NEET 2014
|
Section |
Questions |
Marks |
|
Physics |
45 Questions (1 – 45) |
180 |
|
Chemistry |
45 Questions (46 – 90) |
180 |
|
Biology |
90 Questions (91 – 180) |
360 |
Q. 1 If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are take As fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :
A. [F V F⁻¹]
B. [F V T⁻²]
C. [F V⁻¹ T⁻¹]
D. [F V⁻¹ T]
Q. 2 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms⁻¹ and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired another planet with a velocity of 3 ms⁻¹ at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms⁻²) is: (given g = 9.8 ms⁻²)
A. 3.5
B. 5.9
C. 16.3
D. 110.8
Q. 3 A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y)are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5s
Average velocity vector Vav from t = 0 to t = 5 s is:
A. 1/5 * (13 i ̂ +14 i ̂ )
B. 7/3 * (i ̂ + i ̂)
C. 2 * (i ̂ + i ̂)
D. 11/5 * (i ̂ + i ̂)
Q. 4 A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a strings passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = u) the pulley if frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :
A. g(1-gμ)/9
B. 2gμ/3
C. g(1-2μ)/3
D. g(1-2μ)/2
Q. 5 The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force — time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero
A. 24 Ns
B. 20 Ns
C. 12 Ns
D. 6 Ns
Q. 6 A balloon with mass ‘m’ descends down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’?
A. 2ma/(g+a)
B. 2ma/(g-a)
C. ma/(g+a)
D. ma/(g-a)
Q. 7 A body of mass (4m) is laying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :
A. Mv²
B. 3/2 mv²
C. 2 mv²
D. 4 mv²
Q. 8 The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation, Where, X = A cos (ωt); X = displacement at time t; ω = frequency of oscillation. Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’? Here a = acceleration at time t
T = time period
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 9 A solid cylinder of mass 50 g and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s⁻² is :
A. 25 N
B. 50 N
C. 78.5 N
D. 157 N
Q. 10 The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ Without slipping and slipping down the incline with rolling is :
A. 5:7
B. 2:3
C. 2:5
D. 7:5
Q. 11 A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 x 10²⁴ kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ?
A. 10⁻⁹ m
B. 10⁻⁶ m
C. 10⁻² m
D. 100 m
Q. 12 Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by :
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 13 Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When the wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’ the extension produced in the wire is ‘Δl’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
A. Δl versus 1/l
B. ΔI versus l²
C. ΔI versus 1/l²
D. ΔI versus l
Q. 14 A certain number of spherical drops of liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :
A. Energy = 4VT (1/e – 1/R) is released.
B. Energy = 3VT (1/r + 1/R) is absorbed
C. Energy = 3VT (1/r – 1/R) is released
D. Energy is neither released nor absorbed
Q. 15 Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C the mass of water present will be :
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g⁻¹]
A. 24 g
B. 31.5 g
C. 42.5 g
D. 22.5 g
Q. 16 Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is :
A. 45°C
B. 20°C
C. 42°C
D. 10°C
Q. 17 A monatomic gas at pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure if the gas is : (take y: 5/3)
A. 64 P
B. 32 Po
C. P/ 64
D. 16 P
Q. 18 A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is :
A. P0V0
B. 2 P0V0
C. P0V0/2
D. Zero
Q. 19 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius is inversely proportional to :
A. r³
B. r²
C. r
D. √r
Q. 20 If n₁,n₂ and n₃ are the fundamental frequencies three segments into which a string is divided, the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by :
A. 1/n = 1/n₁ + 1/n₂ + 1/n₃
B. 1/sqrt(n) = 1/sqrt(n₁) + 1/sqrt(n₂) + 1/sqrt(n₃)
C. sqrt(n) = sqrt(n₁) + sqrt(n₂) + sqrt(n₃)
D. n = n₁ + n₂ + n₃
Q. 21 The number of possible natural oscillations of column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are :
(velocity of sound = 340 ms⁻¹)
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
Q. 22 A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds the traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. The speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be :
A. 1332 Hz
B. 1372 Hz
C. 1412 Hz
D. 1454 Hz
Q. 23 Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 24 A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are
A. Zero and Q/(4 π ε R^2)
B. Q/(4 π ε R) and Zero
C. Q/(4 π ε R) and Q/(4 π ε R^2)
D. Both are Zero
Q. 25 In a region the potential is represented by V (x,y,z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where v is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a change of 2 coulomb situated at point (1,1,1) is :
A. 6√5 N
B. 30 N
C. 24 N
D. 4√35 N
Q. 26 Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is :
A. 19.2 w
B. 19.2 kW
C. 19.2 J
D. 12.2 kW
Q. 27 The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance; the new balance point is at 1.6l₁. The resistance ‘R’ is:
A. 10 Ω
B. 15 Ω
C. 20 Ω
D. 25 Ω
Q. 28 A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R connected across the given cell, has values of.
(1) Infinity
(2) 9.5 Ω
The ‘balancing lengths’ on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, Respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is:
A. 0.25 Ω
B. 0.95 Ω
C. 0.5 Ω
D. 0.75 Ω
Q. 29 Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment⃗ m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 30 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:
A. (1/499) * G
B. (499/500) * G
C. (1/500) * G
D. (500/499) * G
Q. 31 Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that ‘O’ is their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents, respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be:
A. μ/2πd * (I1 / I2)
B. μ/2πd * (I1 + I2)
C. μ/2πd * (I1^2 – I2^2)
D. μ/2πd * sqrt (I1^2 + I2^2)
Q. 32 A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:
A. Zero
B. Bvπr²/2 and P is at higher potential
C. πrBv and R is at higher potential
D. 2rBv and R is at higher potential
Q. 33 A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :
A. 300 V, 15 A
B. 450 V, 15 A
C. 450 V, 13.5 A
D. 600 V, 15 A
Q. 34 Light with an energy flux of 25 x 10⁴ Wm⁻² falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm², the average force exerted on the surface is :
A. 1.25 x 10⁻⁶ N
B. 2.50 x 10⁻⁶ N
C. 1.20 x 10⁻⁶ N
D. 3.0 x 10⁻⁶ N
Q. 35 A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :
A. 1.2 cm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 2.4 cm
D. 2.4 mm
Q. 36 In the Young’s double — slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wavelength of light used). The intensity at point where the path difference is λ/4 will be:
A. K
B. K/4
C. K/2
D. Zero
Q. 37 If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of:
A. Microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease.
B. Microscope and telescope both will increase
C. Microscope and telescope both will decrease
D. Microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.
Q. 38 The angle of prism is ‘A’ One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ of the prism is
A. 2 sin A
B. 2 cos A
C. 1/2 cos A
D. Tan A
Q. 39 When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20% the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
A. 0.65 eV
B. 1.0 eV
C. 1.3 eV
D. 1.5 eV
Q. 40 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :
A. 25
B. 75
C. 60
D. 50
Q. 41 Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 A. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be :
A. 3
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
Q. 42 The Binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li and ⁴₂He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction ⁷₃Li + ¹₁H → ⁴₂He + ⁴₂He +Q, the value of energy Q released is :
A. 19.6 MeV
B. -2.4 MeV
C. 8.4 MeV
D. 17.3 MeV
Q. 43 A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 x 10⁹ years decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is :
A. 1.96 x 10⁹ years
B. 3.92 x 10⁹ years
C. 4.20 x 10⁹ years
D. 8.40 x 10⁹ years
Q. 44 The given graph represents V — I characteristics for semiconductor device.
Which of the following statement is correct?
A. It is V — I characteristics for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point b short circuit current.
B. It is for s solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively.
C. It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively
D. It is for LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively
Q. 45 The barrier potential of a p – n junction depends on :
(a) Type of semiconductor material
(b) Amount of doping
(c) Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (c) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
Q. 46 What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers?
n=3, l=1, m₁=0
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 47 Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :
(Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ Js ; speed of light c = 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹)
A. 6.67 x 10¹⁵
B. 6.67 x 10¹¹
C. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁵
D. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁸
Q. 48 Equal masses of H₂, 0₂ and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27° C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂ : O₂ : methane would be :
A. 8 : 16 : 1
B. 16 : 8 : 1
C. 16: 1 : 2
D. 8 : 1 : 2
Q. 49 If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner atom in the cube will be
A. 2/√3 a
B. 4/√3 a
C. √3/4 a
D. √3/2 a
Q. 50 Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles ?
A. Coagulation
B. Electrophoresis
C. Electro — osmosis
D. Tyndall effect
Q. 51 Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?
A. KCl
B. NaCl
C. Na₂CO₃
D. CuSO₄
Q. 52 Of the following 0.10 aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?
A. KCl
B. C₆H₁₂O₆
C. Al₂(SO₄)₃
D. K₂SO₄
Q. 53 When 22.4 liters of H₂ (g) is mixed with 11.2 liters of Cl₂ (g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to :
A. 1 mol of HCl (g)
B. 2 mol of HCl (g)
C. 0.5 mol of HCl (g)
D. 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
Q. 54 When 0.1 mol MnO²₄⁻ is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize MnO ²₄⁻ to MnO⁻₄ is :
A. 96500 c
B. 2 x 96500 c
C. 9650 c
D. 96.50 c
Q. 55 Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,
Ag₂CO₃ (s) ↔ 2Ag⁺ (aq) + CO₃²⁻ (aq)
The Ksp of Ag₂CO₃(s) in water at 25°C is:
(R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
A. 3.2 x 10⁻²⁶
B. 8.0 x 10⁻¹²
C. 2.9 x 10⁻³
D. 7.9 x 10⁻²
Q. 56 The weight of silver (at.wt = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of 0₂ at STP will be :
A. 5.4 g
B. 10.8 g
C. 54.0 g
D. 108.0 g
Q. 57 Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
A. S is negative and, therefore, H should be highly positive.
B. S is negative and therefore, H should be highly negative.
C. S is positive and therefore, H should be negative.
D. S is positive and, therefore, H should also be highly positive.
Q. 58 For the reversible reaction :
N₂ (g) + 3H₂(g) ↔ 2NH₃ (g) + heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction :
A. By increasing the concentration of NH₃ (g)
B. By decreasing the pressure
C. By decreasing the concentration of N₂ (g) and H₂ (g)
D. By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
Q. 59 For the reaction :
X₂O₄ → 2X0₂ (g)
U = 2.1 k cal, S = 20 cal K⁻¹ at 300 K
Hence, G is
A. 2.7 k cal
B. -2.7 k cal
C. 9.3 k cal
D. -9.3 k cal
Q. 60 For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T₁ and T₂, respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T₁ and T₂, it is readily observed that :
A. Kp > K’p
B. Kp < K’p
C. KP =K’p
D. Kp = 1/K’p
Q. 61 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ?
A. H⁻ > H⁺ > H
B. Na⁺ > F⁻ > 0²⁻
C. F⁻ > 0²⁻ > Na⁺
D. Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > N³⁻
Q. 62 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much?
(At.wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)
A. Mg, 0.16 g
B. O₂ , 0.16 g
C. Mg, 0.44 g
D. O₂, 0.28 g
Q. 63 The pair of compounds that can exist together is :
A. FeCl₃, SnCl₂
B. HgCl₂, SnCl₂
C. FeCl₂, SnCl₂
D. FeCl₃, KI
Q. 64 Be²⁺ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
A. H⁺
B. Li⁺
C. Na⁺
D. Mg²⁺
Q. 65 Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?
A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. NH₃
D. NF₃
Q. 66 Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?
A. N₃
B. NO₃⁻
C. NO₂⁻
D. CO₂
Q. 67 Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increase in the order
A. H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te
B. H₂Se < H₂S > H₂Te
C. H₂Te < H₂S < H₂Se
D. H₂Se < H₂Te < H₂S
Q. 68 (a) H₂O₂ + O3 → H₂O + 2O₂
(b) H₂O₂ + Ag₂O → 2Ag + H₂O + O₂
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:
A. Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)
B. Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)
C. Reducing in (a) and (b)
D. Oxidizing in (a) and (b)
Q. 69 Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold conditions only is :
A. Saccharine
B. Sucralose
C. Aspartame
D. Alitame
Q. 70 In acidic medium, H₂O₂ changes Cr₂O₇⁻² to CrO₅ which has two (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ is :
A. +5
B. +3
C. +6
D. -10
Q. 71 The reaction of aqueous KMnO₄ with H₂O₂ in acidic conditions gives :
A. Mn⁴⁺ and O₂
B. Mn²⁺ and O₂
C. Mn²⁺ and O₃
D. Mn⁴⁺ and MnO₂
Q. 72 Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is :
A. [Mn(H₂O)₆]³⁺
B. [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
C. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺
D. [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Q. 73 Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?
(At.nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
A. Ti³⁺
B. Ni²⁺
C. Cr³⁺
D. Mn²⁺
Q. 74 Which of the following complexes is used to be as anticancer agent ?
A. mer — [Co(NH₃)₃Cl]
B. cis — [PtCl₂(NH₃)₂]
C. cis — K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]
D. Na₂COCl₄
Q. 75 Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is :
A. Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals
B. Increasing Nuclear charge
C. Decreasing nuclear charge
D. Decreasing screening effect
Q. 76 In the following reaction, the product (A)
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 77 Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN₂⁺X⁻ ?
A. CH₃N₂⁺X⁻
B. C₆H₅N₂⁺X⁻
C. CH₃CH₂N₂⁺X⁻
D. C₆H₅CH₂N₂⁺X⁻
Q. 78 D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 79 Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings ?
A. Thyroxine
B. Insulin
C. Adrenaline
D. Estradiol
Q. 80 Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 81 Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
A. Propylene and para HO — (C₆H₄) — OH
B. Benzoic acid and ethanol
C. Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
D. Benzoic acid and para HO —(C₆H₄) — OH
Q. 82 Which one of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog ?
A. Ozone
B. Acrolein
C. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
D. Chlorofluorocarbons
Q. 83 In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H₂SO₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :
A. 37.33
B. 45.33
C. 35.33
D. 43.33
Q. 84 What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br in the presence of FeBr₃ ?
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 85 Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iv)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iv)
Q. 86 Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
A. CH₃CHO;RMgX
B. C₆H₅OH;NaOH;CH₃I
C. C₆H₅OH;neutral FeCl₃
D. C₆H₅ — CH₃;CH₃COCl;AlCl₃
Q. 87 Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?
A. 2,4,6 — trinitrophenol
B. Benzoic acid
C. o — Nitrophenol
D. Benzenesulfonic acid
Q. 88 Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 89 Identity Z in the sequence of reactions :
CH₃CH₂CH = CH₂ _______ Hbr/H₂O₂ → Y → C₃H₅ONaZ
A. CH₃ — (CH₂)₃ — O — CH₂CH₃
B. (CH₃)2CH₂ — O — CH₂CH₃
C. CH₃(CH₂)₄ — O — CH₃
D. CH₃CH₂ — CH (CH₃) — O — CH₂CH₃
Q. 90 Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product — (CO₂)?
A. Ethane
B. Ethyne
C. Ethene
D. Ethanol
Q. 91 Which one of the following shows isogamy with non — flagellated garnets ?
A. Sargassum
B. Ectocarpus
C. Ulothrix
D. Spirogyra
Q. 92 Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :
A. Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
B. Mode of reproduction
C. Mode of nutrition
D. Complexity of body organization
Q. 93 Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?
A. Morchella esculenta
B. Amanita muscaria
C. Neurospora sp.
D. Ustilago sp.
Q. 94 Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :
A. Cell membrane structure
B. Mode of nutrition
C. Cell shape
D. Mode of reproduction
Q. 95 Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
A. Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
B. Globule and nucule present on the same plant
C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
D. Globule is male reproductive structure
Q. 96 Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?
A. Marchantia
B. Riccia
C. Funaria
D. Sphagnum
Q. 97 Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Tomato
D. Potato
Q. 98 When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as :
A. Vexillary
B. Imbricate
C. Twisted
D. Valvate
Q. 99 You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
A. Secondary xylem
B. Secondary phloem
C. Protoxylem
D. Cortical cells
Q. 100 Which one of the following statement is correct ?
A. The seed in grasses is not endospermic
B. Mango is parthenocarpic fruit
C. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain
D. A sterile pistil is called a stainamode
Q. 101 Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :
A. Having casparian strips
B. Being imperforate
C. Lacking nucleus
D. Being lignified
Q. 102 An example of edible underground stem is :
A. Carrot
B. Groundnut
C. Sweet potato
D. Potato
Q. 103 Which structure performs the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
A. Nucleoid
B. Ribosomes
C. Cell wall
D. Mesosomes
Q. 104 The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as :
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Lamins
Q. 105 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:
A. Mitochondria
B. Vacuoles
C. Plastics
D. Ribosomes
Q. 106 During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?
A. G₀ and G₁
B. G₁ and S
C. Only G₂
D. G₂ and M
Q. 107 Match the following and select the correct answer :
(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria
(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
(d) Ribozymes (iv) basal body cilia or flagella
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 108 Dr. F went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut-coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ?
A. It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin
B. It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth — promoting substances
C. It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
D. It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
Q. 109 Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in :
A. Senescent leaves
B. Young leaves
C. Roots
D. Buds
Q. 110 In which one of the following processes CO₂ is not released ?
A. Aerobic respiration in plants
B. Aerobic respiration in animals
C. Alcoholic fermentation
D. Lactate fermentation
Q. 111 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristics of :
A. Rhodospirillum
B. Spirogyra
C. Chlamydomonas
D. Ulva
Q. 112 A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while — colored like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
A. Mutated
B. Embolized
C. Etiolated
D. Defoliated
Q. 113 Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘ stress hormone’?
A. Abscisic acid
B. Ethylene
C. GA₃
D. Indole acetic acid
Q. 114 Geitonogamy involves
A. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
B. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower
C. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
D. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population
Q. 115 Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:
A. Pteris
B. Funaria
C. Lilium
D. Pinus
Q. 116 An aggregate fruit is one which develops from:
A. Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
B. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
C. Complete inflorescence
D. Multicarpellary superior ovary
Q. 117 Pollen tablets are available in the market for:
A. In vitro fertilization
B. Breeding programs
C. Supplementing food
D. Ex situ conservation
Q. 118 Function of filiform apparatus is to
A. Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
B. Stimulate division of generative cell
C. Produce nectar
D. Guide the entry of pollen tube
Q. 119 Non — albuminous seed is produced in :
A. Maize
B. Castor
C. Wheat
D. Pea
Q. 120 Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?
A. Poliovirus
B. Tobacco mosaic virus
C. Measles virus
D. Retrovirus
Q. 121 Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
A. Transcription — Writing information From DNA to t — RNA
B. Translation — Using information in m — RNA to make protein
C. Repressor protein — Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
D. Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter
Q. 122 Transformation was discovered by :
A. Meselson and stahl
B. Hershey and chase
C. Griffith
D. Watson and Crick
Q. 123 Fruit color in squash is an example of:
A. Recessive epistasis
B. Dominant epistasis
C. Complementary genes
D. Inhibitory genes
Q. 124 Viruses here :
A. DNA enclosed in a protein coat
B. Prokaryotic nucleus
C. Single chromosome
D. Both DNA and RNA
Q. 125 The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is :
A. Insulin
B. Estrogen
C. Thyroxine
D. Progesterone
Q. 126 An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use:
A. Electrophoresis
B. Blotting
C. Autoradiography
D. PCR
Q. 127 In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by :
A. PCR and RAPD
B. Northern blotting
C. Electrophoresis and HPLC
D. Microscopy
Q. 128 An alga which can be employed as food for human being is :
A. Ulothrix
B. Chlorella
C. Spirogyra
D. Polysiphonia
Q. 129 Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ?
A. Bacterial artificial chromosome
B. Yeast artificial chromosome
C. Plasmid
D. Cosmid
Q. 130 An example of ex situ conservation is :
A. National park
B. Seed Bank
C. Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Sacred Grove
Q. 131 A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the
A. Trees are very healthy
B. Trees are heavily infested
C. Location is highly polluted
D. Location is not polluted
Q. 132 Match the following and select the correct option :
(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore
(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 133 A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called:
A. Vulnerable
B. Endemic
C. Critically Endangered
D. Extinct
Q. 134 The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called :
A. Ionosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Troposphere
Q. 135 The organization which publishes the Red list of species is :
A. ICFRE
B. IUCN
C. UNEP
D. WWF
Q. 136 Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and freshwater species :
A. Echinoderms
B. Ctenophora
C. Cephalochordata
D. Cnidaria
Q. 137 Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ?
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Sea — Fan (Gorgonia)
C. Saccharomyces
D. Blue — Green algae
Q. 138 Planaria possess high capacity of:
A. Metamorphosis
B. Regeneration
C. Alternation of generation
D. Bioluminescence
Q. 139 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is :
A. Pristis
B. Trygon
C. Trygon
D. Scoliodon
Q. 140 Choose the correctly matched pair :
A. Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
B. Adipose tissue — Dense connective tissue
C. Areolar tissue — Loose connective tissue
D. Cartilage — Loose connective tissue
Q. 141 Choose the correctly matched pair :
A. Inner lining of salivary ducts — Ciliated epithelium
B. Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium
C. Tubular parts of nephrons — Cuboidal epithelium
D. Inner surface of bronchioles — squamous epithelium
Q. 142 In ’s’ phase of the cell cycle
A. Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
B. Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
C. Chromosome number is increased
D. Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
Q. 143 The motile bacteria are able to move by :
A. Fimbriae
B. Flagella
C. Cilia
D. Pili
Q. 144 Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :
A. Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
B. Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
C. A non — competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
D. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Q. 145 Which one of the following is a non — reducing carbohydrate?
A. Maltose
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Ribose 5 — phosphate
Q. 146 The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis :
A. Pachytene
B. Zygotene
C. Diplotene
D. Diakinesis
Q. 147 The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ?
A. Lipase
B. Trypsin
C. Rennin
D. Pepsin
Q. 148 Fructose is absorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called :
A. Active transport
B. Facilitated transport
C. Simple diffusion
D. Co-transport mechanism
Q. 149 Approximately seventy percent of carbon — dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs :
A. As bicarbonate ions
B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules
C. By binding to R.B.C
D. As carbamino — hemoglobin
Q. 150 Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :
A. Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
B. Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
C. No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
D. Both A and antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
Q. 151 How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?
A. Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
B. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
C. Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
D. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.
Q. 152 Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?
A. Increase in aldosterone levels
B. Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
C. Decrease in aldosterone levels
D. Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
Q. 153 Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 154 Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at :
A. The neuromuscular junction
B. The transverse tubules
C. The myofibril
D. The sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q. 155 Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
A. Short — term memory
B. Co-ordination during locomotion
C. Executive function, such as decision making
D. Regulation of body temperature
Q. 156 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A. Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments
B. In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments
C. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.
D. Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.
Q. 157 Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :
A. Oxytocin — posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands
B. Melatonin — pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
C. Progesterone — corpus — luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs
D. Atrial natriuretic factor — ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.
Q. 158 Fight — or — flight reactions cause activation of:
A. The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.
B. The kidney, leading to suppression of renin angiotensin — aldosterone pathway
C. The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
D. The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels
Q. 159 The shared terminal duct of the productive and urinary system in the human ale is :
A. Urethra
B. Ureter
C. Vas deferens
D. Vasa efferentia
Q. 160 The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :
A. Estrogen only
B. Progesterone
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Relaxin only
Q. 161 Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :
A. High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium
B. High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo
C. High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
D. High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
Q. 162 Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :
A. Small party of fallopian tube is removed or tied up
B. Ovaries are removed surgically
C. Small party of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
D. Uterus is removed surgically
Q. 163 Which of the following is a hormone releasing intraUterine Device (IUD)
A. Multiload 375
B. LNG — 20
C. Cervical cap
D. Vault
Q. 164 Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :
A. Ovum into fallopian tube
B. Zygote into the fallopian tube
C. Zygote into the uterus
D. Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube
Q. 165 A man whose father was color blind marries a woman who had a color blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be color blind ?
A. 25%
B. 0%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Q. 166 In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is :
A. 0.4
B. 0.5
C. 0.6
D. 0.7
Q. 167 A human female with Turner’s syndrome :
A. Has 45 chromosomes with XO
B. Has one additional X chromosome
C. Exhibits male characters
D. Is able to produce children with normal husband
Q. 168 Select the correct option :
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 169 Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :
A. T — DNA
B. BAC and YAC
C. Expression Vectors
D. T/A Cloning Vectors
Q. 170 Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:
A. Analogous organs
B. Adaptive radiation
C. Homologous organs
D. Convergent evolution
Q. 171 Which one of the following are analogous structures ?
A. Wings of Bat and wings of Pigeon
B. Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
C. Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
D. Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
Q. 172 Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
A. Hallucinogen
B. Depressant
C. Stimulant
D. Pain — killer
Q. 173 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
A. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
B. When the infected retro virus enters host cells
C. When HIV damages large number of helper T—Lymphocytes
D. When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
Q. 174 To obtain virus—free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
A. Apical meristem only
B. Palisade parenchyma
C. Both apical and axillary meristem
D. Epidermis only
Q. 175 What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?
A. Methane and CO₂ only
B. Methane, Hydrogen, sulphide and CO₂
C. Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O₂
D. Hydrogen sulphide and CO₂
Q. 176 Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to :
A. Western Ghat
B. Meghalaya
C. Corbett National Park
D. Keoladeo National Park
Q. 177 Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 178 Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 179 A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:
A. Gases like sulphur dioxide
B. Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
C. Gases like ozone and methane
D. Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
Q. 180 If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?
Plant → mice → snake → peacock
A. 0.02 J
B. 0.002 J
C. 0.2 J
D. 0.0002 J
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | D | A | D | C | C | A | B | C | D | A |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | A | B | C | D | A | C | D | B | A |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | C | C | B | D | B | B | C | C | C |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | D | B | B | D | C | D | B | B | B |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | D | C | A | D | A | D | C | D | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | C | C | A | C | B | D | B | D | B | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | A | C | B | C | B | A | C | C | C |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | B | B | B | A | D | B | D | C | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | C | D | A | C | A | B | D | A | B |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | D | A | B | A | C | D | C | B | C | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | D | D | B | B | C | A | A | A | D |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | A | C | A | A | C | B | C | D | D | B |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | A | C | B | D | A | D | D | B | C | B |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | D | D | C | C | B | D | B | B | B | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | C | A | B | B | B | A | C | B | A | C |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | A | A | D | A | D | C | B | C | A | B |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | A | B | B | C | C | A | A | B | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | A | A | C | C | B | D | C | D | D | A |