NDA/NA(I) Exam 2015 General Ability Test
Q. 1 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Unless you stop making noise at once, I will have no option but to bring the matter to the attention of the police.
A. Unless you stop to make noise at once,
B. I will have no option but to
C. bring the matter to the attention of the police.
D. No error
Q. 2 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
He couldn’t but help shed tears at the plight of the villagers rendered homeless by a
devastating cyclone.
A. He couldn’t but help
B. shed tears at the plight of the villagers
C. rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone.
D. No error
Q. 3 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused; none could clearly understand either the principles he stood for or the benefits he promised.
A. Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused;
B. none could clearly understand
C. either the principles he stood for or the benefits he promised.
D. No error
Q. 4 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers, who
lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century, were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy.
A. It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers,
B. who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century,
C. were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy.
D. No error
Q. 5 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
No sooner did I open the door when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot.
A. No sooner did I open the door
B. when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
C. making us shiver from head to foot.
D. No error
Q. 6 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
After opening the door we entered into the room next to the kitchen.
A. After opening the door
B. we entered into the room
C. next to the kitchen.
D. No error
Q. 7 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
When the dentist came in my tooth was stopped aching out of feat that I might lose my tooth.
A. When the dentist came in
B. my tooth was stopped aching
C. out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
D. No error
Q. 8 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Emphasis on equality of life ensures for the health and happiness of every individual.
A. Emphasis on equality of life ensures
B. for the health and happiness
C. of every individual.
D. No error
Q. 9 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The students were awaiting for the arrival of the chief guest.
A. The students were
B. awaiting for
C. the arrival of the chief guest.
D. No error
Q. 10 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
You will come to my party tomorrow, isn’t it?
A. You will come
B. to my party tomorrow,
C. isn’t it?
D. No error
Q. 11 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Having read a number of stories about space travel his dream now is about to visit the
Moon.
A. Having read a number of stories
B. about space travel
C. his dream now is about to visit the moon.
D. No error
Q. 12 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The meeting adjourned abruptly by the Chairman after about three hours of deliberation.
A. The meeting adjourned abruptly
B. by the Chairman after
C. about three hours of deliberation.
D. No error
Q. 13 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Not one of the hundreds of striking workers were allowed o go near the factory.
A. Not one of the hundreds
B. of striking workers
C. were allowed to go near the factory.
D. No error
Q. 14 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
If I had known this earlier I will have helped him.
A. If I had known
B. this earlier
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error
Q. 15 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Mr. Smith was accused for murder but the court found him not guilty and acquitted him.
A. Mr. Smith was accused for murder
B. but the court found him not guilty
C. and acquitted him.
D. No error
Q. 16 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Although India is still ‘by far’ a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilized.
A. few and far between
B. by and large
C. by and by
D. No improvement
Q. 17 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). ‘The more they earn, more they spend.’
A. More they earn, more they spend
B. More they earn, the more they spend
C. The more they earn, the more they spend
D. No improvement
Q. 18 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales ‘have well-formulated.’
A. can be well-formulated
B. are well-formulated
C. well-formulated
D. No improvement
Q. 19 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Five years ago on this date, I ‘am sitting’ in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
A. was sitting
B. sat
C. have been sitting
D. No improvement
Q. 20 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
The old man felled some trees in the garden with ‘hardly no effort’ at all.
A. hard effort
B. hardly any effort
C. a hardly any effort
D. No improvement
Q. 21 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
She says she’s already paid me back, but I can’t remember, so I’ll have ‘to take her word.’
A. to take her word true
B. to take her at word
C. to take her for word it
D. No improvement
Q. 22 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
The workers are ‘hell burnt at getting’ what is due to them.
A. hell burnt on getting
B. hell burnt for getting
C. hell burnt to getting
D. No improvement
Q. 23 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
You are warned ‘against committing’ the same mistake again.
A. to commit
B. for committing
C. against to commit
D. No improvement
Q. 24 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
While we would like ‘that all Indian children’ to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.
A. that all the Indian children
B. if all the children of India
C. all Indian children
D. No improvement
Q. 25 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
‘Due to these reasons’ we are all in favor of universal compulsory education.
A. Out of these reasons
B. For these reasons
C. By these reasons
D. No improvement
Q. 26 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes ‘at crushing’ them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement
Q. 27 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that ‘much has happened’ since then.
A. much has been happening
B. much had happened
C. much might happen
D. No improvement
Q. 28 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Taxpayers ‘are to’ be conscious of their privileges.
A. have to
B. need
C. ought to
D. No improvement
Q. 29 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
I would have waited for you at the station if ‘I knew’ that you would come
A. had known
B. was knowing
C. have known
D. No improvement
Q. 30 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could ‘penetrate’ such a mindless act on his friends.
A. perpetuate
B. perpetrate
C. precipitate
D. No improvement
Q. 31 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: At the roadside the driver will be asked to blow through a small glass tube into a plastic bag.
S6: The driver will be asked to go to the police station.
P: And if the color change does not reach the line the diver cannot be punished under the new law.
Q: Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which change color if the driver has
alcohol on his breath.
R: But if the color change does reach the line then the test has proved positive.
S: If the color change goes beyond a certain line marked on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably over the specified limit.
The proper sequence should be
A. PSQR
B. SQRP
C. RPSQ
D. QSPR
Q. 32 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: Hope springs eternally in the heart of man.
S6: This is the central idea of the poem.
P: But hope is everlasting.
Q: Love, friendship and youth perish.
R: It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature.
S: Man derives hope from nature in his gallant struggle after some noble ideal.
The proper sequence should be
A. QPRS
B. SRQP
C. RSQP
D. QPSR
Q. 33 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were spending a weekend in a University town.
S6: It was clear that something very unusual happened.
P: One evening they received a visit from an acquaintance, Mr. Hilton Soames.
Q: On that occasion he was in a state of great agitation.
R: They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the library.
S: Mr. Soames was a tall, thin man of a nervous and excitable nature.
The proper sequence should be
A. PRSQ
B. RPSQ
C. PQRS
D. RPQS
Q. 34 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: The machines that drive modern civilization derive their power from coal and oil.
S6: Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this respect.
P: But they are not inexhaustible.
Q: These sources may not be exhausted very soon.
R: A time may come when some other sources have to be tapped and utilized.
S: Power may, of course, be obtained in future from forests, water, wind and withered
vegetables.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. QPRS
C. SRQP
D. SPQR
Q. 35 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: The body can never stop.
S6: It comes from food.
P: To support this endless activity, the body needs all the fuel for action.
Q: Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is always moving.
R: Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.
S: The fuel must come from somewhere.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. PRQS
C. QRPS
D. SRQP
Q. 36 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of progress.
S6: This sense they have inherited from the English.
P: Therefore, he believes that, because of human effort, the future will be better than the past.
Q: But if Americans are usually optimistic, they are not wholly unrealistic.
R: The American tends to view history as a record of human achievement.
S: They have some common sense practicality.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. RPQS
D. PRQS
Questions: 37 – 42
After having slept for an hour, Bond Decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact . After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and steeped out of the hotel . No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly (37)” ” that he was being (38) ” ” by someone. There was really no (39)” ” for it except a very slight (40) ” ” of footsteps. He was ow walking (41) ” ” the main street , which was crowded (42) ” ” with people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.
Q. 37 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (37)
A. felt
B. occured
C. happened
Q. 38 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (38)
A. Followed
B. Shot
C. Looked
Q. 39 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (39)
A. reason
B. cause
C. evidence
Q. 40 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (40)
A. weight
B. Sound
C. Hurting
Q. 41 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (41)
A. from
B. down
C. over
Q. 42 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (42)
A. with
B. by
C. in
Q. 43 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word.
He was ‘fired’ for negligence on duty.
A. relieved of his job
B. scolded
C. rebuked
D. attacked
Q. 44 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word. Democracy is not the standardizing of everyone so as to ‘obliterate’ all peculiarity.
A. demolish
B. extinguish
C. erase
D. change
Q. 45 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word. Divine grace is truly ‘ineffable.’
A. that which cannot be rubbed out
B. incapable of being understood
C. that which is too great to be expressed in words
D. too powerful to be defeated
Q. 46 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word.
The convocation address was very ‘edifying.’
A. tedious
B. in need of editing
C. instructive
D. exciting
Q. 47 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
John is always ‘shabbily’ dressed.
A. decently
B. beautifully
C. extravagently
D. scantily
Q. 48 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
The new manager of the Bank is ‘urbane’ in his manners.
A. civilized
B. slow
C. rude
D. foolish
Q. 49 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
It is necessary to develop ‘thrifty’ habits to be able to lead a comfortable life.
A. expensive
B. extravagant
C. economical
D. good
Q. 50 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
Many people suffer because of ‘pride.’
A. lowliness
B. submission
C. humility
D. obedience
Q. 51 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.
Statement II: A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 52 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: The granules of modern gunpowder (also called black powder) are typically coated with Graphite.
Statement II: Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 53 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Color of nitrogen dioxide changes to colorless at low temperature.
Statement II: At low-temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) is formed which is colorless.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 54 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Diamond is very bright
Statement II: Diamond has very low refractive index.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 55 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate by heating a mixture of
potassium chlorate and manganese dioxide than heating potassium chlorate alone.
Statement II: Manganese dioxide acts as a negative catalyst.
A. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
B. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 56 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: A body weighs less on a hilltop than on earth’s surface even though its mass remains unchanged.
Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity of the earth decreases with height.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 57 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: While putting clothes for drying up, we spread them out.
Statement II: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 58 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Due to diffused or irregular reflection of light, a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside the room.
Statement II: Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 59 Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 x 10⁵ Hz are passed through a medium where the speed of sound is 10 times that in the air (speed of sound in air is 300m/s). The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be of the order or
A. 1cm
B. 10cm
C. 100cm
D. 0.1cm
Q. 60 If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remaining the same, g would decrease by nearly
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Q. 61 The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is
A. a straight line
B. a circle
C. a parabola
D. any curve depending upon initial conditions
Q. 62 Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?
A. nearly spherical drop of rain
B. capillary rise
C. removal of dirt by soap or detergent
D. flow of a liquid
Q. 63 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Compound) (Nature)
A. Sodium hydroxide 1. Strong acid
B. Calcium oxide 2. Alkali
C. Acetic acid 3. Weak acid
D. Hydrochloric acid 4. Base
Code:
A. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
B. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
C. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
Q. 64 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India
B. Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area of Tamil Nadu
C. Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka
D. Assam is the largest tea producing state in India
Q. 65 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Paper industry center) (State)
A. Kamptee 1. Karnataka
B. Rajahmundry 2. Maharashtra
C. Shahdol 3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Belagola 4. Madhya Pradesh
A. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
B. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
C. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
D. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
Q. 66 The newly formed state of Telangana is surrounded by
A. 5 states
B. 4 states
C. 6 states
D. 3 states
Q. 67 Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called
A. Metabolism
B. Phagocytosis
C. Photorespiration
D. Decomposition
Q. 68 All life forms contain “molecules of life”. These are
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Nucleic acids
D. All of the above
Q. 69 If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity parallel to the magnetic field, then it will
A. trace helical path
B. trace circular path
C. continue its motion without any change
D. come to rest instantly
Q. 70 Optical fibers, through heat bent in any manner, allows light to pass through. What is the inference that one can draw from it?
A. The concept that light travels in straight path is wrong
B. Light can flow through the optical fibers
C. Light can travel through the fibers because of their ductility
D. Light can travel through the fibers due to multiple total internal reflections
Q. 71 Which one among the following happens when a swing rises to a certain height from its resting position?
A. Its potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases
B. Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy increases
C. Both potential and kinetic energy decrease
D. Both potential and kinetic energy increase
Q. 72 Which one among the following is used in making gunpowder?
A. Magnesium sulphate
B. Potassium nitrate
C. Sodium stearate
D. Calcium sulphate
Q. 73 The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to the formation of
A. Micelle
B. salt
C. Base
D. Acid
Q. 74 The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is
A. Sodium sulphate
B. Sodium sulphide
C. Sodium thiosulphate
D. Sodium sulphite
Q. 75 Rainshadow effect is associated with
A. Cyclonic rainfall
B. Orographic rainfall
C. Convectional rainfall
D. Frontal rainfall
Q. 76 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Place) (Industry)
A. Jabalpur 1. Petro-chemical industry
B. Bengaluru 2. IT Industry
C. Mathura 3. Paper Industry
D. Ballarpur 4. Automobile Industry
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)
Q. 77 Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most important in terms of area coverage in Haryana?
A. Bhakra canal
B. The Western Yamuna canal
C. Jawaharlal Nehru canal
D. Gurgaon canal
Q. 78 Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the properties of life such as the capacity for metabolism, response to the environment, growth, and reproduction?
A. Gene
B. Chromosome
C. Nucleus
D. Cell
Q. 79 In plants, which one of the following gases is released during Photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Q. 80 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Physical quantity) (Unit)
A. Distance 1. Mole
B. Amount of material 2. Coulomb
C. Amount of electrical charge 3. Lightyear
D. Energy 4. Watt-hour
Code:
A. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
D. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
Q. 81 A ray of light when refracted suffers a change in velocity. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
A. Velocity increases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium
B. Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a denser to a rarer medium
C. Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium
D. Change of velocity does not depend on the nature of medium
Q. 82 An object is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The image produced will be
A. Real and magnified
B. Virtual and magnified
C. Virtual and reduced in size
D. Real and reduced in size
Q. 83 Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells?
A. Graphite is soft and can be easily moulded into electrodes
B. Graphite is made of layers of carbon atoms which can slide
C. Graphite is inert to most of the chemicals and remains intact in electrolytic cells
D. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
Q. 84 Washing Soda is the common name for
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Magnesium Carbonate
C. Sodium Carbonate
D. Potassium Carbonate
Q. 85 Which one of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of area under forest cover?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Sikkim
C. Meghalaya
D. Mizoram
Q. 86 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(National Park/ (State)
Wildlife Sanctuary)
A. Chandra Prabha 1. Uttarakhand
B. Silent Valley 2. Chhattisgarh
C. Valley of flowers 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Indravati 4. Kerala
Code:
A. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
B. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
C. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
Q. 87 To a perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic, Earth’s axis of rotation makes an angle of 23½ degrees. Had this angle been zero degrees, which one among the following would result?
A. There would have been no season
B. The length of day and night would have been the same throughout the year
C. The length of the day and night would have been the same all over the earth
D. All of the above
Q. 88 Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Tetraploid
D. Polyploid
Q. 89 The seeds of flowering plants are made up of
A. ovary and ovary wall
B. embryo, food reserves and coat
C. cotyledons
D. zygotes
Q. 90 A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only one foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude
A. 4P
B. P
C. ½P
D. 2P
Q. 91 A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The temperature is measured at equal intervals of time. The graph in the figure shows the change of temperature with time.
The part of the curve that is practically horizontal is due to
A. latent heat given away by liquid
B. specific heat given away by liquid
C. thermal capacity increases with time keeping temperature constant
D. change in density during transformation
Q. 92 A deep sea driver may hurt his eardrum during diving because of
A. lack of oxygen
B. high atmospheric pressure
C. high water pressure
D. all of the above
Q. 93 When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger near the metallic handle of a door, an electric shock is produced.
This is because
A. charge is transferred from your body to the handle
B. a chemical reaction occurs when you touch the handle
C. the temperature of the human body is higher than that of the handle
D. the human body and the handle arrive at thermal equilibrium by the process
Q. 94 Which among the following does not wet the walls of the glass vessel in which it is kept?
A. water
B. alcohol
C. mercury
D. phenol
Q. 95 Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of
A. sulphates of sodium and potassium
B. sulphates of magnesium and calcium
C. carbonates of sodium and magnesium
D. bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium
Q. 96 In the reaction ZnO + C→Zn + CO, ‘C’ acts as
A. an acid
B. a base
C. an oxidizing agent
D. a reducing agent
Q. 97 Which of the following are the characteristics of organic farming?
1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
3. Use of herbs to control pests.
4. Higher productivity per hectare.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4
Q. 98 ‘Yakuts’ are the nomadic herders of
A. Gobi
B. Sahara
C. Tundra
D. Kalahari
Q. 99 A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice is very environment-friendly. Which of the following practices on his farm can justify his claim?
1. Planting a tree belt.
2. Practising crop rotation.
3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system.
4. Using organic fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2 only
Q. 100 The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rainforest is due to
1. fertile soil
2. hot and wet climate throughout the year
3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. 101 Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesize a particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre disease?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pancreas
C. Thymus
D. Thyroid gland
Q. 102 Which one of the following is not a part of nerves?
A. Axons
B. Connective tissues
C. Schwann cells
D. Smooth muscles
Q. 103 The product of conductivity and resistivity of a conductor
A. depends on pressure applied
B. depends on current flowing through conductor
C. is the same for all conductors
D. varies from conductor to conductor
Q. 104 We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide sufficient light. The full form of CFL is
A. Condensed filament light
B. Compact filament lamp
C. Condensed fluorescent lamp
D. Compact fluorescent lamp
Q. 105 When the sun is 30° above the horizon, the shadow of one tree is 17.3m long. What is the height of this tree?
A. 20m
B. 17.30m
C. 10m
D. 1.73m
Q. 106 When heat rays are reflected from Earth, gases like Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide do not allow them to escape back to space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are known as
A. noble gas
B. green-house gas
C. hot gas
D. blue gas
Q. 107 A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for the given mass. Which of these methods can be used in a space-station orbiting Earth?
A. Both
B. Only the extension method
C. Only the oscillation method
D. Neither
Q. 108 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Region) (Vegetation)
A. Selvas 1. Conifers
B. Savannas 2. Mosses and Lichens
C. Taiga 3. Epiphytes
D. Tundra 4. Grasses and trees
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
D. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
Q. 109 Which of the following statements with regard to the western coastal plain of India are correct?
1. It is a narrow belt
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain
3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports
4. It has well-developed deltas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 3 and 4 only
Q. 110 Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading?
A. stormy weather
B. calm weather
C. cold and dry weather
D. hot and sunny weather
Q. 111 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Island) (Location)
A. Continental island 1. Mauritius
B. Coral island 2. Madagascar
C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
D. Mountain island 4. Maldives
Code:
A. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
B. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
C. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
D. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
Q. 112 Consider the following diagram
In which one among the following lettered areas of diagram would erosion most likely change the shape of riverbed ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 113 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Cloud) (Characteristic)
A. Cirrus 1. Rain giving
B. Stratus 2. Feathery appearance
C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing
D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading
Code:
A. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
B. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
C. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
Q. 114 The concept of demographic transition provides a model for
A. analyzing government responses to changing pattern of population growth
B. explaining major patterns of global population movement throughout the history
C. analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth and movement of population
over time
D. examining the relationship between economic development and natural population
change.
Q. 115 The precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes from β-carotene?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Q. 116 ‘Lub-dup’ sound is produced due to action of
A. large intestine
B. lungs
C. heart
D. oesophagus
Q. 117 The Sun is observed to be reddish when it is near the horizon, i.e., in the morning and the evening. This is because
A. red light is least scattered by atmosphere
B. red light is most scattered by atmosphere
C. it is the color of the Sun in the morning and evening
D. Earth’s atmosphere emits red light
Q. 118 Thermal conductivity of aluminum, copper, and stainless steel increases in the order
A. Copper<Aluminium<Stainless steel
B. Stainless steel<aluminium<copper
C. Aluminium<Copper<Stainless steel
D. Copper<Stainless steel<Aluminium
Q. 119 Perspiration cools the body because
A. presence of water on the skin is cooling
B. evaporation requires latent heat
C. water has a high specific heat
D. water is a poor conductor of heat
Q. 120 The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is about one-sixth that on the Earth. From this, we can conclude that the ratio of the mass of Earth to the mass of the Moon is about
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 10,000
Q. 121 Which of the following country/countries successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars’ orbit by maiden attempt?
A. USA
B. USA and Russia
C. India
D. China
Q. 122 The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles away from the Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out
A. the age of the Sun
B. the age of the Universe
C. new fundamental atomic particles
D. the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to Earth
Q. 123 Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction?
A. Kailash Satyarthi
B. J D Watson
C. Mikhail Gorbachev
D. Jody Williams
Q. 124 Which one among the following statements with regard to a climate deal adopted between USA and China in November 2014 is not correct?
A. China committed to cap its output of carbon pollution by the year 2030 or earlier
B. China committed to increase its use of zero emission energy to 20% by the year 2030
C. USA agreed to reduce its emissions by 26%-28% below its year 2005 levels in the year 2025
D. Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal technologies by the year 2020
Q. 125 Which one among the following books is centered around ‘environment’?
A. The Late, Great Planet Earth
B. Silent Spring
C. Here I Stand
D. And Then One Day
Q. 126 Who among the following cricket players has not died while playing a match?
A. Wasim Raja
B. Phillip Hughes
C. Raman Lamba
D. Vijay Hazare
Q. 127 Which one among the following films was conferred the ‘Golden Peacock’ award in the 45th International Film Festival of India (2014)?
A. Ek Hazarachi Note
B. A Short Story
C. Leviathan
D. Ajeyo
Q. 128 Which one among the following films was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) at the 72nd Golden Globe Awards?
A. The Theory of Everything
B. Boyhood
C. Still Alice
D. Birdman
Q. 129 East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket tournament 2014-15 by defeating
A. South Zone
B. Central Zone
C. West Zone
D. North Zone
Q. 130 Which one among the following books won the Man Booker Prize 2014?
A. History of the Rain
B. The Lives of Others
C. The Narrow Road to the Deep North
D. How to be Both
Q. 131 The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment of Socialist pattern of society was commonly referred to as the
A. Harrod-Domar Plan
B. Mahalanobis Plan
C. Nehru Plan
D. Peoples Plan
Q. 132 Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the possible reason for such an achievement?
A. availability of raw materials at local level
B. centralized markets for crafts
C. specialized training centers for craftsmen
D. state control
Q. 133 Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock edicts:
1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka’s remorse at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign.
2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka’s visit to Lumbini.
3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas as a new category of officers
instituted by Ashoka.
4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance towards all sects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4
Q. 134 Which one of the following is the common element among Rajagriha, Vaishali, and Pataliputra?
A. Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there
B. Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there
C. Places where Buddhist Councils were held
D. Places associated with the compilation of Buddhist canons of the Mahasanghikas
Q. 135 Which one among the following sects was associated with Gosala Maskariputra?
A. Vajrayana
B. Ajivikas
C. Sthaviravadins
D. Mahasanghikas
Q. 136 Consider the following statements about the early modern technology in India:
1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal types to Goa in 1550.
2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared was Tamil.
3. The English Company’s first experiment with printing press was at Calcutta.
4. The English Company imported printing press to India in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Q. 137 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe de Gouges?
1. She was one of the most important politically active women in revolutionary France.
2. She was one of the members of the Committee that drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
3. She wrote the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Q. 138 Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest):
1. James Hargreave’s Spinning Jenny
2. John Kay’s Lying Shuttle
3. Samuel Crompton’s Mule
4. Richard Arkwright’s Water Frame
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Q. 139 While opposing the Public Safety Bill 1928 who among the following said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian Nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as ‘the Slavery of India, Bill No. 1’?
A. Motilal Nehru
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. T Prakasam
D. Diwan Chaman Lal
Q. 140 Soon after the formation of the Indian National Congress, the British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the following called Congress representing only the elite-‘a microscopic minority’?
A. Lord Napier
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Lytton
Q. 141 What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh, and Rajendra Lahiri?
A. They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929
B. They were the founder members of Swaraj Party
C. They were the founders of Hindustan Republican Association
D. They were associated with Kakori Conspiracy case
Q. 142 Which among the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under the Constitution of India?
1. right to education
2. right to work
3. right to form associations
4. rights to practice any profession
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3
Q. 143 Mahatma Gandhi’s Hind Swaraj is essentially
A. a critique o Western modernity
B. an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha
C. an innovation to Indians to free themselves from the British
D. a blueprint of Gram Swaraj
Q. 144 The Seventeenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
A. provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
B. the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list
C. a list of recognized languages
D. provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of
defection
Q. 145 Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telangana became famous in April 1951 because
A. the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave
B. the landless peasants rose up in arms against the landlords
C. it witnessed violent anti-Hindi agitation
D. Silk weavers’ cooperative was formed for the first time in India
Q. 146 Who among the following was not associated with the Sarvodaya movement?
A. Jaya Prakash Narayan
B. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
C. Dhirendra Mazumdar
D. GV Apparao
Q. 147 Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution
B. financial emergency
C. reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
D. Official language of the Union of India
Q. 148 Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
A. fundamental rights
B. independence of judiciary
C. federalism
D. the unquestioned right of the parliament to amend any part of the constitution
Q. 149 Which among the following is not a fundamental duty?
A. to abide by the Constitution of India and respect the national flag and national
anthem
B. to safeguard public property
C. to protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India
D. to render compulsory military service
Q. 150 Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act?
1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary, and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of panchayats.
3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commission.
4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | A | D | C | B | B | B | B | B | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | A | C | C | A | B | C | B | A | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | A | D | C | B | B | D | C | A | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | A | B | B | C | C | B | A | C | B |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | B | A | A | C | C | C | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | A | A | C | C | A | A | C | A | B |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | C | D | B | C | B | A | A | D | C | D |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | B | A | C | B | C | B | D | B | A |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | C | B | D | C | D | B | A | A | B | D |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | C | A | C | B | D | C | C | B | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | D | D | C | D | C | B | C | C | A | A |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | A | B | C | D | A | C | A | B | B | B |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | A | B | C | D | A | C | A | B | B | B |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | D | B | D | B | D | C | B | C | C |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | B | D | D | C | B | D | D | B | A | B |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | C | A | B | A | D | A | D | D | C |