Section : General awareness Current Affairs
Q.1 INS Jalashwa and INS Magar were part of which of the following Naval operations in May 2020?
(A) Mission Rahat
(B) Operation Samudra Setu
(C) Operation Vanilla
(D) Mission Sagar
Answer – B
Q.2 Which country launched its first ever military communications satellite in July 2020?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) France
Answer – A
Q.3 Which of the following statements is true about PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme launched by Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare?
(1) It has become operational from 1.12.2017.
(2) PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
(A) 1 only
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – C
Q.4 Who among the following is one of the winners of the 2019 United Nations Military Gender Advocate Award?
(A) Marcia Andrade Braga
(B) Suman Gawani
(C) Seitebatso Pearl Block
(D) Aichatou Ousmane Issaka
Answer – B
Q.5 Which of the following statement is correct about 2020 Bihar Legislative Assembly election?
(A) National Democratic Alliance emerged as the winner with 125 elected MLAs
(B) Mahagathbandhan won 110 seats
(C) Vijay Kumar Sinha was elected the new Speaker of the Bihar Legislative Assembly.
(D) The term of the previous Eighteen Legislative Assemblies of Bihar ended on 29 October 2020.
(A) A, D and C
(B) B, C and D
(C) A, B and C
(D) A, B and D
Answer – C
Q.6 When did the Union Cabinet approved the setting up of National Recruitment Agency to conduct the Common Eligibility Test?
(A) 9 July, 2020
(B) 1 April, 2020
(C) 1 March, 2020
(D) 19 August, 2020
Answer – D
Q.7 Which one of the following is India’s largest Butterfly?
(A) Queen Alexandra’s birdwing
(B) Golden Birdwing
(C) Giant Swallowtail
(D) Monarch
Answer – B
Q.8 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
| List-I (Major events) | List-II (Chaired Addressed by) |
| A. 19th SCO Council of Heads of Government summit | 1- PM Narendra Modi |
| B. 7th IEF-IGU Ministerial Gas Forum | 2- Dharmendra Pradhan |
| C. 14th ADMM Plus Meet 2020 | 3- Rajnath Sinh Naidu |
| D. 6th India-Japan Samvad Conference | 4- M. Venkaiah Naidu |
Code:
| # | A | B | C | D |
| (a) | 1 | 4 | 2 | 3 |
| (b) | 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 |
| (c) | 2 | 3 | 1 | 4 |
| (d) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |
(A) d
(B) c
(C) a
(D) b
Answer – D
Q.9 Consider the following statements about Bharat Ratna.
(1) Nanaji Deshmukh received this award in 2019.
(2) Nanaji Deshmukh received this award for his work in the field of Art and Literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) 2 only
(D) 1 only
Answer – D
Q.10 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list.
| List-1 (Company) | List-2 (Country) |
|
A. Tencent B. SAP C. Canon D. Samsung |
1- China 2- Germany 3- South Korea 4- Japan |
(A) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(C) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Answer – B
Q.11 On 21st January 2021, NASA shared photos of the huge galaxy cluster. What statement is INCORRECT about the cluster?
(1) The cluster is older and slower galaxy cluster merger than the Bullet Cluster
(2) Name of the cluster is Abell 370 and was first discovered in 2002 using the lensing effect
(3) Cluster is located 4.9 billion light-years away from the Earth in the constellation Cetus
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Both 2 and 3
(A) a
(B) c
(C) b
(D) d
Answer – A
Q.12 Which of the following exoplanets of the size between Mars and Earth was discovered by NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite in June 2019?
(A) L98-59e
(B) L98-59b
(C) L98-59d
(D) L98-590
Answer – B
Q.13 Match List-1 with list List-2and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list.
| List-1 (Name of Government Scheme) | List-2 (Related Ministry) |
|
A. The Venture Capital Assistance Scheme B. Support for International Patent Protection in Electronics and & Information Technology (SIP-EIT) C. Single Point Registration Scheme |
(1) Ministry Of Electronics & Information Technology (2) Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (3) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare |
(A) A-3, B-1, C-2
(B) A-2, B-1, C-3
(C) A-2, B-3, C-1
(D) A-1, B-2, C-3
Answer – A
Q.14 Who among the following was appointed as the Director of the National Science Foundation in USA?
(A) K. S. Sethumadhavan
(B) V. Sethuraman
(C) Sethuraman Kandasamy
(D) Sethuraman Panchanathan
Answer – D
Q.15 Who among the following is a Padma Shri awardee and known for his work for promoting Zero Budget Natural Farming in India?
(A) Subhash Palekar
(B) Sunil ydv SS
(C) Hardik Satishchandra Shah
(D) Muthulakshmi Reddi
Answer – A
Q.16 Wing Commander Gajanand Yadava was awarded the ‘Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award 2019’ in:
(A) Lifetime achievement category
(B) Air adventure category
(C) Water adventure category
(D) Land adventure category
Answer – B
Q.17 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list.
| List-1 | List-2 |
| Name of the Author | Name of the Book |
| A. Premchand | (1) Gaban |
| B. Devaki Nandan Khatri | (2) Chandrakanta |
| C. Bhagwati Charan Verma | (3) Chitralekha |
| D. Dayananda Saraswati | (4) Satyarth Prakash |
(A) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, 1-4
(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, 1-4
Answer – C
Q.18 Arrange the following cricket teams in descending order as per Men’s ICC Test Team Rankings updated in Jan 2021
A. India
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. England
(A) D, B, C, A
(B) B, A, C, D
(C) A, B, D, C
(D) D, B, A, C
Answer – B
Q.19 Who among the following had been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG) by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet led by Prime Minister in October 2019?
(A) S. S. Deswal
(B) Rajni Kant Mishra
(C) Rajiv Rai Bhatnagar
(D) Anup Kumar Singh
Answer – D
Q.20 Which of the following statements about Arun Jaitley is/are correct?
(1) He was a member of the Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP) During his time at the university.
(2) He served as the Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs of the Government of India from 2015 to 2018.
(A) 2 only
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) 1 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer – C
Section : General studies
Q.21 Consider the following statements regarding sustainable development and climate change.
(1) The year 2019 marked the fourth anniversary of the adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the Paris Agreement.
(2) India’s sustained actions on addressing climate change have helped her achieve great strides, which are reflected in reduction in the emission intensity of India’s GDP by 21% during 2005-2014
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) 2 only
Answer – C
Q.22 Which Article of the Indian Constitution, under The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India?
(A) Article 19B
(B) Article 35C
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 43A
Answer – C
Q.23 Which one of the following books was not written by R.K. Narayan?
(A) The Man-Eater of Malgudi
(B) Swami and Friends
(C) Midnight’s Children
(D) The Vendor of Sweets
Answer – C
Q.24 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
| List-I (Sports) | List-II (Players associated with these sports) |
|
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Hockey D. Tennis |
(1) Suraj Karkera (2) P Kashyap (3) Prajnesh Gunneswaran (4) Rishabh Pant |
(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Answer – B
Q.25 Cobalamin is the scientific name of which of the following vitamins?
(A) C
(B) B3
(C) B12
(D) D
Answer – C
Q.26 What can be the effects of noise pollution on human health?
(1) Damage to the ear and temporary or permanent hearing loss often called ‘a temporary threshold shift’
(2) Irritability, anxiety and stress
(3) Lowered worker efficiency and productivity
(4) Loss of vision
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
Answer – C
Q.27 Who built the Geldria Fort at Pulicat in Tamil Nadu?
(A) Dutch
(B) French
(C) Portuguese
(D) British
Answer – A
Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayas.
(1) The Himalayas play a very significant role in influencing the climate of India.
(2) The Himalayas are not appropriate for tourism activities
(3) The Himalayan Mountain system is the source of many rivers.
(4) The Himalayas do not contain any minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
Answer – C
Q.29 Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Tyndall effect’.
(1) It is a phenomenon wherein scattering of a beam of light can be observed.
(2) It can be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole.
(3) It can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – D
Q.30 Members of which phylum are known as sponges?
(A) Cnidaria
(B) Ctenophora
(C) Annelida
(D) Porifera
Answer – D
Q.31 Where is the headquarters of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is located?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kolkata
(C) New Delhi
(D) Mumbai
Answer – C
Q.32 The_______was established in 1964 under an Act of Parliament as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Industrial Development Bank of India
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Bank of Baroda
Answer – B
Q.33 Where is the Motera Stadium located?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Indore
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Pune
Answer – C
Q.34 Consider the following statements regarding festivals and fairs in India.
(1) The highlight of the Pooram festival held at Trichur in Kerala is the parade of magnificently decorated elephants.
(2) The Bihu festival is celebrated in Assam,
(3) Kartikai is a festival of lights held on Kartik Poornima in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and parts of Kerala.
(4) The famous Pushkar fair is held in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer – D
Q.35 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
| List-I (Book) | List-II (Author) |
| A. Brihat-Samhita | (1) Kalhana |
| B. Mushika-vamsha | (2) Bilhana |
| C. Rajatarangini | (3) Atula |
| D. Vikramankadevacharita | (4) Varahamihira |
(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(B) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(C) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer – C
Q.36 Gipmochi mountain lies between China, Bhutan and the Indian state of:
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Sikkim
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer – C
Q.37 Consider the following statements about Panchayats or rural local self-government agencies.
(1) Gram Sabha is mentioned under Article 348 of the Constitution of India.
(2) There is a provision for the State Election Commission to conduct the election of these bodies.
(3) Article 243 D of the Constitution of India mentions about the reservation of seats.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Answer – D
Q.38 Which of the following is a human factor responsible for soil erosion?
(1) Deforestation
(2) Run off water
(3) Overgrazing
(4) Glacial erosion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
Answer – B
Q.39 It is the festival of Martial Dance is celebrated to mark the major victory of peace over war. What is the name of the festival and where it is celebrated?
(A) Kalinga Mahotsav, Odisha
(B) Durga Puja, Kolkata
(C) Vijayi Naach, Tamil Nadu
(D) Chandan Yatra, Chattisgarh
Answer – A
Q.40 The Home Rule movement was an important movement during the phase of Indian National Movement.
(1) It was in 1915 that Annie Besant announced her decision to establish a Home Rule League at Madras based on the model of the Irish Home Rule League.
(2) In 1916, Bal Gangadhar Tilak organised his own Home Rule League at Poona.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 2 only
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) 1 only
Answer – B
Section : Numerical aptitude
Q.41 In an examination P got 20% more marks than Q, Q got 20% less than R and R got 25% more than S. If P got 480 out of 600, find the marks of S.
(A) 450
(B) 425
(C) 400
(D) 520
Answer – C
Q.42 Total surface area of a solid cylinder is 297 cm2. If its radius is 3.5 cm, then what is its volume?
(A) 385 cm3
(B) 418 cm3
(C) 363 cm3
(D) 451 cm3
Answer – A
Q.43 If the ratio between two positive numbers is 5:7 and their product is 560. The smaller number will be
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 28
(D) 14
Answer – A
Q.44 What is the least possible number which on being divided by 7, 9 and 11, leaves a remainder of 2 in each case?
(A) 695
(B) 693
(C) 600
(D) 750
Answer – A
Q.45 A hall 10 m long, 2.5 m high and 4 m wide has one door of 1.5 mx 1 m and two windows of 1 m by 0.50 m. The cost of coloring the walls and the ceiling at Rs.12 per sq. m is:
(A) Rs. 1190
(B) Rs. 1230
(C) Rs. 1290
(D) Rs. 1330
Answer – C
Q.46 The circle-graph given here shows the spendings of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the question given below it.
How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?
(A) 75 percent
(B) 27 percent
(C) 35 percent
(D) 37.5 percent
Answer – C
Q.47 Six persons went to a hotel for taking their meals. Five of them spent Rs.15 each over their meals and the sixth spent Rs.8 more than the average expenditure of all the six.
What was the total money spent by them?
(A) Rs. 99.6
(B) Rs. 101.2
(C) Rs. 95.3
(D) Rs. 117.4
Answer – A
Q.48 If 8 men working 5 hours a days complete a job in 12 days, then 15 men working 4 hours a day will finish the job in how many days? Assume that all men work at same efficiency.
(A) 15 days
(B) 42 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 8 days
Answer – D
Q.49 Which of the following statement is correct?
I. A boat can travel 30 km downstream in 6 hours. If it can travel 40 km upstream in 10 hours, then speed of stream is 1 km/hr.
II. Length of a train is 1200 metre. If it can cross a 1500 metre long platform in 120 seconds, then speed of train is 90 km/hr.
(A) Neither I nor II
(B) Both I and II
(C) Only I
(D) Only II
Answer – A
Q.50 The given table shows the number of employees appointed by different organizations in the given years.
What is the respective ratio between the total employees appointed by the organization U in the year 2010 and 2012, and the total employees appointed by the organization P in the same years?
(A) 208: 198
(B) 189: 209
(C) 209: 189
(D) 198: 208
Answer – C
Q.51 Which of the following will have maximum discount percent?
(A) Marked price = 4000, Selling price = 3600
(B) Marked price = 2400, Selling price = 2000
(C) Marked price = 2800, Selling price = 2400
(D) Marked price = 3200, Selling price = 2800
Answer – B
Q.52 A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a man to buy 5 kg more for ₹300. Find the reduced price per kg of sugar.
(A) ₹ 6.00
(B) ₹ 5.25
(C) ₹ 6.50
(D) ₹ 5.75
Answer – A
Q.53 Mahim bought a dozen eggs at Rs 50 and sells them at 26 percent profit. What is the selling price of each egg?
(A) Rs. 5
(B) Rs. 5.25
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 4
Answer – B
Q.54 Anjali and Ritu appeared in an examination. Anjali secured 20 marks more than Ritu and her marks was 70 percent of sum of their marks. How much did Anjali secure?
(A) 35
(B) 50
(C) 15
(D) 20
Answer – A
Q.55 What should be the principal if the simple interest earned at the rate of 10 percent per annum is Rs. 1000 at the end of 5 years?
(A) Rs. 2500
(B) Rs. 1000
(C) Rs. 1500
(D) Rs. 2000
Answer – D
Q.56 Which of the following represents the fractional form of 0.12?
(A) 3/100
(B) 3/25
(C) 12/120
(D) 3/50
Answer – B
Q.57 A shopkeeper sells a product at some loss. If he reduces the selling price of the product by 5 percent, his loss increases by 4 percent. At what loss percent he sells his product? (Note: Options are rounded off)
(A) 63.63 percent
(B) 35 percent
(C) 55.55 percent
(D) 40 percent
Answer – C
Q.58 A man covers a distance of N km in 5 hours at a speed of 18 km/hr. Then find the speed of the man if he wants to cover the same distance in 3 hours.
(A) 24 km/hr
(B) 30 km/hr
(C) 36 km/hr
(D) 54 km/hr
Answer – B
Q.59 Three solid spheres of radius 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm are melted and recasted into a solid sphere. What will be the percentage decrease in the surface area?
(A) 14 percent
(B) 12 percent
(C) 16 percent
(D) 28 percent
Answer – D
Q.60 Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below it:
Number of candidates appearing for an interview for a post in various Banks and percentage of candidates qualifying.
The number of candidates who did not qualify in bank K was approximately what percent of the candidates who did not qualify in bank I?
(A) 51
(B) 48
(C) 44
(D) 42
Answer – B
Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude
Q.61 Find the missing term in the following series :
VYB, SVY, __________, MPS
(A) TRS
(B) STU
(C) PSV
(D) NOT
Answer – C
Q.62 Heavier coins are costlier. Ram’s coin is heavier than Mohan’s and costlier than Ramesh’s. Naresh’s coin is costlier than Ram’s but lighter than Yogesh’s. Ramesh’s coin is costlier than Mohan’s. So who is the owner of the costliest coin?
(A) Ram
(B) Ramesh
(C) Naresh
(D) Yogesh
Answer – D
Q.63 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All X are Y.
II. No Z is X.
Conclusions:
I. Some X are not Z.
II. Some Y are not Z.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusion I and II follows
(D) Neither conclusion follows
Answer – C
Q.64 In the question, below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statements:
Some dawns are nights.
No night is a noon. No dawn is a dusk.
Conclusions:
I. Some dusks are nights.
II. Some noons are dawns.
(A) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(B) If neither I nor II follows
(C) If only conclusion II follows
(D) If only conclusion I follows
Answer – B
Q.65 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
Answer – B
Q.66 Complete the following letter series:
HDF, GEE, FFD, EGC, _______
(A) FFB
(B) FHB
(C) DHB
(D) DHC
Answer – C
Q.67 A paper has been folded and cut as shown. Figure (X) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the Figure (X).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer – D
Q.68 Rohit, Kyra, Suraj, Laila and Diya are sitting on a bench. Kyra is sitting to the right of Suraj, who is not sitting at extreme corners. Laila is sitting in between Kyra and Rohit. Diya is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the left of Kyra?
(A) Rohit
(B) Diya
(C) Suraj
(D) Laila
Answer – C
Q.69 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically correct?
7 – 3 + 6 × 4 ÷ 2 = 25
(A) × and –
(B) × and ÷
(C) ÷ and –
(D) × and +
Answer – A
Q.70 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. No Pis X.
II. No R is P.
Conclusions:
I. Some X are not P.
II. No X is R.
(A) Both conclusion I and II follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Only conclusion I follows
(D) Neither conclusion follows
Answer – C
Q.71 If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the mirror image of the given figure?
Answer – D
Q.72 Select the term that will come next in the following series.
POQ,Q18T,R42W, S787, ?
(A) T126C
(B) F121E
(C) T128U
(D) P1360
Answer – A
Q.73 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1.MALISM
2.MAINED
3.MALAX
4.MARION
5.MANCES
(A) 2,3,1,5,4
(B) 1,2,3,5,4
(C) 3,2,1,4,5
(D) 1,3,5,2,4
Answer – A
Q.74 If SMILE is coded as 19-13-9-12-5, then what is the code for LAUGH?
(A) 13-1-20-7-8
(B) 12-1-21-7-8
(C) 12-1-21-7-9
(D) 13-1-22-7-9
Answer – B
Q.75 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and Gwent to watch a movie. A is the only son of B. B is the mother of C. D is the grandmother of A. E is the sister-in-law of B. F is the daughter of E. G is the father of F. G said, “I will sit right next to my only niece”. If G doesn’t have any sibling, whom is he talking about?
(A) C
(B) A
(C) F
(D) D
Answer – A
Q.76 6 Flowers’ is related to ‘Bouquet’ in the same way ‘Cattle’ is related to ‘______’.
(A) Herd
(B) Swarm
(C) Cow
(D) Gang
Answer – A
Q.77 Which of the following cubes in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
Answer – D
Q.78 The given Venn diagram shows the number of students who uses different social media like Facebook, Instagram and Twitter. How many students use either Facebook or Twitter or both, but not Instagram?
(A) 198
(B) 240
(C) 300
(D) 250
Answer – A
Q.79 Ram reached the office before Praful but after Alia. Joe reached the office before Ram but after Sam reached the office. Alia reached the office just after Joe reached the office. Who reached the office first?
(A) Ram
(B) Joe
(C) Sam
(D) Alia
Answer – C
Q.80 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given alternatives.
82, 164, 492, 2450, 17220
(A) 17220
(B) 164
(C) 492
(D) 2450
Answer – D
Section : English
Q.81 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below.
Vilification
(A) Rectification
(B) Variation
(C) Aspersion
(D) Assertion
Answer – C
Q.82 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
Women have constantly been _______________ to secondary positions in this men driven society
(A) relegated
(B) liberated
(C) serrated
(D) arbitrated
Answer – A
Q.83 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option ‘no correction required’ if the sentence is correct as given. He did exceptionally well in his exams (because he had tutored all week).
(A) as he had been tutoring all week
(B) as he had tutored all week
(C) No correction required
(D) as he had been tutored all week
Answer – D
Q.84 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option ‘no correction required if the sentence is correct as given.
(No sooner did we arrived) at the airport than we got into an argument with the cab driver.
(A) No sooner had we arrive
(B) No sooner than we arrived
(C) No sooner did we arrive
(D) No correction required
Answer – C
Q.85 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below.
Banish
(A) Persist
(B) Deport
(C) Perish
(D) Accept
Answer – B
Q.86 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word with the correct spelling.
(A) Irrevarance
(B) Irreverance
(C) Irreverence
(D) Irrevarence
Answer – C
Q.87 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Alien
(A) Local
(B) Basic
(C) Foreign
(D) Native
Answer – C
Q.88 Parts of a sentence have been jumbled up. Arrange these parts in a meaningful order.
A. that have seen a surge in interest in
B. is that of online education
C. one of the few pursuits
D. these otherwise trying times
(A) CABD
(B) CBAD
(C) CBDA
(D) CADB
Answer – D
Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. There are some people who think they are God’s gift to mankind.
(A) which think they must have been
(B) that think they had been
(C) No substitution required
(D) whose thinking is that they were
Answer – C
Q.90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
“Loaves and fish”
(A) Main support
(B) To get someone drunk
(C) To act in a frenzied manner
(D) Material interests
Answer – D
Q.91 The sentence below has four parts (A, B, C, and D). One part has a grammatical error.
Identify the part.
The same set of the facts (A) can be tailored (B)/ to fit any (C)/ preconceived belief. (D)
(A) can be tailored
(B) preconceived belief
(C) The same set of the facts
(D) to fit any
Answer – C
Q.92 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.
Going by the number of people present, it was appearing that the seminar was a huge success.
(A) Going by the number of people present,
(B) was a huge success.
(C) that the seminar
(D) it was appearing
Answer – D
Q.93 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word with the correct spelling.
(A) Impuden
(B) Impudant
(C) Impudane
(D) Impudent
Answer – D
Q.94 In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.
S(A) Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving of memories.
P. Psychologists of the Gastalt school maintain that objects are recognized as a whole in a parallel procedure.
Q. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brain’s memory system that constitutes an internal representation on the viewed object.
R. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a single one-step procedure or a serial step-by-step one.
S. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its internal recognition and thereby recognized.
S6. The internal representation is matched with the retinal image in single operation.
(A) QSRP
(B) RPQS
(C) SRPQ
(D) SQPR
Answer – B
Q.95 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
IMPERTURBABLE
(A) halcyon
(B) floral
(C) excitable
(D) stoical
Answer – C
Q.96 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
“No error’.
Neither my sister (1)/ and my brother is (2)/ interested in this project. (3)/ No error (4)
(A) and my brother is
(B) Neither my sister
(C) interested in this project
(D) No error
Answer – A
Q.97 The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option ‘No Error’.
(A) Cadets applying for the Indian navy
(B) examination, interviews, and medical tests.
(C) No error
(D) must go through several
Answer – B
Q.98 Select the most appropriate ‘one word ‘for the expressions given below.
Marriage outside one’s tribe
(A) Autogamy
(B) Polygamy
(C) Endogamy
(D) Exogamy
Answer – D
Q.99 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
They were fortunate enough to get a look at the _____________ mansion from the inside in the poshest area of the city.
(A) indolent
(B) opulent
(C) insolent
(D) benevolent
Answer – B
Q.100 Parts of a sentence have been jumbled up. Arrange these parts in a meaningful order.
A. reacted collectively to nip this in the bud
B. that are far more stringent than
C. what we could have gotten away with had the world
D. today, we will need social isolation methods
(A) DCBA
(B) DBCA
(C) DACB
(D) DBAC
Answer – B
