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Latest Current Affairs 01 February 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Economic Survey projects 8%-8.5% growth in 2022-23

The Economic Survey for 2021-22, tabled by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Lok Sabha, expects the GDP to grow by 9.2% this year and 8% to 8.5% in 2022-23, even as it expressed concerns about the implications of hardening inflation and energy prices. Growth in 2022-23 will be supported by widespread vaccine coverage, gains from supply-side reforms and easing of regulations, robust export growth, and availability of fiscal space to ramp up capital spending. The year ahead Is also well poised for a pick-up in private sector investment, with the financial system in a good position to provide support to the revival of the economy, the Survey projected. The Survey’s GDP growth estimate for the coming year is based on the assumption that there will be no further debilitating pandemic-related economic disruption, monsoon will be normal, withdrawal of global liquidity by major central banks will be broadly orderly, oil prices will be in the range of US$70-$75/bbl, and global supply chain disruptions will steadily ease over the course of the year. The country’s investment to GDP ratio had hit 29.6% in 2021-22, the highest level in seven years, the Survey explained, attributing this capital formation to the government’s policy thrust on quickening the virtuous cycle of growth via capex and infrastructure spending. While private investment recovery is still at a nascent stage, there are many signals whichh indicate that India is poised for stronger investment, it observed, citing record corporate profits in recent quarters and high mobilisation of risk capital by firms.

Assembly polls: ECI allows public meetings of up to 1,000 people

The Election Commission of India (ECI) on Monday allowed public meetings of political parties and candidates of all phases of the Assembly elections with up to 1,000 people, after reviewing the COVID-19 situation in the poll-bound states. The ECI had allowed public meetings for candidates of the first two phases only, with up to 500 people. The three-member commission reviewed the COVID-19 situation in the election-going Goa, Manipur, Punjab, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh on Monday with officials of the Health Ministry and the States. All the State Chief Secretaries informed the commission about reports of COVID-19 infection either plateauing out or tapering as on date. They also said that the positivity rate is showing a decline, with the number of hospitalisation cases also registering a declining trend. The State officers, however, said that COVID protocol precautions need to be continued to be observed so that no undue spurt takes place due to intense public contact because of heightened political activity, the ECI said in a statement. The ECI extended the ban on road shows, vehicle rallies and processions till February 11.

Gurugram namaz case: SC agrees to immediately list contempt plea against Haryana officials

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Monday agreed to immediately list for hearing a petition to initiate contempt action against Haryana authorities for not reining in hooligans who have created an atmosphere of communal hatred and terror for worshippers offering Friday prayers in Gurugram. The petition, filed by former Rajya Sabha MP Mohammad Adeeb, was mentioned by senior advocate Indira Jaising for urgent hearing. I will look into it and put it up before an appropriate Bench immediately, the CJI, who was heading a three-judge Bench, addressed Jaising. Muslims offer Friday prayers at an open site, in Gurugram, on December 17, 2021. File image. The petition condemned the inaction of the Haryana officials in violation of a Supreme Court judgment of 2018, which mandated that authorities should not be either silent spectators or tolerate communal violence and should use the law against hate crimes. The petition said the malicious attacks and false narratives on the Friday prayers were made through social media platforms. It said the prayers were held in the open due to compulsion. However, its conduct was portrayed as illegal and some sort of encroachment.

Punjab Assembly election: Amarinder terms Rahul’s claims of deciding CM face with inputs from ground ‘farce’

Punjab Lok Congress (PLC) chief Captain Amarinder Singh (retd.) on Monday dubbed former Congress president Rahul Gandhi’s claims of deciding the chief ministerial face with inputs from the ground as farce and just theatrics. After filing his nomination papers from Patiala Urban, Capt. Amarinder said that as per procedure, people elected their MLAs and then the CLP elected the chief minister and so all this talk is just drama. Asked to comment on farmers’ decision to contest the polls, he stated that it was their right to do so. He personally had alwayss supported them, he stressed. He pointed out that his government had announced jobs and ₹5 lakhs to the kin of each of the farmers who died during the agitation against the Central farm laws. Capt. Amarinder exuded confidence that the PLC-BJP-SAD (Sanyukt) alliance would form the next government in Punjab. He observed that the decision to allow some of the PLC candidates to contest on the BJP symbol was taken keeping in mind the voter demographics. While four PLC candidates will contest on the BJP symbol in urban segments, two of their candidates will fight on the PLC symbol in the rural constituencies. Hitting out at Punjab Congress president Navjot Singh Sidhu, Capt. Amarinder predicted an abysmal defeat for the former from Amritsar East. With 38% of the voters in Amritsar East being Hindus and 32% SCs, his defeat is certain. The BJP has fielded a strong candidate from the constituency, he added.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

African Union says suspends Burkina Faso

African Union says suspends Burkina Faso after a coup by the military junta. The military junta though informed on January 31st that it had restored the country’s constitution and appointed the coup’s leader as head of state for a transitional period

Colombia demands removal from the ’20 hunger hotspots’ list

Colombia demands removal from the ’20 hunger hotspots’ list by UN agencies. The report published by the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Food Programme stated that around 7.3 million people in Colombia are food insecure and require food assistance in 2022.

Russia responds in writing to US ahead of Blinken-Lavrov call on Ukraine crisis

The United States has received a written response from Moscow after it sent its own written answers following face-to-face meetings on the ongoing Ukraine crisis, the latest development in the ongoing diplomatic campaign aimed at deterring a potential Russian invasion of the country. But the Kremlin said Tuesday that Russia had not sent its main reply to the US over Russia’s security concerns, saying there had been a mix-up over the issue. There was a mix-up, Kremlin spokesperson Dmitry Peskov said in a conference call with reporters when asked to confirm the US had received a formal Russian response to a document delivered last week by Washington. It [Russian correspondence] regarded a different matter. The main reply on this issue hasn’t been handed over, it’s still being prepared. Moscow’s response comes days after Washington submitted its own documents to Moscow and ahead of a planned phone call between US Secretary of State Antony Blinken and Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov Tuesday.It would be unproductive to negotiate in public, so we’ll leave it up to Russia if they want to discuss their response, the spokesperson said. We remain fully committed to dialogue to address these issues and will continue to consult closely with our Allies and partners, including Ukraine.

Oil spill pollutes nature reserve in Ecuadoran Amazon.

An oil spill in eastern Ecuador has reached a nature reserve and polluted a river that supplies water to indigenous communities, the country’s environmental ministry said Monday. Nearly two hectares (five acres) of a protected area of the Cayambe-Coca national park have been contaminated, as well as the Coca river – one of the biggest in the Ecuadoran Amazon, the ministry said in a statement. The park of some 400,000 hectares is home to a wide variety of protected animals and holds important water reserves. Heavy rains caused a mudslide in the eastern Napo province on Friday, during which a rock struck and ruptured a pipeline owned by private company OCP Ecuador. Neither the government nor OCP Ecuador have quantified the extent of the spill, but the environmental authority has described it as a major pollution event.

Latest Current Affairs 31 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Lunar New Year 2022.

The Lunar New Year 2022 will be observed on February 1, 2022. The Lunar New Year is also known as Chinese New Year and it begins with the rising of the second new moon after the winter solstice on December 21st. The Chinese New Year is associated with the 12 animals representing the 12 zodiac signs. The year 2022 is the year of tiger.

Budget session 2022 begins

The budget session of the Parliament began on January 31, 2022 with the address by President Ram Nath Kovind in a joint sitting of the two houses- Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The budget session will conclude on April 8th. It will take place in two parts, the first of which will conclude on February 11, followed by a break till March 13.

India’s GDP projected to grow by 8-8.5 percent in FY 2023

India’s GDP is projected to grow by 8-8.5 percent in Fiscal Year 2022-23, as per Economic Survey 2021-22. The Economic Survey 2022 was tabled by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Lok Sabha. The survey report has been prepared by Principal Economic Adviser Sanjeev Sanyal and his team of advisors.

BharatPe Firm begins Independent Audit

BharatPe has started an independent audit of the company’s internal processes and systems. This comes a week after BharatPe’s co-founder Ashneer Grover took a voluntary leave till March-end after a controversy over an audio clip, in which he was heard verbally abusing a Kotak Mahindra Bank employee. His wife Madhuri Jain Grover, who is the Head of Controls, has also gone on leave.

Check PKL 8 League Stats and Records 2022

Check out the Season 8 PKL Updated and latest 2022 stats, player records, tackle points, top raiders and defenders. Pawan Sehrawat of Bengaluru Bulls is PKL 2021-22 season’s top raider so far with 168 successful raids, followed by Jaipur Pink Panther’s Arjun Deshwal with 138 successful raids and Bengal Warriors skipper Maninder Singh with 135 successful raids. Pawan Sehrawat also has the highest player points with 214 Raider points

Vistara cancels several flights for February

Vistara airlines has cancelled several flights for February month and many more have been rescheduled due to low demand. The cancellation and rescheduling of flights have affected several passengers. Addressing one such complaint, Vistara Spokesperson informed on January 31st that the airlines will offer a waiver of change fee for one-time rescheduling on all direct bookings until March 31. The spokesperson said that after a sharp decline in demand for air travel, due to an increase in COVID-19 cases and restrictions imposed by various state governments, the airlines is observing a marginal increase in traffic in February in comparison to January.

Road Safety World Series 2022 to be hosted by four venues across India

The Road Safety World Series will be played across four venues in India this year. The tournament organisers are looking to host the series in Indore, Hyderabad, Lucknow and Vishakhapatnam. The tournament that features cricket legends from across the world will kick start in the last week of February. The series will be hosted between February and March. The matches will be held in Lucknow only after March 10 after the culmination of the Uttar Pradesh assembly elections 2022. The inaugural edition of the Road Safety World Series had witnessed participation from teams from India, Sri Lanka, England, South Africa and West Indies. India legends had defeated Sri Lanka legends by 14 runs in the final to win the series last year.

Delhi airport implements one-hand bag rule.

The Delhi airport has implemented a one-hand bag rule, as per which a domestic passenger is only allowed to carry one piece of luggage or handbag as cabin luggage. The rule has been implemented with some exceptions. The exclusions include ladies handbag, overcoat or wrap, rug or blanket, umbrella, walking stick, camera or binoculars, infant’s feed or carrying basket or a reasonable amount of reading material or a gift item purchased from duty-free shops and a laptop bag. The one-bag rule has been enforced as passengers carrying 2-3 hand baggage create congestion at the security checkpoint and increase security screening time, resulting in inconvenience for passengers.

Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari elevated as Chief Justice of Madras High Court

The Supreme Court Collegium recommended the elevation of Justice Munishwar Nath Bhandari, Judge of Madras High Court as the Chief Justice of the court during its meeting on December 14, 2021 and January 29, 2022. The SC Collegium has also approved the proposal for the elevation of seven advocates as Judges in the Andhra Pradesh High Court. The advocates who are being elevated as Judges include Venkateswarlu Nimmagadda, Gannamaneni Ramakrishna Prasad, Vaddiboyana Sujatha, Konakanti Sreenivasa Reddy, Satti Subba Reddy, Tarlada Rajasekhar Rao and Ravi Cheemalapati. The Collegium also approved the proposal to elevate three advocates as judges in the Madhya Pradesh High Court. The advocates include Maninder Singh Bhatti, Milind Ramesh Phadke and Dwarka Dhish Bansal. The Collegium also approved the elevation of advocates Biraja Prasanna Satapathy, V Narasingh, Raman Murahari and Sanjay Kumar Mishra as Judges in the Orissa High Court.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Roger Federer slips to 30th rank, hits 21-year low, Djokovic retains world no.1

Roger Federer, 20-time Grand Slam champion has slipped down 13 places to the 30th position in the latest ATP Rankings published on January 31, 2022, which is his lowest rank in 21 years. The last time Federer was ranked this low in ATP Rankings was way back in January 2001 when he was just 19 years old and yet to win his first tour title. The 40-year-old is currently ranked 30 with 1,665 points. He slipped down 13 places after missing the Australian Open 2022. Federer gave the tournament a miss as he is still in recovery mode from his knee surgery last year. He had last competed at Wimbledon 2021. Novak Djokovic continues to rule as world no. 1 for the 358th week. He is followed by Russia’s Daniil Medvedev. Rafael Nadal, who recently won his record-breaking 21st Grand Slam title, continues to remain at the 5th position.

UNSC to meet on Russia-Ukraine conflict today as US intends to highlight mounting tensions

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is set to meet on Monday to discuss the Ukraine conflict with Norway chairing the council. According to TASS News, in the upcoming meeting, the United States plans on underscoring the situation near Ukraine to the council. The UNSC meeting comes after US Ambassador to the United Nations (UN) Linda Thomas-Greenfield confirmed that the mission had requested an open UNSC meeting to discuss the situation around Ukraine. This comes as the West accuses Russia of ramping up its military presence at the Ukraine border. The US envoy to the UN had also said that she was looking forward to direct and purposeful discussions on 31 January, according to Sputnik News. In a statement on Thursday, Thomas-Greenfield said, ‘Today, after weeks of close consultation with Ukraine and partners on the Security Council, the United States called an open meeting of the Security Council to discuss a matter of crucial importance to international peace and security: Russia’s threatening behaviour against Ukraine and the build-up of Russian troops on Ukraine’s borders and in Belarus’, as per the report.

Biden Calls for Release of US Navy Veteran Hostage in Afghanistan.

President Joe Biden on Sunday called for the release of U.S. Navy veteran Mark Frerichs, who was taken hostage in Afghanistan nearly two years ago. Frerichs, a civil engineer and contractor from Lombard, Illinois, was kidnapped in January 2020 from the capital of Kabul. He is believed to be in the custody of the Taliban-linked Haqqani network. Threatening the safety of Americans or any innocent civilians is always unacceptable, and hostage-taking is an act of particular cruelty and cowardice, President Joe Biden said in a statement to mark the second anniversary of the kidnapping on Monday. The Taliban must immediately release Mark before it can expect any consideration of its aspirations for legitimacy. This is not negotiable. The statement came as Afghanistan faces a thorny humanitarian crisis following the U.S. withdrawal in August. The Taliban quickly seized control of much of the country and the foreign aid that been flowing into the country largely halted, putting at risk the lives of millions of Afghans who could starve or freeze to death.

Latest Current Affairs 30 January 2022

NATIONAL NEWS

Modi-Netanyahu signed deal for Pegasus spyware purchase in 2017, amended U.N. vote: New York Times

A new political storm erupted over an investigation by the New York Times that said the Indian government purchased Israeli NSO group’s Pegasus software in July 2017 in order to carry out targeted surveillance on citizens, claiming that high-level visits by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and former Israel Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu and even a U.N. vote on a Palestinian organisation was part of a larger backroom deal. The revelations that come just two days before the budget session of Parliament has provided fresh ammunition to the Opposition parties to corner the government on the issue. The Opposition parties attacked the government on Saturday, accusing it of misleading parliament and the Supreme Court on the issue, while the Congress said the alleged use of spyware on Opposition leaders, Supreme Court judges, journalists and activists was an act of treason, and said they would raise the issue in the upcoming budget session as well. Prime Minister Narendra Modi takes a stroll with his Israeli counterpart Benjamin Netanyahu at the Olga Beach near Hadera on Thursday In the report published on January 28, the New York Times said that ties between Mr. modi and Mr. Netanyahu had warmed because of their agreement for the sale of a package of sophisticated weapons and intelligence gear worth roughly $2 billion — with Pegasus and a missile system as the center-pieces.

SBI suspends circular on recruitment of pregnant women

State Bank of India (SBI) has suspended its revised instructions regarding recruitment of pregnant women candidates after criticism by certain section of the media. In view of the public sentiments, SBI has decided to keep the revised instructions regarding recruitment of pregnant women candidates in abeyance and continue with the existing instructions in the matter, SBI said in a statement. SBI said that the revised guidelines were intended to provide clarity on various health parameters where instructions were not clear or were very old. File image. SBI said it has recently reviewed the various ‘Fitness Standards for Recruitment’ in the bank, including norms for Pregnant Women candidates. The revised guidelines were intended to provide clarity on various health parameters where instructions were not clear or were very old. In some sections of the media, the revision in norms in this regard has been interpreted as discriminatory against women, it said. SBI has always been proactive towards the care and empowerment of its women employees who now constitute around 25% of our workforce, it added. During the COVID period, as per Government instructions, pregnant women employees were exempted from attending office and allowed to Work From Home, the bank said.

BSF, Pakistan Rangers revive talk After three years, the border guarding forces of India and Pakistan have revived sector commander-level talks.

The Border Security Force (BSF) and the its counterpart-the Pakistan Rangers have held two meetings in the past six months. The recent one was held on January 5. A senior government official said that both meetings were on the request of Pakistan and that the first one was on July 24, 2021. The talks between the sector commanders were last held in August 2018. After 2017, the Director-General talks between the two forces have not taken place. The sector commander-level talks were led by a Deputy Inspector-General rank officer in the BSF and a Brigadier rank officer of the Pakistan Rangers. After the January 5 meeting, held at the octroi outpost In Jammu, the BSF said in a statement that both sides agreed to conduct such meetings at regular intervals for better understanding and to maintain peace and tranquility on border. It added, BSF also strictly objected to the drone operationss carried out by Pakistan regularly violating the IB [International Boundary]. In 2021, the BSF spotted more than 70 drones along the Pakistan border and two of them were shot down. Dropping of arms and ammunition through unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) is one of the biggest challenges being faced by the BSF along the border. At the meeting, BSF delegation emphasised on the infiltration attempts from the Pakistan side and regular recovery of arms, ammunition and narcotics on the international border. The official said the talks were revived to also ensure accountability. If the senior officers communicate, then it helps in resolving many issues and any wrong can be pointed out, he noted.

No anti-incumbency against Congress, says CM Charanjit Singh Channi Ahead of the Punjab Assembly elections, Chief Minister Charanjit Singh Channi, who was among the Congress leaders to revolt against former Chief Minister Captain (retd.) Amarinder Singh, asserts that there is no anti-incumbency against the Congress in Punjab. In an exclusive interview with The Hindu, Mr. Channi said the party has decided to announce a Chief Ministerial candidate for the upcoming elections because the people of Punjab wanted it. Taking credit for taking action against powerful Akali leader Bikram Singh Majithia, Mr. Channi says he has launched ‘Mission Clean’ to curb sand, drug, and liquor mafia in the State. He said that after becoming Chief Minister, he had constituted a new Special Investigation Team (SIT) to probe sacrilege cases. He said the action was also taken against powerful people including Mr. Majithia, who he alleged had been sheltered by former Chief Minister Captain Amarinder Singh for four and half years. Hitting out at the Opposition, Mr. Channi said these parties were levelling allegations against him on sand mining etc. because they are frustrated and don’t have anything to use against me as I had done such work in just four months which they couldn’t do in decades.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Chance for Philippines to script history, Chinese Taipei too hopeful

A win away from scripting history, Philippines will do all they can in their Women’s Asian Cup quarterfinal match against an equally determined Chinese Taipei, in Pune on Sunday.

China starts favourites against Vietnam

Chasing their first title in 16 years, Shui Qingxia’s China will expect nothing less than victory when they face Vietnam in the Women’s Asian Cup quarter-finals in Navi Mumbai on Sunday.

Japan start favourites in quarterfinals against COVID-hit Thailand

Defending champions Japan will fancy their chances against a COVID-hit Thailand team that has asserted it will be no pushovers when the two sides meet in a quarterfinal match of the Women’s Asian Cup in Navi Mumbai on Sunday.

Rafael Nadal wins Australian Open for record 21st Grand Slam

Rafael Nadal roared back from two sets down to win a titanic five-set duel with Daniil Medvedev and claim a record 21st Grand Slam men’s title in the Australian Open final on Sunday. The Spanish great looked dead and buried as the Russian world number two carved out a two-set lead but Nadal surged home for one of his mightiest comeback wins 2-6, 6-7 (5/7), 6-4, 6-4, 6-4 in 5hr 24min on Rod Laver Arena. Nadal came out on top in the physical war of attrition to move ahead of era rivals Novak Djokovic and Roger Federer on the all-time list of men’s major winners. Djokovic missed his chance to improve on his nine Australian Open wins when he was deported over vaccination issues on the eve of the tournament, while Federer is injured. It was one of the 35-year-old Spanish warrior’s greatest title victories in his 29th Grand Slam final winning his second Australian Open, 13 years after his first in 2009. Nadal also became only the fourth man to win each of the four Grand Slams twice and the third oldest man in the Open Era to win a Grand Slam title, behind Ken Rosewall and Federer.

GATE 2021 Ecology and Evolution Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	The people were at the demonstration were from all sections of society.
(A)	whose
(B)	which
(C)	who
(D)	whom

Q.3	For a regular polygon having 10 sides, the interior angle between the sides of the polygon, in degrees, is:
(A)	396
(B)	324
(C)	216
(D)	144

Q.4	Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by (11¹³+1)?
(A)	11²⁶+1
(B)	11³³+1
(C)	11³⁹+1
(D)	11⁵²+1

Q.5	Oasis is to sand as island is to___________ Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A)	Stone
(B)	Land
(C)	Water
(D)	Mountain

6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	The importance of sleep is often overlooked by students when they are preparing for exams. Research has consistently shown that sleep deprivation greatly reduces the ability to recall the material learnt. Hence, cutting down on sleep to study longer hours can be counterproductive.Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference from the above passage?
(A)	Sleeping well alone is enough to prepare for an exam. Studying has lesser benefit.
(B)	Students are efficient and are not wrong in thinking that sleep is a waste of time.
(C)	If a student is extremely well prepared for an exam, he needs little or no sleep.
(D)	To do well in an exam, adequate sleep must be part of the preparation.

Q.8	Let X be a continuous random variable denoting the temperature measured. The range of temperature is [0, 100] degree Celsius and let the probability density function of X be f(x) = 0.01 for 0 ≤ X ≤ 100. The mean of X is ____________
(A)	2.5
(B)	5.0
(C)	25.0
(D)	50.0

Q.10	Seven cars P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are parked in a row not necessarily in that order. The cars T and U should be parked next to each other. The cars S and V also should be parked next to each other, whereas P and Q cannot be parked next to each other. Q and S must be parked next to each other. R is parked to the immediate right of V. T is parked to the left of U.Based on the above statements, the only INCORRECT option given below is:
(A)	There are two cars parked in between Q and V.
(B)	Q and R are not parked together.
(C)	V is the only car parked in between S and R.
(D)	Car P is parked at the extreme end.

Ecology and Evolution (EY)

– Q.16 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	Animal species can vary in whether dispersal is more likely among male offspring (male-biased), female offspring (female-biased), or similar between the sexes. Dispersal in birds and mammals is most commonly
(A)	female-biased and male-biased, respectively.
(B)	female-biased and similar between the sexes, respectively.
(C)	male-biased and female-biased, respectively.
(D)	similar between the sexes, and female-biased respectively.

Q.2	Of the following, which one is the most direct measure of Darwinian fitness?
(A)	Adult body size
(B)	Lifetime reproductive success
(C)	Lifespan
(D)	Maximum sprint speed

Q.3	The marginal value theorem in optimal foraging theory examines which one of the following foraging decisions?
(A)	How long to stay in a patch of food
(B)	How to allocate time to foraging versus reproduction
(C)	How to minimise risk while foraging
(D)	How to select between different food types within a patch

Q.4	Which one of the following shows the highest degree of endemism?
(A)	Birds of the Himalayas
(B)	Mammals of central India
(C)	Frogs of the Western Ghats
(D)	Trees of the Gangetic basin

Q.5	Which one of the following Mendelian disorders is influenced by diet?
(A)	Cystic fibrosis
(B)	Haemophilia
(C)	Phenylketonuria
(D)	Thalassemia

Q.6	Which one of the following mammalian DNA regions exhibits the highest level of sequence variation?
(A)	Homeobox transcription factor binding domain
(B)	Hox genes
(C)	Mitochondrial D-loop region
(D)	Histone protein-encoding genes

Q.7	Which one of the following makes a species most vulnerable to extinction?
(A)	Low density throughout a large geographic range and in several habitat types
(B)	Locally common in a restricted geographic range and in several habitat types
(C)	Low density throughout a large geographic range and in a specific habitat type
(D)	Locally common in a restricted geographic range and in a specific habitat type

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Q.9	Two sister species of bulbuls have non-overlapping distributions. One is distributed in India and the other in Sri Lanka. Which one of the following modes of speciation is the most parsimonious explanation for this pattern?
(A)	Allopatric speciation
(B)	Sympatric speciation
(C)	Parapatric speciation
(D)	Peripatric speciation

Q.10	In an Arctic Ocean food chain, killer whales feed on sea otters, which feed on sea urchins, which in turn feed on kelp (a type of seaweed). An increase in the abundance of killer whales causes sea otter abundance to decline, leading to higher sea urchin densities, which in turn reduces the abundance of kelp. Which one of the following terms describes this phenomenon?
(A)	Trophic cascade
(B)	Prey switching
(C)	Competitive exclusion
(D)	Productivity-stability relationship

Q.11	Listed below are hypotheses for the evolution of monogamy. Which one of these is NOT based on the concept of individual selection?
(A)	Food provisioning by both parents is crucial for offspring survival.
(B)	Biparental protection from predators is essential for offspring survival.
(C)	Females are solitary and dispersed, therefore, males cannot effectively mate- guard more than one female at a time.
(D)	Forming monogamous pairs allows individuals to regulate their reproductive output and ensure the survival of the species.

Q.12	Rising temperature due to global warming can stimulate decomposition of organic matter and release CO2 into the atmosphere. This is an example of
(A)	positive feedback.
(B)	negative feedback.
(C)	environmental heterogeneity.
(D)	environmental stochasticity.

Q.13	Ant-mimic spiders of the genus Myrmarachne are known for which one of the following evolutionary phenomena?
(A)	Aposematism
(B)	Aggressive mimicry
(C)	Batesian mimicry
(D)	Muellerian mimicry

Q.14	The probability of local extinction increases with body size when there is forest degradation, loss, and fragmentation. Consider the following hypotheses for the vulnerability of larger-bodied species:Larger-bodied species tend to have smaller population sizes.Larger-bodied species require larger territories/home ranges.Larger-bodied species have higher absolute resource and energy requirements.Which one of the following options correctly lists all potential reasons for the vulnerability of larger-bodied species?
(A)	P and Q only
(B)	P only
(C)	P and R only
(D)	P, Q, and R

Q.15	Grazing by large mammalian herbivores can have a strong influence on ecosystem structure, and can cause ecosystems to transition between alternative states over decades. Which one of the following transitions can result from grazing?
(A)	Mangrove to coral reef
(B)	Terai grassland to alpine meadow
(C)	Savanna to grassland
(D)	Tropical rainforest to arid desert

Q.16	The effective population size of a sexually reproducing, diploid, animal species will be highest when the sex ratio (number of reproducing males / number of reproducing females) is
(A)	1
(B)	0.5
(C)	1.5
(D)	2

Q. 17 – Q. 22 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.17	The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by which one (or more) of the following?
(A)	Charles Darwin
(B)	Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(C)	Alfred Russel Wallace
(D)	Georges Cuvier

Q.18	According to the MacArthur – Wilson equilibrium model of island biogeography, which one (or more) of the following factors affect(s) extinction rate on an island?
(A)	Interspecific competition
(B)	Island area
(C)	Intraguild predation
(D)	Species identity

Q.19	Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for natural selection to shape limb lengths in a population?
(A)	Individuals in a population vary in the length of their limbs.
(B)	Limb length increases in individuals with repeated use.
(C)	Offspring inherit the limb lengths of their parents.
(D)	Limb length influences running speed and thus, their ability to survive and reproduce.

Q.20	Which of the following is/are possible reason(s) for linkage disequilibrium between alleles at two loci?
(A)	Low recombination rate between loci
(B)	High recombination rate between loci
(C)	Natural selection
(D)	Polyploidy

Q.21	Metabolism includes the processes of catabolism and anabolism. Select the anabolic process(es).
(A)	Growth
(B)	Storage
(C)	Respiration
(D)	Excretion

Q.22	SARS-CoV-2 is hypothesised to have jumped from bats to pangolins before infecting humans. Which one (or more) of the following methods can be effectively used for testing this hypothesis?
(A)	Comparative genomics
(B)	DNA fingerprinting
(C)	Phylogenetics
(D)	Transgenesis

Q. 23 – Q. 25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.23	A sample of heights of trees follows a normal distribution. In this sample, 68% of height measurements are expected to fall in the interval:mean ± standard deviation. (Round off to the nearest integer.)

Q.24

A bird species has an annual survival probability of 0.30. While sampling the population of this species, the probability that any individual is captured in a given year is 0.40. A bird is captured, tagged and released in Year one. The probability that it is re-captured in Year two is _________. (Round off to two decimal places.)

Q.25

Sex ratio at birth is biased towards females in a mongoose population. If the probability of having a daughter is 0.7 in this population, and if sex determination of each offspring is an independent event, then the probability that a female with a litter of four offspring has at least one son is____ . (Round off to two decimal places.)

Q.26 – Q.46 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.27	Homing pigeons can perceive the pattern of polarized light in the sky (which depends on the position of the sun relative to the earth). This enables homing pigeons to orient and navigate home if released in any location. One can reset their biological clock in captivity by artificially controlling the light conditions. If you acclimatize a pigeon to a new lighting cycle with “sunrise” at 6 PM and “sunset” at 6 AM, instead of 6 AM sunrise and 6 PM sunset that naturally occurs, the bird will be clock- shifted by 12 hours within a few days. Suppose you release two birds, a normal bird (N) and a 12-hr clock-adjusted bird (C), 30 km East of their home at 6 AM. In which direction will each bird fly?
(A)	Both birds will fly West.
(B)	Both birds will fly East.
(C)	Bird N will fly West, bird C will fly East.
(D)	Bird C will fly West, bird N will fly East.

Q.28	Demographic stochasticity introduces random variation in population growth because
(A)	changing weather conditions from year-to-year can result in good and bad years for reproduction.
(B)	the discrete nature of births and deaths introduces uncertainty in population parameters.
(C)	per capita birth rate in a population decreases with an increase in population density.
(D)	of predictable time lags between change in population size and reproduction.

Q.30	A researcher measures the abundance of a tree species in 10 plots in each of two habitats. She tests for differences in abundance between the two habitats using an ANOVA. The results from the ANOVA are as follows:Mean abundance in habitat A = 30 treesMean abundance in habitat B = 50 treesF-statistic (on 1 and 18 degrees of freedom) = 6.04P-value = 0.02Here, a P-value of 0.02 means that
(A)	repeating this study 100 times will provide a result of “no difference” in abundance between the two habitats with a probability of 0.02.
(B)	there is a 2% chance that abundances differ between habitats.
(C)	the probability that an F-statistic with a value of 6.04 or greater falls within the F-distribution for 1 and 18 degrees of freedom is 0.02.
(D)	there is a very large difference in the abundance of the species between the two habitats because the P-value is less than 0.05.

Q.33	Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the tree of life?
(A)	Ctenophora is more closely related to Cnidaria than it is to Echinodermata.
(B)	Porifera is more closely related to Ctenophora than it is to Echinodermata.
(C)	Arthropoda is more closely related to Tardigrada than it is to Annelida.
(D)	Arthropoda is more closely related to Mollusca than it is to Nematoda.

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Q.35	Which one of the following represents the correct chronological order of geological periods (from oldest to most recent)?
(A)	Devonian  Jurassic  Cambrian  Neogene
(B)	Devonian  Cambrian  Neogene  Jurassic
(C)	Cambrian  Devonian  Jurassic  Neogene
(D)	Cambrian  Neogene  Devonian  Jurassic

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Q.40	Consider 1000 terrestrial species that have geographical ranges of different shapes and sizes. If the Earth were entirely covered by land (no oceans), and the ranges of these species were overlaid on the surface of the Earth at random, which one of the following patterns is expected?
(A)	Highest species richness per unit area in the tropics
(B)	Highest species richness per unit area at higher latitudes
(C)	Roughly equal species richness per unit area at all latitudes
(D)	Geographically restricted species found only near the poles

Q.42	Behavioural ecologists exploring a newly discovered island find 20 new species of terrestrial lizards. Males of these species have a dorsal ridge that varies in size from large in some species to entirely lacking in others. The scientists hypothesise that dorsal ridges in males evolved by runaway sexual selection stemming from sensory bias in females. Which one of the following would provide the necessary evidence to support this hypothesis?
(A)	Females of species in which males lack this trait are attracted to males that have a large dorsal ridge artificially attached to them.
(B)	Males without a ridge are more likely to attract females of all species than males with a ridge.
(C)	Males with a larger dorsal ridge win more fights and get more mates than males with a smaller ridge.
(D)	Females of species whose males have a dorsal ridge do not show a preference for this trait.

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Q.46	The IUCN Red List provides information on the conservation status of different species. Match the species to their status in the table below.
	Species	Status
Tiger	Near threatened (NT)
Great Indian Bustard	Extinct (EX)
Passenger Pigeon	Critically endangered (CR)
Blackbuck	Endangered (EN)
(A)	Tiger: NT; Great Indian Bustard: EX; Passenger Pigeon: EN; Blackbuck: CR
(B)	Tiger: EN; Great Indian Bustard: CR; Passenger Pigeon: EX; Blackbuck: NT
(C)	Tiger: EN; Great Indian Bustard: CR; Passenger Pigeon: NT; Blackbuck: EX
(D)	Tiger: NT; Great Indian Bustard: EN; Passenger Pigeon: EX; Blackbuck: CR

Q.47 – Q.52 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.47	A gene duplication event in an organism results in two copies of a gene. Which one (or more) of the following outcomes is/are possible for the duplicated copy?
(A)	It retains the original function.
(B)	It acquires a new function.
(C)	It loses function.
(D)	It gets translated but not transcribed.

Q.48	The egg-laying mammal, platypus, is known for its ability to inject venom by stabbing with spurs on its hindlimbs. Which one (or more) of the following statements supports the hypothesis that venom in this species is used for intrasexual competition?
(A)	Only males produce venom.
(B)	Venom is secreted only during the breeding season.
(C)	Venom is only effective against invertebrates.
(D)	Venom is ineffective against conspecifics.

Q.49	All octopi dream every night, and sometimes change colour while dreaming. A student hypothesises that octopi change colour only when they dream about the food they ate that day. To test this hypothesis, the student conducts an experiment with two treatments that are randomly ordered, and separated by 2 days. In one treatment, she places 10 octopi in individual tanks in captivity and provides each one with a large crab to eat during the day. She then records the dream state colour of these octopi that night. Which one (or more) of the following would be an appropriate NEGATIVE control to test this hypothesis?
(A)	Provide the same 10 octopi with the same food source (crab), and then record their colour that night when they are dreaming.
(B)	Provide the same 10 octopi with a new food object (e.g. sea stars) and record the colour that night when they are dreaming.
(C)	Provide the same 10 octopi with a non-food object (e.g. rock), and record their colour that night when they are dreaming.
(D)	Provide 10 squid with the same food source (crab) and record the colour that night when they are dreaming.

Q.50	Which one (or more) of the following conservation actions would NOT benefit native species?
(A)	Planting Prosopis juliflora in the Thar desert to reduce erosion.
(B)	Stringing rope ladders across roads to connect the canopy for facilitating the movement of arboreal animals in the Western Ghats.
(C)	Increasing lights at night on beaches in Odisha to improve visibility for hatching sea turtles.
(D)	Growing native species in urban gardens of Bengaluru to attract pollinators.

Q.51	In cooperatively breeding animals, offspring from one year stay back and help their parents to rear offspring born in successive breeding episodes. Kin selection has been used to explain such helping behaviour. Which of the following result(s) support(s) the kin selection hypothesis?
(A)	Helpers provide more care in populations where extra-pair paternity is low, than in populations where extra-pair paternity is high.
(B)	Individuals who choose to stay and help are more likely to inherit their parents’ territory than individuals who stay but do not help.
(C)	Individuals who choose to disperse from their natal territory rather than stay and help have a lower survival because of predation during dispersal, when compared with individuals who stay and help.
(D)	Helpers whose parents continue to form the breeding pair provide more care than helpers whose parents are replaced by a new breeding pair.

Q.52	Which one (or more) of the following genetic processes is/are likely to be affected by the disruption of codon usage bias in highly expressed genes?
(A)	Translation rate
(B)	Translation accuracy
(C)	Transcription rate
(D)	Transcription accuracy

Q. 53 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.53

Male beetles are of two phenotypes: horned and hornless. Horned males mate with twice as many females compared with hornless males. But females mated to hornless males produce one-third more offspring. The reproductive success of a male (number of offspring fathered) is the number of females he mates with multiplied by the number of offspring each female produces. The reproductive success of horned males is_______times that of hornless males. (Round off to one decimal place.)

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Q.55

At a locus with two alleles A1 and A2, the genotype A1A1 produces white flowers, A2A2 produces red flowers, and A1A2 produces pink flowers. For a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of red flowers is 0.25. If the white flowered plants are removed, and all pink and red flowered-plants in this population are randomly crossed amongst each other, the frequency of white flowered plants in the next generation will be______. (Round off to two decimal places.)

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	C	1	A	11	D	21	A; B	31	A	41	C	51	A; D
2	C	2	B	12	A	22	A; C	32	C	42	A	52	A; B
3	D	3	A	13	B	23	0.99 to 1.01	33	D	43	C	53	1.40 to 1.60
4	D	4	C	14	D	24	0.11 to 0.13	34	A	44	B	54	6.80 to 7.00
5	C	5	C	15	C	25	0.74 to 0.77	35	C	45	A	55	0.10 to 0.12
6	D	6	C	16	A	26	C	36	A	46	B
7	C	7	D	17	A; C	27	C	37	C	47	A; B; C
8	D	8	D	18	B	28	B	38	C	48	A; B
9	D	9	A	19	A; C; D	29	B	39	B	49	C
10	A	10	A	20	A; C	30	C	40	C	50	A; C

GATE 2021 Environmental Science and Engineering Previous Year Paper

GATE 2021 Environmental Science and Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1	The current population of a city is 11,02,500. If it has been increasing at the rate of 5% per annum, what was its population 2 years ago?
(A)	9,92,500
(B)	9,95,006
(C)	10,00,000
(D)	12,51,506

Q.2	p and q are positive integers and
(A)	3
(B)	7
(C)	9
(D)	11

Q.4	Nostalgia is to anticipation as_______is to________ Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A)	Present, past
(B)	Future, past
(C)	Past, future
(D)	Future, present

Q.5	Consider the following sentences:I woke up from sleep.I woked up from sleep.I was woken up from sleep.I was wokened up from sleep.Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
(A)	(i) and (ii)
(B)	(i) and (iii)
(C)	(ii) and (iii)
(D)	(i) and (iv)

Q.6	Given below are two statements and two conclusions. Statement 1: All purple are green.Statement 2: All black are green. Conclusion I: Some black are purple. Conclusion II: No black is purple.Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?
(A)	Only conclusion I is correct.
(B)	Only conclusion II is correct.
(C)	Either conclusion I or II is correct.
(D)	Both conclusion I and II are correct.

Q.7	Computers are ubiquitous. They are used to improve efficiency in almost all fields from agriculture to space exploration. Artificial intelligence (AI) is currently a hot topic. AI enables computers to learn, given enough training data. For humans, sitting in front of a computer for long hours can lead to health issues.Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?Nowadays, computers are present in almost all places.Computers cannot be used for solving problems in engineering.For humans, there are both positive and negative effects of using computers.Artificial intelligence can be done without data.
(A)	(ii) and (iii)
(B)	(ii) and (iv)
(C)	(i), (iii) and (iv)
(D)	(i) and (iii)

Q.8	Consider a square sheet of side 1 unit. In the first step, it is cut along the main diagonal to get two triangles. In the next step, one of the cut triangles is revolved about its short edge to form a solid cone. The volume of the resulting cone, in cubic units, is ________
(A)	π / 3
(B)	2π/3
(C)	3π/2
(D)	3π

Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

Q.1 – Q.18 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).


Q.1	A tangent is drawn on the curve of the function 𝒚 = 𝒙^𝟐 at the point (𝒙, 𝒚) = (𝟑, 𝟗). The slope of the tangent is______.
(A)	3
(B)	6
(C)	9
(D)	12

Q.2
(A)	0
(B)	1
(C)	2
(D)	−1

Q.4	A sample of air is collected in the morning at an ambient temperature of 25 °C. The concentration of carbon monoxide (CO) in this sample is 30 ppmv (ppm by volume). The same sample is analysed later in the afternoon when the sample temperature is 35 °C. The analysis results will show the CO concentration as____ .
(A)	< 29 ppmv
(B)	> 30 ppmv
(C)	= 30 ppmv
(D)	= 29 ppmv

Q.5	In fluid statics, the line of action of the buoyant force always acts through the____________________.
(A)	centre of gravity of any submerged body
(B)	centroid of the volume of any floating body
(C)	centroid of the displaced volume of fluid by the body
(D)	centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body

Q.6	What is the order of preference of the various elements in integrated waste management hierarchy (highest preference to lowest preference)?
(A)	Reduce > Reuse & recycle > Energy recovery > Landfilling
(B)	Reuse & recycle > Reduce > Energy recovery > Landfilling
(C)	Reduce > Energy recovery > Reuse & recycle > Landfilling
(D)	Reduce > Reuse & recycle > Landfilling > Energy recovery

Q.7	If d is the depth of an aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability K and transmissibility (also known as transmissivity) T is given by _________.
(A)	𝑇 = 𝐾𝑑
(B)	𝑇 = 𝐾/𝑑
(C)	𝑇 = √𝐾𝑑
(D)	𝐾 = √𝑇𝑑


Q.9	Which of the following causes ‘Type-I’ settling in a sedimentation tank?
(A)	Agglomeration
(B)	Compression
(C)	Force of gravity
(D)	Charge neutralization

Q.10	In the context of noise pollution, SPL is the sound pressure level in decibels (dB). The relationship between SPL, the root mean square (rms) sound pressure p, and the reference (hearing threshold) pressure p0 is expressed as_____________.
(A)	SPL = 20 × log₁₀
(B)	SPL = 20 × log₁₀
(C)	SPL = 20 − log₁₀
(D)	SPL = 20 + log₁₀

Q.13	Choose the correct order of biodegradability (highest to lowest) of the following municipal solid waste components.
(A)	Food waste > Newspaper > Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)
(B)	Newspaper > Food waste > Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)
(C)	Food waste > Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) > Newspaper
(D)	Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) > Food waste > Newspaper

Q.14	In proximate analysis, when a 10 kg moisture-free solid sample is heated in a furnace at 950 °C in the absence of air, its mass is reduced by 6 kg. If the same 10 kg moisture-free solid sample is heated in the furnace at the same temperature in the presence of air, its mass is reduced by 7 kg. The percentage of fixed carbon in the sample is__________.
(A)	20 %
(B)	60 %
(C)	10 %
(D)	30 %

Q.15	Chlorine is most effective as a water disinfectant at a pH of___________.
(A)	6
(B)	8
(C)	10
(D)	12

Q.16	The oxidation states of ‘𝐍’ in 𝐍𝐇_𝟒⁺, 𝐍𝐎_𝟐⁻, and 𝐍𝐎 are ________,respectively.
(A)	+2, −3, and +3
(B)	−3, +3, and +2
(C)	−3, +3, and −4
(D)	+4, −2, and +2

Q.17	What is the pH of a water sample having H⁺concentration of 10 mg/L? The atomic weight of H is 1 g/mol.
(A)	2
(B)	4
(C)	6
(D)	8

Q.18	Which of the following pairing of nucleotide bases is present in double helix DNA?
(A)	Thymine – Cytosine
(B)	Adenine – Thymine
(C)	Cytosine – Adenine
(D)	Uracil – Thymine

Q.19 – Q.22 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.19	Which of the following is/are both greenhouse gas(es) and ozone depleting substance(s)?
(A)	CFC-11
(B)	CO₂
(C)	HCFC-22
(D)	N₂O

Q.20	The ordinary differential equation . has y as the dependent variable and x as the independent variable. Which of the following classification(s) is/are applicable to the equation?
(A)	Linear
(B)	Non-linear
(C)	First order
(D)	Second order

Q.21	Consider the following equation:𝒙^𝟑 − 𝟏𝟎𝒙^𝟐 + 𝟑𝟏𝒙 − 𝟑𝟎 = 𝟎Which of the following is/are the root(s) of the above equation?
(A)	1
(B)	2
(C)	3
(D)	4

Q.22	A wind rose is a representation of meteorological conditions. Which of the following is/are included in this representation?
(A)	Mixing height
(B)	Wind speed
(C)	Wind direction
(D)	Percentage of time

Q.23 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).

Q.23	A flocculation tank used for water treatment has a velocity gradient (G) of 800 s^-1. The volume of the tank is 40 m³. The dynamic viscosity of water is 9×10^-4N·s/m². The theoretical power required to maintain the given velocity gradient is _________kW (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.24	In a sample, the growth of microbial cells started with an initial concentration of 5×10⁴cells per millilitre (mL) of the sample. After a certain time period, the cell concentration was found to be 1280×10⁴cells per mL of the sample. Assuming binary fission of cells and no cell death, the number of generations of cell growth occurred in this time period is_____________(answer in integer).

Q.25	A water jet discharging from a 4 cm diameter orifice has a diameter of 3.5 cm at its vena contracta. The coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of the actual velocity of the jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity of the jet. If the coefficient of velocity is 0.98, the coefficient of discharge for the orifice will be_________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.26 The 2×2 matrices P and Q satisfy the following relations:The matrix Q is equal to____________.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.27 A biased die has six faces numbered as k = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. On rolling the die, the probability of the number k appearing is proportional to k². What is the probability that an even number will appear on rolling the die?

(A) 35/91

(B) 56/91

(D) 9/21

Q.30	An ideal PFR or an ideal CFSTR may be used to degrade a pollutant with first order reaction kinetics. Both the reactors are fed with the same inlet concentration and the same volumetric flow rate, and are designed to achieve the same outlet concentration.Which of the following statements is true when comparing PFR with CFSTR?PFR is Plug Flow Reactor.CFSTR is Continuous Flow Stirred Tank Reactor (also referred to as CSTR).
(A)	PFR will always require less reactor volume than CFSTR.
(B)	PFR will require the same reactor volume as CFSTR.
(C)	CFSTR will always require less reactor volume than PFR.
(D)	CFSTR can sometimes require less reactor volume than PFR.

Q.31	A 200 mL sample of water has an initial pH = 9. In order to determine alkalinity, the sample was titrated using 0.02 N H₂SO₄ acid to an end point of pH = 4.5. In the titration, 25 mL of 0.02 N H₂SO₄ acid was required. What is the total alkalinity of the sample in ‘mg/L as NaHCO₃’?[Atomic weight (g/mol): Ca = 40, Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, S = 32, and O = 16]
(A)	20
(B)	125
(C)	210
(D)	305

Q.32	A sewage treatment plant (STP) receives sewage at a flow rate of 20000 m³per day. The sewage has 200 mg/L of suspended solids. Assume 60 % suspended solids are removed in the primary clarifier. The underflow (i.e. sludge) removed from the clarifier contains 5 % solids (by weight).The daily volume of the sludge generated will be ______m³per day.Assume sludge density = 1000 kg/m³.
(A)	48
(B)	80
(C)	480
(D)	800

Q.34	The characteristics of a water sample are as follows: Na⁺= 92 mg/L, K⁺= 19.5 mg/L, Ca²⁺= 40 mg/L, and Mg²⁺= 24 mg/L. What is the sodium adsorption ratio (SAR) of the water sample which may be considered for irrigation purposes?[Atomic weight (g/mol): Na = 23, K = 39, Ca = 40, and Mg = 24]
(A)	2.83
(B)	1.94
(C)	2.00
(D)	4.00

Q.35 – Q.40 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).

Q.35	Which of the following is true for the nitrifying bacteria belonging to genus Nitrobacter?
(A)	They are autotrophs.
(B)	They are eukaryotes.
(C)	They convert chemical energy to cellular energy using mitochondria.
(D)	They convert NO₃⁻ to NO₂⁻.

Q.36	Which of the following is/are the dominant mechanism(s) for the removal of spherical particles with diameter less than 10 µm from a gas stream using a fabric filter?
(A)	Impaction
(B)	Gravitation
(C)	Interception
(D)	Diffusion

Q.37	In air pollution, which of the following is/are classified as primary pollutants?
(A)	Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B)	Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)
(C)	Ozone (O₃)
(D)	Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)

Q.38	Which of the following is/are correct for the process of glycolysis?
(A)	There is net decrease in standard Gibbs free energy.
(B)	The end product is glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
(C)	First phase includes the phosphorylation of the glucose molecule.
(D)	It results in the net gain of NADH.

Q.39	In the context of water quality, which of the following is/are correct for the most probable number (MPN) of a water sample?
(A)	The estimated organisms are gram negative.
(B)	It is based on the assumption of Poisson distribution.
(C)	It measures the exact number of microorganisms present in the sample.
(D)	It includes the quantification of pathogenic virus.

Q.40	For any particular location, which of the following would influence the solar radiation incident on a rooftop solar water heater?
(A)	Heater surface temperature
(B)	Day of the year
(C)	Hot water temperature
(D)	Sky clearness

Q.41 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).


Q.41	If 𝒇(𝒙) + 𝟑𝒇(𝒈(𝒙)) = 𝒙 − 𝟐,where 𝒈(𝒙)= then the value of the ratiois_____________(answer in integer).

Q.42	Consider a function 𝒚 = 𝒇(𝒙) which satisfies the following equation: As 𝒙 → −∞, 𝒚 = 𝟏, and at 𝒙 = 𝟎, 𝒚 = 𝟐.The value of at 𝒙 = 𝟎 is_______ (answer in integer).

Q.43	The concentration of NO2 in the air at NTP is reported as 0.30 ppmv (ppm by volume). The concentration of NO2 in µg/m³ is____________(rounded off to the nearest integer).[At NTP, temperature = 298 K, pressure = 1 atm, and one mole of ideal gas occupies 24.45 L][Molecular weight of NO2 = 46 g/mol]
Q.44	In open channel flow, the specific energy is the total energy per unit weight of a liquid, where the component potential energy is measured from the bed of the channel as the datum.A rectangular channel of 10 m width carries 20 m³/s of water. The depth of flowing water is 1 m. The specific energy for this flow condition is_________m (rounded off to one decimal place).Consider acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s².

Q.45	Two reservoirs are connected by a pipeline consisting of two pipes ‘A’ and ‘B’ in series. The two pipes are of same length and have the same Darcy friction factor. If the internal diameter of pipe ‘B’ is twice as large as the internal diameter of pipe ‘A’, the ratio of the head loss in pipe ‘A’ to that in pipe ‘B’ is__________(answer in integer). Neglect all minor losses.

Q.46	In a field test of a geological formation of permeable soil (porosity = 20 %), the hydraulic gradient was found to be 2 %. The actual seepage velocity of the flow was found to be 0.0025 m/s. Assume that the flow is in the laminar regime. The permeability (K) of the aquifer is_____m/s (rounded off to three decimal places).

Q.47	An underground hazardous waste storage tank is leaking. The contaminant concentration directly beneath the site is 0.5 mg/L. The contaminant is travelling at an effective rate of 0.4 m per day towards a water well which is 2 km away.Assume that the degradation of the contaminant follows a first order reaction, and the initial concentration of the contaminant becomes half in 10 years.In this case, the contaminant concentration expected at the well under steady state conditions is__________mg/L (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.48	The net profit expected from a manufacturing unit is ₹ 6000 per year. The operational life of the unit is 15 years. Assuming a fixed discount rate of 8 % per annum, the net present worth of the profit earned over the operational life is ₹_____________(answer in integer).


Q.49	A 900 mm internal diameter sewer is laid at a slope of 0.004 and has an actual flow of 0.15 m³/s. Assuming Manning’s roughness coefficient to be 0.013, the ratio of the actual flow to the flow when the sewer is running full is___________(rounded off to two decimal places).Take π = 3.14.

Q.50	A 10 million litres per day (MLD) sewage treatment plant (STP) is based on the Activated Sludge Process (ASP). First, the sewage undergoes primary treatment and the resulting treated sewage has BOD5 of 140 mg/L concentration. This is further passed through a 1500 m³capacity aeration tank (in ASP), where the mixed liquor volatile suspended solids (MLVSS) concentration is maintained at 3000 mg/L. The concentration of BOD5 of the treated sewage is5 mg/L.The Food to Microorganisms ratio (F/M) of the ASP is ________day^-1(rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.51	The municipal solid waste (MSW) generated in a community (population = 100000) is disposed on a 12×10⁴m²landfill site, which can be filled to a total depth of 25 m (including soil cover). Assume that MSW is generated at a rate of 2.5 kg per person per day and its compacted density is 800 kg/m³. If the volumetric ratio of MSW and soil cover is 5:1, the useful life of the landfill site is_________years (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.52	A mechanized stationary container system is proposed for waste collection from a commercial area. The container unloading time is 0.1 hours per container. There are two containers at each location and the drive time between the two locations is 0.2 hours. The maximum waste ‘pick-up time’ is 2.4 hours per trip.The ‘pick-up time’ starts at the instant the truck arrives at the first pick-up location and ends when the last container on the route is emptied. The maximum number of locations which can be covered in a trip by the collection vehicle are__________(answer in integer).

Q.53	The molar concentrations (M, i.e. mol/L) of some ionic species in a water sample were estimated as follows:𝐍𝐚⁺ = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 𝐌; 𝐂𝐚^𝟐+ = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐 𝐌; 𝐂𝐥⁻ = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟐 𝐌; 𝐇𝐂𝐎_𝟑⁻ = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓 𝐌.The ionic strength of this water sample is_______M (correct up to two decimal places).

Q.54	Excess amount of solid calcium sulphate (𝐂𝐚𝐒𝐎_𝟒) was added to a pure water sample (pH = 7) so that some solids remain undissolved at the equilibrium. The solubility product of 𝐂𝐚𝐒𝐎_𝟒 is 2×10^-5mol²/L². The molar concentration of 𝐒𝐎_𝟒^𝟐− in this water sample atequilibrium will be_________mol/L (rounded off to three decimal places).

Q.55	A facultative pond system for sewage treatment consists of two ponds in series. The hydraulic retention time (HRT) of each pond is 6 days. The total BOD5 reduction through the entire pond system is 90 %. If the ponds are considered to be completely mixed, then the rate constant describing the BOD5 removal is_____ day^-1 (rounded off to two decimal points). Assume that the rate constant is same for both the ponds.

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	C	1	B	11	A	21	B; C	31	C	41	5 to 5	51	21 to 22
2	B	2	A	12	B	22	B; C; D	32	A	42	1 to 1	52	6 to 6
3	C	3	B	13	A	23	23 to 23	33	A	43	562 to 566	53	0.50 to 0.68
4	C	4	C	14	C	24	8 to 8	34	A	44	1.1 to 1.3	54	0.004 to 0.006
5	B	5	C	15	A	25	0.74 to 0.76	35	A	45	32 to 32	55	0.34 to 0.38
6	C	6	A	16	B	26	A	36	A; C; D	46	0.024 to 0.026
7	D	7	A	17	A	27	B	37	A; B; D	47	0.18 to 0.20
8	A	8	C	18	B	28	D	38	A; C; D	48	49200 to 53300
9	C	9	C	19	A; C OR A; C; D	29	A	39	A; B	49	0.12 to 0.14
10	A	10	A	20	A; C	30	A	40	B; D	50	0.25 to 0.35

GATE 2021 Electrical Engineering Previous Year Paper

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	The people __________were at the demonstration were from all sections of society.
(A)	whose
(B)	which
(C)	who
(D)	whom

Q.3	For a regular polygon having 10 sides, the interior angle between the sides of the polygon, in degrees, is:
(A)	396
(B)	324
(C)	216
(D)	144

Q.4	Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by (11¹³+1)?
(A)	11²⁶ +1
(B)	11³³ +1
(C)	11³⁹ -1
(D)	11⁵² -1

Q.5	*Oasis* is to *sand* as *island* is to _________Which one of the following options maintains a similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A)	Stone
(B)	Land
(C)	Water
(D)	Mountain

Q.6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.6	The importance of sleep is often overlooked by students when they are preparing for exams. Research has consistently shown that sleep deprivation greatly reduces the ability to recall the material learnt. Hence, cutting down on sleep to study longer hours can be counterproductive.Which one of the following statements is the CORRECT inference from the above passage?
(A)	Sleeping well alone is enough to prepare for an exam. Studying has lesser benefit.
(B)	Students are efficient and are not wrong in thinking that sleep is a waste of time.
(C)	If a student is extremely well prepared for an exam, he needs little or no sleep.
(D)	To do well in an exam, adequate sleep must be part of the preparation.

Q.8	Let X be a continuous random variable denoting the temperature measured. The range of temperature is [0, 100] degree Celsius and let the probability density function of X be f(x) = 0.01 for 0 ≤ X ≤ 100.The mean of X is ___________
(A)	2.5
(B)	5.0
(C)	25.0
(D)	50.0

Q.10	Seven cars P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are parked in a row not necessarily in that order. The cars T and U should be parked next to each other. The cars S and V also should be parked next to each other, whereas P and Q cannot be parked next to each other. Q and S must be parked next to each other. R is parked to the immediate right of V. T is parked to the left of U.Based on the above statements, the only INCORRECT option given below is:
(A)	There are two cars parked in between Q and V.
(B)	Q and R are not parked together.
(C)	V is the only car parked in between S and R.
(D)	Car P is parked at the extreme end.

Electrical Engineering

– Q.12 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong answer: – 1/3).

Q.1	Let p and q be real numbers such that p² + q² = 1. The eigenvalues of the matrix are
(A)	1 and 1
(B)	1 and -1
(C)	j and – j
(D)	pq and – pq

Q.2	Let p(Z) = Z³+(1+ j)Z²+(2+ j) Z +3, where Z is a complex number. Which one of the following is true?
(A)	conjugate{ p(Z)} = p(conjugate{Z}) for all z
(B)	The sum of the roots of p (Z) = 0 is a real number
(C)	The complex roots of the equation p (Z) = 0 come in conjugate pairs
(D)	All the roots cannot be real

Q.3	Let f (x) be a real-valued function such that f ‘(x₀) =0 for some x₀є(0, 1), and f ”(x) > 0 for all x є (0, 1). Then f (x) has
(A)	no local minimum in (0, 1)
(B)	one local maximum in (0, 1)
(C)	exactly one local minimum in (0, 1)
(D)	two distinct local minima in (0, 1)

Q.4	For the network shown, the equivalent Thevenin voltage and Thevenin impedance as seen across terminals ‘ab’ is
(A)	10 V in series with 12 Ω
(B)	65 V in series with 15 Ω
(C)	50 V in series with 2 Ω
(D)	35 V in series with 2 Ω

Q.5	Which one of the following vector functions represents a magnetic field B? ( xˆ, yˆ, and ˆz are unit vectors along x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis, respectively)
(A)	10 x xˆ + 20 y yˆ – 30 Z zˆ
(B)	10 y xˆ + 20 x yˆ -10 Z zˆ
(C)	10Z xˆ + 20 y yˆ -30 x zˆ
(D)	10 x xˆ – 30 Z yˆ+ 20 y zˆ

Q.6	If the input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related asy(t) = max(0, x(t)) , then the system is
(A)	linear and time-variant
(B)	linear and time-invariant
(C)	non-linear and time-variant
(D)	non-linear and time-invariant

Q.7	Two discrete-time linear time-invariant systems with impulse responsesh ₁[n] = δ [n -1] + δ [n +1] and h₂[n] = δ[n]= δ[n -1] are connected in cascade, where δ [n] is the Kronecker delta. The impulse response of the cascaded system is
(A)	δ [n – 2]+δ[n +1]
(B)	δ[n -]δ[n]+δ[n+1]δ[n -1]
(C)	δ[n – 2]+δ[n -1]+δ[n]+δ[n +1]
(D)	δ[n]δ[n -1]+δ[n – 2]δ[n +1]

Q.12	Inductance is measured by
(A)	Schering bridge
(B)	Maxwell bridge
(C)	Kelvin bridge
(D)	Wien bridge

Q.13 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative marks).


Q.13	Suppose the circles x² + y² =1 and (x -1)² + ( y -1)² = r² intersect each other orthogonally at the point (u,v) . Then u +v = ______________.

Q.14	In the given circuit, the value of capacitor C that makes current I= 0 is __________ µF.

Q.15	Two single-core power cables have total conductor resistances of 0.7 Ω and 0.5 Ω, respectively, and their insulation resistances (between core and sheath) are 600 MΩ and 900 MΩ, respectively. When the two cables are joined in series, the ratio of insulation resistance to conductor resistance is __________×10⁶.

Q.16	In the given circuit, for voltage V_y to be zero, the value of β should be ___________. (Round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.17	A 1 μC point charge is held at the origin of a cartesian coordinate system. If a second point charge of 10 μC is moved from (0, 10, 0) to (5, 5, 5) and subsequently to (5, 0, 0), then the total work done is __________mJ.(Round off to 2 decimal places).Take 1/ 4πE_O= 9×10⁹ in SI units. All coordinates are in meters.

Q.18	The power input to a 500 V, 50 Hz, 6-pole, 3-phase Induction motor running at 975 RPM is 40 kW. The total stator losses are 1 kW. If the total friction and windage losses are 2.025 kW, then the efficiency is___%.

Q.19	An alternator with internal voltage of 1∠δ₁ p.u and synchronous reactance of 0.4 p.u is connected by a transmission line of reactance 0.1 p.u to a synchronous motor having synchronous reactance 0.35 p.u and internal voltage of 0.85∠δ₂ p.u. If the real power supplied by the alternator is 0.866 p.u, then (δ₁ – δ₂ ) is degrees. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)(Machines are of non-salient type. Neglect resistances.)

Q.20	The Bode magnitude plot for the transfer function V₀(s) / V_i(s) of the circuit is as shown. The value of R is ___Ω.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.21	A signal generator having a source resistance of 50 Ω is set to generate a 1 kHz sinewave. Open circuit terminal voltage is 10 V peak-to-peak.Connecting a capacitor across the terminals reduces the voltage to 8 V peak-to-peak. The value of this capacitor is ______F. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.22	A 16-bit synchronous binary up-counter is clocked with a frequency f_CLK . The two most significant bits are OR-ed together to form an output Y. Measurements show that Y is periodic, and the duration for which Y remains high in each period is 24 ms. The clock frequency f_CLK is____ MHz. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.23	In the BJT circuit shown, beta of the PNP transistor is 100. Assume V_BE =- 0.7 V. The voltage across R_C will be 5 V when R₂ is _______kΩ. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.26 – Q.37 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO mark each (for each wrong answer: – 2/3).

Q.26	In the open interval (0, 1) , the polynomial p(x) = x⁴ – 4x³ + 2 has
(A)	two real roots
(B)	one real root
(C)	three real roots
(D)	no real roots

Q.27	Suppose the probability that a coin toss shows “head” is p , where 0 < p <1. The coin is tossed repeatedly until the first “head” appears. The expected number of tosses required is
(A)	p / (1- p)
(B)	(1 – p) / p
(C)	1/ p
(D)	1/ p²

Q.28	Let (-1- j), (3- j), (3+ j) and (-1+ j ) be the vertices of a rectangle C in the complex plane. Assuming that C is traversed in counter-clockwise direction, the value of the contour integral is
(A)	jπ/2
(B)	0
(C)	– jπ /8
(D)	jπ /16

Q.31	The causal signal with z-transformZ²(Z–a)^-2 is ( u[n] is the unit step signal)
(A)	a²ⁿu[n]
(B)	(n +1) aⁿu[n]
(C)	n^-1aⁿu[n]
(D)	n²aⁿu[n]

Q.32	Let f (t) be an even function, i.e. f (-t) = f (t) for all t. Let the Fourier transform of f (t) be defined as F (ω) = . Suppose=-ωF(ω) for all ω, and F(0) =1_. Then
(A)	f (0) < 1
(B)	f (0) > 1
(C)	f (0) = 1
(D)	f (0) = 0

Q.33	In a single-phase transformer, the total iron loss is 2500 W at nominal voltage of 440 V and frequency 50 Hz. The total iron loss is 850 W at 220 V and 25 Hz. Then, at nominal voltage and frequency, the hysteresis loss and eddy current loss respectively are
(A)	1600 W and 900 W
(B)	900 W and 1600 W
(C)	250 W and 600 W
(D)	600 W and 250 W

Q.37	A counter is constructed with three D flip-flops. The input-output pairs are named (D₀, Q₀), (D₁, Q₁), and (D₂, Q₂), where the subscript 0 denotes the least significant bit. The output sequence is desired to be the Gray-code sequence 000, 001, 011, 010, 110, 111, 101, and 100, repeating periodically. Note that the bits are listed in the Q₂ Q₁ Q₀ format. The combinational logic expression for D₁ is
(A)	Q₂Q₁Q₀
(B)	Q₂Q₀+ Q₁Q₀
(C)	Q₂Q₀+ Q₁Q₀
(D)	Q₂Q₁+ Q₂Q₁

Q.38 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative marks).


Q.38	Let A be a 10 x 10 matrix such that A⁵is a null matrix, and let I be the 10 x 10 identity matrix. The determinant of A + I is ___________ .

Q.39	A three-phase balanced voltage is applied to the load shown. The phase sequence is RYB. The ratioI_B/I_R is___.

Q.40	In the given circuit, for maximum power to be delivered to RL, its value should be _________ Ω.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.41	One coulomb of point charge moving with a uniform velocity 10 xˆ m/s enters the region x ≥ 0 having a magnetic flux densityB =(10 y xˆ + 10 x yˆ + 10zˆ) T. The magnitude of force on the charge at x = 0⁺ is _________ N.( xˆ, yˆ, and zˆ are unit vectors along x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis, respectively.)

Q.42	Consider a large parallel plate capacitor. The gap d between the two plates is filled entirely with a dielectric slab of relative permittivity 5. The plates are initially charged to a potential difference of V volts and then disconnected from the source. If the dielectric slab is pulled out completely, then the ratio of the new electric field E₂ in the gap to the original electric field E₁is__ .

Q.43	Consider a continuous-time signal x(t) defined by x(t) = 0 for \| t \| >1,and x(t) =1- \| t \| for\|t\|≤1. Let the Fourier transform of x(t) be defined as . The maximum magnitude of X (ω) is_________.

Q.44	A belt-driven DC shunt generator running at 300 RPM delivers 100 kW to a 200 V DC grid. It continues to run as a motor when the belt breaks, taking 10 kW from the DC grid. The armature resistance is 0.025 Ω, field resistance is 50 Ω, and brush drop is 2 V. Ignoring armature reaction, the speed of the motor is _____RPM. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.45

An 8-pole, 50 Hz, three-phase, slip-ring induction motor has an effective rotor resistance of 0.08 Ω per phase. Its speed at maximum torque is 650 RPM. The additional resistance per phase that must be inserted in the rotor to achieve maximum torque at start is ______Ω. (Round off to 2 decimal places.) Neglect magnetizing current and stator leakage impedance. Consider equivalent circuit parameters referred to stator.

Q.46

Consider a closed-loop system as shown. G_p(s) =14.4 / s(1+0.1s) is the plant transfer function and Gc (s) = 1 is the compensator. For a unit-step input, the output response has damped oscillations. The damped natural frequency is_______rad/s. (Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.47

In the given figure, plant G_p(s) = 2.2 /(1+0.1s)(1+0.4s)(1+1.2s)and compensator G_c(s) =

. The external disturbance input is D(s). It is desired that when the disturbance is a unit step, the steady-state error should not exceed 0.1 unit. The minimum value of K is_____.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.48

The waveform shown in solid line is obtained by clipping a full-wave rectified sinusoid (shown dashed). The ratio of the RMS value of the full- wave rectified waveform to the RMS value of the clipped waveform is____________.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.49	The state space representation of a first-order system is given asx =-x+u y = xwhere, x is the state variable, u is the control input and y is the controlled output. Let u =-K x be the control law, where K is the controller gain. To place a closed-loop pole at -2, the value of K is_____________.

Q.50	An air-core radio-frequency transformer as shown has a primary winding and a secondary winding. The mutual inductance M between the windings of the transformer is _________μH.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Q.51	A 100 Hz square wave, switching between 0 V and 5 V, is applied to a CR high-pass filter circuit as shown. The output voltage waveform across the resistor is 6.2 V peak-to-peak. If the resistance R is 820 Ω, then the value C is________μF.(Round off to 2 decimal places.)

Answer Key

Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans	Q.No.	Ans
1	C	1	B	11	C	21	2.30 to 2.50	31	B	41	100 to 100	51	12.30 to 12.60
2	C	2	D	12	B	22	2.00 to 2.10	32	A	42	5 to 5	52	3150.00 to 3170.00
3	D	3	C	13	1 to 1	23	16.70 to 17.70	33	B	43	1 to 1	53	1.55 to 1.65
4	D	4	B	14	20.00 to 20.00	24	389 to 391	34	A	44	273.00 to 277.00	54	24 to 24
5	C	5	A	15	300 to 300	25	29.00 to 31.00	35	C	45	0.50 to 0.54	55	50.00 to 52.00
6	D	6	D	16	-3.30 to -3.20	26	B	36	D	46	10.80 to 11.00
7	C	7	C	17	8.90 to 9.10	27	C	37	C	47	9.50 to 9.60
8	D	8	B	18	89.50 to 90.50	28	C	38	1 to 1	48	1.20 to 1.23
9	D	9	A	19	59.00 to 61.00	29	C	39	1 to 1	49	1 to 1
10	A	10	B	20	0.09 to 0.11	30	A	40	1.40 to 1.42	50	50.00 to 52.00

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Q.7	In the figure shown above, each inside square is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of the next larger square. The area of the smallest square (shaded) as shown, in cm²is:
(A)	12.50
(B)	6.25
(C)	3.125
(D)	1.5625

Q.9	The number of students passing or failing in an exam for a particular subject are presented in the bar chart above. Students who pass the exam cannot appear for the exam again. Students who fail the exam in the first attempt must appear for the exam in the following year. Students always pass the exam in their second attempt.The number of students who took the exam for the first time in the year 2 and the year 3 respectively, are .
A)	65 and 53
(B)	60 and 50
(C)	55 and 53
(D)	55 and 48

Q.8	The frequency distributions of a trait in two populations, X and Y, are shown in the figure. $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps105.png$ Which one of the following statements about the mean and standard deviation (SD) of the two populations is accurate?
(A)	X has higher mean, and Y has higher SD.
(B)	Y has higher mean, and X has higher SD.
(C)	X has higher mean, and X has higher SD.
(D)	Y has higher mean, and Y has higher SD.

Q.26	In a species of gecko, males are polymorphic such that some males are yellow and other males are white. A student hypothesises that body colour is a signal of aggression. To test this, he measures aggression in yellow and white males. He also measures body size in every individual he tests. He plots the data in the following way (yellow males: solid line and filled dots; white males: dashed line and open dots). Which one of the following statements is correct based on these data?
(A)	All yellow males are more aggressive than white males.
(B)	Body size is correlated with aggression in all males.
(C)	Body size correlates with aggression in yellow males only.
(D)	Small yellow males are more aggressive than small white males.

Q.29	In an island chain, species richness (S) increases with island area (A) according to the equation, S=4.3A^0.55.Which one of the following graphs best represents this equation?
(A)	(i)
(B)	(ii)
(C)	(iii)
(D)	(iv)

Q.31	In the graph shown, the solid line represents the best fit from an ordinary least-squares regression, where X is the predictor variable and Y is the response variable. In this case, which one of the following assumptions of the linear regression is violated?
(A)	Equal variances in Y across values of X
(B)	Normal distribution of residuals
(C)	Independence of data points
(D)	Linear relationship between X and Y

Q.32	Consider the following list of bacteria and the infections they cause in humans.Which one of the following combinations correctly matches these micro-organisms and the infections they cause in humans?
(A)	P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B)	P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
(C)	P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(D)	P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1

Q.34	Consider a population that shows logistic growth of the form $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps110.jpg$ where $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps111.jpg$ is the population growth rate, r is the instantaneous rate of increase, K is the carrying capacity and N is the population size. For such a population (N > 0), which one of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between per capita growth rate on the y-axis, and population size (N) on the x-axis?
(A)	(i)
(B)	(ii)
(C)	(iii)
(D)	(iv)

Q.36	Soils undergo weathering over large time-scales (millions of years). Over time, concentration of phosphorus (P) declines monotonically (solid line), while nitrogen (N) shows a unimodal pattern (dotted line) as shown. $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps114.png$ Based on this pattern, which one of the following diagrams represents the likely trend in N:P ratio?
(A)	(i)
(B)	(ii)
(C)	(iii)
(D)	(iv)

Q.37	A large forest area is fragmented into multiple smaller patches of different sizes. A researcher estimates the number of bird species in these forest fragments immediately following fragmentation, and then again 20 years later. The relationship between fragment size and species richness is shown in the graph for the two sampling events (immediately after fragmentation: closed circles and solid line; 20 years after fragmentation: open circles and dashed line). The best explanation for the differences in species richness with fragment size between the two sampling events is
(A)	Allen’s rule.
(B)	K-selection.
(C)	extinction debt.
(D)	Bergmann’s rule.

Q.38	The table shows a list of analysis goals (i, ii, iii) and different statistical tests (P, Q, R). Match the analysis goal to the most appropriate statistical test.
(A)	(i)-(P), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(Q)
(B)	(i)-(Q), (ii)-(P), (iii)-(R)
(C)	(i)-(Q), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(P)
(D)	(i)-(R), (ii)-(Q), (iii)-(P)

Q.39	Shifting cultivation is a form of agricultural practice in the hills of Northeast India, where a forest patch is cleared and cultivated for a few years, after which it is left fallow and allowed to regenerate. Succession occurs on such previously cultivated plots. Over time, the plant community should move towards which region in the graph?
(A)	P
(B)	Q
(C)	R
(D)	S

Q.41	The graph below shows how the lower limits of the elevational ranges of bird species on a tropical mountain have changed over 20 years (2000 to 2020) because of climate change. Each point below represents a bird species. Points would cluster on the dashed line if species had the same lower elevational range limits in 2000 and 2020. Given that the mountain summit is at an elevation of 3500 m (solid horizontal line), and assuming that the trend shown by the graph continues over the next 20 years, what would you expect in 2040?
(A)	Low-elevation species will become locally extinct.
(B)	Mid-elevation species will become locally extinct.
(C)	High-elevation species will become locally extinct.
(D)	All species will return to their original elevational ranges.

Q.43	The graph shows the relationship between a variable on the x-axis and genetic diversity on the y-axis. Each point represents a species and the trend line describes the relationship across species. $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps120.png$ Select the most appropriate variable for the x-axis.
(A)	Evolutionary age of species
(B)	Abundance
(C)	Body size
(D)	Geographic range

Q.44	Hunting is a major source of mortality for large frugivorous birds. These birds disperse the seeds of forest trees and are the primary contributors to forest regeneration. The graphs show the distribution of different age- classes of a frugivore-dispersed tree species at two isolated sites. $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps121.png$ Based on the graphs, select the most likely conclusion.
(A)	Hunting is higher at site (i) than at site (ii).
(B)	Hunting is higher at site (ii) than at site (i).
(C)	Hunting is similar at both sites.
(D)	Frugivores are not hunted at either site.

Q.45	The following phylogeny shows how species P to T are related to each other. The branch lengths indicate the degree of evolutionary change. $C:\Users\PC6~1\AppData\Local\Temp\ksohtml7596\wps122.jpg$ The species composition of three areas is given below Area 1: PQR; Area 2: RST; Area 3: QRSGiven this information, the phylogenetic diversity of
(A)	Area 1 > Area 3 > Area 2
(B)	Area 1 = Area 2 = Area 3
(C)	Area 1 = Area 3 > Area 2
(D)	Area 1 < Area 3 < Area 2

Q.3	The least number of squares that must be added so that the line P-Q becomes the line of symmetry is________
(A)	4
(B)	3
(C)	6
(D)	7

Q.9	The number of minutes spent by two students, X and Y, exercising every day in a given week are shown in the bar chart above.The number of days in the given week in which one of the students spent a minimum of 10% more than the other student, on a given day, is
(A)	4
(B)	5
(C)	6
(D)	7

Q.10	Corners are cut from an equilateral triangle to produce a regular convex hexagon as shown in the figure above.The ratio of the area of the regular convex hexagon to the area of the original equilateral triangle is
(A)	2 : 3
(B)	3 : 4
(C)	4 : 5
(D)	5 : 6

Q.3	The table below shows the carbon content of four samples of powdered coal. If these four samples are mixed completely, what would be the resultant carbon percentage of the mixture by weight?
(A)	58 %
(B)	86 %
(C)	87 %
(D)	90 %

Q.11	The following block diagram highlights the typical phases of the life cycle of a product. In the figure, ‘P’, ‘Q’, and ‘R’ represent various possible scopes of analyses in life cycle assessment. Which of the following statements is true?
(A)	‘R’ represents cradle-to-grave analysis.
(B)	‘P’ represents cradle-to-gate analysis.
(C)	‘Q’ represents gate-to-grave analysis.
(D)	‘R’ represents gate-to-gate analysis.

Q.12	The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development was held in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. During this conference, several environmental management principles were adopted by many countries.Which one of the following principles allows the governments to take mitigation measures on the environmental issues having serious threats or irreversible damage, even if there is scientific uncertainty about such issues?
(A)	Polluters pay principle
(B)	Precautionary principle
(C)	Extended producer responsibility
(D)	Common but differentiated responsibilities

Q.28	Match the entries in Column I with the correct entries in Column II.
(A)	P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i)
(B)	P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii)
(C)	P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii)
(D)	P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i)

Q.29	Which of the following international multilateral agreements (conventions, protocols) from Column I match with the entries in Column II?
(A)	P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
(B)	P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i)
(C)	P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(ii), S-(iv)
(D)	P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(ii)

Q.33	In context of municipal solid waste treatment, match the equipment in List I with their function in List II.
(A)	P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
(B)	P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)
(C)	P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)
(D)	P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii)

Q.7	In the figure shown above, each inside square is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of the next larger square. The area of the smallest square (shaded) as shown, in cm²is:
(A)	12.50
(B)	6.25
(C)	3.125
(D)	1.5625

Q.9	The number of students passing or failing in an exam for a particular subject are presented in the bar chart above. Students who pass the exam cannot appear for the exam again. Students who fail the exam in the first attempt must appear for the exam in the following year. Students always pass the exam in their second attempt.The number of students who took the exam for the first time in the year 2 and the year 3 respectively, are ____________.
A)	65 and 53
(B)	60 and 50
(C)	55 and 53
(D)	55 and 48

Q.8	Consider the table given: The correct combination that relates the constructional feature, machine type and mitigation is
(A)	P-V-X, Q-U-Z, R-T-Y
(B)	P-U-X, Q-S-Y, R-V-Z
(C)	P-T-Y, Q-V-Z, R-S-X
(D)	P-U-X, Q-V-Y, R-T-Z

Q.9	Consider a power system consisting of N number of buses. Buses in this power system are categorized into slack bus, PV buses and PQ buses for load flow study. The number of PQ buses is *NL.* The balanced Newton-Raphson method is used to carry out load flow study in polar form. *H, S, M,* and R are sub-matrices of the Jacobian matrix J as shown below: The dimension of the sub-matrix M is
(A)	N_Lx (N -1)
(B)	(N -1) x (N -1- N_L)
(C)	N_Lx (N -1+ N_L)
(D)	(N -1)x (N -1+ N_L)

Q.10	Two generators have cost functions F1 and F2.Their incremental-cost characteristics are They need to deliver a combined load of 260 MW. Ignoring the network losses, for economic operation, the generations P₁ and P₂ (in MW) are
(A)	P₁=P₂= 130
(B)	P₁ = 160, P₂ =100
(C)	P₁ = 140, P₂ =120
(D)	P₁ = 120, P₂ =140

Q.11	For the closed-loop system shown, the transfer function E(s)/R(s) is (A) G / 1+GH (B) GH / 1+GH (C) 1 / 1+GH (D) 1 / 1+G

Q.29	In the circuit, switch ‘S’ is in the closed position for a very long time. If the switch is opened at time t =0 , then i_L(t) in amperes, for t ≥0 is
(A)	₈_e-10 t
(B)	10
(C)	_{8+ 2}_e-10 t
(D)	10(1- e^-2t)

Q.30	*The input impedance, Z_in*(s), for the network shown is
(A)
(B)	6s + 4
(C)	7s + 4
(D)