IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 19 Feb 2021 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

Section : General awareness Current Affairs 

Q.1 Consider the statement in regard of Wavel Ramkalawan. 

1- He has won Seychelles’ presidential election. 

2- He has won the Ramanujan Prize for Mathematicians for the year 2020. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 1 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – A

Q.2 Who has been elected as the non-executive chairman of India bulls Housing Finance in August 2020? 

(A) S.S. Mundra 

(B) M.K. Jain 

(C) B.P. Kanungo 

(D) K.K. Venugopal 

Answer – A

Q.3 In June 2019, The Indian Air Force has signed a deal with the Israeli government to 

buy as many as 100 SPICE bombs worth: 

(A) Rs. 400 crore 

(B) Rs. 100 crore 

(C) Rs. 300 crore 

(D) Rs. 200 crore 

Answer – C

Q.4 Consider the following statement in the context of Padma Award 2021 

1- Padma awards are given in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. 

2- Shri Shinzo Abe from Japan is awarded with Padma Bhushan for his contribution in the field of Public Affairs. 

3- 7 were awarded the Padma Vibhushan, 10 named for the Padma Bhushan and 102 named for Padma Shri. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) None of the above 

(B) Only 2 and 3 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 1 and 3 

Answer – D

Q.5 Who has been reappointed as solicitor general of India in July 2020? 

(A) Tushar Mehta 

(B) N Venkataraman 

(C) Balbir Singh 

(D) R.S. Suri 

Answer – A

Q.6 The Rockefeller Foundation announced 10 finalists for the Food System Vision 2050 Prize in August 2020. Among them how many finalists were selected from India? 

(A) 2 

(B) 1 

(C) 3 

(D) 4 

Answer – A

Q.7 How many Chinese apps had been banned by the government of India in June 2020 due to their activities which were prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India? 

(A) 59 

(B) 51 

(C) 53 

(D) 58 

Answer – A

Q.8 On 21st January 2021, Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani announced the “Horticulture Development Mission” in the state with an aim: 

1- to double the income of the farmers involved in horticulture and medicinal farming 

2- to provide waste land of the state government on 45 year lease for forming of horticulture and medicinal crops 

3- to cover 7 districts of the state as the part of first phase 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) Both 1 and 2 

(A) d 

(B) b 

(C) a 

(D) c 

Answer – C

Q.9 What is Sarna Code? Consider the following statement in this regard. 

1- The Jharkhand Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 202(A) 

2- The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which was rejected by assembly speaker. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2

Answer – C

Q.10 Consider the statement in regard ‘KAPILA’ Campaign. 

1- This is a campaign for Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness campaign which was organised on the 89th birth anniversary of former President Late Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. 

2- This is a campaign for collection, demonstration and documentation of raw drugs from Southern Plateau region. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 2

(D) Only 1

Answer – D

Q.11 Consider the statement in regard of Aditya Mehta. 

1- Aditya Mehta defeated multiple-time world champion Pankaj Advani 6-2 to win the National Snooker Championship. 

2- Aditya Mehta represented the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board (PSPB). 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Only 2 

(C) 1 and 2 both 

(D) Only 1

Answer – C

Q.12 Which country has become the first African country to submit the results of Reducing 

Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) to UNFCCC? 

(A) Uganda 

(B) Burundi 

(C) Algeria 

(D) Cameroon

Answer – A

Q.13 Consider the statement in context of CMS-0(A) 

1- It is a communication satellite which is launched by PSLV-C50 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. 

2- It is a project which aims to monitor, track and protect space assets of India. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) 1 and 2 both 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 1

Answer – D

Q.14 Consider the following statement in the context of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission. 

1- It is a centrally sponsored programme that aims at eliminating rural poverty through promotion of multiple livelihoods for the rural poor households across the country. 

2- The Union Cabinet has approved a special package worth Rs. 820 crore for Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh for a period of five years till 2023-2(D) 

Select the correct answer from the options given below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – C

Q.15 SVANidhi Yojana is a scheme which has been launched by Hon’ble Prime minister to. 

1- To grant collateral-free loans of up to Rs 10,000 to street vendors across the country. 

2- To provide grant to fulfill the nutritional demands of women and children in the country. 

3- This scheme was launched on June 1, 2020. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 2 and 3 

(B) None of the above 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer – D 

Q.16 Bharat Parv is a five-day annual event that celebrates the spirit of India is being organised virtually from January 26, 2021 till January 31, 2021 

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct regarding the event? 

1- It was started in the year 2016. 

2- This year the event was inaugurated by the Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla. 

3- The Central theme of this year’s Bharat Parv is ‘Mera Desh Badal Raha Hai, Aage Badh Raha Hai’ 

4- The event is organized by the Ministry of defence every year 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 2 and 3 only 

(A) c 

(B) d 

(C) a 

(D) b 

Answer – A

Q.17 Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with which award in 2019 by Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for his leadership and commitment to improve access to sanitation in India? 

(A) Seoul Peace Prize 

(B) Philip Kotler Presidential Award 

(C) Global Goalkeeper Award 

(D) Champions of the Earth Award 

Answer – C

Q.18 Which of the following Union ministry won the SKOCH Gold Award 2020? 

(A) Ministry of Textiles 

(B) Ministry of Women and Child Development 

(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs 

Answer – D

Q.19 Which app has been launched by Kiren Rijiju in June 2020 to keep Indian athletes 

updated about banned substances? 

(A) NADA INDIA 

(B) NADA BHARAT 

(C) INDIAN NADA 

(D) NADA INDIAN

Answer – A 

Q.20 Which institution collaborated with the Bureau of Indian Standards for cooperation in 

the areas of standardization and conformity assessment in August 2020? 

(A) IIT Madras 

(B) IIT Bombay 

(C) IIT Roorkee 

(D) IIT Kanpur 

Answer – C

Section : General studies 

Q.21 Chenab, the largest tributary of the Indus river, is also known as _______.

(A) Bhagirathi 

(B) Chandrabhaga 

(C) Kosi 

(D) Giri 

Answer – B

Q.22 With which of the following musical instruments is Ustad Ali Akbar Khan related to? (A) Sarod 

(B) Tabla 

(C) Violin 

(D) Sitar 

Answer – A

Q.23 Pellagra is caused due to the lack of which of the following vitamins? 

(A) A 

(B) B3 

(C) B1 

(D) D 

Answer – B

Q.24 As per the Union Budget 2020-21, what will be the implementation period of the National Technical Textiles Mission? 

(A) 2021-22 to 2023-24 

(B) 2020-21 to 2024-25 

(C) 2020-21 to 2023-24 

(D) 2021-22 to 2024-25

Answer – C 

Q.25 Which of the following pair is correct? 

I. 1905 – Partition of Bengal 

II. 1908 – Split in Congress 

III. 1919 – Rowlatt Satyagrah 

(A) II and III 

(B) I and II 

(C) I, II and III 

(D) I and III

Answer – D

Q.26 Which among the following books is not written by Arundhati Roy?

(A) Once Upon a Time 

(B) The Algebra of Infinite Justice 

(C) The God of Small Things 

(D) The Ministry of Utmost Happiness 

Answer – A

Q.27 Consider the following statements with reference to the Mamallapuram dance festival. 

1- It is the celebration of folk dances that are prevailing in various regions of the country. 

2- This festival is organised for about ten days in the town of Mahabalipuram. 

3- Tales from Mahabharat, Radha Krishna, Valli Muruga, Shiva Shakthi and numerous ancient lore are brought alive through delicate dance forms. 

4- Breath-taking dances are performed in an ornamented stage with the historic stone sculptures range the Arjuna Penance as the backdrop. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 

(B) Only 1 and 2 

(C) Only 1, 3 and 4 

(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer – C 

Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding Khardung La Pass. 

1- It is the highest motorable pass in India. 

2- It is the gateway to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys. 

3- It is situated to the North of Mount Godwin-Austen. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1 and 2 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 2 and 3 

Answer – A

Q.29 In which of the following ways can 1 Volt be expressed?

(A) 1 Joule-Coulomb per second 

(B) 1 Joule-Coulomb 

(C) 1 Coulomb per Joule 

(D) 1 Joule per Coulomb

Answer – D 

Q.30 Which among the following soil is commonly used for bricks? 

(A) Black 

(B) Peaty 

(C) Alluvial 

(D) Laterite 

Answer – D

Q.31 Consider the following statements with reference to indirect taxes in Budget 2020. 

1- Custom duty was raised on footwear from 25% to 35% and on furniture goods from 20% to 25%. 

2- Basic customs duty on imports of newsprint and light-weighted coated paper was reduced from 10% to 5%. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 2 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) Both 1 and 2 

Answer – D

Q.32 With which of the following sports is Nikhat Zareen related to? 

(A) Wrestling 

(B) Boxing 

(C) Badminton 

(D) Hockey 

Answer – B

Q.33 Phawngpui or the Blue Mountain is the highest peak in the state of 

(A) Mizoram 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Uttarakhand 

(D) Sikkim 

Answer – A

Q.34 Amongst the following, which state celebrates Gangaur festival? 

(A) Goa 

(B) Arunachal Pradesh 

(C) Karnataka 

(D) Rajasthan 

Answer – D

Q.35 Consider the following statements in reference to Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009. 

1- As per the Act, no farmer shall sow nursery of paddy before 10th day of May of the agricultural year or such other date as may be notified by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette for any local area. 

2- Any farmer who contravenes the provisions of this Act shall be liable to a penalty of rupees ten thousand for every month, or part thereof, per hectare of the land till the period such contravention continues. 

3- As per the Act, ‘State government’ means ‘Government of India’. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1 and 3 

(B) Only 2 and 3 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 3 

Answer – C

Q.36 Consider the following statements regarding Save Water Day. 

1- On 12 July 2019. the West Bengal government observed Save Water Day across the state to spread the message of water conservation. 

2- This was the first-ever Save Water Day observed across West Bengal to spread the message of water conservation. 

3- West Bengal has a water conservation programme called ‘Tal Dharo Jal Bharo’ to prevent floods and provide water during the period of scarcity. 

4- The Government of India has set a target to provide 35 lakh households in West Bengal with tap water supply by March 2021 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 

(B) Only 1 and 3 

(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer – A 

Q.37 Consider the following statements in reference to the Phylogenetic classification system. 

1- It shows an evolutionary relationship between various organisms on the basis of descent from a common ancestor. 

2- In this system, the cladistics method is used in generating phylogenetic trees. 

3- It was proposed by Swedish Botanist Carolus Linnaeus. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 and 2 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) 3 only 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – A

Q.38 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. 

List-I (States) List-II (Sports festivals celebrated in these states) 
A. Punjab 1.  Indian Derby 
B. Gujarat 2. Kila Raipur Sports Festival 
C. Kerala 3. International Kite Festival 
D. Maharashtra 4. Champakulam Boat Race 

(A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 

(B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(D) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

Answer – A

Q.39 Consider the following statements regarding the Babbar Akali movement during the years 1921-1925. 

1- The movement included Guru Sikhs, who were against the imperialist policies of the British Government. 

2- Majority of the Babbar Akalis were returned immigrants from Canada. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 1 

Answer – B

Q.40 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. 

List-I (Mahajanapadas) List-II (Capitals of Mahajanapadas) 
A. Malla1. Taxila 
B. Anga 2. Kausambi 
C. Gandhara 3. Champa 
D. Vatsa 4. Kusinara 

(A) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 

(C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(D) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 

Answer – B

Section : Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 There are two teams I and II of workers at a bridge construction site. Each team consists of W workers. On a particular day, a worker was shifted from team I to team II. Now, if the ratio of the amount of work done by team I in (W+1) hours and by team II in (W+2) hours is 10:12, respectively, then W is equal to: 

(A) 24 

(B) 20 

(C) 16 

(D) 18 

Answer – C

Q.42 A sum of money becomes 6 times at simple interest in 15 years. What is the rate of interest? 

(A) 16.75 percent 

(B) 8.5 percent 

(C) 33.33 percent 

(D) 30.5 percent

Answer – C

Q.43 The marked price of a bicycle is Rs. 1500, which is 25 percent above the cost price. If it is sold at a discount of 10 percent, find the profit percent? 

(A) 20 percent 

(B) 15 percent 

(C) 30 percent 

(D) 12.5 percent

Answer – D

Q.44 If the volume of a room is 1680 m3 and the area of the floor is 112 m(B) Find the height of the room. 

(A) 15 m 

(B) 20 m 

(C) 10 m 

(D) 8 m

Answer – A

Q.45 Speed of train is 55 km/hr. The length of train is 800 metre. In how much time can it cross a 1400 metre long platform? 

(A) 96 seconds 

(B) 124 seconds 

(C) 144 seconds 

(D) 132 seconds

Answer – C

Q.46 The sale of different commodities in a shop in various years is given in the table. In which year did the total number of refrigerators and washing machines sold exceed the number of TVs sold by 100? 

YearTVWashing MachineRefrigeratorAC
19963202002201500
19973502201901700
19983152502001800
19994002801502000

(A) 1996 

(B) 1999 

(C) 1998 

(D) 1997

Answer – A

Q.47 What is the average of 132, 146, 218, 232, 321 and 223? 

(A) 212 

(B) 208 

(C) 218 

(D) 214

Answer – A

Q.48 Find the compound interest earned on Rs. 60,000 for 2 years at the rate of 5 percent per annum. 

(A) Rs. 6000 

(B) Rs. 66,150 

(C) Rs. 60,000 

(D) Rs. 6150

Answer – D

Q.49 Alloy A contains iron and copper in ration 4:5. Alloy B contains iron and copper in ratio 3:4 If 45 kg of alloy A and 63 kg of alloy B are mixed, then what is the final ratio of copper and iron? 

(A) 61 : 47 

(B) 57 : 41 

(C) 59 : 45 

(D) 64 : 47

Answer – A

Q.50 Find the volume of cone which has base radius as 7 cm and height as 12 cm. (The 

value of π is 22/7) 

(A) 289 cm3 

(B) 576 cm3 

(C) 512 cm3 

(D) 616 cm3

Answer – D

Q.51 In a bookshop, the average number of biology, chemistry and physics books is 360. The biology books are 180 more than the average number of chemistry and physics books. The number of physics books is 180 less than the average of biology and chemistry books. What is the number of chemistry books in the shop? 

(A) 420 

(B) 540 

(C) 480 

(D) 360

Answer – D

Q.52 A number is increased by 10 percent. Then it is decreased by 20 percent. If the final 

value of number is 528, then what is the initial value of number? 

(A) 650 

(B) 550 

(C) 600 

(D) 500

Answer – C

Q.53 Anshu takes twice as much time as Bablu and thrice as much time as Chandu to finish 

a piece of work. Together it takes 3 days to finish the work. What is the time taken by Anshu to finish the work? 

(A) 24 days 

(B) 18 days 

(C) 3 days 

(D) 12 days

Answer – B

Q.54 The pie-chart given below represents the percentage distribution of the number of eggs sold by a shopkeeper on different days of a week. 

Find the ratio of the number of eggs sold by the shopkeeper on Wednesday to that of the same on Thursday. 

(A) 2:5 

(B) 4:9 

(C) 4:7 

(D) 3:5

Answer – D

Q.55 Study the following graph to answer the question. 

India’s exports to which of the following regions increased most in terms of 

percentage between 2000-01 and 2010 – 2011? 

(A) China 

(B) Russia 

(C) Japan 

(D) Europe

Answer – D 

Q.56 Speed of a car is 45 km/hr. How much distance can it travel in 50 seconds?

(A) 575 metre 

(B) 625 metre 

(C) 650 metre 

(D) 550 metre 

Answer – B

Q.57 A milkman wants to empty a large drum full of milk with one of the four measuring jars of capacities 6, 9, 15 and 18 litres, respectively. He finds that no matter which jar he uses to empty the drum; 4 litres of milk always remains to be emptied. What is the least possible capacity of the drum if it is a multi 

(A) 191 litres 

(B) 364 litres 

(C) 94 litres 

(D) 187 litres 

Answer – B

Q.58 What is the least common multiple of 336, 528 and 240? 

(A) 17240 

(B) 16620 

(C) 18480 

(D) 19200 

Answer – C

Q.59 Ratio of milk and water in two mixtures A and B is 3 : 2 and 4:3 respectively. If A and B are mixed in the ratio of 1:2, then what is the ratio of milk and water in final mixture?

(A) 57 : 41 

(B) 61 : 44 

(C) 51 : 46 

(D) 63 : 46 

Answer – B

Q.60 The ratio of price of a mango and an apple is 3:4 If the total price of an apple and a mango is Rs. 100, then find the price of a mango. 

(A) Rs. 80 

(B) Rs. 40 

(C) Rs.60 

(D) Rs. 30

Answer – C

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 Find the missing term in the following number series : 

1, 7, 8, ________, 23, 38, 61 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C) 16 

(D) 12

Answer – A

Q.62 If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘C’ means ‘÷’ and ‘D’ means ‘–’, then which of the following equation(s) is/are correct? 

I. 16 C 18 B 36 A 11 D 4 = 39 

II. 49 B 76 C 19 A 13 D 47 = 162 

(A) Both I and II 

(B) Only I 

(C) Neither I nor II 

(D) Only II 

Answer – A

Q.63 Vijay reached the office before Tony but after Vinay. Megha reached the office before Vijay but after Radha reached the office. Vinay reached the office just after Megha reached the office. Who reached the office last? 

(A) Megha 

(B) Tony 

(C) Vijay 

(D) Vinay 

Answer – B

Q.64 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the mirror image of the given figure? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – D

Q.65 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

No horse is a truck. 

All carriages are scooters. 

All scooters are trucks. 

Conclusions: 

I. No truck is a scooter. 

II. All carriages are trucks. 

III. Some trucks are scooters. 

IV. No carriage is a horse. 

(A) Only either conclusions I or IV follow. 

(B) Only either conclusions I or IV follow and III follow. 

(C) All conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusions II, III and IV follow. 

Answer – D

Q.66 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given 

alternatives. 

PNM, RQQ, TTU, VWZ, XZC 

(A) VWZ 

(B) TTU 

(C) RQQ 

(D) XZC 

Answer – A

Q.67 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically 

follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

(A) No plant is a flower. 

(B) No flower is a leaf. 

(C) Some plants are leaves. 

Conclusions: 

I. No leaf is a plant. 

II. No leaf is a flower. 

III. Some flowers are plants. 

IV. All leaves are plants. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusions I and IV follow. 

(C) Only conclusion IV follows. 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer – A

Q.68 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between stars, 

planets and universe? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – C

Q.69 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 

(1) DAKOTA 

(2) DAMAGE 

(3) DARKLE 

(4) DONKEY 

(5)DANCER 

(A) 2,1,3,5,4 

(B) 1,3,2,5,4 

(C) 1,2,5,3,4 

(D) 2,1,5,3,4

Answer – C

Q.70 Vinod, Abhi, Rachel, Samy and Pinky are sitting on a bench. Abhi is sitting to the right of Rachel, who is not sitting at extreme end of the bench. Samy is sitting in between Abhi and Vinod. Pinky is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the right of Pinky? 

(A) Samy 

(B) Rachel 

(C) Vinod 

(D) Abhi 

Answer – B

Q.71 Pointing to a boy Sameer said, he is my father-in-law’s elder son’s son. How is Sameer related to that boy? 

(A) Cousin 

(B) Uncle 

(C) Brother 

(D) Grand Father 

Answer – B

Q.72 Which answer figure will replace the question mark given in the question figure? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – D

Q.73 A boy starts walking from point A and walks 11 km towards East and stops at point B. Now, he turns 45 degree to his right and walks 2 km to reach point C. Now, he takes  135 degree left turn and walks 1 km to reach a point D. In which direction is the point B 

with respect to point D? 

(A) South-West 

(B) North-East 

(C) South-East 

(D) North-West

Answer – D 

Q.74 Select from the following four options, the one that CANNOT be concluded from the given statements. 

Statement 1: All coats are skirts. 

Statement 2: No skirt is a shirt. 

Statement 3 : Some shirts are belts. 

(A) No coat is a shirt. 

(B) Some coats are shirts. 

(C) Some belts are not coats. 

(D) Some belts are shirts.

Answer – B 

Q.75 From the given figures, find which figure comes in the place of question marks which are in series? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – C

Q.76 If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘B is the brother of A’, ‘A × B’ means ‘B is the daughter of A’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘B is the wife of A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘B is the mother of A’, ‘A + B’ means ‘B is the son of A’, then which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? 

I. ‘P ÷ Q + R + F @ J’ shows P as the aunt of R. 

II. ‘G # F ÷ L + T × R’ shows G as the brother of R. 

(A) Neither I nor II 

(B) Both I and II 

(C) Only I 

(D) Only II

Answer – B

Q.77 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically 

correct? 

5 + 6-2 × 8÷4= 30 

(A) × and – 

(B) + and ÷ 

(C) × and + 

(D) ÷ and –

Answer – C

Q.78 A%B means A is the wife of B, A+B means A is the brother of B, and A*B means A is the son of B. Which of the following expression indicates that P is the son of R? 

(A) S#R*U%P 

(B) U%P#S*R 

(C) U%P#R*S 

(D) S#R*P%U 

Answer – B

Q.79 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, not necessarily in the same order. If none of A, B, C and D sit at the ends and D sits two places away from E. Who sits next 

to E, given that A and B sit together.

(A) B 

(B) A 

(C) C 

(D) F

Answer – C

Q.80 Out of the given options, three are similar in a certain manner. However, one option is NOT like the other three. Select the option which is different from the rest. 

(A) Dog : Kennel 

(B) Horse : Stable 

(C) Cattle : Cave 

(D) Lion : Den 

Answer – C

Section : English

Q.81 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

She decided to ______ her right to the ancestral property as she wanted to avoid conflict. 

(A) sign in 

(B) sign away 

(C) sign for 

(D) sign with

Answer – B

Q.82 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Always on the lookout for opportunities, Arun never shirked away from new assignments. 

(A) from new assignments. 

(B) for opportunities, 

(C) Arun never shirked away 

(D) Always on the lookout 

Answer – C

Q.83 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives 

their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A- my attention was drawn towards a huge crowd that was forcing its way 

B- and I decided to stop in order to cover the story for my newspaper 

C- in the direction of a popular cinema hall 

D- as I reached the Metro station 

(A) DACB 

(B) DCAB 

(C) CADB 

(D) ABCD

Answer – A 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“Get up on the wrong side of the bed”

(A) Not having a good night’s sleep 

(B) Someone who is having a horrible day 

(C) To move beyond something that is bothering you 

(D) Working hours from about 12:00 am to 8.00 pm 

Answer – B

Q.85 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below. 

Desolate 

(A) Empty 

(B) Untenanted 

(C) Populous 

(D) Distressed

Answer – C 

Q.86 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word 

with the correct spelling. 

(A) Fortuitius 

(B) Fortoitus 

(C) Fortuious 

(D) Fortuitous 

Answer – D

Q.87 Select the most appropriate ‘one word’ for the expressions given below. 

The quality or action of being extremely generous. 

(A) Nascence 

(B) Reticence 

(C) Munificence 

(D) Convalescence

Answer – C 

Q.88 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

Speaking ______ is sometimes considered a virtue especially when the speaker has an important point to make.

(A) out of hand 

(B) out of turn 

(C) out of date 

(D) out of control

Answer – B

Q.89 The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful 

order. 

P. there had already been abundant rainfall in Delhi 

Q. it was a tragic end of summer 

R. a strong wind began to blow and the rain came causing havoc all around 

S. one day, a cyclonic storm hit the region 

(A) PSRQ 

(B) SRPQ 

(C) QPSR 

(D) RPSQ 

Answer – A

Q.90 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Starting with cleaning the kitchen, Reema created a task list of all the odd jobs that were to do around the house. 

(A) Reema created a task list 

(B) to do around the house. 

(C) of all the odd jobs that were 

(D) Starting with cleaning the kitchen, 

Answer – B

Q.91 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Have you seen Claire lately? She’s become as thin as a stick in the last six months! 

(A) Extremely skinny 

(B) Full of enthusiasm 

(C) To be suspicious 

(D) Be extremely weak 

Answer – A

Q.92 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A. cultivating positive mental states 

B. I think that 

C. like kindness and compassion definitely leads to 

D. better psychological health and happiness 

(A) ACBD 

(B) BDCA 

(C) BCAD 

(D) BACD 

Answer – D

Q.93 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“The last straw” 

(A) Make all possible efforts 

(B) To politely ask for someone’s full attention 

(C) Unable to understand 

(D) The final event in a series of unacceptable actions 

Answer – D

Q.94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given 

sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. 

It is ironical that the students had to be punished because of a report submitted by a teacher who himself was not above suspicion. 

(A) ironicism 

(B) irony 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) ironically 

Answer – C

Q.95 The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option ‘No Error’. 

(A) No error 

(B) The radiation leak from the nuclear accident 

(C) at Chernobyl effected the environment 

(D) and the surroundings irreparably. 

Answer – C

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The owner of the house was _____ at the watchman for letting in a stranger.

(A) impatient 

(B) indulgent 

(C) indignant 

(D) indifferent 

Answer – C

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given 

sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. 

There always have been a sizeable influx of immigrants from Mexico into America. 

(A) has always been 

(B) is always being 

(C) were always been 

(D) No substitution required

Answer – A 

Q.98 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

The best of both worlds 

(A) Understand something complicated. 

(B) To enjoy two different opportunities at the same time. 

(C) Producing similar results. 

(D) An event that happens infrequently. 

Answer – B

Q.99 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Start from scratch 

(A) To begin from the very beginning 

(B) To decide quickly without a thought 

(C) To be unsuccessful 

(D) To take advantage of something 

Answer – A

Q.100 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. 

It is a general rule of formal E-mails that they eliminate any kind of _______________.

(A) evangelism 

(B) paternalism 

(C) colloquialism 

(D) diabolism 

Answer – C

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