JIPMER MBBS 2011
Q. 1 The physical quantity having the dimensions [M⁻¹L⁻³T³A²] is
A. resistance
B. resistivity
C. electrical conductivity
D. electromotive force
Q. 2 In the circuit shown the value of 1 in ampere is
A. 1
B. 0.60
C. 0.4
D. 1.5
Q. 3 The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 x The specific charge of an alpha panic
A. 9.6 x 10⁷ C/ kg
B. 19.2 x 10⁷ C/ kg
C. 4.8 x 10⁷ C/kg
D. 2.4 x 10⁷ C/ kg
Q. 4 If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of the first member of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively, then λ₁:λ₂ is
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 30
C. 7 : 50
D. 7 : 108
Q. 5 Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to (1/3)rd of its original value in 3 days. Then, in 9 days its activity will become
A. (1/27) of the original value
B. (1/9) of the original value
C. (1/18) of the original value
D. (1/3) of the original value
Q. 6 A tuning fork A produces 4 beats/s with another tuning fork B of frequency 320 Hz. On filing one of the prongs of A, 4 beasts are again heard when sounded with the same fork B. Then, the frequency of the fork A before filing is
A. 328 Hz
B. 316 Hz
C. 324 Hz
D. 320 Hz
Q. 7 If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Pressure
D. Archimedes’ upward thrust
Q. 8 A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because
A. choke is cheap
B. there is no wastage of power
C. choke is compact in size
D. choke good absorber of heat
Q. 9 velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically is
A. parabola
B. ellipse
C. hyperbola
D. straight line
Q. 10 If r1 and r2 are the radii of the atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125 respectively, then the ratio (r1/r2) is
A. 64/125
B. √64/125
C. 5/4
D. 4/5
Q. 11 The ionization energy of Li⁺² is equal to
A. 9Rhc
B. 6hcR
C. 2hcR
D. hcR
Q. 12 A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area 4 x10⁻⁶ m². If the density of charge carriers of the wire is 5 x 10²⁶ m⁻³, then the drift velocity of the electrons will be
A. 1 x 10² m/s
B. 1.56 x 10⁻² m/s
C. 1.56 x 10⁻³ m/s
D. 1 x 10⁻² m/s
Q. 13 The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always
A. less than one
B. equal to one
C. equal to or less than one
D. equal to or greater than one
Q. 14 In Young’s double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half angular width of the central maximum is
A. sin⁻¹ (0.01)
B. sin⁻¹ (0.0001)
C. sin⁻¹ (0.001)
D. sin⁻¹ (0.1)
Q. 15 The principle of LASER action involves
A. amplification of particular frequency emitted by the system
B. population inversion
C. stimulated emission
D. All of the above
Q. 16 A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed direction of car to the passenger in the train is
A. east-north direction
B. west-north direction
C. south-east direction
D. None of the above
Q. 17 Which of the following is unipolar transistor?
A. p-n-p transistor
B. n-p-n transistor
C. Field effect transistor
D. Point contact transistor
Q. 18 A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing
A. by determining their moments of inertia about their coaxial axes
B. by rolling them simultaneously on an inclined plane
C. by rotating them about a common axis of rotation
D. by applying equal torque on them
Q. 19 Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (-2, -2, 0) respectively. The moment of inertia 9 tem about X-axis will be
A. 43 kg-m²
B. 34 kg-m²
C. 27 kg-m²
D. 72 kg-m²
Q. 20 The radius of gyration of distance 6 cm from its centre an axis at a mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be
A. 80 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 0.8 cm
D. 80 m
Q. 21 A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using
A. low resistance shunt in series
B. low resistance shunt in parallel
C. high resistance shunt in series
D. high resistance shunt in parallel
Q. 22 A bullet of mass 20 g and moving with 600 m/s collides with a block of mass 4 kg hanging with the string. What is velocity of bullet when it comes out of block, if block rises to height 0.2 m after collision?
A. 200 m/s
B. 150 m/s
C. 400 m/s
D. 300 m/s
Q. 23 Voltage in the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon
A. frequency of the source
B. voltage in the primary coil
C. ratio of number of turns in the two coils
D. Both (b) and (c)
Q. 24 In Carnot engine efficiency is 40% at hot reservoir temperature T. For efficiency 50%, what will be temperature of hot reservoir?
A. T/5
B. 2T/5
C. 6T
D. 6T/5
Q. 25 A ball of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s, collides with spring of natural length 2 m and force constant 144 N/m. What will be length of compressed spring?
A. 2 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 1 m
D. 0.5 m
Q. 26 A proton moving vertically downward enters a magnet pointing towards north. In which direction proton on will deflect?
A. east
B. west
C. north
D. south
Q. 27 Induced emf in the coil depends upon conductivity of coil
A. conductivity of coil
B. amount of flux
C. rate of change of linked flux
D. resistance of coil
Q. 28 X-rays are used in determining the molecular structure of crystalline because
A. its energy is high
B. it can penetrate the material
C. its wavelength is comparable to interatomic distance
D. its frequency is low
Q. 29 Light of frequency v falls on material of threshold frequency vo. Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is proportional to
A. v-v₀
B. v
C. √v-v₀
D. v₀
Q. 30 A light moves from denser to rarer medium, which of the following is correct?
A. Energy increases
B. Frequency increases
C. Phase changes by 90°
D. Velocity increases
Q. 31 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
Q. 32 A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves 108 km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total distance travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.
A. 12.2 s
B. 15.3 s
C. 9 s
D. 17.2 s
Q. 33 A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)
A. 300 Hz
B. 350 Hz
C. 375 Hz
D. 415 Hz
Q. 34 The temperature of the sun can be found out by using
A. Wien’s displacement law
B. Kepler’s law of motion
C. Stefan’s Boltzmann law
D. Planck’s law
Q. 35 Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is effect on kinetic energy of molecules?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No change
D. Cannot be determined
Q. 36 Kirchhoff’s law of junction, E I = 0, is based on
A. conservation of energy
B. conservation of charge
C. conservation of energy as well as charge
D. conservation of momentum
Q. 37 A transverse wave is expressed as, Y=Y₀ sin 2πft For what value of X., maximum particle velocity equals to 4 times the wave velocity?
A. y₀ π/2
B. 2y₀ π
C. y₀ π
D. y₀ π/4
Q. 38 For a given lens, the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 in. The focal length of the lens is
A. 1.5 m
B. 0.20 m
C. 0.10 m
D. 0.05 m
Q. 39 When sound waves travel from air to water which one of the following remains constant ?
A. time period
B. frequency
C. velocity
D. wave length
Q. 40 the bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
A. zero
B. unity
C. infinity
D. between 0 and 1
Q. 41 10⁻⁶ M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of diluted base is
A. between 7 and 8
B. between 5 and 6
C. between 6 and 7
D. between 10 and 11
Q. 42 An sp³-hybrid orbital contains
A. 1/4 s-character
B. 1/2 s-character
C. 2/3 s-character
D. 3/4 s-character
Q. 43 Leaching is a process of
A. reduction
B. concentration
C. refining
D. oxidation
Q. 44 Electrolysis of fused NaCI will give
A. Na
B. NaOH
C. NaCIO
D. NaCIO₃
Q. 45 Which of the following fluorides does not exist?
A. NF₅
B. PF₅
C. AsF₅
D. SbF₅
Q. 46 Red lead is
A. PbO
B. Pbo₂
C. Pb₃o₄
D. Pb₂o₃
Q. 47 Hybridisation states of C in CH₃⁺ and CH₃⁻ are
A. sp² , sp³
B. sp³ , sp²
C. sp, sp²
D. sp² , sp
Q. 48 which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
A. [Co(NH₃)]⁺³
B. [Mn(CN₆)]₃₆⁻⁴
C. [Fe(CN)₆]⁻⁴
D. [Ni(NH₃)₆]⁺²
Q. 49 A solution made by dissolving 40 g NaOH in 1000g of H₂O is
A. 1 molar
B. 1 normal
C. 1 molal
D. none of these
Q. 50 0.1 mol HCl is equal to
A. 3.65 g
B. 36.5 g
C. 18 g
D. 1.8 g
Q. 51 which will liberate bromine from a solution of potassium bromide ?
A. I₂
B. Cl₂
C. SO₂
D. HI
Q. 52 which one of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
A. V⁺³
B. Fe⁺²
C. Mn⁺²
D. Cu⁺
Q. 53 The geometry of XeF₆ is
A. planar hexagon
B. regular octahedron
C. distorted octahedron
D. square bipyramid
Q. 54 The correct statement with regard to H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ is
A. both H₂⁺ an H₂⁻ are equally stable
B. both H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ do not exist
C. H₂⁻ is more stable than H₂⁺
D. H₂⁺ is more stable than H₂⁻
Q. 55 2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on the 1st march, 2009 (including both the days) is
A. 0 g
B. 0.125 g
C. 1 g
D. 0.5 g
Q. 56 The rate equation for a reaction, A —> B is r = k[A]⁰. If the initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm⁻³, the half-life period of the reaction is
A. a/2k
B. k/a
C. a/k
D. 2a/k
Q. 57 for the reaction, at 373 K and 1 atm pressure
A. ΔH = 0
B. Δ E = 0
C. Δ H = T ΔS
D. ΔH = ΔE
Q. 58 in electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A. decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B. decreases electron density at meta position
C. increases electron density at meta position
D. increases electron density at ortho and positions
Q. 59 The best method for the conversion of into an alkyl chloride is by treating the
A. PCI₃
B. PCI₅
C. SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine
D. dry HCl in the pre dross ZnCl₂
Q. 60 The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A. methanal
B. propanal
C. propanone
D. ethane
Q. 61 The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH, is
A. 1,1-clichloroethane
B. 1,1,1-trichloroethane
C. 1-chloroethane
D. 1,2-dichloroethane
Q. 62 The one which has least iodine value is
A. sunflower oil
B. ginger oil
C. ghee
D. groundnut oil
Q. 63 IUPAC name of (CH₃)₃CCI is
A. n-butyl chloride
B. 3- chloro butane
C. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
D. t-butyl chloride
Q. 64 The condensation polymer among the following is
A. rubber
B. protein
C. PVC
D. polyethene
Q. 65 In which of the following, NH3 is not used?
A. Tolien’s reagent
B. Nessler’s reagent
C. Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radicals
D. Group reagent for the analysis of III group basic radicals
Q. 66 Argon is used
A. in filling airships
B. to obtain low temperature
C. in high temperature welding
D. in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer
Q. 67 Hyperconjugation is most useful for stabilising which of the following carbocations?
A. Neo-pentyl
B. Tert-butyl
C. Iso-propyl
D. Ethyl
Q. 68 The isomerism that arises due to restricted bond rotation is
A. metamerism
B. optical isomerism
C. position isomerism
D. geometrical isomerism
Q. 69 amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel pthalimide synthesis is
A. aniline
B. benzylamine
C. methylamine
D. iso-butylamine
Q. 70 Lactose is made of
A. α-D-glucose only
B. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
C. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
D. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
Q. 71 Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular
A. anionic detergent
B. cationic detergent
C. non-ionic detergent
D. sweetener
Q. 72 The number of electrons, neutrons and protons in a species are equal to 10, 8 and 8 respectively. The proper symbol of the species is
A. ¹⁶₈O
B. ¹⁸₈O
C. ¹⁸₁₀Ne
D. ¹⁶₈O²⁻
Q. 73 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are mixed isothermally and at a total pressure of 10 atm. The partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen (in atm) are respectively
A. 4,6
B. 5,5
C. 2,8
D. 6,4
Q. 74 Which of the following undergoes reduction with hydrogen peroxide in alkaline medium?
(a) Mn2+ (b) 12 (d) Fee.
A. Mn⁺²
B. I₂
C. Mg⁺²
D. Fe⁺²
Q. 75 The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is
A. Ba
B. Ag
C. Rb
D. Pb
Q. 76 According to the first law of the thermodynamics. which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function ?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 77 The maximum oxidation state exhibited by actinide ions is
A. +5
B. +4
C. +7
D. +8
Q. 78 The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively.
A. gas and liquid
B. liquid and gas
C. solid and gas
D. solid and liquid
Q. 79 The expression for the solubility product of Ag₂CO₃ will be
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 80 A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic radiation of wave length 331.3 nm. How many photons are emitted from the lamp per second ? (h = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J-s; velocity of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s)
A. 1 x 10¹⁹
B. 1 x 10²⁰
C. 1 x 10²¹
D. 1 x 10²³
Q. 81 In mammals, histamine is secreted by
A. fibroblasts
B. histocytes
C. lymphocytes
D. mast cells
Q. 82 The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is
A. dentoblast
B. ameloblast
C. osteoblast
D. odontoblast
Q. 83 Which important green house gas, other than carbon dioxide, is being produced from the agricultural fields?
A. Arsine
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Ammonia
D. Nitrous oxide
Q. 84 The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the takes place by
A. osmosis
B. simple diffusion
C. passive transport
D. active transport
Q. 85 Carbon monoxide is a pollution
A. reacts with oxygen
B. inhibits glycolysis
C. reacts with haemoglobin
D. makes nervous system inactive
Q. 86 Total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is
A. 14
B. 21
C. 24
D. 30
Q. 87 Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which
A. elevates potassium level in blood
B. lowers calcium level in blood
C. elevates calcium level in blood
D. has no effect on calcium
Q. 88 A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. deamination
B. entropy
C. anuria
D. None of these
Q. 89 Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in
A. annelids
B. molluscs
C. echinodermates
D. ularyhelmir
Q. 90 A woman genes (one on each X-chromoso e mophilia and one gene for colour blindness on X-chromosome marries a normal man. how will the progeny be?
A. all sons and daughters are haemophilic and colour blind
B. haemophilic and colour blind daughters
C. 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
D. 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour blind daughters
Q. 91 The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is
A. cross birdge
B. myofibril
C. sacromere
D. Z-band
Q. 92 The contraction of gall bladder is due to
A. gastrin
B. secretin
C. cholecystokinin
D. enterogastrone
Q. 93 The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
A. origin of species by natural selection
B. intraspecific variations
C. intraspecific competition
D. interspecific competition
Q. 94 the most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is
A. progesterone
B. growth harmone
C. thyroxine
D. luteinising harmone
Q. 95 The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is
A. progesterone
B. growth hormone
C. thyroxine
D. luteinising hormone
Q. 96 The middle piece of the sperm contains
A. proteins
B. centriole
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
Q. 97 The term ‘aquaculture’ means
A. aspergillosis
B. inland fisheries
C. marine fisheries
D. Both (b) and (c)
Q. 98 Active immunity means
A. resistance developed after disease
B. increasing quantity of blood
C. resistance developed before disease
D. increasing rate of heart-beat
Q. 99 The canal system is a characteristic feature of
A. echinoderms
B. helminthes
C. coelenterates
D. sponges
Q. 100 Which cranial nerve has the highest number of branches?
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal
C. Vagus nerve
D. None of these
Q. 101 The problem due to Rh- factor arises when the blood of two (Rh’ and Rh-) mixup
A. during pregnancy
B. through transfusion
C. in a test tube
D. Both (a) and (b)
Q. 102 Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Vitamin-K — Beri-beri
B. Vitamin-D — Rickets
C. Vitamin-C — Scurvy
D. Vitamin-A — Xerophthalmia
Q. 103 The joint between atlas aril/axis is called
A. pivot joint
B. saddle joint
C. saddle joint
D. angular joint
Q. 104 The blood group with antibody-a and antibody-b is
A. B
B. A
C. 0
D. AB
Q. 105 Rate of heart beat is determined by
A. Purkinje fibres
B. papillary muscles
C. SA-node
D. AV-node
Q. 106 The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called
A. junction point
B. a synapse
C. a joint
D. constant bridge
Q. 107 Chondrichthyes is characterised by
A. placoid scale
B. ventral mouth
C. ctenoid scale and ventral mouth
D. placoid scale and ventral mouth
Q. 108 Secondary body cavity with segmente mesodermal lining is called
A. haemocoel
B. neurocoel
C. true coelom
D. pseudocoelom
Q. 109 Stratified epithelium is found in
A. seminiferous tubule
B. fallopian tube
C. nasal cavity
D. kidney tubules
Q. 110 Dead space air in man is
A. 500 mL
B. 150 mL
C. 250 mL
D. 1.5 L
Q. 111 Vetebrate brain differentiates from
A. endoderm
B. mesoderm
C. ectoderm
D. blastoderm
Q. 112 animals of class mammalia have
A. seven cervical vertebrae
B. seven cranial nerve
C. single ventricular chamber
D. fourteen cervical vertevrae
Q. 113 Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as
A. PAS vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. OPV
D. DPT
Q. 114 Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagonostic technique of
A. CT scanning
B. MRI
C. endoscopy
D. bronchoscopy
Q. 115 Alcoholism may leads to
A. skin cancer
B. liver cirrhosis
C. viral disease
D. eye infections
Q. 116 The basic unit of classification is
A. species
B. genus
C. family
D. phylum
Q. 117 Age of fishes is also known as
A. Permian Era
B. Silurian Era
C. Devonian Era
D. Ordovician Era
Q. 118 A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is
A. X-chromosomal linked disease
B. Autosomal linked disease
C. Y-chromosomal linked disease
D. None of the above
Q. 119 One animal that does not perform locomotion is
A. Sycon
B. Nereis
C. Sepia
D. Euglena
Q. 120 Amount of CO₂ in expired air is about
A. 0.04%
B. 0.03%
C. 10%
D. 21%
Q. 121 The codon for anticodon 3′-UUUA-5′ is
A. 3′-AAU-5′
B. 5′-UAAA-3′
C. 5′-AAAU-3′
D. 3′-UAAU-S’
Q. 122 A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is
A. DNA replication
B. genetic engineering
C. denaturation
D. renaturation
Q. 123 Minamata disease is caused due to presence of in water.
A. cadmium
B. lead
C. arsenic
D. mercury
Q. 124 The phrase `Omnis cellula e cellula’ was given by
A. Virchow
B. Pasteur
C. Schleiden
D. Brown
Q. 125 Intermediate community between pioneer and climax communities is called
A. seral community
B. biotic community
C. temporary community
D. ecosere
Q. 126 Ten percent law of energy transfer in a food chain is given by
A. Schimper
B. Elton
C. Haeckel
D. Lindemann
Q. 127 Apoenzyme is
A. protein
B. carbohydrate
C. vitamin
D. amino acid
Q. 128 Glycogenolysis involves
A. conversion of sugar into glycogen
B. oxidation of sugar
C. conversion of glycogen into sugar
D. conversion of glycogen into fat
Q. 129 A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
A. skin colour
B. sickle cell anaemia
C. colour blindness
D. phenylketonuria
Q. 130 Nucleic acid segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
A. clone
B. probe
C. plasmid
D. vector
Q. 131 Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by a species of
A. Puccinia
B. Erysphe
C. Ustilago
D. Albugo
Q. 132 Nucleic acid is absent in
A. virus
B. viroid
C. prion
D. Atteziol
Q. 133 In most fungi, cell wall is chiefly made of
A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. protein
D. lipid
Q. 134 Heterocysts are present in
A. Riccia
B. Ulothrix
C. Albugo
D. Nostoc
Q. 135 Double fertilization occurs in
A. Riccia
B. Pteridium
C. Cycas
D. Capsella
Q. 136 In Ruscus, the stem is a
A. phyllode
B. cladode
C. offset
D. sucker
Q. 137 Catkin inflorescence is found in
A. wheat
B. oat
C. mulberry
D. fig
Q. 138 Epigynous flowers are present in
A. mustad
B. brinjal
C. china rose
D. cucumber
Q. 139 In Dianthus, placemenation is
A. basal
B. free central
C. axile
D. marginal
Q. 140 The term keel is used for special type of
A. sepals
B. petals
C. stamens
D. carpels
Q. 141 Coffee and quinine are obtained from the
A. Leguminosae
B. Asteraceae
C. Rubiaceae
D. Poaceae
Q. 142 Kranz anatomy can be observed in leaves of
A. sorghum
B. spinach
C. mustrad
D. tulip
Q. 143 The term ‘bark’ refers to
A. phellem, phelloderm and vascular cambium
B. periderm and secondary xylem
C. cork cambium and cork
D. phellogen, phellem, phelloderm and secondary phloem
Q. 144 Light reaction in stroma lamellae of the chloroplast results in the formation of
A. NADPH₂
B. ATP + NADPH₂
C. ATP
D. O₂
Q. 145 In leaves of C₄ plants malic acid synthesis during CO₂ fixation occurs in
A. bundle sheath
B. mesophyll
C. epidermis
D. guard cells
Q. 146 Membrane is absent in
A. nucleous
B. nucleolus
C. chromosome
D. lysosome
Q. 147 The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a
A. site for storage of food, which is utilised during maturation
B. reservoir of growth hormones
C. reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem
D. region for absorption of water
Q. 148 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
A. succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
B. cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
C. hexokinse by glucose-6-phosphate
D. carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Q. 149 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of
A. industrial wastes poured into water bodies
B. extent to which water is polluted with organic compound
C. amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
D. amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
Q. 150 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
A. specialised granules responsible for colouration of cells
B. structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism
C. inclusion bodies lying free inside the cell carrying out various metabolic activities
D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in
photosynthesis bacteria
Q. 151 The Montreal Protocol refers to
A. persistent organic pollutants
B. global warming and climate change
C. substances that deplete the ozone layer
D. biosafety of genetic
Q. 152 In the sieve elements, which of the following is the most likely function of P-proteins?
A. Deposition of callose on sieve plates
B. Providing energy for active translocation
C. Autolytic enzymes
D. Sealing off mechanism on wounding
Q. 153 Which one of the following precedes ye-formation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle?
A. Decondensation from chromosome and. reassembly of the nuclear lamina
B. Transcription from chromosome and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
C. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast
D. Formaltion of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosome
Q. 154 viruses that infect bacterimal multiplication and cause their lysis, are called
A. lysozymes
B. lipolytic
C. lytic
D. lysogenic
Q. 155 A plant require magnesium(Mg) for
A. holding cells together
B. protein synthesis
C. chlorophyll synthesis
D. cell wall development
Q. 156 which one of the following pairs , is not correctly matched?
A. abscisic acid – stomatal closure
B. gibberellic acid – leaf fall
C. cytokinin – cell division
D. IAA – cell wall elongation
Q. 157 Two cells A and B are contigous. cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure-7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result of water from cell B to A
A. movement of water from cell B to A
B. no movement of water
C. equilibrium between the two
D. movement of water from cell A to B
Q. 158 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
A. results in transcription
B. polymerise in the 3′ to 5′ direction and forms replication fork
C. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
D. polymerise in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication
Q. 159 One gene•one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in
A. Neurospora crassa
B. Salmonella typhimuriurn
C. Escherichia coli
D. Diplococcus pneumoniae
Q. 160 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
A. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
B. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
C. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the
egg
D. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
Questions: 161 – 165
Directions (Q. Nos. 161 to 165) Four alternatives are given for the underlined idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the word in capitals idiom/phrase.
Q. 161 The principal has to CARRY OUT the orders issued by the higher authorities.
A. obey
B. communicate
C. execute
D. modify
Q. 162 The young engineer was hauled up for SPILLING THE BEANS about the new project to the competitor.
A. suppressing the information
B. hiding the details
C. revealing the information indiscreetly
D. spoiling the plans
Q. 163 The Government claims that Indian industry is progressing BY LEAPS AND BOUNDS.
A. intermittently
B. leisurely
C. at a rapid pace
D. at a desired pace
Q. 164 LAYING OFF of thousands of workers is inevitable under the new economic policy.
A. Dismissal from jobs of
B. Offering new jobs to
C. Reduction of worker’s wages of
D. Sending on leave
Q. 165 “I TAKE THEE AT THY WORD”, said Romeo to Juliet.
A. Listen to you carefully
B. Do not believe you
C. Feel angry with you
D. Truly believe you
Questions: 165 – 169
Directions (Q. Nos. 165 to 170)out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substitued for the given words/sentence.
Q. 165 To be biased against
A. partial
B. objective
C. prejudiced
D. predestined
Q. 166 Motion of head, hand etc, as a mode of expression indicating attitude
A. Gesture
B. Grin
C. Gestation
D. Grimace
Q. 167 Bitter and violet attack in words
A. Diaspora
B. piacriticism
C. Diadem
D. Diatribe
Q. 168 Treatment by means of exercise and massage
A. Chemotherapy
B. Hydrotherapy
C. Physiotherapy
D. Psychotherapy
Q. 169 The abandonment of one’s country or cause
A. Defection
B. Disloyalty
C. Desertion
D. Migration
Questions: 171 – 175
Directions (Q. Nos. 171 to 175) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the capital words at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Q. 171 He DECLINED all the allegations against him.
A. spurned
B. refused
C. refuted
D. no improvement
Q. 172 It is time we LEAVE.
A. left
B. have to leave
C. would leave
D. no improvement
Q. 173 We spent an hour discussing ABOUT HIS CHARACTER.
A. on his character
B. of his character
C. his character
D. no improvement
Q. 174 AFTER THE LETTER REACHED me, I shall know the result.
A. After the letter reaches
B. After the let will reach
C. After the letter has reached
D. No improvement
Q. 175 i HAVE RETURNED library books yesterday.
A. has returned
B. have had returned
C. returned
D. no improvement
Questions: 176 – 180
Directions (Q. Nos. 176 to 180) The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 to 6, the rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
Q. 176 1. Early to bed, early to rise, makes a man healthy, wealthy and wise.
P. But for the morning tea, I had to wait for someone to get up before me.
Q. This saying inspired me to rise early.
R. That day I was the first to get up.
S. One day I got up early in the morning.
6.Then I realised that it was a waste of time to get up early and wait for the morning tea.
A. QSRP
B. QPRS
C. PQRS
D. SPQR
Q. 177 1. A wood-cutter was cutting a tree on a river bank.
P. He knelt down and prayed.
Q. His axe slipped and fell into the water.
R. God Mercury appeared before him and asked about the matter.
S. He could not get it back as the river was very deep.
6. He dived into the water and came up with an axe of gold.
A. RPQS
B. RPSQ
C. OSRP
D. QSPR
Q. 178 1. A dog stole a piece of meat from a butcher’s shop.
P. He barked in anger.
Q. He ran to the jungle with the place of meat.
R. He saw his reflection.
S. He crossed a river on the way.
6. He lost his piece of meat.
A. QPSR
B. QSRP
C. QPRS
D. SRPQ
Q. 179 1. Ramai and Samai were two poor young men.
P. On market day they sold their labour.
Q. They lived near Mahespu.
R. On other days, they remained in the village looking for work.
S. They wanted regular work.
6. The headman gave them two plots.
A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. SPQR
D. PQRS
Q. 180 1. Roger wanted to become a doctor.
P. He put away enough money to pay his first year fees.
Q. They could not afford the fees.
R. Undaunted, he got himself a job in the dockyard.
S. However, he came from a poor family.
6. Once enrolled, he was recognised as a gifted student, and scholarships took care of the rest his studies.
A. SRPQ
B. PRSQ
C. SQRP
D. QRSP
Questions: 181 – 185
Directions (Q. Nos. 181 to 185): out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
Q. 181 word :Dubious
A. Doubtful
B. disputable
C. duplicate
D. dangerous
Q. 182 word : Flabbergasted
A. Scared
B. Embarrassed
C. Dumbfounded
D. Humiliated
Q. 183 word : Eternal
A. Innumerable
B. Unmeasurable
C. Prolonged
D. Perpetual
Q. 184 word : Genuine
A. Authentic
B. Legitimate
C. Reliable
D. Pure
Q. 185 word : Obscene
A. Indecent
B. Incorrigible
C. Ridiculous
D. Intolerable
Questions: 186 – 190
Directions (Q. Nos. 186 to 190) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Q. 186 word : Despair
A. Belief
B. Trust
C. Hope
D. Faith
Q. 187 word : In toto
A. Bluntly
B. partially
C. Entirely
D. Strongly
Q. 188 word : Protean
A. Amateur
B. Catholic
C. Unchanging
D. Rapid
Q. 189 word : Predilection
A. Acceptance
B. Attraction
C. Dislike
D. Choice
Q. 190 word : Admonish
A. Condemn
B. Praise
C. Bless
D. Congratulate
Questions: 191 – 195
Directions (Q. Nos. 191 to 195) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Q. 191 Are you really desirous_______visiting Japan?
A. of
B. in
C. to
D. about it
Q. 192 when indians from the south move north, they find certain aspects of life quite ________from their own.
A. strange
B. separate
C. different
D. divergent
Q. 193 the sky is overcast, we ________the storm will soon burst.
A. expect
B. hope
C. trust
D. suspect
Q. 194 Population increase with depletion of foreign reserves has led to great daily hardships.
A. joined
B. mixed
C. added
D. coupled
Q. 195 The National Anthem is at every official function.
A. uttered
B. sung
C. whispered
D. chanted
Questions: 196 – 200
Directions (Q. Nos. 196 to 200) Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word and indicate it in the answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle.
Q. 196 which of the following is wrongly spelt?
A. Accomplice
B. Accompaniment
C. Accomplishment
D. Accomodation
Q. 197 which of the following is wrongly spelt?
A. Replaceable
B. Replaceing
C. Replacement
D. Replaced
Q. 198 which of the following is wrongly spelt?
A. Relieve
B. Protein
C. Deceit
D. Frieght
Q. 199 which of the following is wrongly spelt?
A. Labrinth
B. Laboratory
C. Laborious
D. Library
Q. 200 which of the following is wrongly spelt?
A. Comit
B. Comedian
C. comittee
D. Comunication
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | C | C | C | D | A | B | D | B | D | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | B | C | C | D | B | C | B | A | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | B | A | A | D | B | A | C | C | A | D |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | D | D | C | C | B | A | B | B | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | A | B | A | A | C | A | D | C | A |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | B | C | C | A | B | A | C | A | C | B |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | C | C | B | B | C | B | D | A | D |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | D | D | B | C | D | C | A | B | C |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | D | D | B | C | D | B | C | D | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | C | C | A | A | A | D | D | A | D | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | D | A | A | C | C | B | D | A | D | C |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | C | A | B | A | B | A | C | A | A | C |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | A | D | A | A | D | A | C | A | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | B | C | B | D | D | B | C | D | B | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | C | A | D | C | B | B | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | C | D | A | C | C | B | D | A | A | B |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | C | C | A | D | C | A | D | C | A |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | D | A | C | A | C | A | D | B | A | C |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | B | C | D | A | A | C | B | C | C | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | A | C | D | D | B | D | B | D | A | D |