JIPMER MBBS 2009
Q. 1 In radioactivity decay process, the negativity charged emitted β-particles are
A. the electrons present inside the nucleus
B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
C. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
D. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
Q. 2 The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is
A. infinite
B. five
C. three
D. zero
Q. 3 Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is
A. F/4
B. 3F/4
C. F/8
D. 3F/8
Q. 4 In gamma ray emission from particles
A. both the neutron number and the proton number change
B. there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number
C. only the neutron number changes
D. only the proton number changes
Q. 5 A particle starting from the origin (0,0) moves in a straight line in the (x,y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3,3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 0°
Q. 6 A wheel has an angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2s it has rotated through an angle(in radians) of
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 4
Q. 7 The resistance of an ammeter is 13Ω and its scale is graduated for a current up to 100A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents up to 750A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is
A. 20Ω
B. 2Ω
C. 0.2Ω
D. 2kΩ
Q. 8 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion
A. depends on v and not on R
B. depends on both R and v
C. is independent of both R and v
D. depends on R and not on v
Q. 9 The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ₀ + 4t, where φ is in weber, t is time in second and φ₀ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is
A. 90V
B. 120V
C. 220V
D. 30V
Q. 10 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2×10¹⁴Hz and wavelength is 5000A⁰. The refractive index of material will be
A. 1.40
B. 1.50
C. 3.00
D. 1.33
Q. 11 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vᵤ and returns to Y with a uniform speed . The average speed for this round trip is
A. 2vᵤ/vᵤ
B. √vᵤ
C. vᵤ/√vᵤ
D. √vᵤ/2
Q. 12 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is
A. T/4
B. T/8
C. T/12
D. T/2
Q. 13 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time
A. v/gμ
B. gμ/v
C. g/v
D. v/g
Q. 14 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constant 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of A to those of B will be (1/e)² after a time interval
A. 1/4λ
B. 4λ
C. 2λ
D. 1/2λ
Q. 15 A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 10%
Q. 16 A charged particle(charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by
A. qvR/2
B. qvR²
C. qvR²/2
D. qvR
Q. 17 A steady current of 1.5A flows through a copper voltameter for 10min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10⁻⁵ gC⁻¹, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be
A. 0.40 g
B. 0.50 g
C. 0.67 g
D. 0.27 g
Q. 18 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge of ion/mass of ion) will be proportional to
A. 1/R
B. 1/R²
C. R²
D. R
Q. 19 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
A. 2Ω
B. 3Ω
C. 6Ω
D. 1Ω
Q. 20 Two satellites of earth S₁ and S₂, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S₁ is four times the mass of S₂. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The time period of S₁ is four times that of S₂
B. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
C. S₁ and S₂ are moving with the same speed
D. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
Q. 21 An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
A. Zero
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. 20%
Q. 22 A coil of inductance 300mH and resistance 2Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
A. 0.05 s
B. 0.1 s
C. 0.15 s
D. 0.3 s
Q. 23 The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D₁ and D₂ be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. then,
A. D₁ < D₂
B. D₁ = D₂
C. D₁ can be less than or greater than D₂ depending on the angle of prism
D. D₁ > D₂
Q. 24 A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
A. -0.5 J
B. -1.25 J
C. 1.25 J
D. 0.5 J
Q. 25 A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is
A. Mg(√2 + 1)
B. Mg√2
C. Mg/√2
D. Mg(√2 – 1)
Q. 26 A force of -Fk acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, -1) is
A. F(i – j)
B. -F(i + j)
C. F(i + j)
D. -F(i – j)
Q. 27 If Mₒ is the mass of an oxygen isotope ₈O¹⁷, Mp and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
A. (Mₒ – 8Mp)c²
B. (Mₒ – 8Mp – 9Mn)c²
C. Mₒc²
D. (Mₒ – 17Mn)c²
Q. 28 A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 10
D. 100
Q. 29 Which of the following parameters characterise the thermodynamic state of matter?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Work
D. Volume
Q. 30 A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 × 10⁴V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be(Take the mass of the charge = 9.9 × 10⁻¹⁵ kg and g = 10 m/s²)
A. 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁸ C
B. 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ C
C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁸ C
D. 4.8 × 10⁻¹⁸ C
Q. 31 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
A. [ML²T⁻³I⁻¹]
B. [ML²T⁻²]
C. [ML²T⁻¹I⁻¹]
D. [ML²T⁻³I⁻²]
Q. 32 An alpha particle of energy 1/2 mv² bombards a heavy nucleus target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
A. v²
B. 1/m
C. 1/v⁴
D. 1/Ze
Q. 33 The work of 146kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is
A. diatomic
B. triatomic
C. a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
D. monoatomic
Q. 34 Diwali rocket is ejecting 50g of gases/s at a velocity of 400m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket will be
A. 22 dyne
B. 20 N
C. 20 dyne
D. 100 N
Q. 35 A frame made of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Q. 36 Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by
A. maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the steam of the thermometer
B. filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
C. filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
D. filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column
Q. 37 In a laboratory four convex lenses L₁, L₂, L₃ and L₄ of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8cm, respectively are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively
A. L₂, L₃
B. L₁, L₄
C. L₁, L₂
D. L₄, L₁
Q. 38 A symmetrical double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be
A. 2D
B. 3D
C. 4D
D. 5D
Q. 39 For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = applied potential difference and i = current flowing) is
A. independent of temperature
B. increases as the temperature rises
C. decreases as the temperature rises
D. increases or decreases as the temperature rises depending upon the metal
Q. 40 The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one inside the liquid is
A. zero
B. lesser
C. equal
D. greater
Q. 41 Which of the following is not correct?
A. Hydrolysis of NaCl₃ gives NH₃ and HOCl
B. NH₃ is less stable than PH₃
C. NH₃ is a weak reducing reagent compared to PH₃
D. Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic property
Q. 42 SiO₂ is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?
A. CO
B. O₂
C. CO₂
D. O₃
Q. 43 The compounds formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are
A. C₂H₆ and CO₂
B. C₂H₄ and CO₂
C. CH₄ and H₂
D. CH₄ and CO₂
Q. 44 Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H₂O₂?
A. Lead is used as cathode
B. 50% H₂SO₄ is used
C. Hydrogen is liberated at anode
D. Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation
Q. 45 Which of the following is correct?
A. The pH of one litre solution containing 0.49g of H₂SO₄ is 2.0
B. The conjugate base of H₂S is S²⁻
C. BF₃ is a Lewis base
D. Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium
Q. 46 Which of the following is correct?
A. Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change
B. Particle size of solute in true solution is 10⁻³m
C. Starch solution is a hydrosol
D. Hydrolysis of liquid ester is an example of heterogeneous catalysis reactions
Q. 47 In an oxidation-reduction reaction, MnO₄⁻ ion is converted to Mn²⁺. What is the number of equivalents of KMnO₄(mol. wt. = 158) present in 250mL of 0.04M KMnO₄ solution?
A. 0.02
B. 0.05
C. 0.04
D. 0.07
Q. 48 Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?
A. Ni/H₂
B. LiAlH₄
C. I₂/NaOH
D. Zn-Hg/conc.HCl
Q. 49 The heat information of CO(g) and CO₂(g) are ΔH = -110 and ΔH = -393kJmol⁻¹ respectively. What is the heat of reaction(ΔH) (in kJmol⁻¹) for the following reaction?
CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g)
A. -504
B. -142.5
C. -283
D. 504
Q. 50 What is the wavelength_in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 × 10⁻²⁹ g moving with a velocity of 10³ ms⁻¹?
A. 6.62 × 10⁻⁴
B. 6.62 × 10⁻³
C. 10⁻⁵
D. 10⁵
Q. 51 What is the electrode potential(in V) of the following electrode at 25°C?
Ni²⁺(0.1M)|Ni(s) (Standard reaction potential of Ni²⁺| Ni is -0.25V, 2.303RT/F = 0.06)
A. -0.28 V
B. -0.34 V
C. -0.82 V
D. -0.22 V
Q. 52 What is the equation for the equilibrium for the constant(Kc) for the following reaction?
A. Kc = [A]^½[B]^⅓/[C]^3/2
B. Kc = [C]^3/2/[A]²[B]³
C. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓
D. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓
Q. 53 Which of the following can give Grignard reagent when reacted with magnesium in dry ether?
A. C₂H₆
B. C₂H₅Cl
C. C₂H₅OH
D. C₂H₅CN
Q. 54 Which of the following is not correct?
A. Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H₂
B. AlCl₃ is a Lewis acid
C. Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables
D. NaOH is used during Hall’s process of purification of bauxite
Q. 55 A 0.5g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound?
A. 300
B. 600
C. 900
D. 200
Q. 56 t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by
A. 1 mechanism
B. 2 mechanism
C. Any of (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Q. 57 Oxidation state of oxygen in F₂O is
A. +1
B. -1
C. +2
D. -2
Q. 58 To dissolve argentine ore which of the following is used?
A. Na[Ag(CN)₂]
B. NaCN
C. NaCl
D. HCl
Q. 59 If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 min, then the time taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be
A. 50 min
B. 100 min
C. 99 min
D. 150 min
Q. 60 H – O – H bond angle is 104.5° and not 109° 28′ because of
A. lone pair-lone pair repulsion
B. lone pair-bond pair repulsion
C. bond pair-bond pair repulsion
D. high electronegativity of oxygen
Q. 61 The reaction,
C₆H₅CHO + CH₃COOC₂H₅ → C₆H₅CH = CHCOOC₂H₅, is called
A. Benzoin condensation
B. Claisen condensation
C. Cannizaro’s reaction
D. Perkin reaction
Q. 62 The best method to separate the mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol (1:1) is
A. vaporisation
B. colour spectrum
C. distillation
D. crystallisation
Q. 63 Iodoform gives a precipitate with AgNO₃ on heating but chloroform does not because
A. C – I bond in iodoform is weak and C – Cl bond in chloroform is strong
B. chloroform is covalent
C. iodoform is ionic
D. None of the above
Q. 64 What are the values of n₁ and n₂ respectively for Hᵦ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic spectrum 44?
A. 3 and 5
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Q. 65 The homologue of ethyne is
A. C₂H₂
B. C₂H₆
C. C₃H₈
D. C₃H₄
Q. 66 A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% ionised. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10⁻⁴, the [OH⁻] is
A. 5 × 10⁻¹² M
B. 2 × 10⁻³ M
C. 1 × 10⁻¹⁴ M
D. None of these
Q. 67 Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?
A. SO₂
B. HNO₃
C. H₂SO₄
D. HNO₂
Q. 68 The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy
A. 5
B. 10
C. 18
D. 25
Q. 69 The most probable velocity(in cm/s) of hydrogen molecule at 27°C will be
A. 19.3 × 10⁴
B. 17.8 × 10⁴
C. 24.93 × 10⁹
D. 17.8 × 10⁸
Q. 70 In III group precipitation, NH₄Cl is added before adding NH₄OH to
A. decrease conc. of OH⁻
B. prevent interference of PO₄³⁻
C. increase conc. of Cl⁻
D. increase conc. of OH⁻ ion
Q. 71 Steel is heated to below red heat and then, cooled slowly. The process refers to
A. hardening
B. annealing
C. tempering
D. nitriding
Q. 72 What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?(R = 1,09,677 cm⁻¹)
A. 24,630 cm⁻¹
B. 24,360 cm⁻¹
C. 24,730 cm⁻¹
D. 24,372 cm⁻¹
Q. 73 9.2g N₂O₄ is heated in a 1L vessel till equilibrium state is established
N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂
In equilibrium state 50% N₂O₄ was dissociated, equilibrium constant will be (mol. wt. of N₂O₄ = 92)
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.2
Q. 74 Disperse phase and dispersion medium in butter are respectively
A. solid and liquid
B. liquid and solid
C. liquid and liquid
D. solid and solid
Q. 75 Which of the following carbonates decomposes readily at low temperatures?
A. Na₂CO₃
B. K₂CO₃
C. Li₂CO₃
D. Rb₂CO₃
Q. 76 The atomic number of an element M is 26. How many electrons are present in the M-shell of the element in its M³⁺ state?
A. 11
B. 15
C. 14
D. 13
Q. 77 In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?
A. CO₂, SO₂
B. BCl₃, PCl₃
C. H₂O, SO₂
D. CO₂, CS₂
Q. 78 Which one of the following reactions is called Rosemund reaction?
A. Aldehydes are reduced to alcohols
B. Acids are converted to acid chlorides
C. Alcohols are reduced to hydrocarbons
D. Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes
Q. 79 During acetylation of amines, what is replaced by acetyl group?
A. Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom
B. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom
C. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom
D. Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or nitrogen atom
Q. 80 Which is used in alcoholic beverages?
A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Phenol
D. Glycerol
Q. 81 The trisomy for 21st chromosome is called
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Q. 82 Which of the following is the largest gland in an adult human?
A. Taymus
B. Liver
C. Thyroid
D. Pancreas
Q. 83 In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segment?
A. 3/4 and 9/10
B. 4/5 and 8/9
C. 5/6 and 7/8
D. 7/8 and 6/7
Q. 84 During emergency which of the following hormones is secreted?
A. Aldosterone
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenaline
D. Calcitonin
Q. 85 In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by
A. ecdysone
B. salivary glands
C. parotid gland
D. juvenile hormone
Q. 86 Which of the following is a transparent tissue?
A. Tendon
B. Fibrous cartilage
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. All of these
Q. 87 Rh factor is present in
A. all vertebrates
B. all mammals
C. all reptiles
D. man and rhesus monkey only
Q. 88 In a rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by
A. tendon
B. ligaments
C. muscle
D. cartilage
Q. 89 Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?
A. Thesocytes
B. Pinacocytes
C. Cindocytes
D. Archaeocytes
Q. 90 Thigmotaxis is not shown by
A. Paramecium
B. Amoeba
C. Ascaris
D. Hydra
Q. 91 Which is correctly matched?
A. Apiculture – Honey bee
B. Pisciculture – Silk moth
C. Sericulture – Fish
D. Aquaculture – Mosquito
Q. 92 Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as
A. biothermic
B. poikilothermic
C. oligothermic
D. homeothermic
Q. 93 The intermediate host of Schistosoma is
A. snail
B. mosquito
C. housefly
D. sheep
Q. 94 The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is
A. Vitamin-A
B. Vitamin-B
C. Vitamin-C
D. Vitamin-K
Q. 95 The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment
A. 14th
B. 16th
C. 18th
D. 15th
Q. 96 Polyp phase is absent in
A. Hydra
B. Aurelia
C. Physilia
D. Obelia
Q. 97 In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles which consists of fibres called
A. Purkinje fibres
B. myonemes
C. telodendria
D. columnae carnae
Q. 98 Malphigian tubes are
A. excretory organs of insects
B. excretory organs of frogs
C. respiratory organs of insects
D. endocrine glands of insects
Q. 99 LH and FSH are collectively called
A. oxytocin
B. somatotropins
C. luteotropic
D. gonadotropins
Q. 100 Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?
A. Fossils
B. Morphology
C. Embryo
D. Vestigial organs
Q. 101 In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called
A. ostracum
B. operculum
C. ommatophores
D. osphradium
Q. 102 Turbellarians are free living
A. nematodes
B. cestodes
C. flat worms
D. trematodes
Q. 103 The characteristic larva of phylum – ‘Coelenterata’ is
A. planula
B. cysticercus
C. rhabiform
D. wriggler
Q. 104 In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis called
A. vas deferens
B. cauda epididymis
C. gubernaculum
D. caput epididymis
Q. 105 In blood, CO₂ is transported majorly as
A. sodium carbonate
B. carboxyhaemoglobin
C. bicarbonate
D. CO₂ as such
Q. 106 Animals undergo inactive stage during winter, is known as
A. aestivation
B. hibernation
C. adaptation
D. acclimatization
Q. 107 Kupffer cells are present in
A. liver
B. small intestine
C. pancreas
D. thyroid gland
Q. 108 The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as
A. morula
B. gastrula
C. blastula
D. blastomere
Q. 109 Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for
A. respiration
B. excretion
C. locomotion
D. osmoregulation
Q. 110 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse
transmission?
A. Ca²⁺ ions
B. Mg²⁺ ions
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Fe²⁺ ions
Q. 111 Which one is component of ornithine cycle?
A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
B. Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
C. Amino acid are not used
D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
Q. 112 Chromosomes complement with 2n -1 is called
A. monosomy
B. nullisomy
C. trisomy
D. tetrasomy
Q. 113 Which of the following is not vestigial in man?
A. Tail vertebrae
B. Nails
C. Nictitating membrane
D. Vermiform appendix
Q. 114 Small fish stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as
A. antibiosis
B. commensalism
C. predation
D. parasitism
Q. 115 The group of Anamniota includes
A. reptiles and birds
B. birds and mammals
C. fishes and amphibians
D. reptiles and mammals
Q. 116 The excretory material of bony fish is
A. urea
B. protein
C. ammonia
D. amino acid
Q. 117 The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?
A. Basophils
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
Q. 118 During inspiration, the diaphram
A. expands
B. shows no change
C. contracts and flattens
D. relaxes to become dome-shaped
Q. 119 The function of pineal body is to
A. lighten the skin colours
B. control sexual behaviour
C. regulates the period of puberty
D. All of the above
Q. 120 Synsacrum of fowl consists of about
A. 28 vertebrae
B. 3 vertebrae
C. 16 vertebrae
D. single vertebrae
Q. 121 Jumping genes in maize were discovered by
A. Hugo de Varies
B. Barbara McClintock
C. T H Morgan
D. Mendel
Q. 122 Streptomycin is obtained from
A. Streptomyces griseus
B. S. aureofaciens
C. S. venezuelae
D. S. rmosus
Q. 123 Indusium is found in
A. algae
B. ferns
C. moss
D. Cycas
Q. 124 The vacuole is lined by a membrane called
A. tonoplast
B. jacket
C. cell membrane
D. tonoplasm
Q. 125 Agar-agar is obtained from
A. Chlorella
B. Spirogyra
C. Ulothrix
D. Gelidium
Q. 126 DNA element with the ability to change position is called
A. cistron
B. transposon
C. intron
D. recon
Q. 127 Initiation codon is
A. UUU
B. UGA
C. AUG
D. UAG
Q. 128 DNA multiplication is called
A. translation
B. replication
C. transduction
D. transcription
Q. 129 Duramen is present in
A. inner region of secondary wood
B. part of sap wood
C. outer region of secondary wood
D. region of pericycle
Q. 130 In plants, water supply is due to
A. osmosis
B. imbibition
C. guttation
D. adhesion force
Q. 131 Most of the economically important five yielding plants belong to family
A. Malvaceae
B. Solanaceae
C. Cruciferae
D. Poaceae
Q. 132 Parrafin wax is
A. ester
B. acid
C. monohydric alcohol
D. cholestrol
Q. 133 Which is always present in photochemical smog?
A. O₃
B. CO₂
C. SO₂
D. CH₄
Q. 134 In a cell, cycle during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase
Q. 135 The soil which is transported by wind is known as
A. colluvial
B. eolian
C. aluvial
D. glacial soil
Q. 136 SPindle fibre is made up of
A. tubulin
B. humulin
C. intermediate filament
D. flagellin
Q. 137 Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?
A. Hydrosere
B. Lithosere
C. Psammosere
D. Xerosere
Q. 138 In pinus, male cone bears a large number of
A. ligules
B. anthers
C. micro-sporophylls
D. macro-sporophylls
Q. 139 Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is
A. vernalization
B. cryobiology
C. photoperiodism
D. prunning
Q. 140 Decomposers are
A. autotrophs
B. autoheterotrophs
C. organotrophs
D. heterotrophs
Q. 141 Cleavage polyembryony occurs in
A. Pinus
B. Mini Cycas
C. Cycas
D. Ephedra
Q. 142 Edible part of mushroom is
A. basidiocarp
B. secondary mycelium
C. primary mycelium
D. tertiary mycelium
Q. 143 Calyptra is derived from
A. archegonia
B. capsule
C. antheridia
D. columella
Q. 144 ‘Clamp connections’ are observed in
A. Basidiomycetes
B. Zygomycetes
C. Ascomycetes
D. Oomycetes
Q. 145 What is the main cause for the extinction of some species in tropical forest?
A. Deforestation
B. Afforestation
C. Pollution
D. Soil erosion
Q. 146 Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is
A. capillarity theory
B. root pressure theory
C. pulsation theory
D. transpiration pull
Q. 147 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?
A. Parallel venation
B. Perenial plants
C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)
D. Xylem with vessels
Q. 148 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as
A. bottleneck effect
B. edge effect
C. junction effect
D. Pasteur effect
Q. 149 In which form does food transported in plants?
A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
Q. 150 In cycas, pollination takes place in
A. 3 celled stage
B. 4 celled stage
C. 2 celled stage
D. 1 celled stage
Q. 151 The biossay of auxin is
A. avena curvature test
B. calculus formation
C. culture of fungus
D. seed of dormancy
Q. 152 A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?
A. Introns
B. Exons
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Q. 153 L-shaped chromosomes are also called
A. acrocentric
B. telecentric
C. sub-metacentric
D. None of these
Q. 154 Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Pteridophytes
D. Both (a) and (b)
Q. 155 A bacterium divides after every 35 min., if a culture containing
A. 175 × 10⁵
B. 125 × 10⁵
C. 48 × 10⁵
D. 32 × 10⁵
Q. 156 Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?
A. ABA theory
B. Munch theory
C. Starch glucose theory
D. Active K⁺ transport theory
Q. 157 Biological concept of species is mainly based on
A. reproductive isolation
B. morphological features only
C. methods of reproduction
D. morphology and methods of reproduction
Q. 158 In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?
A. Primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. Tertiary treatment
D. Reverse osmosis stage
Q. 159 Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit?
A. Seed coat
B. Perisperm
C. Seed
D. Raphe
Q. 160 If the root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes?
A. 24
B. 12
C. 4
D. 8
Q. 161 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
A pipe dream
A. A pleasant dream
B. A bad dream
C. An impractical dream
D. A foolish idea
Q. 162 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
To give up the ghost
A. To die
B. To make false appearance
C. To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner
D. To leave useless pursuits
Q. 163 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
To disabuse one’s mind
A. To conceal something
B. To remove a misapprehension
C. To banish from one’s mind a thought
D. To proceed cautiously so as to avoid risks and dangers
Q. 164 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
To wrangle over an ass’s shadow
A. To act in a foolish way
B. To quarrel over trifles
C. To waste time from petty things
D. To do something funny
Q. 165 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
To be at daggers drawn
A. To be frightened
B. To be ready to face danger
C. To threaten one
D. To be bitter enemy
Q. 166 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
According to corporate circles, Datta is pushing through the merger to create a financially ________ company in the processed foods business, the group’s thrust area for the 1990s.
A. straight
B. powerful
C. leading
D. acceptable
Q. 167 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
A man who is well-bred and honourable in-variably shows ________ for the feelings of other people.
A. complacence
B. concern
C. consideration
D. contempt
Q. 168 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
You will have to face some practical problems when you start ___________ this plan.
A. prosecuting
B. projecting
C. prescribing
D. proscribing
Q. 169 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to ____________ accidents.
A. winsome
B. arban
C. gruesome
D. minor
Q. 170 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
The more your action and thought are allied and _________________, the happier you grow.
A. invincible
B. divergent
C. integrated
D. unravelled
Q. 171 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
Around the world, painful terminal diseases/ (P), the question of human death/ (Q), people are wrestling with /(R), especially in the face of /(S)
A. R S Q P
B. P Q R S
C. R Q S P
D. P S Q R
Q. 172 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the/ (Q), required for adequate job performance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/ (S)
A. P Q R S
B. S R Q P
C. P R Q S
D. S Q R P
Q. 173 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
Freedom is the restricted kind in the sense/(P), the rich and the poor woman/(Q), that a
wide gulf separates/(R), which a modern woman enjoys/(S)
A. P S R Q
B. S R Q P
C. R Q P S
D. S P R Q
Q. 174 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
In life, some rules are/ (P), as in business/ (Q), they seem almost instinctive/ (R), learnt so early/ (S)
A. R S P Q
B. Q P S R
C. R P S Q
D. Q S P R
Q. 175 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/ (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided/ (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)
A. P R Q S
B. R S Q P
C. R Q P S
D. P S R Q
Q. 176 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.
I would “gladly accompany your sister” if you had asked me.
A. would have gladly accompanied
B. was to have gladly accompanied
C. will gladly accompany
D. No improvement
Q. 177 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.
The indecisive man “was readily persuaded” to change his mind again.
A. was persuaded ready
B. was ready to persuade
C. was ready persuaded
D. No improvement
Q. 178 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.
He enjoys “to tell stories” to children.
A. how to tell stories
B. telling stories
C. to narrate stories
D. No improvement
Q. 179 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.
It is unreasonable to “distort” the statement of a man simply because he does not agree
with your opinions.
A. discourage
B. denounce
C. bend
D. No improvement
Q. 180 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.
“Would” you find me absent, please don’t forget to leave a message behind.
A. As
B. Should
C. Unless
D. No improvement
Q. 181 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.
The RANCOUS shouts of the audience forced the management to call off the show.
A. unpleasant
B. loud
C. harsh
D. harmful
Q. 182 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.
At the Hardy house there was great CONSTERNATION when Aunt Gertrude saw Joe helping Frank up the stairs.
A. surprise
B. panic
C. gaity
D. anxiety
Q. 183 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.
Methods of spreading the family planning message have been as FECUND as they have been abortive.
A. fruitful
B. failing
C. peculiar
D. false
Q. 184 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.
Now, the FURY of the demonstrators turned against the machines.
A. asperity
B. passion
C. rage
D. acrimony
Q. 185 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.
Everyone who has worked for him HAMMERS home that point because they feel that it is widely unappreciated.
A. hints
B. stresses
C. strikes
D. directs
Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.
Here DEBONAIR manners were noticed by everyone present in the city.
A. stiff
B. cheerless
C. courteous
D. pleasant
Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.
Like poverty, AFFLUENCE can sometimes create its own problems.
A. sorrow
B. indigence
C. exuberance
D. opulence
Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.
It is surprising to find her CONDONING such an act.
A. disparaging
B. condemning
C. disliking
D. forbidding
Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.
He proved utterly CAPRICIOUS in his dealings with his friends.
A. helpful
B. steadfast
C. understanding
D. obstinate
Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.
A long as he remained in that office, he maintained his HEGEMONY.
A. predominance
B. poverty
C. subordination
D. chaos
Q. 191 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Medical study of the skin and its diseases
A. Dermatology
B. Orthopaedics
C. Venereology
D. Homeopathy
Q. 192 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence
A. Formalism
B. Statesmanship
C. Protocol
D. Hierachy
Q. 193 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old
A. Oncology
B. Geriatric
C. Obstetrics
D. Endocrinol
Q. 194 One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law upto himself.
A. Anarchist
B. Belligerent
C. Iconoclast
D. Agnostic
Q. 195 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or stones
A. Oleograph
B. Mosaic
C. Tracery
D. Relief
Questions: 196 – 200
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:1
Most of us use the products of science-railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how they came into existence. We take them granted, as if we were entitled to take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of light. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very ‘advanced’. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous age and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing fro saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdry to say that because an engine-driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine-driver is more advanced than, or is superior to Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a move advanced method locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.
Q. 196 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. An engine-driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.
B. Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to engine-driver.
C. Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine-driver in every respect.
D. The engine-driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle.
Q. 197 In this passage the author mentions Plato and/or Socrates to emphasise that
A. they are/were men of great scholarship.
B. people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.
C. the engine is better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.
D. Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning.
Q. 198 According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than
A. all the previous ages in some respect.
B. the age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respects.
C. some of the previous ages in all respects.
D. all the previous ages in all respects.
Q. 199 Many of us make use of machines
A. with very little knowledge of their mechanism
B. without any knowledge of their historical significance.
C. with full knowing of their genesis.
D. without knowing how they were invented.
Q. 200 People today are very proud because they live
A. in a philosophically advanced age.
B. in a materially advanced age.
C. in a scientifically advanced age.
D. in a spiritually advanced age.
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | B | D | B | C | B | B | C | B | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | C | A | D | C | A | D | B | B | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | A | B | A | B | D | C | B | D | C | A |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | B | A | B | C | B | D | A | B | D |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | B | C | A | C | A | C | B | D | C | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | B | B | D | C | A | C | B | C | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | C | A | C | D | A | C | D | B | A |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | D | D | B | C | D | C | D | C | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | A | B | A | C | D | C | D | B | D | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | D | A | D | A | B | A | A | D | A |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | C | C | A | D | C | B | A | A | D | A |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | A | B | B | C | A | B | C | D | C |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | A | B | A | D | B | C | B | A | D |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | A | A | A | A | B | A | B | C | A | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | A | A | A | A | A | D | D | B | A | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | A | B | C | D | D | D | A | B | B | B |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | A | B | B | D | B | C | B | C | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | C | B | D | B | B | A | D | B | D | B |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | C | A | A | C | B | B | B | B | B | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | A | C | B | A | B | B | B | A | D | C |