IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 19 Feb 2021 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

Section : General awareness Current Affairs 

Q.1 To commemorate which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, Gramodaya Chamber of Commerce and Technology (GCOT) instituted the ‘Gramodaya Bandhu Mitra Puraskar’? 

(A) 149th 

(B) 151th 

(C) 150th 

(D) 148th 

Answer – C

Q.2 Arrange the following cricket players in descending order as per the most runs taken by them during IPL 2020. 

A. KL Rahul 

B. Shikhar Dhawan 

C. Shreyas Iyer 

D. David Warner 

(A) C, B, A, D 

(B) D, B, C, A 

(C) A, B, D, C 

(D) D, B, A, C 

Answer – C

Q.3 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 (Company) List-2 (Founder) 
A. Space 1- Elon Musk
B. Virgin Galactic 2- Travis Kalanick
C. Twitter Inc. 3- Jack Dorsey
D. Uber  4- Richard Branson

(A) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

(C) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, 0-4 

Answer – B

Q.4 Consider the following statements about Padma Vibhushan Award for the year 2020. 

(1) Shri George Fernandes received this award posthumously for Public Affairs. 

(2) Shri Chhannulal Mishra received this award for Art Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – C

Q.5 Match List-1 and List-2 and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list. 

List-1 List-2
Name of the Author Name of the Book
A. Charles Dickens  1- A Christmas Carol
B. Salman Rushdie  2- Midnight’s Children
C. Shashi Tharoor 3- The Company of Women
D. Khushwant Singh 4- The Great Indian Novel

(A) A-2, B-1, C-3, 1-4 

(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(C) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 

(D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 

Answer – B

Q.6 In July 2020, Sahil Seth who is a 2011 batch Indian Revenue Service Officer, has been appointed honorary adviser of the steering committee of the 

(A) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry 

(B) SAARC Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

(C) BRICS Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

(D) G-20 Chamber of Commerce and Industry 

Answer – C

Q.7 Which of the following statements about 46th United States President Joe Biden is/are correct? 

(1) He was one of the youngest senators at the age of 24 

(2) He is the oldest US President at the age of 78 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2

(C) 2 only 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – C

Q.8 Which of the following statements is true about Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMWVY? 

(1) It is a pension plan for senior citizens 

(2) It is managed and operated by Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 1 only 

(D) 2 only 

Answer – B

Q.9 On 17th December 2020, India recently launched the CMS-01 communication satellite into the Geostationary Transfer Orbit. What statements is/are CORRECT regarding the satellite? 

(A) The satellite was launched on a PSLV-C50 launch vehicle. 

(B) The satellite will provide telecom services in the extended C-Band of the frequency spectrum. 

(C) Is India’s 40th communication satellite that will replace the functions of GSAT-12 launched in 201(C) 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) Both 1 and 2 

(A) b 

(B) c 

(C) a

(D) d

Answer – D

Q.10 In September 2020, which of the three bills was passed by the parliament aimed at transforming agriculture in the country and raising farmers’ income? 

(A) Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Bill, 2020 

(B) Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Bill, 2020 

(C) Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill 2020 

(D) Farmers Income and MSP (Minimum Support Price) Amendment Bill, 2020 

(A) A, D and C 

(B) B, C and D 

(C) A, B and C 

(D) A, B and D 

Answer – C

Q.11 In January 2020, at the age of 33, who became the world’s youngest democractically elected leader of a country? 

(A) Emmanuel Macron, France 

(B) Alexandria Ocasio-Cortez, USA 

(C) Sebastian Kurz, Austria 

(D) Jacinda Ardern, New Zealand 

Answer – C

Q.12 Which of the following statements are/are true regarding the recent appointment of Chief of Defense Staff of India? 

(1) Nearly two decades ago, in February 2000, the Kargil Review Committee (KRC) suggested the formation of a Chief of Defense Staff. 

(2) In terms of retirement age, the post of Chief of Defense Staff is not the same as that of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) etc. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – C

Q.13 Who among the following tennis players was disqualified from the US open 2020 after hitting an official with the ball? 

(A) Nick Kyrgios 

(B) Tim Henman 

(C) Novak Djokovic 

(D) Roger Federer 

Answer – C

Q.14 Which one of the following books won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2020 in Fiction category? 

(A) The Dutch House, by Ann Patchett (Harper) 

(B) The Topeka School, by Ben Lerner (Farrar, Straus and Giroux) 

(C) The Nickel Boys, by Colson Whitehead (Doubleday) 

(D) A Strange Loop, by Michael R. Jackson 

Answer – C

Q.15 What is the term used for special arrangement allowing citizens to travel by air between specified nations without having the need to undergo on-arrival quarantine?

(A) Vande Bharat 

(B) GetHomeltis 

(C) Travel Bubbles 

(D) Air India Express 

Answer – C

Q.16 The Constitution (126th) Amendment Bill which was passed by Parliament in December 2019, seeks to extend the reservation quota for the SC and ST community in legislatures by another: 

1.5 years 

(B) 10 years 

(C) 20 years 

(D) 15 years 

Answer – B

Q.17 When was Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPV) for the Indian Coast Guard launched and re christened as Indian Coast Guard Ship ‘Sarthak’?

(A) 6 June, 2020 

(B) 9 March, 2020 

(C) 13 August, 2020 

(D) 6 April, 2020 

Answer – C

Q.18 Nobel Prize is announced at an international level which is administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm, Sweden. Recently Nobel Prize winners for the year 2020 were announced. The recipients of Nobel Prize 2020 are 

(A) Reinhard Genzel and Andrea Ghez for the discovery of a supermassive compact object at the centre of our galaxy. 

(B) Gérard Mourou and Donna Strickland for their method of generating high-intensity, ultra-short optical pulses. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) Neither 1 and 2 

(C) 1 only 

(D) Both 1 and 2

Answer –  C

Q.19 Who is the first female appointed as Head of human spaceflight program of National Aeronautics and Space Administration in June 2020? 

(A) Sally Ride 

(B) Nancy Roman 

(C) Kathy Lueders 

(D) Katherine Johnson 

Answer – C

Q.20 When did SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket launch the SkySats 19, 20 and 21? 

(A) April 18, 2020 

(B) April 13, 2020 

(C) August 18, 2020 

(D) March 13, 2020 

Answer – C

Section : General studies 

Q.21 The Bhima river is a tributary of which of the following rivers?

(A) Narmada 

(B) Krishna 

(C) Damodar 

(D) Chambal 

Answer – B

Q.22 Consider the following statements in reference to the President of India. 

(A) Article 53 of the Constitution of India mentions that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 

(B) The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. 

(C) Article 60 of the Constitution of India mentions about the procedure 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 and 3 only 

(C) 1, 2 and 3 

(D) 1 and 2 only 

Answer – D

Q.23 Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

List-I (Sports)  List-II (Player) 
A. Cricket  1- Kidambi Srikanth 
B. Badminton  2- Birendra Lakra 
C. Field hockey 3- Sumit Nagal
D. Tennis  4- Ajinkya Rahane

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

(D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

Answer – B

Q.24 Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala art. 

(A) The Hoysala style (1050-1300 AD) developed in the southern region of Karnataka. 

(B) Hoysala at may be said to have its starting point in the temples of the early Chalukyas at Aihole. Badami and Pattadkal. 

(C) An important monument employing this art is the Kesava temple at Belur. 

(D) Apart from the architectural plan, the Hoysala style attained a few more distinguishing characteristics. For instance. chloritie schist was given up in favour of more tractable sandstone. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(A) 1, 2 and 3 

(B) 3 and 4 only 

(C) 2 and 3 only 

(D) 1 and 2 only 

Answer – A

Q.25 Which of the following factors determines the climate of India?  

(A) Latitude 

(B) Ocean currents 

(C) Distance from the sea 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 2 only 

(B) 1, 2 and 3 

(C) 1 only 

(D) 1 and 3 

Answer – B

Q.26 When was the World Bank established? 

(A) 1948 

(B) 1942 

(C) 1946 

(D) 1944 

Answer – D

Q.27 Which among the following schedules of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the allocation of seats in the Council of States? 

(A) Fifth 

(B) Fourth 

(C) Third 

(D) First 

Answer – B

Q.28 Which of the following is the first state to regulate the crop grown by farmers? 

(A) Madhya Pradesh 

(B) Haryana 

(C) Telangana 

(D) Himachal Pradesh  

Answer – C

Q.29 Kailasanathar is the temple built by which dynasty and in which state? 

(A) Pallava, Tamil Nadu 

(B) Chola, Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Chola, Tamil Nadu 

(D) Pallava, Andhra Pradesh 

Answer – A

Q.30 To which state of India do the ‘Khuded’ folk songs belong? 

(A) Chhattisgarh 

(B) Odisha 

(C) Jharkhand 

(D) Uttarakhand 

Answer – D

Q.31 Who has become the first Indian to win the Richard Dawkins Award? 

(A) Gulzar 

(B) Javed Akhtar 

(C) Prasoon Joshi 

(D) Naseeruddin Shah 

Answer – B

Q.32 Which among following statements about Bhagoriya is/are correct? 

(A) Bhagoriya is a one of the major festival of tribal people. 

(B) Bhagoriya is a Haat Market. 

(C) Bhagoriya festival celebrated in the month of May. 

(D) Bhagoriya festival celebrated by Bhil and Bhilala tribe in Madhya Pradesh. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) (A) 2 and 4 

(B) 2 Only 

(C) 1 Only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer – A

Q.33 Consider the following statements regarding matter. 

(A) Matter is made up of small particles. 

(B) The forces of attraction between the particles in matter are maximum in gases. 

(C) Evaporation does not cause cooling. 

(D) The matter around us exists in three states: solid, liquid and gas. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) I only 

(B) 3 and 4 

(C) 2 and 4 

(D) 1 and 4 

Answer – D

Q.34 Consider the following statements about the use of behavioral parameters by GSTN to enhance voluntary compliance with reference to GST (Goods and Service Tax). 

(A) The GST rules provide for electronic generation of e-way bill for transportation of goods above a certain threshold of value of the goods being transported. 

(B) Return filing status of a GSTIN is visible in the public domain on the GST portal. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) I only 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) 2 only 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – B

Q.35 Vinesh Phogat is related with which of the following sports? 

(A) Swimming 

(B) Tennis 

(C) Wrestling 

(D) Badminton 

Answer – C

Q.36 Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Movement. 

(A) Romesh Chunder Dutt, a retired ICS officer, published ‘The Economic History of India’ at the beginning of the 20th Century. In this book he examined in minute detail the entire economic record of colonial rule since 1757. 

(B) The focal point of the nationalist critique was the drain theory. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer – C

Q.37 What are rod shaped bacteria called?

(A) Basilaiye  

(B) Spirillum Spirillum 

(C) vibrio 

(D) caucus 

Answer – A

Q.38 Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of a good source of energy. 

(A) It would not do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass. 

(B) It is easily accessible. 

(C) It is easy to store or transport. 

(D) It is not economical. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

(B) 3 and 4 only 

(C) 1 and 2 only 

(D) 2 and 3 only 

Answer – D

Q.39 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. 

List-I (Author) List-II (Book)
A. Kautilya (A) Ashtadhyayi
B. Panini (B) Arthashastra
C. Kamandaka (C) Kumarasambhava
D. Kalidas (D) Nitisara

(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 

(C) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 

(D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 

Answer – A

Q.40 The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company in the year______________.

(A) 1792 

(B) 1784 

(C) 1782 

(D) 1779 

Answer – B

Section : Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 The pie chart given here shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items and their savings, which amount to Rs. 8,000 in a month. 

Study the chart and answer the question based on the pie chart. 

How much more amount is spent on food than on housing? 

(A) Rs. 1,000 

(B) Rs. 2,500 

(C) Rs. 2,000 

(D) Rs. 3,000 

Answer – C

Q.42 Shagun and Sheetal have 40 kg and 50 kg apples respectively. Richa takes 30 percent apples from Shagun and 46 percent apples from Sheetal. Approximately what percent of total apples are Shagun and Sheetal left with? 

(A) 53 percent 

(B) 61 percent 

(C) 67 percent 

(D) 49 percent 

Answer – B

Q.43 Speed of a boat in still water is 10 km/hr. If speed of stream is 2 km/hr, then how much distance can the boat travel downstream in 2.5 hours? 

(A) 30 km 

(B) 24 km 

(C) 32 km 

(D) 28 km 

Answer – A

Q.44 A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1331 in 3 years at 10 per cent compounded annually. Find the sum invested. 

(A) Rs. 1050 

(B) Rs. 1000 

(C) Rs. 1132 

(D) Rs. 1100 

Answer – B

Q.45 Circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square. What is the ratio of area of circle to the area of square? (The value of T is 22/7) 

(A) 14:11 

(B) 18:11 

(C) 27 : 22 

(D) 31: 22 

Answer – A

Q.46 Salary of Ram is 20 per cent more than Shyam’s. By what percent is Shyam’s salary less than Ram. 

(A) 20.10 

(B) 16.66 

(C) 19.25 

(D) 18.75 

Answer – B

Q.47 Which of the following is correct?

(A) 6√8 > 4√3 > 3√2  > 12√12 

(B)  4√3 > 6√8 > 12√12  > 3√2  

(C)  4√3 > 6√8 > 3√2  > 12√12 

(D)  3√2 > 4√3 > 6√8  > 12√12 

Answer – A

Q.48 A, B and C start a partnership. They invested Rs. 45000, Rs. 36000 and Rs. 54000 respectively. They stayed in partnership for 4 years, 3 years and 2 years. If B’s share in profit is Rs. 1800, then what is the total profit? 

(A) Rs. 6000 

(B) Rs. 6600 

(C) Rs. 7200 

(D) Rs. 7000 

Answer – B

Q.49 Simplify the following. 7 ½ ÷ {4 ½ – ½ × (2 ½ – 1 ¼ – 3/4 )}

(A) 4.5 

(B) 7.25 

(C) 1.875 

(D) 5.75 

Answer – C

Q.50 Present ratio of the ages of Babita and Sunita is 7:9. 5 years ago, this ratio was 1:(B) Find the present age of Babita. 

(A) 9 years 

(B) 14 years 

(C) 7 years 

(D) 21 years 

Answer – C

Q.51 A line graph is given below which shows the number of cars sold by seller A and seller B on five days. 

Find the number of cars sold on Sunday by A and B together, if number of cars sold on Sunday is 16 percent more than the cars sold on Friday by A and B together? 

(A) 116 

(B) 112 

(C) 114 

(D) 120 

Answer – B

Q.52 Find the curved surface area of cone whose height is 3 m and radius is 4 m. (approximate value) (The value of π is 22/7) 

(A) 63 m2 

(B) 33 m2 

(C) 3.45 m2 

(D) 4.79 m2 

Answer – A

Q.53 The given table shows the number of employees appointed by different organizations in the given years. 

In the year 2008, the number of employees appointed by the organization R is how much percentage more from the previous year ? (Around the nearest integer) 

(A) 12 

(B) 14 

(C) 16 

(D) 10 

Answer – A

Q.54 What should come in place of a question mark (?) in the following question ? 

27 ½ + 15 ¾ – 12 ⅖ + 18 ⅘ = ?

(A) 49 13/20

(B) 48 13/20

(C) 49 33/20 

(D) 49 

Answer – A

Q.55 Which of the following is smallest? 

(A) √9 – √7 

(B) √6 – √4 

(C) √28 – 5 

(D) √18 – 4 

Answer – D

Q.56 What is the average of first 9 prime numbers? 

(A) 10.77 

(B) 11.33 

(C) 10.1 

(D) 11.11 

Answer – D

Q.57 A dealer sold 5/6th of his goods at 30 percent profit and the remaining at the cost price. What is his overall gain percent? 

(A) 27.27 percent 

(B) 25 percent 

(C) 22.5 percent 

(D) 30 percent 

Answer – B

Q.58 A tank is normally filled in 4 hours. But it takes 5 hours to fill, when there is a leak at the bottom of the tank. If the tank is full, in how many hours can it be emptied by the leak? 

(A) 12 

(B) 20 

(C) 10 

(D) 15 

Answer – B

Q.59 Rina can complete a piece of work in 6 days while Seema can do the same work in 9 days. If they both work together, then how many days will be required to finish the work? 

(A) 4 days 

(B) 10 days 

(C) 7.3 days 

(D) 3.6 days 

Answer – D

Q.60 A and B can together complete a task in 16 days. They started a task together and after 4 days A leave, B takes 24 days to finish the rest of the task. How many days would B have taken to do the task if he worked alone? 

(A) 30 days 

(B) 24 days 

(C) 32 days 

(D) 34 days 

Answer – C

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 Select the option that is related to the third term on the same basis as the second term is related to the first term. 

ACT: BFY :: BAD 😕 

(A) DCI 

(B) CDI 

(C) CID 

(D) ICD 

Answer – B

Q.62 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? 

Answer – B

Q.63 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically correct? 

9 +3+6 – 6 x 2 = 30 

(A) + and ÷

(B) × and ÷

(C) ÷ and – 

(D) × and + 

Answer – B

Q.64 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. 

Answer – C

Q.65 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

(A) All peacocks are ducks. 

(B) No duck is a kite. 

(C) All fowls are kites. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some fowls are peacocks. 

II. No kite is a peacock. 

III. No peacock is a fowl. 

IV. Some kites are peacocks. 

(A) Only conclusions I, II and IV follow 

(B) Only conclusions II and III follow 

(C) Only conclusions I and IV follow 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow 

Answer – B

Q.66 If ‘ADMONISH’ is coded as ‘DAOMINHS’ in a particular language, then how will REPEATED’ be coded in the same language? 

(A) ERPETADE 

(B) EREPTADE 

(C) REEPTADE 

(D) EDATEPRE 

Answer – B

Q.67 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between birds, animals and crows?

Answer – D

Q.68 The given Venn diagram shows the number of students who can play Cricket, Basketball and Volleyball. How many can play both Cricket and Basketball but not Volleyball? 

(A) 8 

(B) 12 

(C) 10 

(D) 11 

Answer – C

Q.69 Venu, Sonia, Kamal, Ria and Aish are sitting on a bench. Sonia is sitting to the right of Kamal , who is not sitting at extreme end of the bench. Ria is sitting in between Sonia and Venu. Aish is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the right of Ria? 

(A) Kamal 

(B) Venu 

(C) Sonia 

(D) Aish 

Answer – B

Q.70 Pointing to a woman in the photograph a man said, “She is the daughter of my paternal grandmother’s only son.” How is the woman related to the man? 

(A) Sister 

(B) Sister-in-law 

(C) Daughter 

(D) Mother 

Answer – A

Q.71 Thickness of 8 tyres L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S is compared. Thickness of no two tyres is same. Thickness of N is more than L but less than 6 tyres. Thickness of O is more than M but less than Q. Thickness of P is less than only two tyres. Thickness of Q is not more than P. Which of the following statement is not correct? 

(A) If thickness of P is 108 cm, then sum of thickness of R and S can be 219 cm 

(B) Thickness of R is less than S 

(C) Thickness of O is less than P 

(D) L<N<M<O<Q<P<S<R can be the correct sequence of their thickness 

Answer – B

Q.72 Six people A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table and they are facing the center, not necessarily in the same order. B sits opposite E and A sits opposite F. Neither A nor C sits adjacent to B. If A sits to the immediate right of D, then in which order these six people sit, starting from A, in clockwise direction?

(A) ADBCFE 

(B) ADBFCE 

(C) ADFBCE 

(D) ADFCBE 

Answer – B

Q.73 Find the missing number in the following number series: 

22.5,_____, 26.5, 30, 34.5 

(A) 23.5 

(B) 24.5 

(C) 27 

(D) 24 

Answer – D

Q.74 Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

A. Some spoons are forks. 

B. Some forks are mats. 

Conclusions: 

I. No spoon is a mat. 

II. Some mats are forks. 

III. Some mats are spoons. 

IV. No fork is a spoon. 

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow 

(B) Only conclusions II and IV follow 

(C) Only conclusion II and either conclusion I or III follow. 

(D) Only either conclusion I and IV follows. 

Answer – C

Q.75 If BARK is coded as 2-1-18-11, then what is the code for WEAP? 

1.23-5-1-16 

(B) 22-4-1-15 

(C) 24-6-2-17 

(D) 21-7-1-18 

Answer – A

Q.76 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the given figure and complete the pattern (rotation is NOT allowed). 

Answer – B

Q.77 Which of the answer figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side? 

Answer – B

Q.78 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives. 

(A) 52 

(B) 64 

(C) 18 

(D) 5 

Answer – B

Q.79 Complete the following series. 

7D, 15H, 23L, ______

(A) 31Q 

(B) 29P 

(C) 33Q 

(D) 31P 

Answer – D

Q.80 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. 

Statements: 

I. All Kare R. 

II. Some R are F. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some Fare K. 

II. Some R are not K. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows 

(B) Only conclusion I follows 

(C) Both conclusion I and II follows 

(D) Neither conclusion follows 

Answer – D

Section : English 

Q.81 Which of the following is correctly spelt? 

(A) Riceprocity 

(B) Reciprosity 

(C) Reciprocity 

(D) Reciprrosity

Answer – C

Q.82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The ability to make good judgements and take quick decisions. 

(A) Acumen 

(B) Ineptness 

(C) Intuition 

(D) Perception 

Answer – A

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

He was one of most respected generals because of his care for the men and his record as a fighter. 

(A) the most respect generals 

(B) the most respected generals 

(C) most respected general 

(D) No improvement 

Answer – B

Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Undercover officers were sent to gather information, and they gave evidence in court from behind screens to protect their identities. 

(A) for protecting his identities. 

(B) in protecting their identity. 

(C) No improvement 

(D) to protecting their identities. 

Answer – C

Q.85 Identify the segment of the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Shall her flight get cancelled, your mother says she will send you a message. 

(A) she will send you a message. 

(B) your mother says 

(C) Shall her flight 

(D) get cancelled, 

Answer – C

Q.86 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Select the option that has the error. If the sentence has no error then select ‘No Error’. 

In the ancient world, theories of the origin of Earth and the objects see in the sky were certainly much less constrained. 

(A) of Earth and the objects see in the sky 

(B) were certainly much less constrained. 

(C) No Error 

(D) In the ancient world, theories of the origin 

Answer – A

Q.87 In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Select the option that has the error. If the sentence has no error then select ‘No Error’. 

Fewer than one percent of the earth’s water is unsalted and available for human consumption. 

(A) Fewer than one percent of the 

(B) for human consumption. 

(C) No Error 

(D) earth’s water is unsalted and available 

Answer – A

Q.88 Choose the word that means the same as the given word. 

Fatigue 

(A) Tiredness 

(B) Clumsy 

(C) Fresh 

(D) Stable 

Answer – A

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The problem, at least for those holidaying in Gibraltar, is that neither of these hotels a beach. 

(A) has 

(B) have 

(C) had 

(D) having 

Answer – A

Q.90 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A. students were expected 

B. studied in earlier classes 

C. having reached higher classes 

D. to know the formulas and principles 

(A) ACDB 

(B) CDAB 

(C) ADBC 

(D) CADB 

Answer – D

Q.91 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Books costing money and requiring the user to read them for the idea to spread. 

(A) cost money and require 

(B) cost money and requiring 

(C) No improvement 

(D) costing money and require 

Answer – A

Q.92 Select the incorrectly spelt word. 

(A) Diminutive 

(B) Presceint 

(C) Spectacular 

(D) Tectonic 

Answer – B

Q.93 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

Barking up the wrong tree 

(A) To blame someone unfairly for a problem. 

(B) To be mistaken, to be looking for solutions in the wrong place. 

(C) To ignore someone. 

(D) Being treated the same unpleasant way you have treated others. 

Answer – B

Q.94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

It is often said that the way to the man heart is through his stomach. 

(A) is through his stomach. 

(B) that the way to 

(C) the man heart 

(D) It is often said 

Answer – C

Q.95 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative. 

Your brother is ______intelligent than your father. 

(A) most 

(B) more 

(C) many 

(D) much 

Answer – B

Q.96 Arrange the jumbled sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. 

A. Half the world’s population is now under lockdown orders. 

B. As more information about the virus has become available, public advisories have also shape shifted accordingly. 

C. It is to help fight the Covid-19 contagion that has picked up fearful pace through the month of March. 

D. One such evolution has taken place on the question of masks. 

(A) ADBC 

(B) ACBD 

(C) ABCD 

(D) ACDB 

Answer – B

Q.97 Identify the segment of the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Startled, he looked around to locate the source of the sharp sound, but would not be finding any. 

(A) but would not be finding any. 

(B) Startled, he looked around 

(C) to locate the source 

(D) of the sharp sound, 

Answer – A

Q.98 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

An official pardon for people who have been convicted of political offences. 

(A) Liberation 

(B) Exoneration 

(C) Immunity 

(D) Amnesty 

Answer – D

Q.99 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A husband’s (or wife’s) provision for a spouse after separation or divorce; 

maintenance. 

(A) Alimony 

(B) Remittance 

(C) Provision 

(D) Patrimony 

Answer – A

Q.100 Out of all the alternatives given, select the option which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

Bite off more than you can chew 

(A) To take on a project that you cannot finish. 

(B) Taking credit for someone else achievements. 

(C) Being treated the same unpleasant way you have treated others. 

(D) Something considered too insignificant to create an impact. 

Answer – A

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