NDA/NA(II) Exam 2014 General Ability Test
Q. 1 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It was nearly thirty years ago, since this magazine was first published.
A. It was nearly thirty years ago,
B. since this magazine
C. was first published.
D. No error
Q. 2 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Ten years ago he was having an income of over ten thousand rupees a month; he must
indeed be a wealthy man by now.
A. Ten years ago he was having an income
B. of over ten thousand rupees a month;
C. he must indeed be a wealthy man by now.
D. No error
Q. 3 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
In spite of the fact that the meeting was about to end, he insisted to ask several questions.
A. In spite of the fact
B. that the meeting was about to end,
C. he insisted to ask several questions.
D. No error
Q. 4 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Hardly had he entered into the room and taken his seat, when the girls began to giggle.
A. Hardly had he entered into the room
B. and taken his seat,
C. when the girls began to giggle.
D. No error
Q. 5 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
I was disappointed when I came for seeing you last evening but could not find you at home.
A. I was disappointed
B. when I came for seeing you last evening
C. but could not find you at home.
D. No error
Q. 6 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The number of jobs that would be satisfactory in all respects are small.
A. The number of jobs
B. that would be satisfactory in all respects
C. are small.
D. No error
Q. 7 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
I have found the man who I know is the thief.
A. I have found the man
B. whom I know
C. is the thief
D. No error
Q. 8 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
There is no reason why he should not come since he is in town and is free.
A. There is no reason
B. why he should not come
C. since he is in town and is free.
D. No error
Q. 9 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It is high time we cried a half to the existing corrupt practices followed in the educational sphere.
A. It is high time
B. we cried a halt to the existing corrupt practices
C. followed in the educational sphere.
D. No error
Q. 10 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The situation is perilous but if we are prepared promptly to act, there is still one chance of escape.
A. The situation is perilous
B. but if we are prepared promptly to act,
C. there is still one chance of escape.
D. No error
Q. 11 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
We should always try to maintain and promote communal ‘amity’.
A. bondage
B. contention
C. friendship
D. understanding
Q. 12 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Many species of animals have become ‘extinct’ during the last hundred years.
A. aggressive
B. non-existent
C. scattered
D. feeble
Q. 13 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
True religion does not require one to ‘proselytize’ through guile or force.
A. translate
B. hypnotize
C. attack
D. convert
Q. 14 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
That the plan is both inhuman and ‘preposterous’ needs no further proof.
A. heartless
B. impractical
C. absurd
D. abnormal
Q. 15 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The attitude of the Western countries towards the third-world countries is rather ‘callous’ to say the least.
A. passive
B. unkind
C. cursed
D. unfeeling
Q. 16 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Whatever the ‘verdict’ of history may be, Chaplin will occupy a unique place in its pages.
A. judgement
B. voice
C. outcome
D. prediction
Q. 17 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He ‘corroborated’ the statement of his brother.
A. confirmed
B. disproved
C. condemned
D. seconded
Q. 18 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Whatever opinion he gives is ‘sane.’
A. rational
B. obscure
C. wild
D. arrogant
Q. 19 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The story is too fantastic to be ‘credible.’
A. believable
B. false
C. readable
D. praiseworthy
Q. 20 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Catching snakes can be ‘hazardous’ for people untrained in the art.
A. tricky
B. harmful
C. difficult
D. dangerous
Q. 21 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
His short but pointed speech was ‘applauded’ by all sections of the audience.
A. disapproved
B. misunderstood
C. praised
D. welcomed
Q. 22 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power or ‘material’ growth.
A. internal
B. spiritual
C. psychic
D. celestial
Q. 23 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
A ‘friendly’ dog met us at the farm gate.
A. helpful
B. understanding
C. quiet
D. hostile
Q. 24 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He is extremely ‘intelligent’ but proud.
A. dull
B. weak
C. ignorant
D. arrogant
Q. 25 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The young leader was ‘reluctant’ to shoulder the responsibilities of the ministerial office.
A. wanting
B. willing
C. anxious
D. eager
Q. 26 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He ‘abandoned’ his family.
A. supported
B. encouraged
C. pleased
D. saved
Q. 27 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
History ‘abounds’ in instances of courage.
A. shines
B. lacks
C. suffices
D. fails
Q. 28 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
‘Adversity’ teaches man to be humble and self-reliant.
A. Sincerity
B. Animosity
C. Curiosity
D. Prosperity
Q. 29 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Life poverty, ‘affluence’ can sometimes create its own problems.
A. indigence
B. opulence
C. sorrow
D. exuberance
Q. 30 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The habit of ‘squandering’ money should not be encouraged.
A. discarding
B. hoarding
C. donating
D. stealing
Q. 31 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
You haven’t had your lunch yet, ________ you?
A. are
B. aren’t
C. have
D. haven’t
Q. 32 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Life is to death as pleasure is to ____________.
A. poverty
B. suffering
C. anguish
D. pain
Q. 33 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The French _________ reputed to have a very good sense of humour.
A. is
B. was
C. are
D. will be
Q. 34 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the ________ of life oiled and running smoothly.
A. path
B. machine
C. garden
D. river
Q. 35 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on the
_________ of adulthood.
A. boundary
B. threshold
C. peak
D. horizon
Q. 36 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The more your action and thought are allied and ________, the happier you grow.
A. divergent
B. unraveled
C. integrated
D. invincible
Q. 37 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
He ________ in wearing the old-fashioned coat in spite of his wife’s disapproval.
A. insists
B. persists
C. desists
D. resists
Q. 38 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
It is not what you say that ________, but what you do.
A. matches
B. implies
C. matters
D. moves
Q. 39 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Physically we are now all neighbors, but psychologically we are ________ to each other.
A. primitives
B. complementary
C. strangers
D. cowards
Q. 40 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The old ‘Nature’ versus _______ debate regarding crime continues even today.
A. ‘Man’
B. ‘Universe’
C. ‘Culture’
D. ‘Nurture’
Q. 41 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). As the parties failed to reach any agreement, the meeting ‘broke through.’
A. broke out
B. broke away
C. broke up
D. No improvement
Q. 42 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). If I ‘have reached’ there by this time tomorrow, I will write to you immediately.
A. reached
B. reach
C. am reaching
D. No improvement
Q. 43 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). My friend met me, unexpectedly, when I ‘looked’ for a taxi, desperately.
A. had looked
B. was looking
C. had been looking
D. No improvement
Q. 44 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Her learning makes up ‘towards’ her want of beauty.
A. for
B. to
C. against
D. No improvement
Q. 45 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
If he ‘got’ his enemy in his hand, he would have crushed him to death.
A. has got
B. was getting
C. had got
D. No improvement
Q. 46 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). Please ask your son to turn ‘off’ the radio so that is is not quite so loud.
A. in
B. back
C. down
D. No improvement
Q. 47 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). He said that when I ‘have worked’ for him for six months I would get a pay rise.
A. had worked
B. have had worked
C. did work
D. No improvement
Q. 48 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
I am looking forward to ‘joining’ your organization.
A. join
B. join in
C. having joined
D. No improvement
Q. 49 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). I am not sure why ‘she is wanting’ to see him.
A. she wants
B. is she wanting
C. she want
D. No improvement
Q. 50 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). Everbody who ‘finished’ writing can go home.
A. had finished
B. have finished
C. has finished
D. No improvement
Q. 51 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Grand banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world due to the
presence of a vast continental shelf.
Statement II: Planktons grow in the shallow waters.
A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is the true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 52 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell performs all functions of a living organism.
Statement II: Cell is the fundamental unit of a living organism.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 53 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the
Kushanas.
Statement II: The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 54 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Jahandar Sah’s reign came to an early end in January 1713
Statement II: He was defeated at Agra by Farrukhsiyar, his nephew.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 55 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement 1: The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of British politics
necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act.
Statement II: The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 56 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement I: It is not necessary that every bar magnet has one North Pole and one South Pole.
Statement II: Magnetic poles occur in pair.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 57 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement I: A body moving in a circular path is acted upon by the centripetal force.
Statement II: Centripetal force acting on the body is doing work to keep it rotating in the circular path.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 58 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called typhoons.
2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called tornadoes.
3. The tropical cyclones of Australia are called willy-willies.
4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather condition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Q. 59 Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
A. Cambodia
B. Laos
C. Myanmar
D. Taiwan
Q. 60 Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1°C is known as
A. water equivalent
B. thermal capacity
C. specific heat
D. temperature gradient
Q. 61 Consider the following reaction :
xAs₂S₃+yO₂→zAs₂O₃+wSO₂
What is y(the coefficient for O₂) when the equation is balanced using whole number
coefficients?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Q. 62 Growth and repair of damaged tissue involve
A. mitotic cell division only
B. both mitotic and meiotic cell divisions
C. meiotic cell division only
D. amitotic cell division only
Q. 63 Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for
A. textiles
B. dairying
C. shipbuilding
D. paper industry
Q. 64 If the motion of an object is represented by a straight line parallel to the time axis in a distance-time graph, then the object undergoes
A. an accelerated motion
B. a decelerated motion
C. a uniform non-zero velocity motion
D. a zero velocity motion
Q. 65 How many grams of MgCO₃ contain 24.00 g of oxygen? (The molar mass of MgCO₃ is 84.30 g mo⁻¹)
A. 42.15 g
B. 84.30 g
C. 126.00 g
D. 154.00 g
Q. 66 Which one of the following is not a function of the liver?
A. Conversion of glucose into glycogen
B. Production of urea
C. Destruction of dead and worn-out red blood cells
D. Absorption of food and excess water from the undigested food
Q. 67 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of economic sectors in terms of their contribution to the GDP of India in decreasing order?
A. Service-Industry-Agriculture
B. Agriculture-Industry-Service
C. Industry-Service-Agriculture
D. Agriculture-Service-Industry
Q. 68 A force F⃗, acting on an electric charge q, in presence of an electromagnetic field, moves the charge parallel to the magnetic field with velocity v⃗. Then F⃗ is equal to *where E⃗ and B⃗ are electric field and magnetic field respectively)
A. qE⃗
B. q(v⃗xB⃗)
C. q(v⃗xE⃗)
D. qB⃗
Q. 69 What is the oxidizing agent in the following equation?
HAsO₂(aq)+Sn²⁺(aq)+H⁺(aq)→As(s)+Sn⁴⁺(aq)+H₂O(l)
A. HAsO₂(aq)
B. Sn²⁺(aq)
C. H¬⁺(aq)
D. Sn⁴⁺(aq)
Q. 70 Which one of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Cervix
C. Urethra
D. Vagina
Q. 71 If a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 pm on Monday, at what time and on what day will it be heard at Dhaka (90°E)?
A. 7:45 pm on Monday
B. 7:45 am on Monday
C. 7:45 pm on Tuesday
D. 7:45 am on Sunday
Q. 72 Which of the following are the correct parameters for the common domestic power supply in India?
A. 220 V, 110 Hz
B. 220 V, 50 Hz
C. 110 V, 220 Hz
D. 110 V, 50 Hz
Q. 73 Which one o the following substances is most likely to be used as soap?
A. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂COOCH₃
B. CH₃(CH₂)₅O(CH₂)₅CH₃
C. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂COONa
D. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂CHCl₂
Q. 74 Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded?
A. Dolphin
B. Shark
C. Whale
D. Porpoise
Q. 75 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographical Feature) (Type of Geographical process)
A. Cirque 1. Erosional feature of wind
B. Yardang 2. Depositional feature of glacier
C. Barkhan 3. Depositional feature of wind
D. Drumlin 4. Erosional feature of glacier
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(3), D(2)
B. A(4), B(3), C(1), D(2)
C. A(2), B(3), C(1), D(4)
D. A(2), B(1), C(3), D(4)
Q. 76 A ray of light travels from a medium refractive index n₁ to a medium refractive index n₂. If angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r, then sin i/sin r is equal to
A. n₁
B. n₂
C. n₂/n₁
D. n₁/n₂
Q. 77 A sample of gas is to be identified by means of its behaviour in the presence of a glowing splint. Which of the following gases will neither itself burn not cause the splint to burn?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Q. 78 Leprosy is caused by
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. protozoa
D. retrovirus
Q. 79 A topographical map with scale 1:50000 indicates 1 cm to
A. 50 km
B. 500 m
C. 50 m
D. 5 km
Q. 80 Light waves projected on oil surface show even colours due to the phenomenon of
A. polarization
B. refraction
C. reflection
D. interference
Q. 81 A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge of 2⁻ has
A. The same number of electrons as a neutral argon atom
B. More protons than electrons
C. 2 unpaired electrons
D. 20 protons
Q. 82 Which among the following is a plant hormone?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxin
C. Gibberellin
D. Estrogen
Q. 83 Quartzite is metamorphosed from
A. limestone
B. plutonic rock
C. sandstone
D. shale
Q. 84 Which one of the following processes explains the splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours?
A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
C. Diffraction
D. Polarization
Q. 85 The very high heat of vaporization of water is mainly a result of
A. van der Waals forces
B. covalent bonds
C. interionic attraction
D. hydrogen bonding
Q. 86 Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO2 pollution of air?
A. Ferns
B. Mentha
C. Lichens
D. Hornworts
Q. 87 The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to the equatorial region is known as
A. westerly
B. trade wind
C. doldrum
D. easterly
Q. 88 Two bodies A and B having masses m and 4 m respectively are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of kinetic energies between A and B is
A. 1:4
B. 4:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:2
Q. 89 Optical glass used in the construction of spectacles is made by
A. flint glass
B. crookes glass
C. quartz glass
D. hard glass
Q. 90 Which one of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cell?
A. cell membrane
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. cell wall
D. mitochondria
Q. 91 Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?
A. labrador current
B. kuroshio current
C. peru current
D. benguela current
Q. 92 A force applied on a body is represented as –
F⃗ = 6î-8ĵ+10k̂
and accelerates it at 1 m/s². The mass of the body is
A. 10 kg
B. 10√2 kg
C. 2√10 kg
D. 8 kg
Q. 93 The burning sensation of a bee sting can be stopped by rubbing the affected area with soap. This is because
A. a bee sting is acidic and soap, an alkali, neutralizes it
B. a bee sting is alkaline and soap, an acid, neutralizes it
C. soap cleans the affected area and removes the sting
D. soap acts as an anesthetic and dulls the sensation
Q. 94 Consider the following statements:
1. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy to humans.
2. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 95 The place located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is
A. Badrinath
B. Rishikesh
C. Rudraprayag
D. Devprayag
Q. 96 Light waves are
A. electro-mechanical waves
B. electro-magnetic waves
C. electro-optical waves
D. magneto-optical waves
Q. 97 A sample of carbon dioxide that undergoes a transformation from solid to liquid and then to gas would undergo
A. a change in mass
B. a change in density
C. a change in composition
D. no change in physical properties
Q. 98 Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not correctly matched?
A. Papanasam-Hydropower
B. Neyveli-Hydropower
C. Ukai-Thermal power
D. Rana Pratap Sagar-Hydropower
Q. 99 A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r at a constant speed v. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents its acceleration a?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Q. 100 Which of the following element combinations will form ionic compounds?
1. Ca (Z=20) and Ti (Z=22)
2. Si (Z=14) and Br (Z=35)
3. Mg (Z=12) and Cl (Z=17)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 101 In the term GIS, ‘G’ stands for
A. Global
B. Geographic
C. Goodness
D. Geological
Q. 102 A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. isobaric
D. isotropic
Q. 103 A compound of X₂O₃ contains 31.58% oxygen by weight. The atomic mass of X is
A. 34.66 g mol⁻¹
B. 45.01 g mol⁻¹
C. 52.00 g mol⁻¹
D. 104.00 g mol⁻¹
Q. 104 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil refineries in India in respect of their time of establishment (starting from the earliest)?
A. Barauni-Haldia-Guwahati-Mathura
B. Barauni-Mathura-Guwahati-Haldia
C. Guwahati-Haldia-Mathura-Barauni
D. Guwahati-Barauni-Haldia-Mathura
Q. 105 Which one of the following circuit elements is an active component?
A. Resistor
B. Transistor
C. Inductor
D. Capacitor
Q. 106 Which one among the following contains the most neutrons?
A. ⁵⁹₂₆Fe
B. ⁶¹₂₉Cu
C. ⁶¹₃₀Zn
D. ⁶⁰₃₀Zn²⁺
Q. 107 Movements of tides are mostly determined by
A. albedo effect
B. wind velocity
C. rotation of the Earth
D. revolution of the Earth
Q. 108 Fahrenheit and Celsius are the two scales used for measuring temperature. It the numerical value of a temperature recorded in both the scales is found to be same, what is the temperature?
A. -40°
B. +40°
C. +72°
D. -72°
Q. 109 Turpentine oil in paints is used as a
A. pigment
B. film-forming material
C. thinner
D. drier
Q. 110 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Textile industry) (Place)
A. Woolen textile 1. Sualkuchi
B. Cotton textile 2. Rishra
C. Silk textile 3. Ludhiana
D. Jute textile 4. Devangere
Code:
A. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
B. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
C. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
Q. 111 Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of
A. buoyancy of air
B. diffusion of the oil through the wick
C. capillary action in the wick
D. gravitational pull of the wick
Q. 112 If the reaction of 1.0 mol NH₃(g) and 1.0 mol O₂(g)
4NH₃(g)+5O₂(g)→4NO(g)+6H₂O(l)
is carried to completion, then
A. all the O₂(g) is consumed
B. 4.0 mol NO(g) is produced
C. 1.5 mol H₂O(l) is produced
D. All the NH₃(g) is consumed
Q. 113 Which of the following sequences is correct for rainfall?
A. Slow ascent of air-slow condensation-heavy downpour
B. Rapid ascent of air-large raindrops-heavy downpour
C. Pressure decreased-air compressed-heavy downpour
D. Descent of air-air warmed-heavy downpour
Q. 114 The working of a microwave oven involves
A. absorption of microwaves by matter
B. reception of microwaves by optical fibre
C. microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. transmission of microwaves through a metal
Q. 115 What would be the total population at the end of the year if the population at the beginning of the year is 5000 and population changed during the year is-birth 250, death 60, immigration 30 and emigration 15?
A. 5205
B. 5235
C. 5310
D. 5180
Q. 116 Two cars A and B have masses mA and mB respectively, with mA>mB. Both the cars are moving in the same direction with equal kinetic energy. If equal braking force is applied on both, then before coming to rest
A. A will cover a greater distance
B. B will cover a greater distance
C. Both will cover the same distance
D. Distance covered by them will depend on their respective velocities
Q. 117 If the length of the Equator is about 40000 km and the velocity of rotation is about 1700 km per hour, what would be the velocity of rotation at the Pole?
A. Zero
B. 850 km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 3400 km/hr
Q. 118 A bullet is fired vertically up from a 400m tall tower with a speed 80m/s. If g is taken as 10m/s², the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground will be
A. 8s
B. 16s
C. 20s
D. 24s
Q. 119 A cyclotron accelerates particles of mass m and chage q. The energy of particles emerging is proportional to
A. q²/m
B. q/m²
C. q²/m²
D. q
Q. 120 The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow object is
A. 4π
B. infinite
C. zero
D. dependent upon the shape of the object
Q. 121 The densities of three liquids are D, 2D and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three liquids are mixed?
A. 6D
B. 1.4D
C. 2D
D. 3D
Q. 122 A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line ABC, where AB=BC. The average velocity of the particle from A to B is 10m/s and from B to C is 15m/s. The average velocity for the whole journey from A to C in m/s is
A. 12
B. 12.5
C. 13
D. 13.5
Q. 123 The dimension of ‘impulse’ is the same as that of
A. pressure
B. angular momentum
C. work
D. linear momentum
Q. 124 Consider the following statements:
1. China won both Thomas Cup and Uber Cup Badminton Tournaments 2014.
2. The Uber Cup is the World Team Championship for women and the Thomas Cup is for men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 125 Consider the following statements about Drishti system:
1. It is a sophisticated instrument to assess the runway visual range.
2. This system is developed by Airports Authority of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 126 Which of the following about Malavath Poorna is correct?
A. First Indian swimmer to cross Suez Canal
B. Youngest woman to scale Everest
C. First Indian to win FIDE World Junior Championship
D. Winner of Young Scientist Award, 2014
Q. 127 Which one among the following countries was the top contributor to India’s FDI for the year 2013-14?
A. Mauritius
B. Singapore
C. USA
D. Japan
Q. 128 Which of the following statements about SIMBEX 14 is/are correct?
1. It was a bilateral naval exercise between Indian Navy and Sri Lankan Navy.
2. It was the 21st in the series.
3. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Q. 129 Consider the following statements:
1. Mobile Seva, the National Mobile Governance Initiative of Department of Electronics and Information Technology of India, has won the United Nations Public Service Award, 2014.
2. The innovative initiative is aimed at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 130 Consider the following statements about Prithvi-II Missile:
1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile.
2. It has a maximum range of 100km.
3. It is India’s first native made the ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 131 Consider the following statements about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS):
1. IRNSS is a constellation of five satellites, which were launched by PSLV.
2. It is an independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide position information in the Indian region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 132 The National Defence Academy has foreign cadets from which of the following countries?
1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Q. 133 From which one among the following countries has India recently (May 2014) recalled its troops, who went for a joint combat exercise in the country?
A. Malaysia
B. Thailand
C. Egypt
D. Singapore
Q. 134 Who among the following was associated with the formulation of the basic ideas of the Mahayana Buddhism?
A. Nagarjuna
B. Kashyapa Matanga
C. Menander
D. Kanishka
Q. 135 Consider the following statements about Harappan Culture:
1. The Harappan Culture matured in Sindh and Punjab.
2. It spread from there to Southwards and Eastwards.
3. The area, where it spread, was bigger than Egypt and Mesopotamia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 136 Megasthenes was a
A. Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya
B. Greek trader during Ashoka’s time
C. Greek trader in the Gupta period
D. Chinese pilgrim during Harsha’s time
Q. 137 By the late 19th century, India was one of the largest producers and exporters of
A. cotton yard and wheat
B. sugar and rice
C. sugar and alcohol
D. iron and steel
Q. 138 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of the poet-saints of the Bhakti-Sufi tradition?
A. Basavanna-Appar-Mira Bai-Lal Ded
B. Appar-Mira Bai-Lal Ded-Basavanna
C. Appar-Basavanna-Lal Ded-Mira Bai
D. Basavanna-Mira Bai-Lal Ded-Appar
Q. 139 Who among the following did not bring trading ships to the port of Surat in pre-British times?
A. Portuguese and English
B. Russian and German
C. English and Arab
D. French and Arab
Q. 140 The Factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to
A. improve the condition of labor in India
B. ensure greater governmental control over industry in India
C. provide a level playing field for English manufacturers
D. enable greater political control over Indian industry
Q. 141 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected every year
B. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 5 years
C. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 6 years
D. The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha
Q. 142 Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?
A. B.R.Ambedkar
B. K.M.Munshi
C. Krishnaswamy Iyer
D. M.K.Gandhi
Q. 143 Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Big Four’ in the Congress of Vienna (1815)?
A. Great Britain
B. Russia
C. Austria
D. France
Q. 144 The Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from nine of the thirteen colonies met in 1765 at
A. Philadelphia
B. New York City
C. Boston
D. Providence
Q. 145 Which of the following American colonies did not attend the first Continental Congress held in Philadelphia?
A. Rhode Island
B. Connecticut
C. Georgia
D. Maryland
Q. 146 The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign of
A. Czar Alexander I
B. Czar Alexander II
C. Czar Alexander III
D. Czar Nicholas II
Q. 147 Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
Q. 148 Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to
A. elect the President of India
B. elect the Vice President of India
C. adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
D. consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree
Q. 149 The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency
A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C. in his own discretion
D. when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Q. 150 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the working of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?
1. The traditional Zamindars lost their lands.
2. The reason for the Zamindars’ inability to pay up land revenues was that the Ryots
defaulted on payment of revenue.
3. A new group of farmers-the Jotedars-became influential.
4. The Collector replaced the Zamindars as the alternative focus of authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | A | C | A | B | C | B | D | D | B |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | B | D | C | D | A | A | A | A | D |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | A | B | D | A | B | A | B | D | A | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | C | D | C | B | B | C | B | C | C | D |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | B | B | A | C | C | A | D | A | C |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | B | D | A | A | D | C | C | D | B |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | C | A | C | D | A | D | A | A | A | C |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | A | B | C | B | A | C | B | B | B | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | A | C | C | A | D | C | B | B | A | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | B | A | B | D | B | B | B | D | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | B | C | D | B | A | C | A | C | A |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | C | A | B | A | A | C | A | B | A | C |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | A | D | B | A | B | B | B | C | C |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | B | B | B | A | D | A | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | D | D | B | C | D | C | D | D | D |