JIPMER MBBS 2010
Q. 1 The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as v = (A√x/x+B); where, A and B are constants. The dimensions of AB are
A. [ML^(5/2)T⁻²]
B. [ML²T⁻²]
C. [M^(3/2)L^(3/2)T⁻²]
D. [ML^(7/2)T⁻²]
Q. 2 A weightless thread can bear tension upto 37N. A stone of mass 500g is tied to it and revolved in a circular path of radius 4m in a vertical plane. If g = 10 ms⁻², then the maximum angular velocity of the stone will be
A. 2 rad s⁻¹
B. 4 rad s⁻¹
C. 8 rad s⁻¹
D. 16 rad s⁻¹
Q. 3 Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision,
A. 1.5 R
B. 2.5 R
C. 4.5 R
D. 7.5 R
Q. 4 The amount of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is
A. MR²
B. 1/2 MR²
C. 3/2 MR²
D. 7/2 MR²
Q. 5 A satellite orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius R completes one revolution in 3h. If orbital radius of geostationary satellite is 36000 km, orbital radius of earth is
A. 6000 km
B. 9000 km
C. 12000 km
D. 15000 km
Q. 6 A wire can be broken by applying load of 200N. The force required to break another wire of the same length and same material, but double in diameter is
A. 200 N
B. 400 N
C. 600 N
D. 800 N
Q. 7 A cube of side 40mm has its upper face displaced by 0.1mm by a tangential force of 8kN. The shearing modulus of the cube is
A. 2 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²
B. 4 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²
C. 8 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²
D. 16 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²
Q. 8 The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If the cork is pressed with a force 12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is
A. 30 N
B. 150 N
C. 300 N
D. 600 N
Q. 9 A square wire frame of size L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out a membrane is formed. If the surface tension of liquid is T, then force acting on a frame will be
A. 2T L
B. 4T L
C. 8T L
D. 16T L
Q. 10 64 spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal velocity 1.5 ms⁻¹. If these drops coalesce to form a bog spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big drop is
A. 8 ms⁻¹
B. 16 ms⁻¹
C. 24 ms⁻¹
D. 32 ms⁻¹
Q. 11 The equation of a wave is y = 5 sin(t/0.04 – x/4); where x is in cm and t is in second. The maximum velocity of the wave will be
A. 1 ms⁻¹
B. 2 ms⁻¹
C. 1.5 ms⁻¹
D. 1.25 ms⁻¹
Q. 12 Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r
respectively. They are stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L and with frequency ν₁ and the other with frequency ν₂. The ratio ν₁/ν₂ is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 1
Q. 13 1 mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then final temperature of the gas will be
A. (T – 4)K
B. (T + 4)K
C. (T – 2.4)K
D. (T + 2.4)K
Q. 14 Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal lengths, thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is
A. √2 K
B. 3 K
C. 4/3 K
D. 2/3 K
Q. 15 A black body has a wavelength of λ at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be
A. 2λ/3
B. 3λ/2
C. 4λ/9
D. 9λ/4
Q. 16 A plane mirror produces a magnification of
A. zero
B. -1
C. +1
D. between 0 and +1
Q. 17 Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
A. 5I and I
B. 5I and 3I
C. 9I and I
D. 9I and 3I
Q. 18 If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water instead of air, then
A. no fringe would be seen
B. fringe width would decrease
C. fringe width would increase
D. fringe width would remain unchanged
Q. 19 A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. the electric flux through any face is
A. 4πq/6(4πε₀)
B. πq/6(4πε₀)
C. q/6(4πε₀)
D. 2πq/6(4πε₀)
Q. 20 Figure shows three spherical equipotential surfaces A, B and C around a point charge q. The potential difference VA – VB = VB – VC. If t₁ and t₂ be the distances between them, then
A. t₁ = t₂
B. t₁ > t₂
C. t₁ < t₂
D. t₁ ≤ t₂
Q. 21 Three capacitors of capacitances 1μF, 2μF and 4μF are connected first in series
combination, and then in a parallel combination. The ratio of their equivalent capacities will be
A. 2 : 49
B. 49 : 2
C. 4 : 49
D. 49 : 4
Q. 22 AT room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4×10²⁸m⁻³. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10⁻⁶m² and carrying a current of 5.4 A,
A. 4 ms⁻¹
B. 0.4 ms⁻¹
C. 4 cm s⁻¹
D. 0.4 mm s⁻¹
Q. 23 A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4, which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be
A. R
B. 4R
C. R/4
D. R/16
Q. 24 A capacitor 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates is
A. 80μC
B. 40μC
C. 20μC
D. 10μC
Q. 25 The equivalent resistance across A and B is
A. 2Ω
B. 3Ω
C. 4Ω
D. 5Ω
Q. 26 An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance 5cm from the straight wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20cm from the straight wire would be
A. B/6
B. B/4
C. B/3
D. B/2
Q. 27 AN electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed v along a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform magnetic field B. If speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field is halved, then resulting path would have a radius of
A. r/4
B. r/2
C. 2r
D. 4r
Q. 28 A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have
A. low resistance in series with its coil
B. low resistance in parallel with its coil
C. high resistance in series with its coil
D. high resistance in parallel with its coil
Q. 29 A frog can be leviated in magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as
A. paramagnetic
B. diamagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. anti-ferromagnetic
Q. 30 The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation φ = 5t³ − 100t + 300. The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3s is
A. 10 V
B. 20 V
C. 35 V
D. 70 V
Q. 31 In 0.1s, the current in a coil increases from 1A to 1.5A. If the inductance of coil is 60mH, then induced current in external resistance of 3Ω will be
A. 1 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 0.2 A
D. 0.1 A
Q. 32 The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R and an inductance L are connected in series in an AC circuit of frequency f, is
A. √R + 2π²f²L²
B. √R + 4π²f²L²
C. √R² + 4π²f²L²
D. √R² + 2π²f²L²
Q. 33 In a series L-C-R circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the impedance Z = 10Ω. The phase difference between the current and the voltage is
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
Q. 34 Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the smallest wavelength?
A. γ-rays
B. X-rays
C. UV waves
D. Infrared rays
Q. 35 The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 V, is
A. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁷ J
B. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁴ J
C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ J
D. 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ J
Q. 36 J. J. Thompson’s cathode ray tube experiment demonstrated that
A. cathode rays are streams of negatively charged ions
B. all the mass of an atom is essentially in the nucleus
C. the e/m of electrons is much greater than the e/m of protons
D. thee/m ratio of the cathode ray particles changes when a different gas is placed in the
discharge tube
Q. 37 Wavelength of light emitted from second orbit to first orbit in a hydrogen atom is
A. 6563 A°
B. 4102 A°
C. 4861 A°
D. 1215 A°
Q. 38 The half-life of a radio-isotope is 4h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200g, then mass remaining after 24h will be
A. 1.042 g
B. 2.084 g
C. 3.125 g
D. 4.167 g
Q. 39 If ₉₂U²³⁸ emits 8 α-particles and 6 β-particles, then the resulting nucleus is
A. ₈₂U²⁰⁶
B. ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶
C. ₈₂U²¹⁰
D. ₈₂U²¹⁴
Q. 40 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
A. OR
B. NOR
C. AND
D. NAND
Q. 41 In the electron dot structure of H₂SO₄, the total number of unshared electrons is
A. 20
B. 16
C. 12
D. 8
Q. 42 The general molecular formula for disaccharide is
A. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
B. C₁₀H₂₀O₁₀
C. C₁₂H₂₀O₁₀
D. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₀
Q. 43 The correct order towards bond angle is
A. sp³ < sp² < sp
B. sp < sp² < sp³
C. sp < sp³ < sp²
D. sp² < sp³ < sp
Q. 44 The vapour pressure of 100g water reduces from 3000 Nm⁻² to 2985 Nm⁻² when 5g f substance ‘X’ is dissolved in it. Substance ‘X’ is
A. methanol
B. glucose
C. carbon dioxide
D. Cannot predict
Q. 45 Which of the following relation is correct?
A. Ist IE of C > Ist IE of B
B. Ist IE of C < Ist IE of B
C. IInd IE of C > IInd IE of B
D. Both (b) and (c)
Q. 46 The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central atom is
A. [MnO₄]⁻
B. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
C. [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
D. [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Q. 47 Which of the following configurations corresponds to element of highest ionisation energy?
A. 1s², 2s¹
B. 1s², 2s², 2p³
C. 1s², 2s², 2p²
D. 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s¹
Q. 48 White P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH₃ and NaH₂PO₂. This reaction is an example of
A. hydrolysis
B. reduction
C. disproportionation
D. neutraalisation
Q. 49 The solubility of saturated solution of Ag₂CrO₄ is s mol L⁻¹. What is its solubility product?
A. 4s³
B. s³
C. 2s³
D. 16s²
Q. 50 Which of the following has a bond formed by overlap of sp – sp³ hybrid orbitals?
A. CH₃−C≡C−CH₃
B. CH₃−CH=CH−CH₃
C. CH₂=CH−CH=CH₂
D. HC=CH
Q. 51 Which of the following proteins transports oxygen in the blood stream?
A. Myoglobin
B. Insulin
C. Albumin
D. Haemoglobin
Q. 52 The only o-p-directing group which is deactivating in nature is
A. −NH₂
B. −OH
C. −X (halogens)
D. −R (alkyl groups)
Q. 53 Which of the organic compounds will give red colour in Lassaigne test?
A. C₆H₅NH₂
B. S ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂
C. O ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂
D. None of these
Q. 54 For a reaction, A+B −> Product, the rate is given by,
r=k[A]^(1/2)[B]².
What is the order of the reaction?
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 1
Q. 55 The density of a gas is found to be 1.56 g/L at 745 mm pressure and 65°C. What is the molecular mass of the gas?
A. 44.2 u
B. 4.42 u
C. 2.24 u
D. 22.4 u
Q. 56 Considering H₂O as weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ will be (Atomic number of Mn = 25)
A. five
B. two
C. four
D. three
Q. 57 Ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to give
A. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl
B. CH₃CH₂Cl + H₂O + SO₂
C. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl + SO₂
D. CH₃CH₂Cl + SO₂ + Cl₂
Q. 58 The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent
A. rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively
B. rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
C. magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
D. two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogues
Q. 59 How long will ti take to deposit 1.0 g of chromium when a current of 1.25 A flows through a solution of chromium (III) sulphate? (Molar mass of Cr = 52)
A. 1.24 min
B. 1.24 h
C. 1.24 s
D. None of these
Q. 60 Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of
A. primary aromatic amines
B. secondary amines
C. primary aliphatic amines
D. tertiary amines
Q. 61 The monomers of terylene are
A. phenol and formaldehyde
B. ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
C. adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
D. ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
Q. 62 If a be the edge length of the unit cell and r be the radius of an atom then for fcc
arrangement, the correct relation is
A. 4a = √3 r
B. 4r = √3 a
C. 4r = √2 a
D. 4r = a/√2
Q. 63 CaC₂ and H₂O react to produce
A. CH₄
B. C₂H₄
C. C₂H₂
D. C₂H₆
Q. 64 Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of R MgX with
A. CO₂
B. HCHO
C. CH₃CHO
D. H₂O
Q. 65 Proteins are composed of
A. α-amino acids
B. carbohydrates
C. vitamins
D. mineral salts
Q. 66 The IUPAC name of the following compound, is
A. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
B. 3-methylpent-3-en-2ol
C. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
D. None of the above
Q. 67 Ammonia gas can be dried over
A. CaCl₂
B. Conc. H₂SO₄
C. P₂O₅
D. quick lime
Q. 68 The number of phase in a colloidal system is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 69 Which of the following has the highest bond order?
A. N₂
B. O₂
C. He₂
D. H₂
Q. 70 Inorganic benzene is
A. B₃N₆H₃
B. B₃N₃H₆
C. Al₃N₃H₆
D. None of these
Q. 71 In long form of Periodic Table, the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their
A. atomic size
B. ionisation energy
C. atomic mass
D. atomic number
Q. 72 Which of the following is a wrong statement?
In a given period of the Periodic Table, the s-block element has, in general, a higher value of
A. electronegativity
B. atomic radius
C. ionisation energy
D. electron affinity
Q. 73 What is the ΔH of the reaction
H ∣ H − C − Cl (g) −> C(g) + 2H(g) + 2Cl(g)?
The average bond energies of C − Cl bond and C − H bond are 416 kJ and 325 kJ mol⁻¹
Respectively.
∣
Cl
A. 1482 kJ
B. 1482 J
C. 1492 kJ
D. 1492 J
Q. 74 Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
A. OH⁻
B. H⁺
C. F⁻
D. NH₃
Q. 75 Heating of rubber with sulphur is called
A. vulcanisation
B. galvanisation
C. sulphonation
D. bessemerisation
Q. 76 Which of the following statement is correct?
A. +I group stabilises a carbocation
B. +I group stabilises a carbanion
C. -I group stabilises a carbocation
D. -I group stabilises a free radical
Q. 77 Dihedral angle between two methyl groups of n-butane in the gauche and anti forms are
A. 60°, 0°
B. 0°, 60°
C. 60°, 180°
D. 180°, 60°
Q. 78 A solid AB has the NaCl structure. If radius of cation A⁺ is 120 pm, the maximum possible value of the radius of the anion B⁻ is
A. 240 pm
B. 60 pm
C. 49.6 pm
D. 290 pm
Q. 79 Common alum is
A. K₂SO₄.Al₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O
B. (NH₄)₂.FeSO₄.6H₂O
C. K₂SO₄.Cr₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O
D. K₂SO₄.Fe₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O
Q. 80 The bond length of HCl bond is 2.29×10⁻¹⁰m. The percentage ionic character of HCl, if measured dipole moment is 6.626×10⁻³⁰C-m, is
A. 8%
B. 20%
C. 17%
D. 50%
Q. 81 Which part of an animal virus is not reproduced in multiple copies?
A. Caspid
B. Protein
C. Envelope
D. Ribosome
Q. 82 The echinoderms are
A. arborial insects
B. marine insects
C. terrestrial insects
D. freshwater forms
Q. 83 The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that
A. respiration is anearobic
B. cockroach does not respire
C. oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion
D. oxygen goes into tissue by intracelllular capillary system
Q. 84 Tube feet is the locomotory organ in
A. starfish
B. jelly fish
C. silver fish
D. Scoliodon
Q. 85 Follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by
A. anterior lobe of pituitary
B. hypothalamus
C. gonads
D. posterior lobe of pituitary
Q. 86 Which of the following amino acids is not optically active?
A. Glycine
B. Valine
C. Leucine
D. Isoleucine
Q. 87 Which of the following vitamins is water soluble as well as an antioxidant?
A. Vitamin-B₁
B. Vitamin-A
C. Vitamin-D
D. Vitamin-C
Q. 88 Human ear ossicles are
A. incus and stapes
B. stapes
C. incus, malleus and stapes
D. incus and malleus
Q. 89 During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted into
A. glycogen
B. pyruvic acid
C. starch
D. lactic acid
Q. 90 ‘Adaptation’ of eyes in dark is due to
A. depletion of vision pigment in rods
B. depletion of vision pigment in cones
C. repletion of vision pigment in rods
D. repletion of vision pigment in cones
Q. 91 Human ancestors who left cave paintings were
A. Neanderthal man
B. Cro-magnon man
C. Java ape man
D. Peking man
Q. 92 Entamoeba histolytica differs from Amoeba in absence of
A. pseudopodia
B. contractile vacuole
C. nucleus
D. ectoplasm
Q. 93 Heparin is synthesised in
A. liver
B. kidney
C. saliva
D. pancreas
Q. 94 Sea gulls excrete excess of NaCl from
A. liver
B. lungs
C. nasal cavity
D. kidney
Q. 95 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse
transmission?
A. Ca²⁺ ions
B. Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions
C. Mg²⁺ ions
D. Fe²⁺ ions
Q. 96 Which one is component of Ornithine cycle?
A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
B. Ornithine, citrulline andarginine
C. Amino acid are not used
D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
Q. 97 Bull semen is stored in
A. liquid carbon dioxide
B. liquid oxygen
C. liquid nitrogen
D. ice
Q. 98 In parasympathetic nervous system, which of the following is released?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Serotionin
D. Acetylcholine
Q. 99 Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
A. house lizard
B. flying fish
C. pigeon
D. tadpole of frog
Q. 100 Which compound has very important role in prebiotic evolution?
A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Nitric oxide
C. Methane
D. Sulphur trioxide
Q. 101 A man of blood group-A marries a woman of blood group-AB, which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?
A. O
B. B
C. A
D. AB
Q. 102 Balbiani rings are the structural features of
A. allosomes
B. polytene chromosomes
C. autosomes
D. lampbrush chromosomes
Q. 103 How many sperms are present in an average(3 mL) ejaculation?
A. 200 million
B. 300 million
C. 400 million
D. 500 million
Q. 104 The permanent decrease in population number occurs due to
A. migration
B. natality
C. emigration
D. mortality
Q. 105 Which of the following is not a vestigial structural in Homo sapiens?
A. Third molar
B. Epiglottis
C. Plica semilunaris
D. Pyramidalis muscle
Q. 106 The velocity of conduction of nerve impulse in frog is
A. 300 m/s
B. same as of electricity
C. faster than sound
D. 30 m/s
Q. 107 Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is
A. Neopilina
B. Peripatus
C. Periplaneta
D. Limulus
Q. 108 The extra structure that provides nutrition to the embryo is
A. umbilicus
B. amnion
C. chorion
D. placenta
Q. 109 Ruminants belong to order
A. Proboscida
B. Artiodactyla
C. Marsupials
D. Edentata
Q. 110 Which of the following is a respiratory disease?
A. Polio
B. Arthritis
C. Asthma
D. Cancer
Q. 111 Sciatic vein of frog opens in
A. heart
B. kidney
C. pelvic region
D. liver
Q. 112 Aspirin is a/an
A. antibiotic
B. antipyretic
C. antiseptic
D. None of the above
Q. 113 Which of the following have notochord throughout life?
A. Birds
B. Fish
C. Snake
D. Amphioxus
Q. 114 First National Park developed in India is
A. Gir
B. Kaziranga
C. Jim Corbett
D. None of these
Q. 115 During unfavourable condition, the sponges form
A. cyst
B. encyst
C. spicule
D. gemmule
Q. 116 Tree of life is
A. arbor vitae
B. pons Varoli
C. organ of Corti
D. diencephalon
Q. 117 Which is common between earthworm, leech and centipede?
A. They have Malpigian tubules
B. They are hermaphrodite
C. They have ventral nerve cord
D. None of the above
Q. 118 Eustachian canal connects
A. middle ear with external ear
B. middle ear with internal ear
C. external ear with internal ear
D. pharynx with middle ear
Q. 119 Shell of molluscs is derived from
A. foot
B. mantle
C. ctenidia
D. placoid
Q. 120 Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in
A. liver of man
B. RBCs of man
C. salivary glands of mosquito
D. stomach of mosquito
Q. 121 Bacteria are considered plant because they
A. are green in colour
B. have rigid cell wall
C. have chlorophyll
D. have stomata
Q. 122 Solarisation is
A. formation of chlorophyll
B. destruction of chlorophyll
C. utilisation of sunlight
D. effects of solar light
Q. 123 Which is essential for root hair growth?
A. Zinc
B. Calcium
C. Molybdenum
D. Sulphur
Q. 124 A fern prothallus is bisexual. If fertilisation takes place between their gametes than it is known as
A. cross-fertilisation
B. self-fertilisation
C. isogamous
D. viviparous
Q. 125 In Pisum sativum, there are 14 chromosomes. How many types of homologous pairs can be prepared?
A. 14
B. 7
C. 2¹⁴
D. 2¹⁰
Q. 126 CHicory powder which is mixed with coffee powder is obtained from
A. root
B. leaf
C. stem
D. seeds
Q. 127 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?
A. Parallel venation
B. Perennial plants
C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)
D. with vessels
Q. 128 In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of
A. auxin
B. cytokinin
C. gibberellin
D. ethylene
Q. 129 Stem cuttings are commonly used for the propagation of
A. banana
B. rose
C. mango
D. cotton
Q. 130 Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F₁ generation, all plants were tall. These tall plants of F₁ generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This is called
A. dominance
B. inheritance
C. codominance
D. heredity
Q. 131 Edible part in ‘sorosis’, a composite fruit, is
A. cotyledons
B. endosperm
C. perianth and peduncle
D. fleshy thalamus
Q. 132 Which of the following is a true nut?
A. Walnut
B. Cashewnut
C. Groundnut
D. Pistachio
Q. 133 Most primitive member, in which roots are not present, is
A. Psilotum
B. Rhynia
C. Lycopodium
D. Selaginella
Q. 134 Botanical name of ‘chana’ is
A. Cicer arietinum
B. Phaseolus aureus
C. Lablab purpureus
D. Dolichos
Q. 135 The edible dry fruit ‘chilgoza’ is
A. fruit of Cycas
B. fruit of Pinus gerardiana
C. seed of Cycas
D. seed of Pinus gerardiana
Q. 136 Ubisch bodies are present in
A. pollen tube
B. pollen grain
C. microscope
D. tapetum
Q. 137 An obligate root parasite is
A. Rafflesia
B. Loranthus
C. Viscum
D. Striga
Q. 138 Lady finger belongs to family
A. Malvaceae
B. Cucurbitaceae
C. Lilaceae
D. Brassicaceae
Q. 139 What differentiates leaf of dicots from monocots?
A. Parallel venation
B. Differentiation of palisade and spongy parenchyma
C. Stomata only on upper side
D. Stomata both on upper and lower sides
Q. 140 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories to two different habitats is known as
A. bottleneck effect
B. edge effect
C. junction effect
D. Pasteur effect
Q. 141 Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
A. Golgi body
B. nuclear wall
C. mitochondria
D. cell wall
Q. 142 In which form does the food transported in plants?
A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
Q. 143 Pappus is modified
A. calyx
B. corolla
C. bractus
D. gynoecium
Q. 144 Trimerous flower, superior ovary and axile placentation is characteristics of
A. Liliaceae
B. Cucurbitaceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Compositae
Q. 145 In Cycas, pollination takes place in
A. 3-celled stage
B. 4-celled stage
C. 2-celled stage
D. 1-celled stage
Q. 146 During the meiotic division, the
A. homologous chromosomes are separated
B. linkage is disturbed
C. homologous chromosomes do not segregate
D. All of the above
Q. 147 During the G₁ – phase of cell division
A. RNA and proteins are synthesised
B. DNA and proteins are synthesised
C. cell prepares for M-phase
D. cell undergoes duplication
Q. 148 Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called as
A. monosomy
B. nullisomy
C. trisomy
D. tetrasomy
Q. 149 The bioassay of auxin is
A. avena curvature test
B. callus formation
C. culture of fungus
D. seed dormancy
Q. 150 Clinging roots are found in
A. orchids
B. Trapa
C. Podostemon
D. screwpine
Q. 151 Benthic organisms are found in
A. surface of marine water
B. middle of water in sea
C. bottom of sea
D. on ground
Q. 152 Water bloom is generally caused by
A. green algae
B. blue-green algae
C. bacteria
D. Hydrilla
Q. 153 The process which cannot take place in the absence of viruses is
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. translocation
D. transduction
Q. 154 Molybdenum causes
A. mottling
B. wilting
C. reclamation
D. chlorosis
Q. 155 Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in
A. forest fires
B. global warming
C. skin cancer
D. None of the above
Q. 156 From which of the following plant is a medicine for respiratory disorders obtained?
A. Ephedra
B. Eucalyptus
C. Cannabis
D. Saccharum
Q. 157 Decarboxylation is involved in
A. electron transport system
B. glycolysis
C. Krebs’ cycle
D. lactic acid fermentation
Q. 158 Osmotic pressure of a solution is
A. greater than pure solution
B. less than pure solvent
C. equal to pure solvent
D. less than or greater than pure solvent
Q. 159 In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Animalia
D. Fungi
Q. 160 Expanded green stem of Opuntia is called
A. phylloclade
B. tendril
C. bulb
D. cladode
Q. 161 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
Guerillas “infiltrated” into the region during the severe winter of 1997.
A. entered
B. expelled
C. penetrated
D. filtered
Q. 162 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
He has always been “fastidious” while examining answer scripts.
A. amiable
B. discriminating
C. critical
D. judicious
Q. 163 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
The professor had to share a hotel room with a “garrulous” tax collector.
A. dumb
B. speechless
C. tongue-tied
D. sile
Q. 164 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
It was “fortuitous” that I met her in that party.
A. unlucky
B. bad
C. distressing
D. abominable
Q. 165 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
He is “zealous” only in the initial stages of a project.
A. absent-minded
B. distraught
C. inattentive
D. indifferent
Q. 166 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
Various/(P) leading a productive/(Q) disabilities stand in/(R) and personally satisfying life/(S) the way of millions of Indians.
A. Q R P S
B. P S Q R
C. Q S P R
D. P R Q S
Q. 167 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
Farmers/(P) whether or not water will be available/(Q) land use plans only/(R) can prepare alternative/(S) if they know in advance.
A. R S Q P
B. P Q S R
C. R Q S P
D. P S Q R
Q. 168 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
No amount/(P) poor countries if they do/(Q) of direct/(R) aid will help not develop the capacity/(S) to generate wealth for themselves
A. Q P R S
B. R S Q P
C. Q S R P
D. R P Q S
Q. 169 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
Having achieved success/(P) to ride the next big/(Q) outsourcing wave I software exports and information technology areas,/(R) this time in manufacturing from the U. S./(S) Indian manufacturers-exporters are well equipped.
A. P S Q R
B. Q R P S
C. P R Q S
D. Q S P R
Q. 170 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
The majority of/(P) Britons believe that there/(Q) if the increasing problem/(R) must be
restrictions on cheap air travel/(S) of global warming is going to be tackled.
A. S R Q P
B. P Q R S
C. S Q R P
D. P R Q S
Q. 171 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
He ended his speech on a “supercilious” note which was quite unexpected of a person of
balanced and stable temperament.
A. defamatory
B. contemptuous
C. superfluous
D. irrelevant
Q. 172 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
Graduation day is “momentous” day for most students.
A. memorable
B. melancholy
C. important
D. hectic
Q. 173 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
The two opposing parties have reached a “stalemate”.
A. dilemma
B. deadlock
C. exhaustion
D. settlement
Q. 174 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
The Prime Minister delivered an “impromptu” speech to the students.
A. important
B. impressive
C. inspiring
D. off hand
Q. 175 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.
This is a “lucrative” business.
A. profitable
B. dangerous
C. challenging
D. questionable
Q. 176 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
Made a clean breast of
A. confessed
B. took off his shirt
C. suffered
D. spoke ill
Q. 177 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
A man of letters
A. a man who wrote many letters
B. a leader who received more letters
C. a scholar with literary taste
D. a good reader of letters
Q. 178 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
Reading between the lines
A. reading slowly and haltingly
B. understanding the sense rather than the actual words
C. understanding the meaning of words and not the sense
D. superficially
Q. 179 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
Cheek by jowl
A. very near
B. tongue tied
C. very far
D. irritated
Q. 180 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
Talking through one’s hat
A. talking nonsense
B. talking ignorantly
C. talking irresponsibly
D. talking insultingly
Questions: 181 – 185
Goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good pets, but like many other pets, they must have proper care and the right kind of place to live.
A two inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient oxygen to support life. Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium from the air that touches the surface. Plants in an aquarium also help to furnish oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants and snail, the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may prove to be a quite unsuitable abode for goldfish. It is important that the goldfish should not be overfed. They can be fed such things as dried insects in addition to commercially prepared goldfish food, but they should never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they should not be given more food than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life.
Q. 181 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Goldfish should be given food only once a day
B. Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium.
C. Plants provide food to the snails
D. Goldfish comes above the surface of water to get oxygen from air
Q. 182 Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish
B. Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for two inch fish
C. Goldfish can be made good pets
D. Plants in aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish
Q. 183 Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen?
A. Snails
B. Plants
C. Dried insects
D. Aquarium
Q. 184 Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if
A. there are plenty of snails and plants in it
B. there is no sufficient oxygen in it
C. it is very clean and contains suffcient oxygen
D. it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects
Q. 185 What is important to remember when feeding goldfish?
A. They should be fed more than once a day
B. They should be fed at five-minute intervals
C. They should be fed with plants and snails
D. They should be fed only once a day
Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.
The study of sound
A. Aeronautics
B. Aesthetics
C. Acoustic
D. Astrology
Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.
Murder of one’s parents.
A. Parricide
B. Patricide
C. Uxoricide
D. Matricide
Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.
Government by the gods.
A. Theocracy
B. Thearchy
C. Neocracy
D. Monarchy
Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.
A place for bees.
A. Hive
B. Hutch
C. Lair
D. Den
Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.
One who studies the evolution of mankind.
A. Somnambulist
B. Cartographer
C. Prephologist
D. Anthropologist
Q. 191 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). “All his answers” were correct.
A. His all answers
B. His every answers
C. All of his answers
D. No improvement
Q. 192 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). It was quite clear that the runner “could be able” to improve upon his own record.
A. should be able
B. would be able
C. will be bale
D. No improvement
Q. 193 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). Within last few years most of the fertile land “had undergone” Indigo cultivation.
A. had underwent
B. has undergone
C. was undergone
D. No improvement
Q. 194 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). His “powerful desire” brought about his downfall.
A. his intense desire
B. his desire for power
C. his fatal desire
D. No improvement
Q. 195 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). If he “had time” he will call you.
A. would have
B. would have had
C. has
D. No improvement
Q. 196 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.
He is too …………. to be deceived easily.
A. strong
B. modern
C. intelligent
D. kind
Q. 197 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.
There has been a ……………….. lack of efficiency in all the crucial areas of the working of Public Sector Undertakings.
A. positive
B. surprising
C. conspicuous
D. stimulative
Q. 198 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.
The shepherd was looking after the ………………. of sheep.
A. crew
B. gang
C. fleet
D. flock
Q. 199 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.
The Managing Director treated the employees to a ……………. lunch at an expensive hotel.
A. precious
B. thriving
C. stupendous
D. sumptuous
Q. 200 Satish was ……………….. with a natural talent for music.
A. given
B. found
C. endowed
D. entrusted
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | D | B | D | C | B | D | A | C | C | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | D | D | A | C | A | C | C | B | A | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | D | D | D | C | B | D | C | B | C |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | C | A | A | A | C | D | C | B | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | A | A | B | C | A | A |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | D | C | B | C | A | A | C | A | B | C |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | D | C | C | B | A | B | D | B | A | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | B | A | B | A | A | C | D | A | C |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | B | C | A | A | A | D | C | D | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | B | A | C | B | B | C | D | B | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | B | B | D | B | D | A | D | B | C |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | D | A | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | B | B | B | B | A | D | A | B | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | B | B | A | D | D | A | A | B | B |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | B | A | A | A | A | A | A | A | A | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | C | B | D | A | C | A | C | A | A | A |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | B | A | C | A | D | C | C | A | D | D |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | B | C | B | D | A | A | C | B | A | A |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | A | A | B | B | D | C | B | B | A | D |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | D | B | D | B | C | C | C | D | D | C |