houses jointly on January 31st and the Union Budget will be presented on February 1st. All matters of urgent Public Importance will raised during the ‘Zero Hour’ on February 2nd.

Anti cut-Anti climb fence set up along India-Bangladesh border

Anti Cut-Anti Climb fencing has been introduced along the India-Bangladesh border. The new fence cannot be cut or climbed upon and is economically better and long-lasting, according to BSF IG N Bengal Frontier Ajai Singh.

INS Khukri to be India’s 1st full warship museum

INS Khukri, the first built missile corvette, which was decommissioned after 32yrs of service in December 2021, was handed over to the Diu Admin on January 26, 2022. The INS Khukri will be turned into India’s 1st full warship museum.

Haryana allows opening of cinema halls, schools

Haryana government allows all cinemas/multiplexes to open with 50 percent seating capacity and schools for classes 10th to 12th, universities, colleges and coaching/training institutes to open with effect from February 1, 2022.

Mumbai reports first case of Black Fungus

Mumbai has reported the first case of Black Fungus this year amid the third wave of the COVID-19 pandemic. The case is a 70-year-old man, who tested positive for COVID-19 on January 5. He soon started showing symptoms of mucormycosis on January 12. He is currently undergoing treatment at Wockhardt Hospital in Mumbai Central.

Delhi Cabinet approves compensation for farmers’ crop loss

Delhi Cabinet on January 28, 2022 approved compensation worth Rs 20000 per acre to the farmers for loss incurred due to unseasonal rain.

Earthquake of 6.4 magnitude hits South Pacific Ocean

Earthquake of magnitude 6.4 on the Richter Scale hit the Kermadec Islands region in South Pacific Ocean at 8:16 am on January 29, 2022.

Aaradhya Yadav replaces Vasu Vats in India U19 WC squad

The International Cricket Council (ICC) on January 29, 2022 approved Aaradhya Yadav as a replacement for Vasu Vats in India’s U19 World Cup squad. Vats will no longer be able to play in the tournament as he has sustained a hamstring injury. Any request for player replacement has to first get an approval from the Event Technical Committee. India is scheduled to take on Bangladesh today in their Super League quarter-final at Coolidge Cricket Ground in Antigua and Barbuda.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

US warns of war if Russia invades Ukraine.

The Pentagon warned on January 28, 2022 that the destruction and human cost of a full-scale incursion by Russian forces into Ukraine would be “horrific,” but that there was still time for diplomacy to avoid a war. This comes as US President Joe Biden announced the deployment of a small troop to eastern Europe in near term.

Russia sees historic dip in population

Russia sees a historic decline in its population, as the nation’s population reduced by over a million people in 2021. Such a drop in population has not been seen since the collapse of the Soviet Union. Over 660,000 people have died of COVID-19 in the country since the outbreak of the pandemic.

Former Zimbabwe batsman Brendan Taylor admits receiving money from Indian businessman for spot-fixing

Former Zimbabwe batsman Brendan Taylor is facing a ban from the International Cricket Council (ICC) after admitting he received a $15,000 deposit for spot-fixing, though he said he was blackmailed and never went through with the arrangement. Taylor said he was coerced into accepting the money from an Indian businessman in October 2019 and that it took him four months to report the incident to the ICC anti-corruption unit because he feared for his safety. Taylor travelled to India to discuss the launch of a new T20 competition in Zimbabwe with the promise of $15,000 as payment. We had drinks and during the course of the evening, they openly offered me cocaine, which they themselves engaged in. I foolishly took the bait, Taylor said in a statement released via Twitter on Monday. Former Zimbabwe all-rounder and coach Heath Streak was banned by the ICC for eight years last April for his role in revealing inside information which could be used for betting purposes.

GATE 2021 Electronics and Communication Engineering Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Electronics and Communication Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	The current population of a city is 11,02,500. If it has been increasing at the rate of 5% per annum, what was its population 2 years ago?
(A)	9,92,500
(B)	9,95,006
(C)	10,00,000
(D)	12,51,506

Q.4	Nostalgia is to anticipation as is to________ Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A)	Present, past
(B)	Future, past
(C)	Past, future
(D)	Future, present

Q.5	Consider the following sentences:I woke up from sleep.I woked up from sleep.I was woken up from sleep.I was wokened up from sleep.Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(A)	(i) and (ii)
(B)	(i) and (iii)
(C)	(ii) and (iii)
(D)	(i) and (iv)

Q.6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Statement 1: All purple are green. Statement 2: All black are green. Conclusion I: Some black are purple. Conclusion II: No black is purple. Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?
(A)	Only conclusion I is correct.
(B)	Only conclusion II is correct.
(C)	Either conclusion I or II is correct.
(D)	Both conclusion I and II are correct.

Q.7	Computers are ubiquitous. They are used to improve efficiency in almost all fields from agriculture to space exploration. Artificial intelligence (AI) is currently a hot topic. AI enables computers to learn, given enough training data. For humans, sitting in front of a computer for long hours can lead to health issues.Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?Nowadays, computers are present in almost all places.Computers cannot be used for solving problems in engineering.For humans, there are both positive and negative effects of using computers.Artificial intelligence can be done without data.
(A)	(ii) and (iii)
(B)	(ii) and (iv)
(C)	(i), (iii) and (iv)
(D)	(i) and (iii)

Q.8	Consider a square sheet of side 1 unit. In the first step, it is cut along the main diagonal to get two triangles. In the next step, one of the cut triangles is revolved about its short edge to form a solid cone. The volume of the resulting cone, in cubic units, is__________
(A)	𝜋/3
(B)	2𝜋/3
(C)	3𝜋 / 2
(D)	3π

Electronics and Communication Engineering (EC)

Q.1- Q.15 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.2	Consider the differential equation given below. The integrating factor of the differential equation is
(A)	(1 − 𝑥²)^−3⁄4
(B)	(1 − 𝑥²)^−1⁄4
(C)	(1 − 𝑥²)^−3⁄2
(D)	(1 − 𝑥²)^−1⁄2

Q.3	Two continuous random variables 𝑿 and 𝒀 are related as 𝒀 = 𝟐𝑿 + 𝟑 Let 𝝈^𝟐_𝑿 and 𝝈^𝟐_𝒀 denote the variances of 𝑿 and 𝒀, respectively. The variances are related as
(A)	𝜎²_𝑌 = 2 𝜎²_𝑋
(B)	𝜎²_𝑌 = 4 𝜎²_𝑋
(C)	𝜎² _𝑌 = 5 𝜎²_𝑋
(D)	𝜎²_𝑌 = 25 𝜎²_𝑋

Q.4	Consider a real-valued base-band signal (𝒕), band limited to 𝟏𝟎 kHz. The Nyquist rate for the signal 𝒚(𝒕) = 𝒙(𝒕) 𝒙 ( 𝟏 + t/2) is
(A)	15 kHz
(B)	30 kHz
(C)	60 kHz
(D)	20 kHz

Q.5	Consider two 𝟏𝟔-point sequences [𝒏] and 𝒉[𝒏]. Let the linear convolution of 𝒙[𝒏] and 𝒉[𝒏] be denoted by 𝒚[𝒏], while 𝒛[𝒏] denotes the 𝟏𝟔-point inverse discrete Fourier transform (IDFT) of the product of the 𝟏𝟔-point DFTs of [𝒏] and 𝒉[𝒏]. The value(s) of 𝒌 for which 𝒛[𝒌] = 𝒚[𝒌] is/are
(A)	𝑘 = 0, 1, 2, … , 15
(B)	𝑘 = 0
(C)	𝑘 = 15
(D)	𝑘 = 0 and 𝑘 = 15

Q.6	A bar of silicon is doped with boron concentration of 𝟏𝟎^𝟏𝟔 𝐜𝐦^−𝟑 and assumed to be fully ionized. It is exposed to light such that electron-hole pairs are generated throughout the volume of the bar at the rate of 𝟏𝟎^𝟐𝟎 𝐜𝐦^−𝟑𝐬^−𝟏. If the recombination lifetime is 𝟏𝟎𝟎 µs, intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon is 𝟏𝟎^𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦^−𝟑 and assuming 𝟏𝟎𝟎% ionization of boron, then the approximate product of steady-state electron and hole concentrations due to this light exposure is
(A)	10²⁰_cm−6
(B)	2 × 10²⁰ cm⁻⁶
(C)	10³² _cm−6
(D)	2 × 10³² cm⁻⁶

Q.11	If (𝟏𝟐𝟑𝟓)_𝒙 = (𝟑𝟎𝟑𝟑)_𝒚, where 𝒙 and 𝒚 indicate the bases of the corresponding numbers, then
(A)	𝑥 = 7 and 𝑦 = 5
(B)	𝑥 = 8 and 𝑦 = 6
(C)	𝑥 = 6 and 𝑦 = 4
(D)	𝑥 = 9 and 𝑦 = 7

Q.12	Addressing of a 𝟑𝟐K × 𝟏𝟔 memory is realized using a single decoder. The minimum number of AND gates required for the decoder is
(A)	2₈
(B)	2₃₂
(C)	2₁₅
(D)	2₁₉

Q.15	Consider a rectangular coordinate system (x, y, z) with unit vectors ax, ay, and az. A plane wave traveling in the region 𝒛 ≥ 𝟎 with electric field vector 𝐄 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐨(𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎^𝟖𝒕 + 𝖰𝒛)𝐚_𝒚 is incident normally on the plane at 𝒛 = 𝟎, where β is the phase constant. The region 𝒛 ≥ 𝟎 is in free space and the region 𝒛 < 𝟎 is filled with a lossless medium (permittivity 𝗌 = 𝗌_𝟎, permeability 𝝁 = 𝟒𝝁_𝟎, where 𝗌_𝟎 = 𝟖. 𝟖𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎^−𝟏𝟐 F/m and 𝝁_𝟎 = 𝟒𝝅 ×𝟏𝟎^−𝟕 H/m). The value of the reflection coefficient is
(A)	1/3
(B)	3/5
(C)	2/5
(D)	2/3

Q.16 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).


Q.16	If the vectors (𝟏. 𝟎, −𝟏. 𝟎, 𝟐. 𝟎), (𝟕. 𝟎, 𝟑. 𝟎, 𝒙) and (𝟐. 𝟎, 𝟑. 𝟎, 𝟏. 𝟎) in ℝ^𝟑are linearly dependent, the value of 𝒙 is ______________

Q.17	Consider the vector field 𝐅 = 𝐚_x(𝟒𝒚 − 𝒄_𝟏𝒛) + 𝐚_𝒚(𝟒𝒙 + 𝟐𝒛) + 𝐚_𝒛(𝟐𝒚 + 𝒛) in a rectangular coordinate system (x, y, z) with unit vectors ax, ay, and az. If the field F is irrotational (conservative), then the constant 𝒄_𝟏 (in integer) is___________


Q.18	Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current I flowing through the 7 Ω resistor between P and Q (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________A.

Q. 26 – Q. 35 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.27	A box contains the following three coins. I. A fair coin with head on one face and tail on the other face. II. A coin with heads on both the faces. III.A coin with tails on both the faces.A coin is picked randomly from the box and tossed. Out of the two remaining coins in the box, one coin is then picked randomly and tossed. If the first toss results in a head, the probability of getting a head in the second toss is
(A)	2/5
(B)	1/3
(C)	1/2
(D)	2/3

Q.30	For an n-channel silicon MOSFET with 𝟏𝟎 nm gate oxide thickness, the substrate sensitivity (𝝏𝑽_𝑻⁄𝝏\|𝑽_𝑩𝑺\|) is found to be 𝟓𝟎 mV/V at a substrate voltage\|𝑽_𝑩𝑺\| = 𝟐 𝑽, where 𝑽_𝑻 is the threshold voltage of the MOSFET. Assume that, \|𝑽_𝑩𝑺\| ≫ 𝟐𝚽_𝑩, where 𝐪𝚽_𝑩 is the separation between the Fermi energy level EF and the intrinsic level Ei in the bulk. Parameters given areElectron charge (q) = 𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎^−𝟏𝟗 CVacuum permittivity (𝗌_𝟎) = 𝟖. 𝟖𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎^−𝟏𝟐 F/m Relative permittivity of silicon (𝗌_𝐒𝐢) = 𝟏𝟐 Relative permittivity of oxide (𝗌_𝐨𝐱) = 𝟒The doping concentration of the substrate is
(A)	7.37 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³
(B)	4.37 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³
(C)	2.37 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³
(D)	9.37 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

Q.32	The content of the registers are R1 = 𝟐𝟓H, R2 = 𝟑𝟎H and R3 = 𝟒𝟎H. The following machine instructions are executed.PUSH{R1} PUSH{R2} PUSH{R3} POP{R1} POP{R2} POP{R3}After execution, the content of registers R1, R2, R3 are
(A)	R₁ = 40H, R₂ = 30H, R₃ = 25H
(B)	R₁ = 25H, R₂ = 30H, R₃ = 40H
(C)	R₁ = 30H, R₂ = 40H, R₃ = 25H
(D)	R₁ = 40H, R₂ = 25H, R₃ = 30H

Q.34	A digital transmission system uses a (𝟕, 𝟒) systematic linear Hamming code for transmitting data over a noisy channel. If three of the message-codeword pairs in this code ( 𝐦_𝒊 ; 𝐜_𝒊 ), where 𝐜_𝒊 is the codeword corresponding to the i^thmessage 𝐦_𝒊, are known to be ( 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 ; 𝟎 𝟏 𝟎 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 ), ( 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 ; 𝟎 𝟎 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 ) and (𝟎 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 ; 𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 𝟎 𝟏 𝟏 𝟎 ), then which of the following is a valid codeword in this code?
(A)	1 1 0 1 0 0 1
(B)	1 0 1 1 0 1 0
(C)	0 0 0 1 0 1 1
(D)	0 1 1 0 1 0 0

Q.36 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).


Q.36	A real 𝟐 × 𝟐 non-singular matrix 𝐀 with repeated eigenvalue is given as where 𝒙 is a real positive number. The value of 𝒙 (rounded off to one decimal place) is ____________

Q.37	For a vector field 𝐃 = 𝝆 𝐜𝐨𝐬^𝟐 𝝋 𝐚_𝝆 + 𝒛^𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧^𝟐 𝝋 𝐚_𝝋 in a cylindrical coordinate system (𝝆, 𝝋, 𝒛) with unit vectors 𝐚_𝝆, 𝐚_𝝋 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐚_𝒛, the net flux of 𝐃 leaving the closed surface of the cylinder (𝝆 = 𝟑, 𝟎 ≤ 𝒛 ≤ 𝟐) (rounded off to two decimal places) is_____________

Q.38	In the circuit shown in the figure, the switch is closed at time 𝒕 = 𝟎, while the capacitor is initially charged to −𝟓 V(i.e., vc(𝟎) = −𝟓 V). The time after which the voltage across the capacitor becomes zero (rounded off to three decimal places) is_____________ms.

Q.39	The exponential Fourier series representation of a continuous-time periodic signal 𝒙(𝒕) is defined as ∞𝒙(𝒕) = ∑ 𝒂_𝒌 𝒆^{𝒋𝒌𝑚𝟎𝒕} 𝒌 = −∞where 𝑚_𝟎 is the fundamental angular frequency of 𝒙(𝒕) and the coefficients of the series are 𝒂_𝒌. The following information is given about (𝒕) and 𝒂_𝒌.𝒙(𝒕) is real and even, having a fundamental period of 𝟔The average value of 𝒙(𝒕) is 𝟐The average power of the signal 𝒙(𝒕) (rounded off to one decimal place) is___________

Q.40	For a unit step input [𝒏], a discrete-time LTI system produces an output signal ( 𝟐𝜹[𝒏 + 𝟏] + 𝜹[𝒏] + 𝜹[𝒏 − 𝟏] ). Let 𝒚[𝒏] be the output of the system for an input 𝒖[𝒏]). The value of 𝒚[𝟎] is_________

Q.41	Consider the signals [𝒏] = 𝟐^𝒏−𝟏 𝒖[−𝒏 + 𝟐] and 𝒚[𝒏] = 𝟐^−𝒏+𝟐 𝒖[𝒏 + 𝟏], where 𝒖[𝒏] is the unit step sequence. Let (𝒆^𝒋𝑚) and 𝒀(𝒆^𝒋𝑚) be the discrete- time Fourier transform of 𝒙[𝒏] and 𝒚[𝒏], respectively. The value of the integral (rounded off to one decimal place) is___________.

Q.52

A message signal having peak-to-peak value of 2 V, root mean square value of 0.1 V and bandwidth of 5 kHz is sampled and fed to a pulse code modulation (PCM) system that uses a uniform quantizer. The PCM output is transmitted over a channel that can support a maximum transmission rate of 50 kbps. Assuming that the quantization error is uniformly distributed, the maximum signal to quantization noise ratio that can be obtained by the PCM system (rounded off to two decimal places) is________

Q.53	Consider a polar non-return to zero (NRZ) waveform, using +𝟐 V and −𝟐 V for representing binary ‘1’ and ‘0’ respectively, is transmitted in the presence of additive zero-mean white Gaussian noise with variance 𝟎. 𝟒 V². If the a priori probability of transmission of a binary ‘1’ is 𝟎. 𝟒, the optimum threshold voltage for a maximum a posteriori (MAP) receiver (rounded off to two decimal places) is ______ V.

Q.54	A standard air-filled rectangular waveguide with dimensions 𝒂 = 𝟖 cm,𝒃 = 𝟒 cm, operates at 𝟑. 𝟒 GHz. For the dominant mode of wave propagation, the phase velocity of the signal is 𝒗_𝒑. The value (rounded off to two decimal places) of 𝒗_𝒑⁄𝒄, where 𝒄 denotes the velocity of light, is___________


Q.55	An antenna with a directive gain of 𝟔 dB is radiating a total power of 𝟏𝟔 kW. The amplitude of the electric field in free space at a distance of 𝟖 km from the antenna in the direction of 𝟔 dB gain (rounded off to three decimal places) is___________V/m.

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	C	1	A	11	B	21	2.0 to 2.0	31	C	41	7.9 to 8.1	51	3.320 to 3.325
2	B	2	B	12	C	22	94.2 to 94.6	32	A	42	8.1 to 8.4	52	30.00 to 34.00
3	C	3	B	13	C	23	9.24 to 9.28	33	D	43	10 to 10	53	0.03 to 0.05
4	C	4	B	14	D	24	2.80 to 3.20	34	C	44	0.5 to 0.5	54	1.15 to 1.25
5	B	5	C	15	A	25	9.30 to 9.44	35	A	45	-12 to -12	55	0.224 to 0.264
6	C	6	D	16	8.0 to 8.0	26	MTA	36	10.0 to 10.0	46	5 to 5
7	D	7	A	17	0 to 0	27	B	37	56.50 to 56.60	47	1.40 to 1.50
8	A	8	D	18	0.5 to 0.5	28	C	38	0.132 to 0.146	48	3.125 to 3.125
9	C	9	MTA	19	1.0 to 1.0	29	C	39	31.9 to 32.1	49	1011310.0 to 1011320.0
10	A	10	A	20	4.5 to 4.5	30	A	40	0.0 to 0.0	50	1400 to 1400

Latest Current Affairs 28 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Parliament launches Digital Sansad A

Parliament has launched Digital Sansad App to make its live proceedings accessible to citizens of the country. Now, people can watch parliamentary proceedings and other initiatives taken by clicking a button on the phone. The app will also allow citizens to check what their members of Parliament are doing. The app will contain members’ speeches and participation in all proceedings.

FM Nirmala Sitharaman to present 2nd paperless budget on February 1st

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will present the second paperless budget on February 1, 2022. This time again, there will be no customary halwa ceremony due to the COVID situation, keeping in mind the health and safety concerns of all people. The Union Budget was delivered in paperless form for the first time last year.

LS Speaker Om Birla calls all-party meeting on January 30th

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla has called an all-party meeting on January 30, 2022 ahead of the Budget 2022-23 presentation. The customary meeting will be attended by the floor leaders of various political parties to discuss the smooth functioning of the parliament session under the chairmanship of Lok Sabha speaker.

Union Health Minister to hold Covid review meeting with southern states today

Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya is scheduled to chair a virtual meeting today with the health ministers of southern states and union territories to review the COVID situation and the response measures being taken concerning the new Omicron variant of COVID-19. The health ministers of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep will attend the meeting.

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla to Convene all-party meeting on January 30

Lok Sabha Speaker, Om Birla, ahead of the Union Budget 2022 session, will convene an all-party meeting on January 30, 2022, to ensure the smooth functioning of the house. Rajya Sabha Chairman M Venkaiah Naidu has also called an all-party meeting virtually on January 31. The Government of India has also convened a party meeting on the same day to seek cooperation from all political parties to ensure the smooth functioning of the Budget session. The Union Budget 2022 session will begin on January 31 with President Ram Nath Kovind’s address to both the Houses of Parliament. The Budget 2022 will be presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1.

Central Government likely to issue advisory on reopening schools soon

As the COVID-19 vaccination drive for children aged 15 years and above gathers pace, the Central Government is most likely to issue an advisory to reopen the schools across the country. The Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya has asked the National Expert Group to suggest ways and work on modalities to open the schools worldwide. Reportedly, the Government wants to reopen the schools in a staggered manner and under strict adherence to the COVID-19 protocols. Ever since the outbreak of the pandemic, schools have remained by and large shut. The COVID-19 vaccination campaign in the country for adolescents in the age group of 15-18 years started on January 3, 2022.

Research portal of National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research launched

The Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister Mansukh Mandaviya has launched a research portal of the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research. It aims at disseminating the information and details of the research activities, publications, and patents of all NIPERs. While speaking on the occasion, the Union Minister said that healthy competition between academia and research is extremely significant and that research and innovation are necessary for sustained growth of the pharmaceutical sector. He further added that India has young talent and human resources, however, this pool needs to be channelized effectively.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Bangladesh passes bill for Election Commission formation

The Bangladesh Parliament has passed a bill for the appointment of Election Commissioners and Chief Election Commissioner for the formation of the next Election Commission. The bill which was passed by the voice vote gives a legal shield to the appointments of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners to form the EC. The tenure of the current Election Commission will end on February 14, 2022. The bill passed by the Parliament envisages a six-member search committee appointed by the President to recommend the names of the Election Commissioners and CEC. The opposition Bangladesh National Party, however, has criticized the bill for being passed in a hurry.

Australian Government announces billion-dollar package to protect Great Barrier Reef

A billion-dollar plan has been unveiled by the Australian Government to protect the Climate ravaged Great Barrier Reef. The plan aims to prevent the vast networks of corals from being removed from UNESCO’s World Heritage List. The plan has been announced months after narrowly avoiding the reef being placed on UNESCO’s in danger list. As per the recent study, bleaching had affected 98% of reefs since 1998, leaving just a fraction of untouched. People in Australia are also in favour of action to limit climate change after experiencing strings of global warming-worsened disasters.

India, five Central Asian nations establish joint working group on Afghanistan

India and five Central Asian nations discussed the ongoing situation in Afghanistan on January 27, 2022 and decided to set up a joint working group on Afghanistan. This was decided during the first India-Central Asia Summit that was hosted by PM Narendra Modi in a virtual format. The leaders of all five central Asian nations- Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and the Kyrgyz Republic attended the meeting.

GATE 2021 Chemistry Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Chemistry Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	Getting to the top is______than staying on top.
(A)	more easy
(B)	much easy
(C)	easiest
(D)	easier

Q.3	In a company, 35% of the employees drink coffee, 40% of the employees drink tea and 10% of the employees drink both tea and coffee. What % of employees drink neither tea nor coffee?
(A)	15
(B)	25
(C)	35
(D)	40

Q.4
(A)	y2
(B)	y
(C)	3y2
(D)	2 y

Q.5	Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row, all facing the same direction, but not necessarily in the same order. P and R cannot sit adjacent to each other. S should be seated to the right of Q. The number of distinct seating arrangements possible is:
(A)	2
(B)	4
(C)	6
(D)	8

6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	Statement: Either P marries Q or X marries YAmong the options below, the logical NEGATION of the above statement is:
(A)	P does not marry Q and X marries Y.
(B)	Neither P marries Q nor X marries Y.
(C)	X does not marry Y and P marries Q.
(D)	P marries Q and X marries Y.

Q.7	Consider two rectangular sheets, Sheet M and Sheet N of dimensions 6 cm x 4 cm each.Folding operation 1: The sheet is folded into half by joining the short edges of the current shape.Folding operation 2: The sheet is folded into half by joining the long edges of the current shape.Folding operation 1 is carried out on Sheet M three times. Folding operation 2 is carried out on Sheet N three times.The ratio of perimeters of the final folded shape of Sheet N to the final folded shape of Sheet M is .
(A)	13 : 7
(B)	3 : 2
(C)	7 : 5
(D)	5 : 13

Q.10	Humans have the ability to construct worlds entirely in their minds, which don’t exist in the physical world. So far as we know, no other species possesses this ability. This skill is so important that we have different words to refer to its different flavors, such as imagination, invention and innovation. Based on the above passage, which one of the following is TRUE?
(A)	No species possess the ability to construct worlds in their minds.
(B)	The terms imagination, invention and innovation refer to unrelated skills.
(C)	We do not know of any species other than humans who possess the ability to construct mental worlds.
(D)	Imagination, invention and innovation are unrelated to the ability to construct mental worlds.

Chemistry (CY)

– Q.14 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	The rates of alkaline hydrolysis of the compounds shown below follow the order:
(A)	I > II > III
(B)	II > I > III
(C)	II > III > I
(D)	III > I > II

Q.7	An organic compound exhibits the [M]⁺, [M+2]⁺and [M+4]⁺peaks in the intensity ratio 1:2:1 in the mass spectrum, and shows a singlet at  7.49 in the ¹H NMR spectrum in CDCl₃. The compound is:
(A)	1,4-dichlorobenzene
(B)	1,4-dibromobenzene
(C)	1,2-dibromobenzene
(D)	1,2-dichlorobenzene

Q.8	Reaction of LiAlH₄ with one equivalent of Me₃N∙HCl gives a tetrahedral compound, which reacts with another equivalent of Me₃N∙HCl to give compound N. The compound N and its geometry, respectively, are:
(A)	LiAlH₄NMe₃and trigonal bipyramidal
(B)	Li₂AlH₄Cl and square pyramidal
(C)	AlH₃(NMe₃)₂and trigonal bipyramidal
(D)	AlH₃(NMe₃)₂and pentagonal

Q.9	Which one of the following is a non-heme protein?
(A)	hemoglobin
(B)	hemocyanin
(C)	myoglobin
(D)	cytochrome P-450

Q.10	A correct example of a nucleotide is:
(A)	adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
(B)	RNA
(C)	uridine
(D)	DNA

Q.11	The equilibrium constant for the reaction 3 NO (g) ⇌ N₂O (g) + NO₂ (g) at 25 °C is closest to:[ΔG° = -104.18 kJ; R = 8.314 J mol^-1K^-1]
(A)	1.043
(B)	1.8 × 10¹⁸
(C)	1.651
(D)	5.7 × 10^-19

Q.12	The reaction of NiBr₂ with two equivalents of PPh₃ in CS₂ at –78 °C gives a red-colored diamagnetic complex, [NiBr₂(PPh₃)₂]. This transforms to a green-colored paramagnetic complex with the same molecular formula at 25°C. The geometry and the number of unpaired electrons in thegreen-colored complex, respectively, are:
(A)	tetrahedral and 1
(B)	tetrahedral and 2
(C)	square planar and 2
(D)	square planar and 4

Q.13	The rate of the substitution reaction of [Co(CN)₅Cl]^3–with OH^–to give [Co(CN)₅(OH)]^3–
(A)	depends on the concentrations of both [Co(CN)₅Cl]^3– and OH^–
(B)	depends on the concentration of [Co(CN)₅Cl]^3– only
(C)	is directly proportional to the concentration of OH^– only
(D)	is inversely proportional to the concentration of OH^–

Q.14	The Δo of[Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺, [CrF₆]^3–and [Cr(CN)₆]^3–follows the order:
(A)	[Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ > [CrF₆]^3– > [Cr(CN)₆]^3–
(B)	[CrF₆]^3– > [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ > [Cr(CN)₆]^3–
(C)	[Cr(CN)₆]^3– > [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ > [CrF₆]^3–
(D)	[CrF₆]^3– > [Cr(CN)₆]^3– > [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Q.15 – Q.18 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.19 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).


Q. 19	A reversible heat engine absorbs 20 kJ of heat from a source at 500 K and dissipates it to the reservoir at 400 K. The efficiency of the heat engine is_____%.
Q. 20	Among the following eight compounds, the number of compound (s)which can exhibit stereoisomerism is___________.

Q. 21	The Mo-Mo bond order in [(η⁵-C₅H₅)Mo(CO)₂]₂ which obeys the 18- electron rule is___________.

Q. 22	The change in enthalpy (ΔH) for the reaction 2 P (s) + 3 Br₂(l) → 2 PBr₃(l)is -243 kJ. In this reaction, if the amount of phosphorusconsumed is 3.1 g, the change in enthalpy(rounded off to two decimal places) is________kJ.[Atomic Wt. of P = 31]

Q. 23	The number of signal(s) in the ¹H NMR spectrum of the following compound recorded at 25 °C in CDCl3 is___.

Q. 24	A 5 V battery delivers a steady current of 1.5 A for a period of 2 h. The total charge that has passed through the circuit is________________Coulombs.

Q. 25	The spin-only magnetic moment of [Co(H2O)6]²⁺ (rounded off to one decimal place) is________BM.

Q.26 – Q.42 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.26	The geometry and the number of unpaired electrons in tetrakis(1- norbornyl)Co respectively, are:
(A)	tetrahedral and one
(B)	tetrahedral and five
(C)	square planar and one
(D)	square planar and three

Q.27	The yellow color of an aqueous solution of K2CrO4 changes to red-orange upon the addition of a few drops of HCl. The red-orange complex, the oxidation state of its central element(s), and the origin of its color, respectively, are:
(A)	chromium chloride, +3, d-d transition
(B)	dichromate ion, +6 and +6, charge transfer
(C)	perchlorate ion, +7, charge transfer
(D)	chromic acid, +6, charge transfer

Q.28	The shapes of the compoundsClF₃, XeOF₂, N₃^–and XeO₃F₂ respectively, are:
(A)	T-shape, T-shape, linear and trigonal bipyramidal
(B)	trigonal planar, T-shape, V-shape and square pyramidal
(C)	T-shape, trigonal planar, linear and square pyramidal
(D)	trigonal planar, trigonal planar, V-shape and trigonal bipyramidal

Q.29	The metal borides that contain isolated boron atoms are:
(A)	Tc₇B₃ and Re₇B₃
(B)	Cr₅B₃ and V₃B₂
(C)	Ti₄B₄ and V₃B₄
(D)	TiB and HfB

Q.30	The major product formed in the following reaction is:
(A)	non-6-yn-2-one
(B)	non -3-yn-8 -one
(C)	non-2-yn-6-one
(D)	non-3-en-8-one

Q.34	In an electrochemical cell, Ag⁺ ions in AgNO3 are reduced to Ag metal at the cathode and Cu is oxidized to Cu²⁺at the anode. A current of 0.7 A is passed through the cell for 10 min. The mass (in grams) of silver deposited and copper dissolved, respectively, are:[Faraday Constant = 96,485 C mol^-1, Atomic Weight of Ag = 107.9, Atomic Weight of Cu = 63.55]
(A)	0.469 and 0.138
(B)	0.235 and 0.138
(C)	0.469 and 0.069
(D)	0.235 and 0.069

Q.35	Among the following the compounds which can be prepared by nucleophilic substitution reaction are:
(A)	III, IV, and V
(B)	I, II, and VI
(C)	II, IV, and VI
(D)	I, III, and V

Q.38	The major product formed in the reaction of (2R,3R)-2-bromo-3-methylpentane with NaOMe is:
(A)	(Z)-3-methylpent-2-ene
(B)	(E)-3-methylpent-2-ene
(C)	(2R,3R)-2-methoxy-3-methylpentane
(D)	(2S,3R)-2-methoxy-3-methylpentane

Q.40	Hexane and heptane are completely miscible. At 25 °C, the vapor pressures of hexane and heptane are 0.198 atm and 0.06 atm, respectively. The mole fractions of hexane and heptane in the vapor phase for a solution containing 4 M hexane and 6 M heptane, respectively, are:
(A)	0.688 and 0.312
(B)	0.400 and 0.600
(C)	0.312 and 0.688
(D)	0.600 and 0.400

Q.41	The correct order of Lewis acid strengths of BF₂Cl, BFClBr, BF₂Br and BFBr₂ is:
(A)	BF₂Cl > BFClBr > BF₂Br > BFBr₂
(B)	BFBr₂> BFClBr > BF₂Br > BF₂Cl
(C)	BF₂Cl > BF₂Br > BFClBr > BFBr₂
(D)	BFClBr > BFBr₂> BF₂Cl > BF₂Br

Q.42	The correct order of increasing intensity (molar absorptivity) of the UV-visible absorption bands for the ions [Ti(H2O)6]³⁺, [Mn(H2O)6]²⁺, [CrO4]^2–, and [NiCl4]^2– is:
(A)	[Ti(H2O)6]³⁺ < [Mn(H2O)6]²⁺ < [CrO4]^2– < [NiCl4]^2–
(B)	[Mn(H2O)6]²⁺ < [Ti(H2O)6]³⁺ < [NiCl4]^2– < [CrO4]^2–
(C)	[NiCl4]^2– < [Ti(H2O)6]³⁺ < [Mn(H2O)6]²⁺ < [CrO4]^2–
(D)	[Ti(H2O)6]³⁺ < [NiCl4]^2– < [CrO4]^2– < [Mn(H2O)6]²⁺

Q.43 – Q.44 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.43	The correct statement(s) about the concentration of Na⁺and K⁺ions in animal cells is/are:
(A)	[K⁺] inside the cell > [K⁺] outside the cell
(B)	[Na⁺] inside the cell > [Na⁺] outside the cell
(C)	[Na⁺] inside the cell < [Na⁺] outside the cell
(D)	[K⁺] inside the cell < [K⁺] outside the cell

Q.44	The correct statement(s) about actinides is/are:
(A)	The 5f electrons of actinides are bound less tightly than the 4f electrons.
(B)	The trans uranium elements are prepared artificially.
(C)	All the actinides are radioactive.
(D)	Actinides do not exhibit actinide contraction.

Q.45 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).


Q.45	The number of photons emitted per nanosecond by a deuterium lamp (400 nm) having a power of 1 microwatt (rounded off to the nearest integer) is .[h = 6.626 × 10^-34kg m²s^-1; c = 3.0 × 10⁸m s^-1]

Q.46	Given the initial weight of 1 mg of radioactive 60/27𝐂𝐨 (half-life = 5.27 years), the amount disintegrated in 1 year (rounded off to two decimal places) is______mg.

Q.47	The de Broglie wavelength of an argon atom (mass = 40 amu) traveling at a speed of 250 m s^1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________picometers.[N = 6.022 × 10²³; h = 6.626 × 10^-34kg m²s^-1]

Q.48	The molar absorption coefficient of a substance dissolved in cyclohexane is 1710 L mol^-1cm^-1at 500 nm. The reduction in intensity of light of the same wavelength that passes through a cell of 1 mm path length containing a 2 mmol L^-1solution (rounded off to one decimal place) is %.
Q.49	The fundamental vibrational frequency of ¹H¹²⁷I is 2309 cm^-1. The force constant for this molecule (rounded off to the nearest integer) is_______________N m^-1.[N = 6.022 × 10²³, c = 3.0 × 10⁸m s^1]

Q.50	A laser Raman spectrometer operating at 532 nm is used to record the vibrational spectrum of Cl2 having its fundamental vibration at 560 cm^-1. The Stokes line corresponding to this vibration will be observed at cm^-1. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Q.51	The vapor pressure of toluene (Mol. Wt. = 92) is 0.13 atm at 25 °C. If 6 g of a hydrocarbon is dissolved in 92 g of toluene, the vapor pressure drops to 0.12 atm. The molar mass of the hydrocarbon (rounded off to the nearest integer) is_____.

Q.52	The reactionCO (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ COCl2 (g)at 500 °C, with initial pressures of 0.7 bar of CO and 1.0 bar of Cl2, is allowed to reach equilibrium. The partial pressure of COCl2 (g) at equilibrium is 0.15 bar. The equilibrium constant for this reaction at 500 °C (rounded off to two decimal places) is .

Q.53	The rate constants for the decomposition of a molecule in the presence of oxygen are 0.237 × 10^-4L mol^-1s^-1at 0 °C and 2.64 × 10^-4L mol^-1s^-1at 25 °C(R = 8.314 J mol^-1K^-1).The activation energy for this reaction (rounded off to one decimal place) is__________kJ mol^-1.

Q.54	2 L of a gas at 1 atm pressure is reversibly heated to reach a final volume of 3.5L. The absolute value of the work done on the gas (rounded off to the nearest integer) is Joules.

Q.55	The quantity of the cobalt ore [Co3(AsO4)2∙H2O] required to obtain 1 kg of cobalt (rounded off to two decimal places) is____________kg.[Atomic Wt. of Co = 59, As = 75, O = 16, H = 1]

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	D	1	C	11	B	21	3 to 3	31	B	41	B	51	71 to 73
2	B	2	A	12	B	22	-12.16 to -12.14	32	D	42	B	52	0.30 to 0.34
3	C	3	C	13	B	23	3 to 3	33	B	43	A; C	53	65.0 to 66.0
4	B	4	A	14	C	24	10800 to 10800	34	A	44	A; B; C	54	151 to 153
5	C	5	A	15	A; C	25	3.8 to 4.0	35	C	45	2000 to 2020	55	2.50 to 2.80
6	B	6	C	16	C; D	26	A	36	C	46	0.11 to 0.13
7	A	7	B	17	A; C	27	B	37	B	47	39.5 to 40.5
8	A	8	C	18	A; B; C	28	A	38	B	48	54.0 to 55.0
9	B	9	B	19	20 to 20	29	A	39	A	49	309 to 315
10	C	10	A	20	6 to 6	30	A	40	A	50	18225 to 18245

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-II Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	Gauri said that she can play the keyboard_________her sister.
(A)	as well as
(B)	as better as
(C)	as nicest as
(D)	as worse as

Q.4 If (x-1/2)² – (x-3/2)²=x+2 then the value of

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Q.5	Pen : Write :: Knife : Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above?
(A)	Vegetables
(B)	Sharp
(C)	Cut
(D)	Blunt

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	Listening to music during exercise improves exercise performance and reduces discomfort. Scientists researched whether listening to music while studying can help students learn better and the results were inconclusive. Students who needed external stimulation for studying fared worse while students who did not need any external stimulation benefited from music. Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference of the above passage?
(A)	Listening to music has no effect on learning and a positive effect on physical exercise.
(B)	Listening to music has a clear positive effect both on physical exercise and on learning.
(C)	Listening to music has a clear positive effect on physical exercise. Music has a positive effect on learning only in some students.
(D)	Listening to music has a clear positive effect on learning in all students. Music has a positive effect only in some students who exercise.

Q.8	The number of students in three classes is in the ratio 3:13:6. If 18 students are added to each class, the ratio changes to 15:35:21.The total number of students in all the three classes in the beginning was:
(A)	22
(B)	66
(C)	88
(D)	110

Q.10	Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U, with distinct heights, compare their heights and make the following observations. Observation I: S is taller than R. Observation II: Q is the shortest of all. Observation III: U is taller than only one student. Observation IV: T is taller than S but is not the tallest. The number of students that are taller than R is the same as the number of students shorter than_________.
(A)	T
(B)	R
(C)	S
(D)	P

Computer Science and Information Technology (CS, Set-2)

Q.1 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.11 – Q.15 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.16 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.26 – Q.39 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.40 – Q.47 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.48 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	A	1	C	11	B; C	21	698 to 698	31	B	41	B; C; D	51	8 to 8
2	B	2	C	12	B; C; D	22	15.00 to 16.00	32	B	42	A; D	52	6 to 6
3	B	3	C	13	D	23	15 to 15	33	A	43	A; B; C	53	1.87 to 1.88
4	B	4	C	14	A; C; D	24	4 to 4	34	C	44	A; D	54	130 to 140
5	C	5	A	15	B; D	25	19 to 19	35	D	45	B; C	55	929 to 929
6	C	6	D	16	1 to 1	26	B	36	C	46	A; B
7	A	7	C	17	256 to 256	27	A	37	B	47	A; B; C
8	C	8	B	18	3 to 3	28	B	38	A	48	4108 to 4108
9	A	9	C	19	2 to 2	29	D	39	C	49	60 to 60
10	C	10	C	20	80000 to 80000	30	D	40	A; C; D	50	59049 to 59049

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-I Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 7 to 3. Among the options below, an acceptable value for the total number of students in the class is:
(A)	21
(B)	37
(C)	50
(D)	73

Q.3	Consider the following sentences:Everybody in the class is prepared for the exam.Babu invited Danish to his home because he enjoys playing chess. Which of the following is the CORRECT observation about the above two sentences?
(A)	(i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is unambiguous
(B)	(i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is unambiguous
(C)	(i) is grammatically correct and (ii) is ambiguous
(D)	(i) is grammatically incorrect and (ii) is ambiguous

Q.5	_______is to surgery as writer is to__________ Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A)	Plan, outline
(B)	Hospital, library
(C)	Doctor, book
(D)	Medicine, grammar

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, of dimensions 6 cm x 1 cm each. Sheet M is rolled to form an open cylinder by bringing the short edges of the sheet together. Sheet N is cut into equal square patches and assembled to form the largest possible closed cube. Assuming the ends of the cylinder are closed, the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cube is________
(A)	𝜋2
(B)	3𝜋
(C)	9𝜋
(D)	3𝜋

Q.7	temsCost (₹) P5,400—5, Profit%Marked Price (₹) 860Q—2510,000 Details of prices of two items P and Q are presented in the above table. The ratio of cost of item P to cost of item Q is 3:4. Discount is calculated as the difference between the marked price and the selling price. The profit percentage is calculated as the ratio of the difference between selling price and cost, to the cost The discount on item Q as a percentage of its marked price, is _________
(A)	25
(B)	12.5
(C)	10
(D)	5

Q.8	There are five bags each containing identical sets of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is picked from each bag. The probability that at least two chocolates are identical is____
(A)	0.3024
(B)	0.4235
(C)	0.6976
(D)	0.8125

Q.9	Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two conclusions I and II. Statement 1: All bacteria are microorganisms. Statement 2: All pathogens are microorganisms. Conclusion I: Some pathogens are bacteria. Conclusion II: All pathogens are not bacteria. Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?
(A)	Only conclusion I is correct
(B)	Only conclusion II is correct
(C)	Either conclusion I or II is correct.
(D)	Neither conclusion I nor II is correct.

Q.10	Some people suggest anti-obesity measures (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep addressing the core problems that cause obesity: poverty and income inequality. Which one of the following statements summarizes the passage?
(A)	The proposed AOM addresses the core problems that cause obesity.
(B)	If obesity reduces, poverty will naturally reduce, since obesity causes poverty.
(C)	AOM are addressing the core problems and are likely to succeed.
(D)	AOM are addressing the problem superficially.

Computer Science and Information Technology

Q.1 – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.11 – Q.15 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.16 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.26 – Q.39 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.40 – Q.47 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.48 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	C	1	C	11	A; C	21	86 to 86	31	A	41	B	51	50 to 50
2	A	2	C	12	D	22	17 to 17	32	B	42	B; C; D	52	3 to 3
3	C	3	D	13	A	23	819 to 820 OR 205 to 205	33	A	43	C	53	17160 to 17160
4	A	4	C	14	A; C	24	-7.75 to -7.75	34	B	44	A; B; C	54	0.04 to 0.04
5	C	5	C	15	A; C	25	12 to 12	35	D	45	A; C	55	50 to 50
6	C	6	A	16	11 to 11	26	B	36	A	46	A; B; D
7	C	7	B	17	3 to 3	27	C	37	B	47	C
8	C	8	C	18	0.35 to 0.39	28	A	38	D	48	1023 to 1023
9	C OR D	9	C	19	65 to 65	29	A	39	A	49	50 to 52
10	D	10	D	20	0.25 to 0.25	30	C	40	A; C	50	6 to 6

Q.21	The autocorrelation function 𝑹(𝑟) of a wide-sense stationary random process 𝑿(𝒕) is shown in the figure. The average power of 𝑿(𝒕) is_______

Q.22	Consider a carrier signal which is amplitude modulated by a single-tone sinusoidal message signal with a modulation index of 𝟓𝟎%. If the carrier and one of the sidebands are suppressed in the modulated signal, the percentage of power saved (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________________

Q.23	A speech signal, band limited to 𝟒 kHz, is sampled at 𝟏. 𝟐𝟓 times the Nyquist rate. The speech samples, assumed to be statistically independent and uniformly distributed in the range −𝟓 V to +𝟓 V, are subsequently quantized in an 𝟖-bit uniform quantizer and then transmitted over a voice- grade AWGN telephone channel. If the ratio of transmitted signal power to channel noise power is 𝟐𝟔 dB, the minimum channel bandwidth required to ensure reliable transmission of the signal with arbitrarily small probability of transmission error (rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________ kHz.

Q.24	A 𝟒 kHz sinusoidal message signal having amplitude 𝟒 V is fed to a delta modulator (DM) operating at a sampling rate of 𝟑𝟐 kHz. The minimum step size required to avoid slope overload noise in the DM (rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________V.

Q.25	The refractive indices of the core and cladding of an optical fiber are 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 and 𝟏. 𝟒𝟖, respectively. The critical propagation angle, which is defined as the maximum angle that the light beam makes with the axis of the optical fiber to achieve the total internal reflection, (rounded off to two decimal places) is ____________________ degree.

Q.31	The propagation delays of the XOR gate, AND gate and multiplexer (MUX) in the circuit shown in the figure are 4ns, 2 ns and 1 ns, respectively. If all the inputs P, Q, R, S and T are applied simultaneously and held constant, the maximum propagation delay of the circuit is
(A)	3 ns
(B)	5 ns
(C)	6 ns
(D)	7 ns

Q.33	The electrical system shown in the figure converts input source current 𝒊_𝒔(𝒕) to output voltage v_o (t). Current i_L (t ) in the inductor and voltage v_C (t )across the capacitor are taken as the state variables, both assumed to be initially equal to zero, i.e., i_L (0)= 0 and v_C (0) = 0. The system is
(A)	completely state controllable as well as completely observable
(B)	completely state controllable but not observable
(C)	completely observable but not state controllable
(D)	neither state controllable nor observable

Latest Current Affairs 29 January 2022

GATE 2021 Electronics and Communication Engineering Previous Year Paper

Electronics and Communication Engineering (EC)

Latest Current Affairs 28 January 2022

GATE 2021 Chemistry Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-II Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-II Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Computer Science and Information Technology (CS, Set-2)

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-I Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Computer Science and Information Technology Engineering Section-I Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Computer Science and Information Technology

DSSSB Recruitment 2023

SAI Recruitment 2023

CBI Recruitment 2023

Bihar Judicial Services Recruitment 2023

PSPCL Recruitment

Hello!

Q.2
(A)	3
(B)	7
(C)	9
(D)	11
Q.3	The least number of squares that must be added so that the line P-Q becomes the line of symmetry is _________
(A)	4
(B)	3
(C)	6
(D)	7

Q.9	The number of minutes spent by two students, X and Y, exercising every day in a given week are shown in the bar chart above.The number of days in the given week in which one of the students spent a minimum of 10% more than the other student, on a given day, is
(A)	4
(B)	5
(C)	6
(D)	7

Q.10	Corners are cut from an equilateral triangle to produce a regular convex hexagon as shown in the figure above.The ratio of the area of the regular convex hexagon to the area of the original equilateral triangle is
(A)	2 : 3
(B)	3 : 4
(C)	4 : 5
(D)	5 : 6

Q.1	The vector function 𝐅 (𝐫) = −𝒙 𝒊̂ + 𝒚 𝖩̂ is defined over a circular arc C shown in the figure. The line integral of ∫_𝑪𝐅 (𝐫) 𝒅𝐫 is.
(A)	1/2
(B)	1/4
(C)	1/6
(D)	1/3

Q.9	For the circuit with an ideal OPAMP shown in the figure, VREF is fixed. If VOUT = 𝟏 volt for VIN = 𝟎. 𝟏 volt and VOUT = 𝟔 volt for VIN = 𝟏 volt, where VOUT is measured across RL connected at the output of this OPAMP, the value of 𝐑_𝐅⁄𝐑_𝐈𝐍 is
(A)	3.285
(B)	2.860
(C)	3.825
(D)	5.555

Q.10	Consider the circuit with an ideal OPAMP shown in the figure. Assuming \|𝐕_𝐈𝐍\| ≪ \|𝐕_𝐂𝐂\| and \|𝐕_𝐑𝐄𝐅\| ≪ \|𝐕_𝐂𝐂\|, the condition at which VOUT equals to zero is
(A)	V_IN ⁼V_REF
(B)	V_IN = 0.5 V_REF
(C)	V_IN ⁼2 V_REF
(D)	V_IN = 2 + V_REF

Q.14	The complete Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer function (𝒔)𝑯(𝒔) of a feedback control system is shown in the figure. If 𝑮(𝒔)𝑯(𝒔) has one zero in the right-half of the 𝒔-plane, the number of poles that the closed-loop system will have in the right-half of the 𝒔-plane is
(A)	0
(B)	1
(C)	4
(D)	3

Q.29	Consider the two-port network shown in the figure. The admittance parameters, in siemens, are
(A)	𝑦₁₁ = 2, 𝑦₁₂ = −4, 𝑦₂₁ = −4, 𝑦₂₂ = 2
(B)	𝑦₁₁ = 1, 𝑦₁₂ = −2, 𝑦₂₁ = −1, 𝑦₂₂ = 3
(C)	𝑦₁₁ = 2, 𝑦₁₂ = −4, 𝑦₂₁ = −1, 𝑦₂₂ = 2
(D)	𝑦₁₁ = 2, 𝑦₁₂ = −4, 𝑦₂₁ = −4, 𝑦₂₂ = 3

Q.35	The impedance matching network shown in the figure is to match a lossless line having characteristic impedance 𝒁_𝟎 = 𝟓𝟎 Ω with a load impedance 𝒁_𝐋. A quarter-wave line having a characteristic impedance 𝒁_𝟏 = 𝟕𝟓 Ω is connected to 𝒁_𝐋. Two stubs having characteristic impedance of 𝟕𝟓 Ω each are connected to this quarter-wave line. One is a short-circuited (S.C.) stub of length 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝝀 connected across PQ and the other one is an open-circuited (O.C.) stub of length 𝟎. 𝟓𝝀 connected across RS.The impedance matching is achieved when the real part of 𝒁_𝐋 is
(A)	112.5 Ω
(B)	75.0 Ω
(C)	50.0 Ω
(D)	33.3 Ω

Q.48	A unity feedback system that uses proportional-integral (PI) control is shown in the figure. The stability of the overall system is controlled by tuning the PI control parameters 𝑲_𝑷 and 𝑲_𝑰. The maximum value of 𝑲_𝑰 that can be chosen so as to keep the overall system stable or, in the worst case, marginally stable (rounded off to three decimal places) is____________

Q.49	A sinusoidal message signal having root mean square value of 𝟒 V and frequency of 𝟏 kHz is fed to a phase modulator with phase deviation constant𝟐 rad/volt. If the carrier signal is 𝒄(𝒕) = 𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬(𝟐𝝅𝟏𝟎^𝟔𝒕), the maximum instantaneous frequency of the phase modulated signal (rounded off to one decimal place) is _______Hz.

Q.50	Consider a superheterodyne receiver tuned to 𝟔𝟎𝟎 kHz. If the local oscillator feeds a 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 kHz signal to the mixer, the image frequency (in integer) is_____________ kHz.

Q.51	In a high school having equal number of boy students and girl students, 𝟕𝟓% of the students study Science and the remaining 𝟐𝟓% students study Commerce. Commerce students are two times more likely to be a boy than are Science students. The amount of information gained in knowing that a randomly selected girl student studies Commerce (rounded off to three decimal places) is ___________bits.

Q.2	The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.8	Five line segments of equal lengths, PR, PS, QS, QT and RT are used to form a star as shown in the figure above.The value of θ, in degrees, is_________
(A)	36
(B)	45
(C)	72
(D)	108

Q.15	The phase diagram of CO₂ is shown below: The correct statement(s) about CO2 is/are:
(A)	Below Tc, it does not exist in liquid state.
(B)	Above Tc, it does not exist in liquid state.
(C)	At Tc, it can exist in all three phases.
(D)	Above T1, it does not exist in solid state.

Q.9	The number of units of a product sold in three different years and the respective net profits are presented in the figure above. The cost/unit in Year 3 was ` 1, which was half the cost/unit in Year 2. The cost/unit in Year 3 was one-third of the cost/unit in Year 1. Taxes were paid on the selling price at 10%, 13% and 15% respectively for the three years. Net profit is calculated as the difference between the selling price and the sum of cost and taxes paid in that year. The ratio of the selling price in Year 2 to the selling price in Year 3 is .
A)	4:3
(B)	1:1
(C)	3:4
(D)	1:2

Q.4	A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines in the directions shown. The paper, after being punched in the final folded state as shown and unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look like____.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)