CTET JULY 2019 PAPER II
PART – I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 1. Noor forgot to bring her tiffin to school and asked Tanya to share her tiffin saying “You should share your tiffin with me today because I shared my tiffin with you yesterday”. According to Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, Noor’s statements represent _________ orientation typical at _________ stage.
(1) law and order ; post-conventional
(2) obedience ; pre-conventional
(3) being nice ; conventional
(4) exchange ; conventional
Q 2. Widely held beliefs about typified characteristics deemed appropriate for different sexes in the society are referred to as
(1) gender discrimination.
(2) gender roles.
(3) gender identity.
(4) gender stereotypes.
Q 3. Recently there have been conscious efforts to include stories in curriculum where father is involved in household works and mother is doing adventure activities. This move is important because
(1) it aims to strengthen gender bias.
(2) it aims to eliminate gender stereotyping.
(3) it aims to encourage gender constancy.
(4) it aims to increase gender discrimination.
Q 4. According to Vygotsky, when adults adjust the support to extend the child’s current level of performance, it is called
(1) discovery learning.
(2) zone of proximal development.
(3) scaffolding.
(4) inter-subjectivity.
Q 5. According to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, hypothetico deductive reasoning develops during
(1) sensori-motor stage.
(2) pre-operational stage.
(3) concrete operational stage.
(4) formal operational stage.
Q 6. According to _________, it is important to understand the social processes and influence of the cultural context on children’s thinking.
(1) Lawrence Kohlberg
(2) Jean Piaget
(3) Lev Vygotsky
(4) Albert Bandura
Q 7. Drawing implications from Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, a teacher of grade 6-8 in his classroom should
(1) discourage use of logical arguments.
(2) present problems that require reasoning based solutions.
(3) use only concrete materials to teach a concept.
(4) rely solely on prescribed syllabus.
Q 8. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, what would be the characteristics of a person with ‘Logico-mathematical’ intelligence ?
(1) Sensitivity to the sounds, rhythms and meaning of words
(2) Ability to perceive visual-spatial world accurately
(3) Ability to produce and appreciate pitch, rhythm and aesthetic quality of musical expressiveness
(4) Sensitivity to and capacity to detect patterns, handle long chains of reasoning
Q 9. The process by which children develop habits, skills, values and motives that make them responsible, productive members of society is called
(1) socialization.
(2) inclusion.
(3) mainstreaming.
(4) differentiation.
Q 10. Which of the following statements about the role of heredity and environment in human development is correct ?
(1) The only reason for individual differences is heredity.
(2) Environmental influences totally shape the development of a human.
(3) Neither heredity nor environment influence human development.
(4) Heredity and environment both influence human development in a complex interplay.
Q 11. In a progressive classroom
(1) knowledge is constructed by the learner.
(2) knowledge is received passively by the learner.
(3) knowledge is reproduced by the learner as it is.
(4) knowledge is recalled by the learner as per instructions of the teacher.
Q 12. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation includes
(1) only formative assessment
(2) only summative assessment
(3) neither formation nor summative assessment
(4) both formative and summative assessments using a wide variety of strategies.
Q 13. A student in your class has been told again and again from different sources that people from his social group typically perform poorly in academics. To reduce the impact of this stereotype and resultant stereotype threat, a teacher’s initial step can be :
(1) ignoring such concerns.
(2) organizing competition between students from different social groups.
(3) suggesting the student to leave academics and join some other domain.
(4) presenting stories and examples of role models from different social groups.
Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher should
(1) believe that every child has a potential to learn as per their abilities and strength.
(2) show an attitude of pity and sympathy towards disabled learners.
(3) use labels such as ‘handicapped child’, ‘retarded child’ to categorize children.
(4) pay attention only to the gifted and talented children.
Q 15. A student shows the following signs in the classroom :
– Anxiety around reading
– Difficulty in recognizing words or letters
– Poor vocabulary skills
– Difficulty with understanding or remembering what was read
These are an indication of
(1) an autistic student.
(2) a creative student.
(3) a student with learning disability.
(4) a student with ‘mental impairment’.
Q 16. A teacher can address needs of specially abled learners in an inclusive classroom by
(1) emphasizing upon practice and drill and using paper-pencil tests for assessment.
(2) following uniform ways of instructing the students.
(3) giving a lot of written homework and stressing on copying of answers from other ‘bright students’.
(4) developing specific learning objectives based on an analysis of each student’s learning strengths and weaknesses.
Q 17. A teacher can encourage creative learners in her classroom by
(1) emphasizing convergent thinking.
(2) discouraging divergent thinking.
(3) encouraging multiple perspectives and appreciating original ideas.
(4) discouraging the students from taking risks and undertaking challenges.
Q 18. Which of the following factors supports meaningful learning in the classroom ?
(1) Increasing number of tests to motivate children to learn
(2) Increasing rewards to motivate children to learn
(3) Following only the lecture mode of instruction
(4) Showing genuine interest in the content matter and having concern for children’s overall well-being and learning.
Q 19. An example of effective problem solving strategy is
(1) Not paying any attention to evaluating the solution.
(2) Functional fixedness – focusing on only the conventional function of an object.
(3) Response set – getting stuck on one way of representing a problem.
(4) Means-end analysis – dividing the problem into number of sub-goals.
Q 20. Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for teaching-learning ?
(1) Encouraging children to make intuitive guesses
(2) Experimentation and exploration
(3) Dialogue and discussion
(4) Focusing on reproduction of knowledge as given
Q 21. How can teachers deal with children who are non-attentive in the classroom ?
(1) Ask the children to go out of the class.
(2) Scold them frequently in front of the entire class.
(3) Talk to them and find out reasons for their disinterest.
(4) Give them a lot of worksheets as homework.
Q 22. Constructivist approach suggests that _________ is crucial for constructing knowledge.
(1) prior knowledge of the learner
(2) conditioning
(3) punishment
(4) rote memorization
Q 23. Children construct ‘naive theories’ about various phenomenon. In this background a teacher should
(1) challenge these conceptions of the children through dialogue.
(2) dismiss these ideas that children have.
(3) ignore children’s ideas and theories.
(4) scold the children for having these ideas that interfere with her teaching.
Q 24. The relationship between cognition and emotions is
(1) independent of each other.
(2) uni-directional – emotions influence cognition.
(3) uni-directional – cognition influences emotions.
(4) bi-directional – a dynamic interplay between both.
Q 25. Which of the following factors affect learning ?
(i) Interest of the student
(ii) Emotional health of the student
(iii) Pedagogical strategies
(iv) Social and cultural context of the student
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q 26. _________ are an important aspect of the process of meaningful construction of knowledge.
(1) Social interactions
(2) Drill and repetitive recall
(3) Rewards and punishment
(4) Stimulus-response associations
Q 27. When students repeatedly engage in an activity (such as design and conduct an experiment) to earn a reward that is not directly related to that activity (such as earn a ‘star’ or ‘badge’) they are likely to
(1) develop materialistic attitude towards learning.
(2) enjoy learning for the sake of understanding.
(3) persist in doing the activity even without the reward.
(4) set mastery goals for themselves rather than work to please others.
Q 28. The concept of childhood is
(1) universally the same across different cultural contexts.
(2) a social construction according to contemporary socio-constructivist theorists.
(3) that children are born evil and have to be civilized.
(4) that children begin with nothing at all and their characteristics are shaped entirely by environment.
Q 29. Which of the following characterize the period of ‘middle childhood’ ?
(1) Physical growth and development occur at a very rapid pace.
(2) Ability to think abstractly and use of scientific reasoning develops.
(3) Children begin to think logically but concretely.
(4) Learning occurs primarily through sensory and motor activities.
Q 30. Family and neighbourhood are
(1) psychological agencies for children.
(2) primary socializing agencies.
(3) middle socializing agencies.
(4) secondary socializing agencies.
| IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). |
PART – II
MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 31. How many pairs of twin primes are there between the integers 1 to 100 ?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
Q 32. If 21168 = 2a × 3b × 7c, where a, b and c are natural numbers, then what is the value of (4a – 5b + c) ?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Q 33. Let x be the least number which when divided by 8, 12, 20, 28, 35 leaves a remainder 5 in each case. What is the sum of digits of x ?
(1) 11
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 17
Q 34. What number should be subtracted from each of 50, 61, 92, 117 so that the numbers, so obtained in this order, are in proportion ?
(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 19
(4) 23
Q 35. A sum of Rs. 1,710 is divided in A, B and C such that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C are equal. What is the difference between A and C ?
(1) Rs. 360
(2) Rs. 450
(3) Rs. 480
(4) Rs. 540
Q 36. The number of fruits in baskets A and B are in the ratio 7 : 9. If six fruits are taken out from A and put in B, then this ratio becomes 1 : 3. The total number of fruits in A and B is
(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 36
(4) 40
Q 37. ΔABC and ΔADB are on the common base AB and on the same side of AB. DA⊥AB, CB⊥AB and AC = BD. Which of the following is true ?
(1) ΔABC ≅ ΔABD
(2) ΔABC ≅ ΔADB
(3) ΔABC ≅ ΔBAD
(4) ΔABC ≅ ΔBDA
Q 38. The sides of four triangles are given below :
(i) 20 cm, 22 cm, 24 cm
(ii) 15 cm, 32 cm, 37 cm
(iii) 11 cm, 60 cm, 61 cm
(iv) 19 cm, 40 cm, 41 cm
Which of them forms a right triangle ?
(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)
Q 39. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 : 9. What is the difference between the least and the greatest angles of the quadrilateral ?
(1) 500
(2) 600
(3) 720
(4) 900
Q 40. The perimeter of a triangle is 12 cm. If all the three sides have lengths (in cm), in integers, then how many such different triangles are possible ?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Q 41. A godown is in the shape of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are 56 m, 42 m and 10 m respectively. How many (maximum) cuboidal boxes each measuring 2.8 m × 2.5 m × 70 cm can be stored into the godown ?
(1) 2400
(2) 3600
(3) 4800
(4) 5400
Q 42. The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 528 cm and its height is 2 m. What is the volume of the cylinder ? (Take π = 22/7)
(1) 2.2176 m3
(2) 3.3264 m3
(3) 4.4352 m3
(4) 6.6528 m3
Q 43. The area of a quadrilateral is 227.2 cm2 and the length of the perpendiculars from the opposite vertices to a diagonal are 7.2 cm and 8.8 cm. What is the length of the diagonal ?
(1) 26.8 cm
(2) 28.4 cm
(3) 30.2 cm
(4) 32.6 cm
Q 44. If 5(3x + 4) – 8(6x + 7) = 9x – 8, then what is the value of (x2 – 2x + 1) ?
(1) ⅔
(2) 4/9
(3) 5/3
(4) 25/9
Q 45. What is the value of a(a + b2 + c) + b2(a2 + b2 + c2) – c(a + b2), when a = 1, b = –3 and c = –2 ?
(1) 138
(2) 154
(3) 162
(4) 176
Q 46. The expression (x – y) (x2 + xy + y2) + (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2) – (x + y) (x2 – y2) is equal to
(1) x3 – y3 + xy(x + y)
(2) y3 – x3 + xy(y + x)
(3) x3 + y3 + xy(y – x)
(4) x3 + y3 + xy(x – y)
Q 47. What is the mean of the median, mode and range for the data given below ?
11, 25, 0, 8, 25, 30, 44, 50, 30, 18, 20, 17, 11, 9, 24, 25, 29
(1) 31
(2) 32
(3) 33
(4) 34
Q 48. A mathematical theorem is
(1) a statement that has been proven by logical arguments based on axioms.
(2) a statement which is always true and doesn’t need proof.
(3) a statement whose truth or falsity is not known.
(4) is a statement without sufficient evidence for proof.
Q 49. “Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to one another.” This axiom which is basis to arithmetic and algebra is given by
(1) Euclid
(2) Pythagoras
(3) Descartes
(4) Euler
Q 50. Which of the following can be used as assessment strategy to encourage interdisciplinary in Mathematics ?
A. Projects
B. Field trips
C. Anecdotal records
D. Olympiad
(1) A & B
(2) A & C
(3) B & C
(4) C & D
Q 51. Which method can be used to prove “The sum of two even integers is always even” ?
(1) Proof by induction
(2) Direct proof
(3) Proof by contradiction
(4) Counter positive proof
Q 52. Which of the following skills are promoted by mathematics at upper primary stage ?
A. Visualisation
B. Transposition
C. Memorisation
D. Generalisation
E. Estimation
(1) A, B, D, E
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D, E
(4) A, C, D, E
Q 53. Which of the following tasks is least likely to develop critical thinking among students ?
(1) Evaluate 72 × 73 in three different ways and compare the result.
(2) Formulate any two situations to represent the equation 7x + 3 = 24.
(3) A student calculated the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm as 38.5 cm3. Where did she go wrong ?
(4) Calculate the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm.
Q 54. Which of the following aligns with the overall objective of achieving ‘Mathematics for All’ as per NCF 2005 ?
(1) It should be acknowledged that mathematics is meant for selected few students.
(2) Textbooks should only include problems of average difficulty.
(3) Contributions of mathematicians from different regions and different social groups should be highlighted.
(4) Mathematically talented students should be groomed in isolation.
Q 55. Which of the following is considered as a characteristic of an effective mathematics classroom ?
(1) Group work and group problem solving is discouraged.
(2) It is emphasized that mathematics is essentially a concrete subject.
(3) Multiple ways of approaching a problem are encouraged.
(4) Steps for solving a new problem are neatly demonstrated on the board by the teacher.
Q 56. Which of the following is a desirable practice in the context of teaching and learning of measurement of volume ?
(1) Begin by writing the formula of volume of a cube.
(2) Encourage precise calculation right from the beginning.
(3) Begin by introducing students to the volume of 2-D figures.
(4) Encourage students to figure out ways to calculate the volume of different objects.
Q 57. Which of the following is NOT true according to Piaget’s view of children’s understanding of space ?
(1) Progression of geometric ideas follows a definite order.
(2) Progression of Geometric ideas follows a historical rather than a logical order.
(3) Early understanding of space is formed by child’s sensory motor experiences.
(4) Co-ordination of different visual and tactile experiences is required for understanding projective space.
Q 58. If –12 × (–3) + [20 ÷ (–4) – (–24) ÷ 8] – [16 ÷ (–2)] = (–28 ÷ 7) + x, then the value of x is
(1) 29
(2) 39
(3) 46
(4) 47
Q 59. If an 8-digit number 30x0867y is divisible by 88, then what is the value of (3x + y) ?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
Q 60. The value of
6⅔ ÷ 2½ × 3¾ – 5½ × 4¼ + 1⅔ (⅞ + ¾ × ⅔) is
(1) -11112
(2) 11112
(3) 612
(4) -612
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 61. ‘X’ is a chemical present in our stomach and is necessary for digestion of food. When ‘X’ is secreted in excess, it causes health problems like indigestion. ‘Y’ is a chemical used to treat this condition. What could be ‘X’ and ‘Y’ ?
(1) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is sodium carbonate.
(2) X is milk of magnesia & Y is hydrochloric acid.
(3) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is milk of magnesia.
(4) X is milk of magnesia & Y is ascorbic acid.
Q 62. In which of the following processes, Bacteria is NOT used ?
(1) Formation of curd
(2) Baking of bread
(3) Fermentation of Sugarcane juice
(4) Nitrogen fixation
Q 63. Which of the following is different from the rest ?
(1) Deforestation
(2) Desertification
(3) Erosion
(4) Conservation
Q 64. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?
(1) Digestion is a chemical change.
(2) Photosynthesis is a chemical change.
(3) Respiration is a chemical change.
(4) Crystallisation is a chemical change.
Q 65. Which of the following represents an ascending order as per the size of particles ?
(1) Rock, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Silt
(2) Clay, Silt, Sand, Gravel, Rock
(3) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Rock
(4) Rock, Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay
Q 66. The function of gills in the fish is to
(1) take in oxygen from air
(2) absorb nutrients present in water
(3) absorb dissolved oxygen from water
(4) excrete waste into water
Q 67. Which of the following can be used to complete an electric circuit if one runs out of connecting wire ?
(1) A paper strip
(2) A rubber belt
(3) A wooden stick
(4) A blade
Q 68. Manjula is observing her image in a plane mirror. The distance between herself and the mirror is 5 m. She moves 1 m towards the mirror. The distance between herself and her image now is
(1) 1 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 10 m
Q 69. A pendulum oscillates 30 times in 3 seconds. Choose the correct statement from among the following :
(1) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency 3Hz.
(2) It’s time period is 0.1 s and frequency is 10 Hz.
(3) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz.
(4) It’s time period is 0.3 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz.
Q 70. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Ball bearings are used to increase friction between parts of a machine.
(2) Friction between two surfaces in contact can never be eliminated on earth.
(3) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
(4) The friction force on an object moving through a fluid depends upon its shape.
Q 71. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Iron can replace zinc from zinc sulphate solution.
B. Zinc can replace copper from copper sulphate solution.
C. Copper can replace Iron from Iron sulphate solution.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
Q 72. Identify the correct statement from among the following :
(1) Clinical Thermometer can be used to measure the temperature of boiling liquids.
(2) Room thermometers have a range from 30 ºC to 100 ºC.
(3) Laboratory thermometers have a range from 35 ºC to 42 ºC.
(4) The range of a laboratory thermometer is greater than that of a clinical thermometer.
Q 73. Identify the incorrect statements.
(1) The calorific value of Kerosene is more than that of Coal.
(2) The calorific value of coal is more than that of Wood.
(3) The calorific value of Biogas is more than that of LPG.
(4) The calorific value of CNG is more than that of Diesel.
Q 74. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h for 12 minutes & then at a speed of 40 km/h for the next 18 minutes. Total distance covered by the bus during this time is –
(1) 20 km
(2) 22 km
(3) 24 km
(4) 28 km
Q 75. Identify the incorrect statement from among the following :
(1) The motion of earth around its axis is periodic motion.
(2) The motion of light is rectilinear motion.
(3) The motion of plucked string of a sitar is oscillatory motion.
(4) All periodic motions are circular motions.
Q 76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding image formation in plane minor ?
A. Image is erect.
B. Image is real.
C. Image is laterally inverted. D. The image size is same that of object.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, D
Q 77. Which of the following is a NOT true w.r.t. the nature of Science ?
(1) Science is an interdisciplinary area of learning.
(2) Science is always tentative.
(3) Science promotes scepticism.
(4) Science is equivalent to a set of facts.
Q 78. As per NCF 2005, good Science education should be the
(1) true to science teacher
(2) true to the child
(3) true to the environment of the school.
(4) true to the classroom culture
Q 79. Which of the following validities of a good science education curriculum is satisfied by Activity and Experiment ?
(1) Cognitive
(2) Historical
(3) Environmental
(4) Process
Q 80. Anu took her class VIII children to field trip. Which of the following could be the most appropriate objective/s for this activity ?
A. It encourages interaction among children.
B. It promotes process skills through concrete experiences.
C. It enhances observation skills among the children.
D. It breaks the monotony of class as well as of teacher.
(1) A, B and C
(2) B and C only
(3) A, C and D
(4) A and C only
Q 81. Which of the following should NOT be an objective of science education at the upper primary level ?
(1) Nurturing the natural curiosity of children.
(2) Inculcating the values of co-operation and concern for life.
(3) Cultivating scientific temper.
(4) Emphasising the textbook definitions of concepts.
Q 82. Which of the following can enhance critical thinking among children ?
(1) Asking children to read science textbook in the class.
(2) Asking children to read the extended learning given at the end of the textbook.
(3) Asking children to discuss among themselves in groups followed by sharing in large group.
(4) Demonstration of experiments by the teacher.
Q 83. A teacher begins the class by demonstrating the chemical test of starch in a given sample of food. The cognitive process associated with the underlined word in the above statement is
(1) Creating
(2) Analysing
(3) Applying
(4) Understanding
Q 84. Which of the following activities will NOT provide for active learning among children?
(1) Establishing science club
(2) Organisation of field trip
(3) Developing a science corner
(4) Listening to a lecture in class
Q 85. Which of the following is used for finding the learning gaps of learners in Science ?
A. Concept map
B. Anecdotal record
C. Portfolio
D. Term end achievement test
(1) D only
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) B, C and D
Q 86. Which of the following tools is based on the technique of observation ?
(1) Oral test
(2) Written test
(3) Paper-pencil test
(4) Anecdotal record
Q 87. Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. Pashmina shawl is made from hair of goats.
B. Angora is a type of wool obtained from Rabbits.
C. Camel wool is used to make carpets.
D. Pashmina wool is obtained from rabbits.
(1) A & C
(2) A & B
(3) B & C
(4) C & D
Q 88. Identity the animal on the basis of features listed below :
A. Long back bone
B. Many muscles
C. Body curves into many loops for moving forward
(1) Snake
(2) Earthworm
(3) Snail
(4) Hook worm
Q 89. Which of the following statement is NOT true ?
(1) All arteries carry oxygen rich blood.
(2) All arteries carry oxygen from heart to other parts.
(3) Arteries have thick walls.
(4) Arteries have elastic walls.
Q 90. Which of the following represents correct matching order ?
A. Acetic acid I. Curd
B. Lactic acid II. Spinach
C. Oxalic acid III. Citrus fruits
D. Ascorbic acid IV. Vinegar
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
| IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). |
PART – III
SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 31. Which of the following are block mountains ?
(1) Himalayas
(2) Appalachians
(3) Ural
(4) Vosges
Q 32. Statement (A) : Only one side of the moon is visible to us on Earth.
Statement (B) : The moon moves around the Earth in about 27 days and takes exactly the same time to complete 1 spin.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
Q 33. Consider the statements A, B, C on metamorphic rocks and choose the correct answer :
A. When igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to heat and pressure they change to metamorphic rocks.
B. Metamorphic rocks melt to form molten magma when subjected to great heat and pressure.
C. Marble is a metamorphic rock.
(1) B and C are correct and A is incorrect.
(2) A and B are correct and C is incorrect.
(3) A, B, C all are correct.
(4) A and C are correct and B is incorrect.
Q 34. On entering which layer of the atmosphere from space do the meteorites burn up ?
(1) Mesosphere
(2) Thermosphere
(3) Exosphere
(4) Stratosphere
Q 35. Transhumance is related to
(1) Movement of people
(2) Closely built area of houses
(3) Artificial enclosures for keeping small house plants.
(4) Places where settlements develops
Q 36. Consider the statements A and B on permanent winds and choose the correct option :
A. These winds blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.
B. Westerlies and Easterlies are examples of these winds.
(1) A is true, B is false.
(2) A is false, B is true.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.
Q 37. Campos in Brazil and Llanos in Venezuela are examples of
(1) Temperate grasslands
(2) Tundra type of vegetation
(3) Tropical grasslands
(4) Mediterranean vegetation
Q 38. Consider the Statements A and B about ‘climate’ and choose the correct answer.
A. Climate refers to the day to day changes in the atmosphere.
B. Climate of a place is affected only by its altitude and relief.
(1) A is true, B is false.
(2) A is false, B is true.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.
Q 39. Identify the source of energy from the given features A and B :
A. It is a conventional source of energy.
B. This source of energy is released when crude oil is brought to surface.
(1) Biogas
(2) Natural gas
(3) Geo-thermal energy
(4) Wax
Q 40. India’s research station ‘Maitri’ is located in
(1) Australia
(2) Antarctica
(3) Europe
(4) Asia
Q 41. Which of the following is not true for minerals ?
(1) They are naturally occuring substances.
(2) They have a definite chemical composition.
(3) They are formed in different types of geological environments.
(4) All minerals are non-metallic.
Q 42. Match the following :
a. Narmada Valley i. Early republic
b. Vajji ii. Hunting and gathering
c. Garo Hills iii. Cities about 2500 years ago
d. Ganga Valley iv. The first cities
e. Indus and its tributaries v. Early agriculture
| a | b | c | d | e | |
| (1) | i | ii | iii | iv | v |
| (2) | v | i | ii | iv | iii |
| (3) | ii | i | v | iii | iv |
| (4) | v | iv | iii | ii | i |
Q 43. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of contemporary debates on ‘dates and periods’ of Indian history.
Statement (A) : A Periodisation like ‘Hindu – Muslim – British’ is appropriate as the religion of the rulers has been the only important historical change.
Statement (B) : It is problematic to assign precise dates and time spans to ‘historical processes’ that happened over a period of time.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right.
Q 44. Below are the two statements in the context of new popular Indian art in the nineteenth century.
Statement (A) : Many painting mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and warned against women moving out of their homes.
Statement (B) : Images were used to express nationalist ideas and inspire people against British rule.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right.
Q 45. Which of the following may be considered as a primary source for understanding early humans in India ?
(1) Kangra style painting
(2) Girnar rock inscription
(3) Padshahnama painting
(4) Rock paintings of Madhya Pradesh
Q 46. Children in pre-British times were taught
(1) In state institutions.
(2) By payment of a fixed fee.
(3) Throughout the year except harvest time when they worked in the fields.
(4) For assessment through an annual exam.
Q 47. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of emergence of nation states in Europe in 18-19th centuries.
Statement (A) : Till the eighteenth century, people in Europe saw themselves as nation states.
Statement (B) : A consciousness was created in the early nineteenth century among the people that each linguistic community was a separate nation.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is correct.
Q 48. BCE stands for
(1) Before Christian Era
(2) Before Common Era
(3) Before Caesar Era
(4) Before Contemporary Era
Q 49. How do we know today that ostriches were found in India during the Palaeolithic period?
(1) We have vivid description of these birds in the writings of that time.
(2) Large quantities of ostrich egg shells were found at Patne in Maharasthra.
(3) We have archived oral memories on ostriches in Delhi’s National Museum.
(4) These are described in the memories of foreign travellers.
Q 50. How did the Harappan civilization come to an end ?
A. It appears as if the rulers lost control.
B. There could have been deforestation in the area.
C. There were floods in the entire area of the civilization.
D. The rivers dried up probably. Choose the correct explanation.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, C, D
Q 51. Under the Mahayana Buddhism
(1) Buddha’s presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs.
(2) Statues of Buddha were made.
(3) Bodhisattvas were not accepted as they were yet to attain enlightenment.
(4) Mathura and Taxila declined as centres of sculpture.
Q 52. What is true in the context of administration and consolidation under the Khaljis and Tughlaqs ?
(1) Large parts of the subcontinent remained under the control of the Delhi Sultans.
(2) The forested areas in the gangetic plain were penetrated for the first time.
(3) It was difficult to control distant provinces like Bengal from Delhi.
(4) Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughlaq forced their control in the gangetic plains for a longer duration.
Q 53. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the historical reconstruction of tribal people ?
(1) Contemporary historians and travellers give scanty information about tribes.
(2) Most tribal groups kept written records.
(3) Tribal people preserved rich customs and oral traditions.
(4) Tribal societies depended on each other for their diverse needs.
Q 54. How did the British consolidate their control over India after the Revolt of 1857 ?
(1) By transfer of powers of the East India company to the British crown for a more responsible management of Indian affairs.
(2) By recruiting more soldiers from Awadh, Bihar, Central India and South India.
(3) By making policies to protect the landless and peasants.
(4) By appeasement and safeguarding property rights.
Q 55. Which of the following NOT a feature of Representative Democracy ?
(1) Representatives chosen through elections.
(2) Decision making in the hands of the representatives.
(3) Direct participation of people in decision making.
(4) Franchise rights to people.
Q 56. Which particular region in India is known as the ‘Little Tibet’ ?
(1) Ladakh
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Sikkim
(4) Himachal Pradesh
Q 57. What is the appellate system in India ?
(1) provision for applying for judicial services.
(2) provision for appeal in the Parliament against a court order.
(3) provision for the Executive Head of the State acting as the highest appellate authority.
(4) provision for appeal to a higher court against the decision of a lower court.
Q 58. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peninsular Plateau ?
(1) It lies to the South of Northern plains.
(2) Aravali Hills border it on the North-West side.
(3) It is rich in minerals like coal and iron-ore.
(4) Rivers Mahanadi and Krishna are some of the west flowing rivers in the plateau.
Q 59. Which of the following statements about Africa is correct ?
(1) A large part of Africa lies in the Southern Hemisphere.
(2) It is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass.
(3) Gobi desert is located in this continent.
(4) It is separated from Asia by Ural mountains on the west.
Q 60. The Southern parts of India particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall in Autumn because
(1) winds move back from the mainland to the Bay of Bengal.
(2) winds blow from Arabian Sea to Bay of Bengal.
(3) winds blow from Bay of Bengal to Arabian Sea.
(4) winds move back from mainland to Arabian Sea.
Q 61. What is known as the Costa Rican approach in the area of public health ?
(1) equal spending on health and defence.
(2) defence budget to be more than health budget.
(3) not having an army to maintain to be able to spend more on public health.
(4) spending on the health of the armymen.
Q 62. In 1997, the Supreme Court in India formulated the Vishakha guidelines to protect women from sexual harassment _________.
(1) in vehicles
(2) at work places
(3) in marital relationship
(4) on streets
Q 63. Who amongst the following appoints the governor of a state in India ?
(1) Members of the Legislative Assembly
(2) Members of the Parliament
(3) Central Government
(4) Attorney General
Q 64. Who among the following is not a rural administration officer ?
(1) Patwari
(2) Municipal ward councillor
(3) Land record officer
(4) Lekhpal
Q 65. What are the D.K. Basu guidelines which were laid down by the Supreme Court of India ?
(1) guidelines related to prevention of sexual harassment at workplace.
(2) guidelines related to protection of children from hazardous employment.
(3) guidelines related to protection of women from domestic violence.
(4) guidelines related to the procedures to be followed by police for arrest, detention and interrogation.
Q 66. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 in its title recognizes the rights of which category ?
(1) Scheduled Tribes
(2) Scheduled Castes
(3) Economically Backward Classes
(4) Most Backward Classes
Q 67. An example of secondary source is
(1) The Constitution of India
(2) Census Report, 2011
(3) Record of Registration of Births and Deaths.
(4) Our Pasts (I) – NCERT textbook in history for class 6
Q 68. Consider the two statements below :
A. Examinations are artificial situations created for the convenience of the system and not for the individual learner.
B. A shift in emphasis on testing competencies and away from memory would reduce stress in social science classrooms.
(1) Only statement A is true.
(2) Both statements A and B are true.
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) Statement B is true but statement A is false.
Q 69. The main aim of a social science teacher should be
(1) to develop competition among students.
(2) to develop an awareness of connections between all elements that shape society.
(3) to make learners memorize the socio-historical facts.
(4) to prepare learners in maintaining the status quo in the society and accept all decisions of the government.
Q 70. The primary purpose of assessment in social science is
(1) To recall textbook knowledge and reduce exam stress for all learners.
(2) Categorising and labelling learners.
(3) To highlight social differences amongst the learners.
(4) To give learners feedback and setting standards for them to strive towards.
Q 71. Films can be used as an effective pedagogic tool in the social science classrooms because
A. films can bring the world into the classroom.
B. films inspire us with the power of discovering the unseen and the unheard contexts.
C. films bring stories, voices and images that in life may be far removed from us.
D. films are objective medium which can encourage learners to frame their views in a singular manner.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, C, D
Q 72. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of using map in a classroom?
A. Map is a socio-political construct.
B. From time immemorial, ‘North’ has always been shown at the top of a map in all socio-political contexts.
C. Map is a three dimensional device whereas we live in a two dimensional world.
D. Map is an aid to develop a ‘sense of time’ in learners.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C and D
(4) A, B and C
Q 73. In an effort to connect learning with learner’s life, the social science teacher needs to
A. intentionally and explicitly includes diverse cultural perspectives in the subject content.
B. point out the personal and family backgrounds of the learners in the class.
C. give learners opportunity to share their examples and experiences in the class.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B are correct.
(2) A and C are correct.
(3) B and C are correct.
(4) Only B is correct.
Q 74. While teaching history, ‘genealogy chart’ is used to
A. Represent the growth and development of an empire or a dynasty.
B. Show sequence and functional relationships.
C. Provide a chronological framework.
D. Develop a sense of space in learners. Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B and C are correct.
(2) A, C and D are correct.
(3) B, C and D are correct.
(4) Only C and D are correct.
Q 75. What adaptations in the teaching -learning process should a social science teacher make while engaging with learners who are visually challenged ?
A. Speak clearly and loudly with appropriate pauses and reiterations.
B. Use a variety of visually appealing worksheets.
C. Give verbal clues to create opportunities to imagine.
D. Introduce tactile materials during class room discussions.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B only
(4) B, C and D only
Q 76. Consider the statements on project method in social science teaching :
A. It is inspired by pragmatic perspective.
B. It turns learners into a discoverer.
C. It is entirely a teacher-centered method.
D. It allows learning through self directed activity.
Choose the correct option :
(1) A and B are correct.
(2) A, B and C are correct.
(3) A, B and D are correct.
(4) A, C and D are correct.
Q 77. A social science teacher willing to enquire with a constructivist perspective would view the learners as
A. Curious to explore on social processes.
B. Imaginative on the basis of sources.
C. Trying to suggest solutions to problems.
D. Postponing discussions on controversial issues for higher education level.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) B, C and D only
Q 78. Which of the following may be helpful towards making social science curriculum more inclusive ?
A. Engendering the curriculum
B. Uniform instructions and a fixed teaching way in the classroom.
C. Engaging with different sources – official as well as of subaltern contexts.
D. One exam paper fitting all learners.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) B, C and D only
Q 79. Why should students learn to be critical ?
(1) To point out flaws and being cynical about everything.
(2) To maintain the status quo in society.
(3) To understand how issues are related to their own lives.
(4) To appreciate uniform, homogeneous perspective.
Q 80. Select the example that represents diversity from the following examples :
(1) Saroj got the chance to go to school while Nirmala did not get the chance to go to school.
(2) Allen belongs to a poor family, while Simon’s family is very rich.
(3) Raghu does not want to include Suresh in the football team because he comes from
a particular community of society.
(4) Paritosh known good Bangla; whereas Suchita speakes Hindi.
Q 81. A social science excursion trip in a school involved a visit to Ziro, Bombdila, Namdapha National Park, Tawang and Leisang village. On which medium could you ask the students to mark the two states they had visited ?
(1) Mizoram and Meghalaya on a map
(2) Manipur and Sikkim on a timeline
(3) Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur on a map
(4) Nagaland and Tripura on a time line
Q 82. Contemporary understanding of social science pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except :
(1) Encourage learners to learn by reading local experiences of others and finding about their own.
(2) Promoting all learners to give identical answers to questions so that all improve.
(3) Appreciate learners ability to make questions on the given subject content and accepting it as a valid test of learning.
(4) Give opportunities to learners to use their knowledge developed in the classroom at concrete situations.
Q 83. The following is not an example of gender stereotyping :
(1) Only boys being encouraged to participate in the football tournament.
(2) Only the girls in class are asked to decorate the class boards.
(3) While boys try to monopolise the class discussions, attention is given to both girls and boys to encourage participation.
(4) Boys and girls are made to sit in separate rows for ensuring discipline in class.
Q 84. Effective teaching of social science would require :
A. Perpetuating all cultural practices of the past.
B. Critical analysis of literary texts, howsoever old they may be.
C. Discarding all sources which are non-textual.
D. Giving primacy to triangulation of sources.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and C only
(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) C and D only
Q 85. Sensitivity on ‘social justice’ in a classroom can be encouraged by :
A. Incorporating contemporary excerpts from people’s struggles and stories of advocacy during classroom discussions.
B. Keeping the understanding of the historical context of the Indian social milieu in the context of unequal power equations.
C. Engaging in classroom discussions on the constitutional provisions on social justice.
D. Prompt corporal punishment on the defaulting children.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) C and D
Q 86. Pedagogy of history would try to :
A. Construct history on the basis of sources.
B. Trace continuity and change in the social processes in history.
C. History engage with differences in interpretations and accept the dominant community’s views
D. History view events by situating them within socio-political contexts of a particular period.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, B, D only
(3) A, C, D only
(4) B, C, D only
Q 87. The right to pollution free air has been recognized as part of which particular Fundamental Right in India ?
(1) Equality
(2) Life
(3) Justice
(4) Freedom
Q 88. Who coined the phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ to describe India ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) M.K. Gandhi
(4) Rajendra Prasad
Q 89. How many members in Lok Sabha are nominated and not elected ?
(1) 4 (four)
(2) 1 (one)
(3) 2 (two)
(4) 0 (none)
Q 90. In 2006, the form of government in Nepal changed from Monarchy to __________.
(1) Autocracy
(2) Tyranny
(3) Democracy
(4) Oligarchy
PART – IV
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
| IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. |
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 – 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
Learning a language under any circumstances requires hard work and concentration. However, the circumstances can make a difference in both quality and quantity. Most foreign language students learn in a classroom, from a text-book. In a classroom, language learning can be controlled so that all the necessary structures are taught. Highly motivated students can thus learn the language efficiently and quickly. Learning on the streets and in the markets from experience and need can be effective although the student learns only what he happens to need, in a haphazard way.
Some language students find this real-life situation more meaningful because the students’ success in fulfilling their needs depends on their language ability. However, shop-keepers are more likely to be tolerant of incorrect grammar than classroom teachers, so mispronunciations and errors will not matter much. Nevertheless, the rewards are different for the type of language learning situations. They are immediate (goods, bought in a store) in the real-life but delayed until a quiz or oral recital for the classroom learner.
The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too. In the classroom, the student is more likely to learn the grammatical language of educated people. The language learnt out of necessity often lacks the fine details of the classroom variety and might include informal expressions such as slang. The people learning on the street must be easily understood. Therefore, they might actually sound more like native speakers – although not necessarily educated people. So a combination of classroom instruction and the experience of using language in the street will result in the best language learning of all.
Q 91. Language needs of real-life situations are fulfilled by :
(1) studying text-books carefully.
(2) learning the language structures.
(3) learning on the streets.
(4) learning proper pronunciation.
Q 92. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?
(1) Shopkeepers are intolerant of incorrect pronunciation.
(2) Real-life situations are more meaningful for language learning.
(3) Classroom learning can be tested in an oral recital.
(4) Foreign students learn language mostly from text-books.
Q 93. Study the following statements :
(a) At school one learns the language of educated people.
(b) Language learnt on the street includes the use of slang.
(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.
(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
Q 94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too.
(1) Pronoun
(2) Determiner
(3) Conjunction
(4) Preposition
Q 95. Study the following phrase. Which part of speech is the underlined word ?
‘but delayed until a quiz …’
(1) Pronoun
(2) Determiner
(3) Conjunction
(4) Preposition
Q 96. What does the word ‘motivated’ mean in the following phrase ?
‘Highly motivated students can thus ……..’
(1) intelligent
(2) resourceful
(3) muddled
(4) interested
Q 97. ‘…… in a haphazard way.’
The word ‘haphazard’ means
(1) dangerous
(2) unorganized
(3) safe
(4) proper
Q 98. The best place to correctly and quickly learn a foreign language is :
(1) only the classroom.
(2) only the market place.
(3) both the classroom and the market place.
(4) home.
Q 99. A text-book :
(1) controls language learning.
(2) motivates the students.
(3) teaches what a student needs.
(4) is an inexpensive tool of learning.
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
Great, wide, beautiful, wonderful world, With the wonderful water around you curled, And the wonderful grass upon your breast World, you are beautifully drest.
The wonderful air is over me, And the wonderful wind is shaking the tree, It walks on the water, and whirls the mills, And talks to itself on the tops of the hills.
You friendly Earth, how far do you go, With the wheat – fields that nod and the rivers that flow
With cities and gardens, and cliffs and isles, And people upon you for thousands of miles ?
Ah ! You are so great and I am so small, I tremble to think of you, world, at all;
And yet when I said my prayers today, A whisper inside me seemed to say,
‘You are more than the Earth, though you are such a dot,
You can love and think, and the Earth cannot !’
Q 100. The cities, gardens, cliffs and isles show that the Earth is :
(1) huge
(2) friendly
(3) small
(4) well populated
Q 101. In the extract the poet has compared :
(1) Man with the Earth.
(2) World with the Earth.
(3) World with the air.
(4) the Earth with the air.
Q 102. Mood of the speaker in all of these lines is :
(1) serious
(2) joyous
(3) sad
(4) introspective
Q 103. The figure of speech used in the first stanza of the extract is :
(1) Simile
(2) Synecdoche
(3) Onomatopoeia
(4) Personification
Q 104. The figure of speech used in the phrase ‘and whirls the mills’ is :
(1) Simile
(2) Synecdoche
(3) Onomatopoeia
(4) Personification
Q 105. The beautiful dress worn by the Earth is made of :
(1) mills and the hills.
(2) gardens and wheat-fields.
(3) water and grass.
(4) mountains and forests.
Q 106. A teacher asks her learners to collect words / phrases on various aspects they see and notice in their markets and streets. Later, the learners write the words and phrases according to the category and discuss them in the class. What is this practice known as ?
(1) Topic words learning
(2) Genre based words
(3) Active vocabulary
(4) Thematic vocabulary learning
Q 107. What does CLIL stand for ?
(1) Content Language Inter Learning
(2) Content and Language based Interesting Learning
(3) Content and Language Integrated Learning
(4) Context for Language Integrated Learning
Q 108. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Receptive vocabulary are words we speak and productive vocabulary are words we hear.
(2) Receptive vocabulary are words we recognize when we hear or see and productive vocabulary are words we speak or write.
(3) Receptive vocabulary are words we discourse with people and productive vocabulary are words in written text.
(4) Words from other languages are receptive vocabulary and words from native languages are productive vocabulary.
Q 109. A teacher divides her class into groups of four and reads out a text of about six sentences. Learners listen to and jot down important words and phrases. The teacher reads out the text the second time. Then learners discuss in groups the jotted down words and recreate the text nearer to the one read out by the teacher. What is this task know as ?
(1) Composition Dictation
(2) Mutual Dictation
(3) Punctuation Dictation
(4) Real Dictation
Q 110. Intensive reading refers to
(1) reading a text for detailed information.
(2) reading a text for pleasure.
(3) reading a text for editing.
(4) reading a text for someone else.
Q 111. Knowing a word means
(1) how, where and when it is used.
(2) how the word is spelt.
(3) who speaks the word.
(4) to know to write the word.
Q 112. Which typology of question does the following question belong to ?
Imagine you are the narrator of the story. Write an entry in your diary about your experiences in about 100 words.
(1) Informative question
(2) Inferential question
(3) Cloze question
(4) Extrapolative question
Q 113. Poetry teaching is _____.
(1) to learn words and phrases.
(2) to learn poetic devices.
(3) for enjoyment and appreciation.
(4) to write a critical commentary.
Q 114. Learning outcomes aim at
(1) output oriented learning
(2) achieving maximum levels of learning
(3) achieving minimum levels of learning
(4) ensuring all the competencies are acquired by learners.
Q 115. A teacher brings a newspaper to her class VIII students and asks them to find some advertisements. She then asks them to list out how advertisements are designed and what an advertisement contains. What is the newspaper here ?
(1) For reading.
(2) An instrument of language learning.
(3) A technique of language learning.
(4) Materials for language learning.
Q 116. National Curriculum Framework 2005 assigns ‘supplementary’ and ‘complimentary’ roles to English language. This means that
(1) English language teaching should support learning of other languages and subjects.
(2) English language teaching has nothing to do with teaching learning of other languages.
(3) English language teaching is a hindrance to learning of other languages.
(4) English language teaching violates the mother tongue based language education.
Q 117. A reader uses her prior knowledge, makes semantic cues and syntactic cues then moves to other more specific information. What model of reading the reader here adopts ?
(1) Bottom up model
(2) Top down model
(3) Interactive model
(4) Whole language model
Q 118. Drilling is a teaching-learning technique or a strategy in _____.
(1) Constructivist language teaching
(2) Structuralism
(3) Communicative learning teaching
(4) Lexical approach
Q 119. Which of the following statements is TRUE of language learning ?
(1) First language interferes in the learning of second language.
(2) First language supports the learning of second language.
(3) Language learning has nothing to do with content learning.
(4) Every language is different and learning of languages is also discreet.
Q 120. Multilingualism as a resource in education aims at
(1) making use of languages of learners for teaching-learning.
(2) making learners learn as many languages as possible.
(3) using classical languages for teaching-learning.
(4) enabling to learn English language for jobs and mother tongue for culture.
PART – V
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
| IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only. |
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 121 – 128) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
As science progresses, superstitions ought to grow less. On the whole, that is true. However, it is surprising how superstitions linger on. If we are tempted to look down on savage tribes for holding such ideas, we should remember that even today, among most civilised nations, a great many equally stupid superstitions exist and are believed in by a great many people.
Some people will not sit down thirteen at a table; or will not like to start anything important on a Friday; or refuse to walk under a ladder. Many people buy charms and talismans because they think they will bring them luck. Even in civilised nations today, many laws are made on the basis of principles which are just as much unproved. For instance, it is often held as a principle that white people are by nature superior to people of other colours. The ancient Greeks believed that they were superior to the people of Northern and Western Europe. The only way to see if there is anything in such a principle is to make scientific studies of a number of white and black and brown people under different conditions of life and find out just what they can and cannot achieve.
It is, however, true that the increase of scientific knowledge does reduce superstition and also baseless guessing and useless arguments and practices. Civilised people do not argue and get angry about what water is composed of. The composition of water is known, and there is no argument about it.
Q 121. We should not despise the savage tribes because :
(1) they do not believe in science.
(2) they indulge in useless arguments.
(3) they have stopped being superstitious.
(4) we are no less superstitious than they are.
Q 122. Which of the following has a scientific basis for it ?
(1) We should not walk under a ladder.
(2) Number thirteen is inauspicious.
(3) Talismans and charms always bring luck.
(4) Fridays are as good as other days.
Q 123. Who believe in superstitions ?
(1) All civilised nations.
(2) Only some civilised nations.
(3) Only some tribals.
(4) All tribals and some civilized nations.
Q 124. Study the following statements :
(a) Ancient Greeks were superior to other European nations.
(b) Science helps us fight superstitions.
(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.
(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
Q 125. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
On the whole that is true.
(1) Determiner
(2) Pronoun
(3) Conjunction
(4) Preposition
Q 126. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
It is often held that as a principle.
(1) Pronoun
(2) Adverb
(3) Adjective
(4) Preposition
Q 127. Fill in the blank in the following sentence.
_____ is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘superior’.
(1) Higher
(2) Prior
(3) Inferior
(4) Lower
Q 128. The statement which best sums up the passage is :
(1) Superstitions disappear with the advancement of science.
(2) Irrational beliefs decline with the advancement of science.
(3) Civilized nations are no less superstitions than the savage tribes.
(4) We are very different from the savage nations in our beliefs.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow
(Q. Nos. 129-135) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.
If asked, “What matters are related to health i.e. health decisions ?” most of us would answer – hospitals, doctors and pills. Yet we are all making a whole range of decisions about our health which go beyond this limited area of doctors, pills etc. For example, whether or not to smoke, take exercise, wear a seat belt, drive a motor bike, drink alcohol regularly etc. The way we reach decisions and form attitudes about our health is only just beginning to be understood.
The main paradox is why people consistently do things which are known to be very hazardous. Two interesting examples of this are smoking and not wearing seat belts. Addiction makes smokers keep on smoking and whether to wear a seat belt or not is affected by safety considerations. Taken together both these examples show how people reach decisions about their health. Understanding this process is crucial. Only then can we effectively change public attitude towards voluntary activities like smoking.
Smokers run the risk of contracting heart disease, several times more as compared to non-smokers. Even lung cancer. Despite extensive press campaigns which have regularly told smokers and car drivers the grave risks they are running, the number of smokers and non-wearers of seat belts has remained much the same. Although the numbers of deaths from road accidents and smoking are well publicized, they have aroused little public interest.
If we give smokers the real figures of deaths caused by smoking, will it affect their views on the dangers of smoking ? Unfortunately not. Many of the real figures are in the form of probable estimates, and evidence shows that people are very bad at understanding this kind of information.
Q 129. Why does a common man choose to wear a seat belt ?
(1) There is a law for it.
(2) He wants to protect himself.
(3) It is fitted in the car.
(4) For fear of the policeman.
Q 130. Study the following statements :
(a) Though it is very dangerous, some people don’t quit smoking.
(b) Whether or not to drink alcohol is not a health decision.
(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong.
(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are right.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
Q 131. Which of the following pieces of advice can be easily ignored by the people ?
(1) Don’t smoke.
(2) Wear a seat belt.
(3) Don’t drink alcohol.
(4) Don’t drive a motor bike.
Q 132. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
Yet, we are all making a whole range of decisions.
(1) Adverb
(2) Conjunction
(3) Pronoun
(4) Preposition
Q 133. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
Understanding this process is crucial.
(1) Determiner
(2) Preposition
(3) Adverb
(4) Conjunction
Q 134. Smokers run double the risk of contracting heart disease.
The word ‘contracting’ here means
(1) receiving
(2) removing
(3) catching
(4) avoiding
Q 135. An example of ‘limited area’ of health is :
(1) smoking
(2) taking exercise
(3) wearing a seat belt
(4) taking medicines
Q 136. A teacher asks her learners to discuss in groups of four, jot down ideas and then develop them in an outline to write a paragraph. Learners then edit the paragraph into a final draft. Which strategy of writing does the teacher follow here ?
(1) Group work
(2) Process approach
(3) Product approach
(4) Discussion method
Q 137. Transaction listening
(1) lays emphasis on conveying information.
(2) lays emphasis on harmonious communication in the social context.
(3) does not require careful attention to details and facts.
(4) is interactive by nature.
Q 138. CALP stands for
(1) Cognitively Academic Language Proficiency
(2) Cognitively Advanced Language Proficiency
(3) Competency based Academic Language Proficiency
(4) Comparative Academic Language Proficiency
Q 139. ‘A task’ in Task Based Language Learning means _____.
(1) an activity where the target language is used by the learner for a communicative purpose.
(2) a piece of work designed by the teacher for language teacher.
(3) a text-book exercise to be carried out by learners individuals.
(4) a task for the teacher for assessing learners language learning.
Q 140. According to National Curriculum Framework 2005, which one of the following is NOT an objective of language teaching-learning ?
(1) the competence to understand what one hears.
(2) ability to read with comprehension.
(3) effortless expression.
(4) to know the history of languages.
Q 141. Which one of the following is NOT true of language learning ?
(1) Reading is making meaning.
(2) Grammatical rules are important for learning a language.
(3) Language learning takes time.
(4) Language learning needs a context.
Q 142. Which is an effective way of teaching learning grammar ?
(1) Teaching the rules first followed by examples.
(2) Presenting grammar form in a natural discourse, then explaining how the form is made and used.
(3) Presenting single sentence examples in plenty of ways and then explaining the form.
(4) Teaching through a typical grammar book.
Q 143. What status is given to English language in the Indian Constitution ?
(1) Recognised language
(2) Associate official language
(3) Official language
(4) Foreign language
Q 144. A language teacher asks learners to write a paragraph on ‘scarcity of water’. Learners gather information from science and social science books and other sources before writing. Such task aims at :
(1) developing the scientific attitude.
(2) completing the syllabus of other subjects simultaneously.
(3) achieving language learning across the curriculum.
(4) enhancing co-curricular skills.
Q 145. Which one of the following is NOT an assessment tool for language learning ?
(1) Observation schedule
(2) Portfolio
(3) Assignment
(4) Realia
Q 146. Teaching a novel is to promote :
(1) reading for pleasure
(2) reading for details
(3) reading to become a writer
(4) reading to learn vocabulary
Q 147. Story telling as a strategy in language teaching is aimed at _____.
(1) learning the morals.
(2) learning to retell the story.
(3) engaging learners with language.
(4) testing the memory of learners.
Q 148. ‘Input Hypothesis’ refers to
(1) the relationship between what the learner is exposed to of a language and language acquisition.
(2) the relationship between what languages the learners know and the languages they are taught.
(3) the relationship among the learner, teacher and the materials.
(4) all the inputs of the school.
Q 149. Which one of the following makes the communication a cyclic process ?
(1) Sender
(2) Receiver
(3) Feedback
(4) Message
Q 150. Top-down process of reading :
(1) proceeds from whole to part.
(2) proceeds from part to whole.
(3) proceeds from centre to periphery.
(4) proceeds from bottom to top.
