NDA/NA(II) Exam 2015 General Ability Test
Questions: 1 – 10
Look at the quoted part in each sentence. Select the most appropriate option from the three possible substitution for the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, select the ‘No improvement’.
Q. 1 “Had she been hungry”, she would have devoured the whole lot of it
A. Unless she had been hungry
B. However she had been hungry
C. As if she had been hungry
D. No improvement
Q. 2 “Until you don’t finish”the work, you won’t be given leave.
A. Until you must finish
B. Until finishing
C. Until you finish
D. No improvement
Q. 3 The names of the defaulters have been “cut off” the register.
A. cut out
B. struck out
C. struck off
D. No improvement
Q. 4 This is a matter “I’d rather not talk about”.
A. of which I’d rather not talk about
B. I rather not talk about
C. than I’d rather not talk about
D. No improvement
Q. 5 Only when you left “I did sleep”.
A. I slept
B. did I sleep
C. had I sleep
D. No improvement
Q. 6 I will be happy if you “will buy” me apples.
A. buy
B. bought
C. will be buying
D. No improvement
Q. 7 After I “saved” some money, I shall go abroad.
A. shall save
B. should have saved
C. have saved
D. No improvement
Q. 8 Can you “arrange the car” to be ready this evening?
A. arrange with the car
B. arrange for the car
C. arrange that the car
D. No improvement
Q. 9 Hardly “had he reached” home when the telephone rang.
A. he had reached
B. did he reach
C. he reached
D. No improvement
Q. 10 He is likely to win the elections “by the sweeping majority”.
A. with the sweeping majority
B. in a sweeping majority
C. by a sweeping majority
D. No improvement
Questions: 11 – 16
Each of the following items consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct sequence.
Q. 11 His uncle
P. for success in life.
Q. always advised his son,
R. who was a self-made man
S. to depend on his own efforts
The proper sequence should be:
A. SQPR
B. RQSP
C. PRSQ
D. QPSR
Q. 12 The doctor
P. did not like the behavior of the patients
Q. who was very competent in his profession
R. when they talked at length
S. about their problems
The proper sequence should be:
A. RPSQ
B. SRPQ
C. QPRS
D. PRQS
Q. 13 P. from leadership in culture
Q. in military situations and in face-to-face small groups
R. leadership has wide range of expressions
S. to leadership in politics
The proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP
B. PQRS
C. RPSQ
D. SQRP
Q. 14 He sat
P. glancing occasionally
Q. peering through the window
R. at the figure of the old woman
S. until he was chilled with the cold.
The proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ
B. QRPS
C. SPRQ
D. PRSQ
Q. 15 After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard man
P. shaking his fist at the sky
Q. clambering over the ruins
R. and collapsing with a howl of revolt
S. of his house and factory
The proper sequence should be:
A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. PQRS
D. RPSQ
Q. 16 Everyone
P. acknowledges
Q. when he considers the case calmly
R. who knows you
S. that you have been wronged
The proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP
B. RPQS
C. PQRS
D. QRPS
Questions: 17 – 21
Each sentence has a quoted part followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the quotes word.
Q. 17 Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so “garrulous”.
A. unreasonable
B. talkative
C. quarrelsome
D. proud
Q. 18 He bore the pain with great “fortitude”.
A. resignation
B. defiance
C. indifference
D. forbearance
Q. 19 He gave his “tacit” approval to the proposition.
A. full
B. loud
C. clean
D. implied
Q. 20 In spite of hard work, the farmers could only get a “meagre” yield.
A. satisfactory
B. scanty
C. plenty
D. normal
Q. 21 He was “exhilarated” at the outcome of the election results.
A. satisfied
B. surprised
C. disappointed
D. overjoyed
Questions: 22 – 26
Each sentence has a quoted word followed by four word. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
Q. 22 He “concealed” his thoughts very cleverly.
A. emphasized
B. expressed
C. affirmed
D. revealed
Q. 23 The proposal was “denounced” by one and all.
A. renounced
B. recommended
C. announced
D. commended
Q. 24 She was “skeptical” about the safety of the new drug.
A. doubtful
B. certain
C. hopeful
D. sanguine
Q. 25 The answers to the question were “coherent”.
A. relaxed
B. loose
C. consistent
D. disconnected
Q. 26 It was no “altruistic” motive that prompted him to help her.
A. selfish
B. inhuman
C. brutal
D. wicked
Questions: 27 – 41
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group or words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate word or groups of words.
Q. 27 Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his ____________ of technology
A. command
B. emphasis
C. belief
D. stress
Q. 28 The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with _____.
A. prickly heat
B. perspiration
C. sores
D. fatigue
Q. 29 The Government is encouraging village uplifting __________ in the country.
A. programmes
B. designs
C. talks
D. propaganda
Q. 30 Satish was endowed ____________ a natural talent for music.
A. in
B. by
C. for
D. with
Q. 31 Mr. Ghosh is very happy ______________ his son’s excellent result.
A. for seeing
B. to see
C. by seeing
D. see
Q. 32 Sunlight filtering __________ the stained glass window created a mosaic of colours on the floor.
A. in
B. through
C. at
D. into
Q. 33 Are you feeling doubtful _____________ your decision?
A. about
B. upon
C. at
D. for
Q. 34 I want to study Geology now for I _________ Zoology for the last three years.
A. am studying
B. have been studying
C. had studied
D. had been studying
Q. 35 Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store goods at places _____
to people all over the country.
A. safe
B. easy
C. proper
D. convenient
Q. 36 To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child is an understatement; we were really ___________.
A. annoyed
B. astounded
C. flattered
D. confused
Q. 37 In spite of the old woman’s repeated entreaties, he remained ____________.
A. ashamed
B. docile
C. indifferent
D. lethargic
Q. 38 There was __________ competition for electoral seats.
A. diligent
B. rapid
C. cut-throat
D. sparse
Q. 39 The cricket team _______________ mainly of State players.
A. composed
B. consist
C. made with
D. comprises
Q. 40 His love for money is the only __________ that drives him to work so hard.
A. programme
B. plan
C. reason
D. greed
Q. 41 According to ________ sources, the Chief Minister did not consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.
A. intelligent
B. simple
C. reliable
D. fundamental
Questions: 42 – 50
Each sentence has been divided into 3 parts – (a), (b) and (c). There is an error in any of the three part. Select the correct part. If there is no error, select “no error” .
Q. 42 (a) I am told / (b) John is ill / (c) since Monday. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 43 (a) I shall leave school / (b) as soon as / (c) I shall find a job. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 44 (a) He is a rich man / (b) he is owning / (c) a number of buildings in Bombay. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 45 (a) We were able to make it / (b) in spite of / (c) a bad weather. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 46 (a) Neither of the two letters of credit / (b) were useful / (c) when he needed it. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 47 (a) Little he realized / (b) that he wouldn’t live / (c) to see his grandson married. (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 48 (a) A difficult syllabus / (b) is supposed to hurt / (c) juvenile mind. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 49 (a) The voice of sanity and patriotism / (b) are important to dispel / (c) the prevailing confusion. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 50 (a) You were going to explain / (b) your late arrival, / (c) isn’t it? / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 51 A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung so as to move uniformly in a horizontal circle.
Which of the following statements in this regard is/are true?
1. The ball moves with constant velocity.
2. The ball moves with constant speed.
3. The ball moves with constant acceleration.
4. The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is constant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
Q. 52 Two long wires each carrying a d.c. current in the same direction are placed close to each other. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The wires will attract each other.
B. The wires will repel each other.
C. There will be no force between the wires.
D. There will be a force between the wires only at the moment when the current is switched ON or OFF.
Q. 53 The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatt, was launched in the year:
A. 1972
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1979
Q. 54 Which one of the following sea routes is the shortest from point to point?
A. Kolkata to Yangoon
B. Kolkata to Chennai
C. Chennai to Port Blair
D. Mumbai to Colombo
Q. 55 Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?
A. Water vapours
B. Methane
C. Ozone
D. Carbon Monoxide
Q. 56 Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of:
A. Cholesterol
B. Lactic acid
C. Lipoic acid
D. Triglycerides
Q. 57 The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about:
A. 0°C
B. -273 K
C. -273° C
D. -300° C
Q. 58 Lightning conductors are used to protect building from lightning strikes. Which of the following statements is /are are true about lightning conductors?
1. Lightning conductors create an electric field at its top so that lightning strikes it
preferentially.
2. Lightning conductors reduce the effect of the strike by uniformly distributing the charge (current) over the surface of the building.
3. Lightning conductors take all charge (current) to deep down in the earth.
4. Lightning conductors must be installed at a place taller than the building.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 4 only
Q. 59 Match List I with List II (given in figure and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
B. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
C. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
Q. 60 Which one of the following is not a sea port?
A. Paradeep
B. Haldia
C. Diamond Harbour
D. Dhamra
Q. 61 Consider the following reaction:
CH₄(g) + H₂O(g) →(1270 K) CO(g) + 3H₂(g)
In this reaction given above, the mixture of CO and H₂ is:
A. natural gas
B. water gas
C. producer gas
D. industrial gas
Q. 62 Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/ animal kingdom. Which one of the following is not correct for animal kingdom?
A. Cannot make their own food
B. Body contains cellulose
C. Do not have chlorophyll
D. Migrate from one place to another
Q. 63 The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by:
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Both convection and conduction
Q. 64 The Manas National Park is situated in the State of:
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Jharkhand
C. Assam
D. West Bengal
Q. 65 Addition of gypsum to cement:
A. reduces setting time of cement
B. produces very light colour cement
C. increases setting time of cement
D. shining surface is formed
Q. 66 In case of a compound microscope which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The focal length of the eye piece is larger than the focal length of the objective.
2. The focal length of the eye piece is smaller than the focal length of the objective.
3. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is real.
4. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is virtual.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Q. 67 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is twice its focal length
B. Power of a convex lens is negative and that of a concave lens is positive
C. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinity
D. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium, the angle of refraction is greater than the corresponding angle of incidence
Q. 68 Identify the place that is not an oil field:
A. Naharkatiya
B. Kalol
C. Ledo
D. Ankleshwar
Q. 69 Ammonia (NH₃) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen . It proves the validity of law of:
A. Reciprocal proportion
B. Constant proportion
C. Multiple proportion
D. None of the above
Q. 70 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down
B. If the velocity is zero at as instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant
C. If the velocity is zero for a time interval; the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time interval
D. If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the object is moving towards the origin
Q. 71 The IST meridian 821/2°E passes through a number of States in India. Which one of the following sets of States is correct in this respect?
A. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Odisha
C. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
D. Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
Q. 72 Boric acid is ab acid because its molecule:
A. accepts OH⁻ from water releasing proton
B. combine with proton from water molecules
C. contains replaceable H^+ ion
D. gives up a proton
Q. 73 Who among the following discovered the antibiotic producing fungus from Penicillium genus?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Sir Alexander Fleming
C. Stanley Prusiner
D. Robert Hooke
Q. 74 Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 ohm. Their equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be:
A. 10 ohm
B. 30 ohm
C. 270 ohm
D. 810 ojm
Q. 75 The following figure represents the velocity-time graph of a moving car on a road. Which segment of the graph represents the retardation?
A. AB
B. BC
C. CD
D. None
Q. 76 Which one among the following places is not an iron-ore mining area?
A. Badampahar
B. Zawar
C. Bailadila
D. Anantpur
Q. 77 Match List I with List II (given in figure (1)) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)4, (C)3, (D)2
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)4, (D)2
Q. 78 The main constituent of Vinegar is:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Citric acid
D. Tartaric acid
Q. 79 White Phosphorous glows in the dark due to:
A. amorphous character
B. slow oxidation
C. high ignition temperature
D. good conducting property of electricity
Q. 80 Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotes organism?
A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Plant
D. Human being
Q. 81 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The Kelvin scale of temperature is called the Absolute scale
B. Visible light radiation has wavelength range of 400 – 700 nm
C. The capacity to do work is called power
D. The wavelength of Gamma rays is less than that of X-rays
Q. 82 A man is sitting in a train which is moving with a velocity of 60 km/hour. His speed with respect to the train is:
A. 10/3 m/s
B. 60 m/s
C. infinite
D. zero
Q. 83 Match List I with List II in figure and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)4, (C)3, (D)2
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)4, (D)2
Q. 84 The term ‘Regur’ is used to mean:
A. Laterite soil
B. Deltaic soil
C. Red soil
D. Black cotton soil
Q. 85 Graphite is a much better conductor of heat and electricity than diamond. This is due to the fact that each carbon atom is graphite:
A. undergoes sp² hybridisation and forms three sigma bonds with three neighbouring
carbon atoms
B. undergoes sp³ hybridisation
C. is tetrahedrally bonded
D. is free from van der Waals force
Q. 86 Which one of the following vitamins is synthesized in our own skin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Q. 87 Which one of the following is the SI unit of the thermal conductivity of a material?
A. Wm⁻¹K⁻¹
B. Wm/K
C. Wm⁻¹/K⁻¹
D. Js⁻¹m⁻¹K
Q. 88 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Conduction can occur easily in solids less easily in liquids but hardly at all in gases
B. Heat energy is carried by moving particles in a convection current
C. Heat energy is carried by electromagnetic waves in radiation
D. The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called the boiling point
Q. 89 Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and stalagmites occurrences is correct?
A. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites hang from the floor of the caves
B. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves
C. Stalactites rise up from the floor of the caves and stalagmites hang as icicles of
different diameters
D. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites also hang as icicles of different diameters
Q. 90 Which one of the following is the correct sequence about various levels of organisation of Biosphere?
A. Ecosystem – Biosphere – Community – Population
B. Population – Organism – Ecosystem – Biosphere
C. Organism – Community – Population – Biosphere
D. Organism – Population – Ecosystem – Biosphere
Q. 91 Which of the following are the properties of an electron?
1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray.
2. Electron is a negatively charged particle.
3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton.
4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Q. 92 Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. External sources
Q. 93 The resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section α is x ohm. If the wire is stretched to double its length, its resistance would become:
A. 2 x ohm
B. 0.5 x ohm
C. 4 x ohm
D. 6 x ohm
Q. 94 Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?
A. Upper and lower mantle
B. Crust and upper mantle
C. Crust and core
D. Mantle and core
Q. 95 Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study reaction mechanism
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that of ordinary water
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Q. 96 Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood on the basis of:
A. Newton’s first law of motion
B. Newton’s second law of motion only
C. Both Newton’s second law of motion and Newton’s third law of motion
D. Conservation of energy
Q. 97 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Temperatures decrease from the equator to poles
B. Temperatures in equatorial regions change substantially from January to July
C. Large land masses located in the subarctic and arctic zones develop centres of
extremely low temperatures in winter
D. Highlands are always colder than surrounding low lands
Q. 98 To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such a high temperature is obtained by burning:
A. Acetylene in oxygen
B. LPG in oxygen
C. Methane in oxygen
D. Acetylene in nitrogen
Q. 99 Two forces, one of 3 newton and another of 4 newton are applied on a standard 1 kg body, placed on a horizontal and frictionless surface, simultaneously along the x-axis and the yaxis, respectively, as shown in figure. The magnitude of the resultant acceleration
A. 7 m/s²
B. 1 m/s²
C. 5 m/s²
D. √7 m/s²
Q. 100 Magnetic meridian is an imaginary:
A. line along north-south
B. point
C. vertical plane
D. horizontal plane
Q. 101 An up fold in rock is:
A. graben
B. horse
C. anticline
D. syncline
Q. 102 Which one of the following gases is found in highest quantity in Exosphere?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
Q. 103 In blood, platelets are required for:
A. transporting oxygen
B. transporting carbon dioxide
C. initiating blood clotting
D. initiating degradation of urea
Q. 104 In SI unit of ‘Newton’ (N) is given by (where m stands for metre and s stands for seconds):
A. 1 N = 1kg/ms²
B. 1 N = 1kgm/s²
C. 1 N = 1kgs²/m
D. 1 N = 1kgms²
Q. 105 The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ for objects on or near the surface of earth is related to the universal gravitational constant ‘G’ as (‘M’ is the mass of the earth and ‘R’ is its radius):
A. G = g(M/R²)
B. g = G(M/R²)
C. M = gG/R²
D. R = gG/M²
Q. 106 Match List I with List II (given in figure) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
Q. 107 Match List I with List II (given in figure) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
Q. 108 Which one of the following is not a site of action in human body for the malarial parasite plasmodium?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Red blood cell
D. Brain
Q. 109 The loudness of sound is related to:
A. its frequency
B. its amplitude
C. its speed
D. its pitch
Q. 110 X-ray are electromagnetic radiation whose wavelengths are of the order of:
A. 1 metre
B. 10⁻¹ metre
C. 10⁻⁵ metre
D. 10⁻¹⁰ metre
Q. 111 Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses (given in figure ) is correct?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 112 The symbol of the element ‘Tungsten’ is
A. Ta
B. W
C. Tl
D. Tc
Q. 113 In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries intact due to well preserved:
A. mineralised blood
B. fibroblasts fibre
C. elastic fibre
D. brown fat
Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The image formed by a concave mirror for an object lying at infinity is at the principal focus, highly diminished, real and inverted.
B. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis after reflection from a concave mirror
appears to diverge from the principal focus of the mirror.
C. The focal length of a spherical mirror is double of its radius of curvature
D. A ray of light traveling from a rarer medium to a denser medium bends away from the normal.
Q. 115 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of electron
B. J J Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atom contains protons
C. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom
D. The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in its shells
Q. 116 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Application of lime makes the soil acidic
B. High acidity in soil is typical of humid climate
C. Increasing soil acidity results in decline soil fertility
D. Arid climate is characterised by alkaline soil
Q. 117 The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the highest melting point?
A. Li
B. Na
C. K
D. Rb
Q. 118 Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing industry?
A. Fibrous plants
B. Orchids
C. Non-flowering plants
D. Plants growing in high altitude
Q. 119 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. In steady flow of a liquid, the velocity of liquid particles reaching at a particular point is the same at all points
B. Steady flow is also called streamlined flow
C. In steady flow, each particle may not follow the same path as taken by a previous
particle passing through that point
D. Two streamlines cannot intersect each other
Q. 120 According to the Geo-Scientists, the shape of the earth is:
1. round
2. spherical
3. close to that of a sphere
4. an oblate ellipsoid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Q. 121 The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 52ndAmendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 34th Amendment Act
Q. 122 Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2013-2014?
A. India’s exports were less than its imports
B. Trade balance was negative
C. Net invisibles were positive
D. Capital account balance was negative
Q. 123 Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share in exports from India?
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. Africa
D. North America
Q. 124 The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of judicial review are:
A. Article 21 and Article 446
B. Article 32 and Article 226
C. Article 44 and Article 152
D. Article 17 and Article 143
Q. 125 Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is not correct?
A. The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for their own internal and external protection
B. In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed
C. The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining the British contingent in the territory
D. The permission of the British was needed for the ally to enter into agreements with other rulers
Q. 126 Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a Physician to Prince Dara Shukoh?
A. Hakim Afzal Khan
B. Ibn Battuta
C. Francois Bernier
D. Duarte Barbosa
Q. 127 During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent per annum which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous FYP. This is largely due to better performance of:
A. Crops and Livestock
B. Oilseeds and Fibres
C. Fishing and Oilseeds
D. Fibres and Fishing
Q. 128 An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
A. War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
B. War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
C. Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
D. Financial instability in the country.
Q. 129 Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct?
1. Livestock contributed about 25 percent of gross value added in agriculture.
2. It provides self employment to a large segment of population.
3. Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 130 Which one of the following statements about Khilafat Movement is not correct?
A. The Khilafat Movement demanded that the Khalifa must retain control over Muslim holy places
B. The radical trend in the Khilafat Movement was represented by younger leaders like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali and Maulana Azad.
C. Indian Muslim leaders used Khilafat as a symbol that could unite the Indian Muslim community
D. The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement
Q. 131 Which one of the following is not correct in the current Indian scenario?
A. Life expectancy is on the increase and is about 67 years as of now
B. Infant mortality rate is on the decline and has reached 47 per thousand
C. Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities
D. Percentage of women giving birth in health institutions is on the rise
Q. 132 The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:
A. provisions related to the administration of tribal areas
B. allocation of seats in the Council of States
C. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
D. Recognised languages of the Union of India
Q. 133 The British officer who was a representative of the Governor General and who lived in a State was not under direct British rule was called:
A. Collector
B. Viceroy
C. Resident
D. Agent
Q. 134 Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement of 1793 is/are correct?
1. The Permanent Settlement vested Land ownership rights in the peasants.
2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars.
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a particular date.
4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the peasants
suffered.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 135 The Vijaynagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of:
A. Talikota in 1565
B. Panipat in 1661
C. Talikota in 1665
D. Raichur in 1510
Q. 136 The ‘basic Structure Doctrine’ was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the:
A. Golak Nath case
B. Maneka Gandhi case
C. Kesavananda Bharati case
D. S R Bommai case
Q. 137 Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited India:
1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi and Daulatabad.
2. Ibn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad.
3. According to Francois Bernier there was no private property in land in Mughal India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 138 Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?
1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style.
2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for illness.
3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian Army.
4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Typhoid epidemic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 139 Match List I with List II (figure 1) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
Q. 140 The Senia tradition is:
A. musical tradition that emerged from the colonial
B. dance drama written by Keshab Chandra Sen
C. textile tradition of eastern UP
D. musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, the celebrated musician of Akbar’s court
Q. 141 Who among the following founded the Rajamundri Social Reform Association in 1878 in support of widow remarriage?
A. Vishanshastra Pandit
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. Pandita Ramabai
D. Veerasalingam Pantulu
Q. 142 The SAARC Secretariat is located at:
A. New Delhi
B. Colombo
C. Kathmandu
D. Karachi
Q. 143 The 19th Century Faraizi Movement in eastern Bengal developed under the leadership of:
A. Titu Rai
B. Haji Shariatullah
C. Shah Sayyid Ahmad
D. Dudu Miyan
Q. 144 The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under?
A. The Raja of Junagadh
B. Ian Copland
C. Sir Harcourt Butler
D. Motilal Nehru
Q. 145 The Panchayati Raj system under Part – IX of the Constitution of India does not apply to the States of:
A. Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland
B. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
C. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
D. Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya
Q. 146 The First Five Year Plan (1951 – 1956) was drafted by:
A. P C Mahalanobis
B. KN Raj
C. K C Kumarappa
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q. 147 Who among the following is the author of the book, “Pakistan Paradox : Instability and Resilience”?
A. Christophe Jaffrelot
B. G Parthasarthy
C. Imran Khan
D. Mamnoon Hussain
Q. 148 Which one of the following was the theme of the ‘International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers’ for the year 2015?
A. Peacekeeping is a Global Partnership
B. UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping: Pat, Present and Future
C. Women in Peacekeeping
D. A Force for the Future
Q. 149 Indian athlete Vikas Gowda is associated with:
A. Wrestling
B. Sprint
C. Discus throw
D. Archery
Q. 150 The 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championships (2015) was held in:
A. Karnataka
B. Haryana
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | D | C | C | A | A | A | C | C | D | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | B | C | C | A | B | B | C | D | D | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | B | D | C | D | A | A | B | A | D |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | D | A | B | D | B | C | C | D | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | B | C | B | D | B | A | D | B | C |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | D | D | B | A | C | B | B | B | B | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | A | D | D | C | B | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | A | B | B | B | B | A | A | B | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | C | D | A | D | A | D | A | D | B | A |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | D | C | D | A | A | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | D | B | C | B | B | B | A | B | B | D |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | B | B | A | C | A | A | D | C | D |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | D | A | B | A | C | A | B | C | D |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | B | A | B | A | C | D | C | D | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | C | B | D | A | D | A | B | C | A |