CTET DECEMBER 2019 PAPER I
PART – I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 1. The most critical period of acquisition and development of language is
(1) prenatal period.
(2) early childhood.
(3) middle childhood.
(4) adolescence.
Q 2. Which of the following is a stage of moral development proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg ?
(1) Latency Stage
(2) The social contract orientation
(3) Concrete operational stage
(4) Industry vs. Inferiority stage
Q 3. During classroom discussions, a teacher often pays more attention to boys than girls. This is an example of
(1) Gender bias.
(2) Gender identity.
(3) Gender relevance.
(4) Gender constancy.
Q 4. Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce children’s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity ?
(1) Discussion about gender bias
(2) Emphasizing gender-specific roles
(3) Gender-segregated play groups
(4) Gender-segregated seating arrangement
Q 5. Which of the following theorists while viewing children as active seekers of knowledge emphasized the influence of social and cultural contents on their thinking ?
(1) John B. Watson
(2) Lev Vygotsky
(3) Jean Piaget
(4) Lawrence Kohlberg
Q 6. While working on a jig-saw puzzle, 5 years old Najma says to herself, “Where is the blue piece ? No, not this one, darker one that would go here and make this shoe”.
This kind of talk is referred to by Vygotsky as
(1) private speech.
(2) talk aloud.
(3) scaffolding.
(4) egocentric speech.
Q 7. Giving cues to children and offering support as and when needed is an example of
(1) reinforcement.
(2) conditioning.
(3) modelling.
(4) scaffolding.
Q 8. Which of the following behaviours characterize the ‘concrete operational stage’ as proposed by Jean Piaget ?
(1) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning; propositional thought
(2) Conservation; class inclusion
(3) Deferred imitation; object permanence
(4) Make-believe play; irreversibility of thought
Q 9. Which of the following is a Piagetian construct in the context of cognitive development of children ?
(1) Schemas
(2) Observational learning
(3) Conditioning
(4) Reinforcement
Q 10. Primary objective of Assessment should be
(1) assigning rank to students.
(2) understanding children’s clarity and confusions about related concepts.
(3) labelling students as per their score.
(4) marking pass or fail in the report cards.
Q 11. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ?
(1) Intelligence is a fixed ability determined at the time of birth only.
(2) Intelligence can be accurately measured and determined by using standardized tests.
(3) Intelligence is a unitary factor and a single trait.
(4) Intelligence is multidimensional and a set of complex abilities.
Q 12. Ruhi always thinks of multiple solutions to a problem many of which are original solutions. Ruhi is displaying characteristics of a/an
(1) creative thinker.
(2) convergent thinker.
(3) rigid thinker.
(4) egocentric thinker.
Q 13. In a situation of less participation of students belonging to a deprived group in teaching – learning process, a teacher should
(1) ask the children to withdraw from school.
(2) accept this situation as it is.
(3) lower her expectations from such students.
(4) reflect on her own teaching and find ways to improve student’s involvement.
Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher _________ Individualized Education Plans.
(1) should not prepare
(2) should occasionally prepare
(3) should actively prepare
(4) should discourage the preparation of
Q 15. The primary characteristic of children with ‘dyslexia’ includes
(1) attention deficit disorders.
(2) divergent thinking; fluency in reading.
(3) inability to read fluently.
(4) engaging in repetitive locomotor actions.
Q 16. The concept of ‘Inclusive Education’ as advocated in the Right to Education Act, 2009 is based on
(1) the behaviouristic principles.
(2) a sympathetic attitude towards disabled.
(3) a rights-based humanistic perspective.
(4) mainstreaming of the disabled by offering them primarily vocational education.
Q 17. In the constructivist framework, learning is primarily
(1) based on rote-memorization.
(2) centered around reinforcement.
(3) acquired through conditioning.
(4) focused on the process of meaning making.
Q 18. ‘Naive theories’ that children construct about various phenomenon
(1) should be ignored by the teacher.
(2) should be punished by the teacher.
(3) should be ‘replaced’ by correct one through repetitive memorization.
(4) should be challenged by presenting counter evidence and examples.
Q 19. Child-centered pedagogy promotes
(1) exclusive reliance on text books.
(2) giving primacy to children’s experiences.
(3) rote memorisation.
(4) labelling and categorization of students base on ability.
Q 20. Emotions and cognition are _________ each other.
(1) completely separate from
(2) independent of
(3) inter-woven with
(4) not related to
Q 21. Which of the following statements about learning is correct from a constructivist perspective ?
(1) Learning is the process of reproduction and recall.
(2) Learning is the process of rote memorization.
(3) Learning is conditioning of behaviours by repetitive association.
(4) Learning is the process of construction of knowledge by active engagement.
Q 22. Presenting students with clear examples and non-examples
(1) is an effective way to encourage conceptual change.
(2) leads to confusion in the minds of students.
(3) causes gaps in their understanding of concepts.
(4) focuses on procedural knowledge rather than conceptual understanding.
Q 23. Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward
(1) decreases extrinsic motivation.
(2) increases intrinsic motivation.
(3) would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals.
(4) decreases children’s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning.
Q 24. Which of the following practices promote meaningful learning ?
(i) Corporal punishment
(ii) Cooperative learning environment
(iii) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(iv) Constant comparative evaluation
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q 25. How can teachers facilitate understanding of complex concepts in children ?
(1) By delivering a lecture
(2) By organizing competitive events
(3) By repetitive mechanical drill
(4) By providing opportunities for exploration and discussion
Q 26. A primary school teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by
(1) offering materialistic rewards for every small tasks.
(2) emphasizing only on procedural knowledge.
(3) dismissing and penalizing ‘incorrect answers’.
(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and then brainstorming on the same.
Q 27. In which of the following periods does physical growth and development occur at a rapid pace ?
(1) Infancy and early childhood
(2) Early childhood and middle childhood
(3) Middle childhood and adolescence
(4) Adolescence and adulthood
Q 28. Which of the following is NOT a principle of development ?
(1) Development is lifelong.
(2) Development is modifiable.
(3) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment.
(4) Development is universal and cultural contents do not influence it.
Q 29. The primary cause of individual variations is
(1) the genetic code received by the individuals from birth parents.
(2) the inborn characteristics.
(3) the environmental influences.
(4) the complex interplay between the heredity and the environment.
Q 30. Which of the following are examples of secondary socializing agency ?
(1) Family and neighbourhood
(2) Family and media
(3) School and media
(4) Media and neighbourhood
PART – II
MATHEMATICS
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 31. Three brands of pens A, B and C are available in packets of 10, 12 and 24 respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy equal number of pens of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy ?
(1) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5
(2) A = 5, B = 12, C = 10
(3) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12
(4) A = 12, B = 10, C = 5
Q 32. The side of a square is 4 cm. It is cut into 4 equal squares. What is the area of each small square ?
(1) 4 cm2
(2) 1 cm2
(3) 16 cm2
(4) 8 cm2
Q 33. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) All prime numbers are odd numbers.
(2) There are infinitely many prime numbers.
(3) A prime number has only two factors.
(4) There are only four single digit prime numbers.
Q 34. A number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is
(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 604
(4) 2520
Q 35. Ayesha has only ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her. If the total number of coins she has is 25 and the amount of money with her is ` 160, then the number of ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her are
(1) 18 and 7 respectively
(2) 10 and 15 respectively
(3) 15 and 10 respectively
(4) 20 and 5 respectively
Q 36. Evaluate :
17.5 × 3 – 21 ÷ 7 – 3 × 12.5
(1) 52.5
(2) 12
(3) 120
(4) 50
Q 37. One-sixth of the trees in a garden are neem trees. Half of the trees are Ashoka trees and the remaining are eucalyptus trees. If the number of neem trees is five, how many eucalyptus trees are there in the garden ?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
Q 38. A train leaves Delhi on 29th August, 2019 at 16 : 30 hours and reaches its destination on 31st August at 08 : 45 hours. The total travel time of the journey is
(1) 36 hours 15 minutes
(2) 38 hours 45 minutes
(3) 39 hours 45 minutes
(4) 40 hours 15 minutes
Q 39. In which of the following, lengths have been arranged in decreasing order ?
(1) 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 8 m
(2) 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 800 cm 8 mm
(3) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm
(4) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm 8 mm, 8 m
Q 40. A 180 cm long wire is formed into a rectangle. If the width of this rectangle is 30 cm, what is its length ?
(1) 45 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 90 cm
(4) 120 cm
Q 41. When asked to write 44, some students of grade II wrote it as 404. As a teacher, how will you address this ?
(1) correct their answer in their copies
(2) explain principle of exchange using concrete material
(3) group them with those who have done it correctly
(4) tell them to find out correct answer
Q 42. The main purpose of introducing ‘mapping’ in the primary Mathematics curriculum is/are
A. to promote spatial thinking
B. to promote proportional reasoning
C. to make subject easy and interesting
D. to break the monotony of numbers
1) A & C
(2) A & D
(3) A & B
(4) B & C
Q 43. Which of the following topics are not part of primary school Mathematics curriculum as per NCF 2005 ?
(1) Tessellation
(2) Symmetry
(3) Patterns
(4) Ratio
Q 44. Which of the following resources/TLM can be used by the teacher to show that two rectangles of different dimensions can have the same area without using formula ?
A. Scale
B. Graph paper
C. Thread
D. Tiles
(1) only B
(2) B & D
(3) only C
(4) A & D
Q 45. Which of the following could be contributing factor to underachievement in mathematics ?
(1) Gender
(2) Socio-cultural backbroud
(3) Nature of Mathematics
(4) Innate ability of person
Q 46. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to explain that ¼ is less than ⅓?
(1) using LCM method
(2) using paper strips
(3) using Dienes blocks
(4) using number chart
Q 47. Which of the following is the most important aspect of making lesson plan while teaching Mathematics to primary school children ?
(1) following the sequence of text book.
(2) presenting mathematical concepts in structured manner.
(3) providing opportunities to students to allow construction of concepts.
(4) writing activities and questions for reference.
Q 48. Which of the following can NOT be considered a feature of a constructivist Mathematics classroom ?
(1) The role of language and dialogue in learning Mathematics is given due attention.
(2) The teacher acknowledges that students may construct multiple understandings from a given interaction.
(3) Objective type test items are used as the primary means of assessment.
(4) Connections between Mathematics and other curricular areas are highlighted.
Q 49. Which of the following statements is in agreement with the constructionist view of Mathematics ?
(1) Mathematics is about learning facts.
(2) Mathematicians are required to discover the ‘truths’.
(3) Mathematics is entirely objective.
(4) Visualisation is an important aspect of Mathematics.
Q 50. Which of the following activities is best suited for the development of spatial understanding among children ?
(1) Drawing the top view of a bottle
(2) Locating cities on a map
(3) Noting the time of moon rise
(4) Representing numbers on a number line
Q 51. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to the learning of Mathematics ?
(1) Ability to perform and excel in Mathematics is innate.
(2) Teachers’ beliefs about learners have powerful impact on learning outcomes.
(3) Students’ socio-economic background impacts their performance in Mathematics.
(4) School’s language of instruction can impact a child’s performance in Mathematics.
Q 52. Identify the type of the following word problem :
“I have 6 pencils. Manish has two more than me. How many pencils does Manish have ?”
(1) Comparison addition
(2) Comparison subtraction
(3) Takeaway addition
(4) Takeaway subtraction
Q 53. Which of the following is NOT true of the Hindu-Arabic system of numeration ?
(1) The position of a digit in a number dictates its value.
(2) It is additive in nature.
(3) It follows the base 2 system.
(4) It is multiplicative in nature.
Q 54. Identify a desirable practice for teaching Geometry at primary level ?
(1) Geometry at primary level should be limited to recognition of simple basic shapes.
(2) The teacher should begin by giving clear definitions of simple shapes and showing examples.
(3) Children should be given ample opportunities to develop an intuitive understanding of space.
(4) Developing extensive geometric vocabulary need not be an objective at primary level.
Q 55. Which of the following is an indicator of mathematical reasoning ?
(1) Ability to provide definitions of mathematical concepts.
(2) Ability to provide a justification for a mathematical procedure.
(3) Ability to calculate efficiently.
(4) Ability to recall the correct formulae in different situations.
Q 56. The price list of vegetables in a super market is given as follows :
Item Quantity Price (Rs.)
Tomato 1 kg 40 Potato 2 kg 25 Carrot 250 g 20 Bottlegourd 1 kg 10 Chillies 100 g 10 Lemon 4 pieces 10
Sanjay buys 12 kg tomatoes, 1 kg potatoes, 12 kg carrot, 250 g chillies and 6 lemons. He gives a note of Rs. 200 to the bill clerk at the counter. How much money will he get back ?
(1) Rs. 112.50
(2) Rs. 87.50
(3) Rs. 86.50
(4) Rs. 97.50
Q 57. The number is
- I am a 2 digit number.
- The digit in tens place and the digit in units place are consecutive prime numbers.
- The sum of digits is multiple of 3 and 4.
(1) 57
(2) 23
(3) 35
(4) 13
Q 58. The parking rates of car in a railway station parking are depicted as follows :
(a) Upto 2 hrs – Rs 50
(b) More than 2 hrs and upto 5 hrs – Rs 75
(c) After 5 hrs – Rs 10 per extra hour upto 8 hrs.
(d) More than 8 hrs and upto 12 hrs – Rs 150
(e) More than 12 hrs and upto 24 hrs – Rs 250
Rajeev parks his car at 7.00 a.m. and comes back to pick it up at 4.30 p.m. on the same day. How much money does he have to pay ?
(1) Rs 135
(2) Rs 150
(3) Rs 130
(4) Rs 100
Q 59. Which of the following is at third place when the numbers are arranged in ascending order ?
7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77
(1) 7.70
(2) 7.007
(3) 7.07
(4) 7.707
Q 60. In a five digit number, the digit at ten’s place is 8, digit at units place is one-fourth of the digit at ten’s place, the digit at thousands place is 0, digit at hundreds place is twice that of units place and the digit at ten thousands place is thrice the digit at unit’s place. What is the number ?
(1) 64082
(2) 64028
(3) 46028
(4) 60482
PART – III / – III
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q 61. A person boarded an express train on 29th November, 2019 at Surat (Gujarat) for Nagarcoil (Kerala). The train departed from Surat at 19:45 hours and reached Nagarcoil at 11:45 hours on 1st December, 2019. If the distance between Surat and Nagarcoil by train route is nearly 2120 km, the average speed of the train during this journey was
(1) 132.5 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 53 km/h
(4) 45 km/h
Q 62. Which one of the following is a weight lifter of international fame ?
(1) Sunita Williams
(2) Bachhendri Pal
(3) Suryamani
(4) Karnam Malleshwari
Q 63. Which one of the following is a group of roots ?
(1) Beetroot, Potato, Ginger
(2) Carrot, Turmeric, Ginger
(3) Sweet Potato, Radish, Turmeric
(4) Carrot, Beetroot, Radish
Q 64. Desert Oak is a tree which is found in
(1) Abu Dhabi
(2) Australia
(3) desert of Rajasthan
(4) the desert of UAE
Q 65. Consider the following statements about Nepenthese, a plant which hunts.
A. This plant is found in Australia, Indonesia and Meghalaya in India.
B. It has a pitcher-like shape and the mouth is covered by a leaf.
C. It can trap and eat only small insects.
D. It emits a pleasant sound to attract small insects which get trapped and cannot get out.
The correct statements are
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A, B and C
Q 66. In which one of the following states of India is Dandi seashore located where Mahatma Gandhi did his famous march before independence ?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Karnataka
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Gujarat
Q 67. High fever with shiver which can be treated with the bark of Cinchona tree is
(1) typhoid
(2) malaria
(3) chikungunya
(4) dengue
Q 68. A doctor is located at X and his hospital is located at Y. There is no straight lane from the doctor’s house to the hospital. So, the doctor first goes to A which is 600 m due east of X, then goes to B which is 450 m due south of A, then to C which is 120 m due west of B and finally reaches the hospital at Y which is 90 m due north of C. With respect to the hospital the correct direction of the doctors house is (1) north-east
(2) north-west
(3) south-east
(4) south-west
Q 69. “Cheraw” is the dance form of the people of
(1) Jharkhand
(2) Mizoram
(3) Manipur
(4) Meghalaya
Q 70. Neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are –
(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka
(2) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra
(3) Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Kerala
(4) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka
Q 71. Which one of the following should NOT be the objective of teaching EVS at primary level as per NCF-2005 ?
(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child particularly in relation to the natural environment.
(2) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities to acquire basic cognitive and psychomotor skills through observation, classification, inference, etc.
(3) To train children to locate and comprehend relationships between the natural, social and cultural environment.
(4) To develop precise quantitative skills among children through understanding of environmental issues.
Q 72. EVS for classes-III to V is a subject area which integrates –
(1) the concepts and issues of Science.
(2) the concepts and issues of Science, Social studies and Environmental education.
(3) the concepts and issues of Social science and Science.
(4) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental education.
Q 73. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS ?
(1) EVS is a subject taught from classes I to V.
(2) For classes I and II, EVS is taught through language and Mathematics.
(3) For classes II, III and IV, issues and concerns of EVS are taught through language and Mathematics.
(4) For classes I and II, concerns and issues of EVS are taught through Science and Social science.
Q 74. Children get lot of space to learn EVS through exploration. This indicates that
(1) EVS is learnt through rote.
(2) EVS is learnt through information.
(3) EVS is child centred.
(4) EVS is teacher centred.
Q 75. Which of the following is a subtheme under the theme suggested in the EVS syllabus ?
(1) Family and Friends
(2) Food
(3) Animals
(4) Things we make and do
Q 76. Which of the following is a desirable practice for an EVS teacher ?
(1) Addressing multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms.
(2) Encouraging children to provide important information related to the concepts of EVS.
(3) Linear arrangement of six themes of EVS.
(4) Relying only in textbooks.
Q 77. Which of the following is/are important in constructing knowledge in EVS by the children ?
A. Active participation of children.
B. Community members of children
C. Text books of EVS
D. Description and definition given in the textbook of EVS
(1) A, B and C
(2) A and C only
(3) A, C and D
(4) C only
Q 78. Children can be effectively engaged in EVS learning through
A. Narratives
B. Stories
C. Effective explanation of concepts by the teacher
D. Effective demonstration and explanation of concepts by the teacher
(1) A, C, D
(2) A and B only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B and C
Q 79. Objective/s of EVS teacher who encourages his/her children to observe animals and make pictures on their own is/are to
A. Develop creativity of children
B. Develop observation and design skills of children
C. Develop aesthetic sense of children
(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) B only
(4) A, B and C
Q 80. In EVS learning of crafts and arts while working in groups, is encouraged because
A. Group learning is easier and very effective strategy for teachers to tackle the problem of indiscipline of the class.
B. Group learning promotes peer learning.
C. Group learning improves social interactions.
D. Group learning help in completing the syllabus of EVS in time.
(1) A and D only
(2) B and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) C and D only
Q 81. Which of the following is/are the most effective resource for EVS learning ?
A. Family members
B. Members of the community
C. Newspapers
D. Classroom
(1) D only
(2) C and D only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and B only
Q 82. Which of the following principle of learning is followed in EVS ?
(1) Global to local
(2) Abstract to concrete
(3) Unknown to known
(4) Known to unknown
Q 83. Which of the following is NOT a tool for Formative Assessment of learning in EVS?
(1) Portfolio
(2) Rating scale
(3) Anecdotal records
(4) Annual achievement test
Q 84. Which of the following should be avoided while assessing children in EVS ?
(1) Judging the answers given by children in terms of right or wrong.
(2) Discuss “What we have learnt” given at the end of each chapter of EVS textbook of class V
(3) Use indicators for assessment
(4) Qualitative assessment of children’s learning
Q 85. A teacher of class V conducts an activity in which she asks her children to drop some sugar on the ground and asks them to wait until the ants come there. Children can be given meaningful learning from this activity if teacher _____.
(1) encourages her/his children to observe the activity
(2) encourages his/her children to share their experiences
(3) encourages her/his children to observe, share their experiences followed by discussion on the activity.
(4) encourages her/his children to answer the questions at their home related to the activity.
Q 86. Consider the following list : Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Duck, Fish
In this list which one of the following is different from the others ?
(1) Fish
(2) Crow
(3) Crocodile
(4) Tortoise
Q 87. The correct match of term of Column-I with that of Column-II is :
| Column-I(City/State) | Column-II (Most liked food) |
| A. Hongkong | I. Boiled tapioca with any cury |
| B. Kerala | II. Fish cooked in mustard oil |
| C. Kashmir | III. Sea fish cooked in coconut oil |
| D. Goa | IV. Chholay Bhature |
| V. Cooked Snakes |
(1) A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(2) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III
(3) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I
(4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
Q 88. Which one of the following bird’s species moves its neck back and forth with a jerk.
(1) Owl
(2) Crow
(3) Barbet
(4) Mynah
Q 89. Consider the following description of houses :
A. In Rajasthan the villagers live in mud houses with roofs of thorny bushes.
B. In Manali (Himachal Pradesh) houses are made on bamboo pillers
C. In Leh two floor houses are made of stones. The ground floor is for animals and for storing necessary things.
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) Only C
Q 90. Consider the following statements about elephants :
A. Elephants do not rest very much, they sleep 2 to 4 hours only in a day.
B. An adult elephant can eat more than 200 kg of leaves and twigs in a day.
C. They love to play with mud and water, the mud keeps their skin cool.
D. In elephant herd the oldest female elephant decides everything.
The correct statements are
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) C, D and A
(4) A, B and D
PART – IV
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
| IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. |
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99), by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options :
1. Kangri Karchok, the Kailash Purana of the Tibetans describes the sacred elephant-mouthed river or Langchen Khambab as a long and extensive river that rises from the ‘lake unconquerable’, the Tso Maphan or Manasarovar that flows from the mountainous regions of Tibet. According to this holy book, this cold river with its sands of gold, circles the holy Manasarovar seven times before taking its course to the west.
2. The Langchen Khambab flows down from the red coloured mountains of the Kanglung Kangri Glacier in the Trans Himalayan region of Tibet, channelling its way through the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang of the Gugi Kingdom. These earth forests are full of pillars formed by rocks that collectively appear like a forest from afar – an ‘out of the world’ landscape that was formed by geological movements of the earth and erosion by wind and water. The Khyunglung ruins also lies on the northern bank of the Sutlej river in this valley which was once known as the ‘Garuda Valley”.
3. This mighty river then flows north-west for about 260 km before entering Himachal Pradesh through Shipki La cutting across the formidable Himalayan ranges of Zanskar, the Greater Himalaya and the Dhauladhar. Subsequently, the waters meander through the gigantic Kinnaur Kailash-Jorkanden Range at Reckong Peo creating the terrifying Sutlej gorge. Then it streams into Shimla, Kullu, Mandi and Bilaspur and is responsible for the rich cultivation of grapes, apples and apricots all along its banks. After its confluence with the River Spiti at Khab it is known as Sutlej.
4. It is 1,448 km in length, making it the longest among the five rivers of Punjab. Extensively used for irrigation, it is topographically divided into the Upper Sutlej Basin and Lower Sutlej Basin. It leaves the Himachal boundary to enter the plains of the Punjab at the Bhakra Dam, the second highest gravity dam and a major point of water supply and electricity generation for the North of India.
Q 91. What makes the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang look amazing ?
(1) The ruins on the banks of the Sutlej.
(2) Abundance of flora and fauna.
(3) Cool breeze that makes people feel drowsy.
(4) Pillars formed by rocks resembling a forest.
Q 92. Langchen Khambab is a boon for the North of India because :
(1) it is a major source of water supply and power generation.
(2) it brings along with it mountain soil and minerals.
(3) the prosperity of the whole of India depends on it.
(4) it abounds in aquatic animals.
Q 93. Read the following sentences :
A. Kangri Karchok is a holy book of the Tibetans.
B. Langchen Khambab is responsible for rich cultivation of various types of fruits in the Himachal Pradesh.
(1) A is true, B is false.
(2) B is true, A is false.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.
Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘gigantic’ as used in the passage (Para 4) ?
(1) terrifying
(2) high
(3) formidable
(4) huge
Q 95. Which one of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to the word ‘sacred’ as used in the passage (Para 1) ?
(1) pure
(2) noble
(3) unholy
(4) moral
Q 96. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?
I am not in best position to advise you in this matter
(b) (c) (d)
(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (d)
(4) (c)
Q 97. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence :
I don’t know why he is so hostile to me.
(1) Adjective
(2) Adverb
(3) Preposition
(4) Pronoun
Q 98. ‘Lake unconquerable’ refers to :
(1) Langchen Khambab river
(2) Lake Manasarovar
(3) Lake Rakshatal
(4) The Sutlej river
Q 99. According to Kangri Karchok, Langchen Khambab does not/is not
(1) have sands of gold.
(2) circle the Manasarovar seven times.
(3) flow very gently through the hills.
(4) a cold river.
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options :
Light Brigade
By Alfred Tennyson
Half a league, half a league,
Half a league onward,
All in the valley of Death
Rode the six hundred.
“Forward the Light Brigade !
Charge for the guns !” he said.
Into the valley of Death
Rode the six hundred.
Forward, the Light Brigade!”
Was there a man dismay’d ?
Not tho’ the soldier knew
Some one had blunder’d.
Theirs not to make reply,
Theirs not to reason why,
Theirs but to do and die.
Into the valley of Death
Rode the six hundred.
Q 100. The expression ‘the valley of death’ refers to :
(1) the place where the dead soldiers are lying buried.
(2) the impending death of soldiers.
(3) the house of death.
(4) a nightmarish place.
Q 101. Which of the following statements is not true ?
The military discipline teaches the soldiers :
(1) to do and die.
(2) to obey their commander’s order.
(3) to act tactfully in the battlefield.
(4) not to ask any question.
Q 102. Which of the following adjectives does not apply to the soldiers ?
(1) courageous
(2) disciplined
(3) patriotic
(4) impractical
Q 103. Name the figure of speech used in ‘the Valley of Death’.
(1) Metaphor
(2) Simile
(3) Synecdoche
(4) Metonymy
Q 104. Which literary device is used in the expression, ‘to do and die’ ?
(1) Assonance
(2) Alliteration
(3) Simile
(4) Personification
Q 105. In the first stanza of the extract, the soldiers are :
(1) talking to each other about their personal problems.
(2) waiting for their commander’s order.
(3) thinking about the result of the war.
(4) seen riding fast to the enemy territory.
Q 106. In the multilingual classroom learners can interact _____.
(1) in the medium of instruction followed by the school.
(2) in their own language and can be a mix of words from more than one language.
(3) only in the language prescribed in three-language formula.
(4) in the language with which the teacher is familiar.
Q 107. Diagnostic tests are administered to _____.
(1) find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies.
(2) assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme.
(3) test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs.
(4) judge the students’ capabilities.
Q 108. Structural approach gives more importance to _____.
(1) speech and reading
(2) reading only
(3) speech only
(4) reading and writing
Q 109. Which among the following does not come under meaning based activities ?
(1) Interacting with the text.
(2) Using previous knowledge.
(3) Reading the text and then narrating the same to peers.
(4) Reading out every word aloud and translating it.
Q 110. _____ comprehension is the skill of reading a piece of text closely or intensely for the purpose of extracting specific information from the text.
(1) Inferential
(2) Global
(3) Local
(4) Transactional
Q 111. It is a type of writing in which the teacher provides the situation and helps the class to prepare it. The teacher continuously provides feedback, direction and expansion of ideas to the learners.
(1) Controlled writing
(2) Guided writing
(3) Free writing
(4) Product writing
Q 112. A teacher asked the students of class V to read the text thoroughly. Then she asked them to answer the questions with reference to the context (RTC). In this process she is encouraging students for _____.
(1) skimming
(2) scanning
(3) intensive reading
(4) extensive reading
Q 113. The term ‘Comprehensible input’ is associated with _____.
(1) Lev Vygotsky
(2) Stephen Krashan
(3) Noam Chomsky
(4) James Asher
Q 114. Which one of the following is not a sub skill of reading ?
(1) Connecting
(2) Predicting
(3) Synthesizing
(4) Transcripting
Q 115. Which one of the following is least important in enhancing speaking skill of children ?
(1) Listening patiently to children’s talk.
(2) Giving them an opportunity to express their feelings and ideas.
(3) Asking closed ended questions.
(4) Organizing discussions on a given topic.
Q 116. At primary level literature is helpful in developing language of learners as :
(1) it encourages the learners to complete the worksheets based on it.
(2) it is an authentic material covering various genres.
(3) it develops teachers’ interpretative, creative and critical abilities.
(4) it is a good basis for the only expansion of vocabulary.
Q 117. A teacher prepares a worksheet and removes every seventh word from the text. Then she asks the learners to read the text after that they were asked to complete the worksheet with missing word. The task given on the worksheet is a
(1) speaking task
(2) writing task
(3) cloze test
(4) open test
Q 118. ‘Language is arbitrary’ means that _____
(1) something is determined by judgement and for a specific reason.
(2) it is based on a valid reason and not on chance.
(3) there is a strong relation between the words of a language and their meaning.
(4) there is no inherent relation between the words of a language and their meaning.
Q 119. The teacher observed that Pravin could not write a paragraph on her own even after brainstorming the topic. However, she was able to write it under adult or peer guidance. This guidance is called _____.
(1) Team teaching
(2) Counselling
(3) Scaffolding
(4) Socialization
Q 120. The purpose of textual exercise is not to
(1) develop creativity among learners.
(2) provide opportunity to express themselves.
(3) memorise the answers to the questions.
(4) give exposure to language learning.
PART – V
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
| IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only. |
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options :
Freedom is one of the most important factors in life. Man has fought politically all over the world for freedom. Religions have promised freedom, not in this world but in another. In the capitalist countries, individual freedom exists to some degree, and in the communist world it has been denied. From ancient times, freedom has meant a great deal to man, and there have been its opponents, not only political but religious through Inquisition, by excommunication, tortures and banishments, and the total denial of man’s search for freedom. There have been wars and counter-wars fought for freedom. This has been the pattern of man’s endeavours for freedom throughout history.
Freedom of self-expression and freedom of speech and thought exist in some parts of the world, but in others it does not. Those who have been conditioned, revolt against their backgrounds. This reaction which takes different forms is called ‘freedom’. The reaction to politics is often to shun the field of politics.
One economic reaction is to form small communities based on some ideology or under the leadership of one person, but these soon disintegrate. The religious reaction against established organisations of belief is to revolt, either by joining other religious organisations or by following some guru or leader or by joining some cult. Or one denies the whole religious endeavour.
One thinks of freedom only as freedom of movement, either physical or movements of thought. It appears that one always seeks freedom on the surface. Surely, this is rather a limited freedom, involving a great deal of conflict, wars and violence.
Inner freedom is something entirely different. It has its roots not in the idea of freedom but in the reality of freedom. It covers all the endeavours of man. Without inner freedom life will always be an activity within the limited circle of time and conflict.
Q 121. Which methods do authorities not use to suppress people fighting for freedom ?
(1) Inquisition
(2) Excommunication
(3) Persuasion
(4) Tortures
Q 122. Reaction against established religion prompts people not to :
(1) join other religious organisations.
(2) to start a new religion.
(3) follow some guru.
(4) join some cult.
Q 123. Real freedom, according to the author, is
(1) economic freedom.
(2) inner freedom.
(3) political freedom.
(4) religious freedom.
Q 124. Read the following sentences :
A. Individual freedom does not exist at all in capitalist countries.
B. People do not have individual freedom in communist countries.
(1) A is false, B is true.
(2) A is true, B is false.
(3) Both A and B are true.
(4) Both A and B are false.
Q 125. Which word is most similar in meaning to the word ‘endeavours’ as used in the passage ? (Para 1)
(1) movements
(2) attempts
(3) actions
(4) challenges
Q 126. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘shun’ as used in the passage ? (Para 2)
(1) prefer
(2) rehabilitate
(3) welcome
(4) rejoice
Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ?
There is no doubt that hard work paves the way to success.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (d)
(2) (a)
(3) (b)
(4) (c)
Q 128. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(1) Man can enjoy life only in an environment of freedom.
(2) Material progress cannot be achieved without freedom.
(3) Freedom is not one of the most important factors in life.
(4) Freedom helps man evolve morally and spiritually.
Directions : Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 129 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Water is the core of life; hence water must be central to our spiritual thinking. Water is not only most of earth, but also most of life. Therefore water conservation must be our deepest concern.
The Himalayan mountain range is among the highest, youngest and most fragile ecosystems of the planet. The Himalayas have given us some of the great river systems of the earth including the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Nu Salween, Yangtze and the Mekong. The Himalayas are also called the ‘Third Pole’, for they contain the largest mass of ice and snow outside the earth’s polar region, the north and south poles. There is a permanent snowline above 5,000 metres. Some of the glaciers in the region are the longest outside the two poles.
The Himalayas serve as water towers, providing water on a sustained basis to more than 1,000 million people and millions of hectares of land in South Asia. The greenery, benevolent climate, highly productive ecosystems, food production and overall happiness in South Asia are in fact, attributable to the bounty of the Himalayas. They are not only beautiful; they are life-givers. Little wonder that they are venerated as the abode of gods.
To keep the Third Pole preserved through assured conservation is one of the greatest challenges for the contemporary world. Himalayan mountains are a common but
fragile natural resource. As mountain ecosystems have enormous bearing on the earth’s systems, their special care, regeneration and conservation of their pristine resources would only bring more happiness, peace and prosperity to large parts of the world. In Agenda 21, Chapter 13 of the United Nations, the importance of mountains is underlined : “mountain environments are essential to the survival of global ecosystems.”
The Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand are especially rich in water resources. This area is home to dozens of perennial streams and numerous other rain-fed rivers along with innumerable rivulets, waterfalls and ponds, etc.
Q 129. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage ?
(1) The Himalayas provide us with highly productive eco-systems.
(2) The Himalayas provide water to more than 1000 million people.
(3) The Himalayas irrigate millions of hectares of land.
(4) The Himalayas form the back bone of our tourism industry.
Q 130. Which of the following is false ?
(1) The Himalayan mountains are a fragile resource.
(2) Climate change has little effect on the Himalayas.
(3) They bring prosperity to large parts of the world.
(4) They have some of the longest glaciers.
Q 131. What is not so special about the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand ? The Himalayan state has :
(1) many perennial streams.
(2) huge mineral deposits.
(3) many rain fed rivers.
(4) numerous waterfalls and ponds.
Q 132. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘bounty’ ?
(1) generosity
(2) assets
(3) sympathy
(4) abundance
Q 133. Which word is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘benevolent’ ?
(1) malevolent
(2) rude
(3) untruthful
(4) indecent
Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ?
The area is home to dozens of perennial streams.
(1) Noun
(2) Adverb
(3) Adjective
(4) Pronoun
Q 135. In the context of the passage which of the following is not true ?
Water should be central to our thinking because :
(1) We cannot survive without water.
(2) It is a life-line for our farmers.
(3) It is considered holy by most religions.
(4) It is the core of life.
Q 136. A teacher wants to create a language rich environment in her class. She should :
(1) establish a language lab in her class.
(2) motivate parents to buy language games and activities.
(3) provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by children.
(4) ask students to use only English while communicating in the class with peers.
Q 137. Literature for children is considered as a/an _____ reading.
(1) additional burden on
(2) authentic source of
(3) hindrance material for
(4) inspirational source of
Q 138. Which one of the following is not a form of literature for children ?
(1) Picture books
(2) Thesaurus
(3) Myths and legends
(4) Tales of heroes of history
Q 139. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Print Rich Environment ?
(1) It consists of context-based relevant material for children such as pictures, rhymes, stories etc.
(2) Once the material is pasted on walls, it should not be removed for the whole session.
(3) Pictures / posters give children an opportunity to talk about things, persons and happenings.
(4) Encourage children to create their own poems, posters, stories etc. and display them in the class.
Q 140. A teacher gives a task of dialogue completion to class V students. The role of this task in language learning will be ________
(1) teaching of structures.
(2) the separation of spoken and written forms of language.
(3) to facilitate conversation by giving specific language practice using formulaic expressions.
(4) to provide frequent feedback only on grammatical errors.
Q 141. Using ‘realia’ in the language class means bringing _____.
(1) real life situations to communicate.
(2) real objects as teaching aids.
(3) realistic objectives and targets for the learners.
(4) real level of child’s learning to the knowledge of parents.
Q 142. The multilingual nature of the Indian class-room must be used as a resource so that ________.
(1) every child feels secure and accepted.
(2) every child learns at the same pace.
(3) children can learn many languages.
(4) the teacher develops language proficiency.
Q 143. An English textbook for class I starts with pictures, poems and stories and ends with alphabets in the end. Which approach does this kind of arrangement reflect in language pedagogy ?
(1) Eclectic approach
(2) Bottom-up approach
(3) Top down approach
(4) Language across curriculum approach
Q 144. While checking the notebooks the teacher observed that a child has repeatedly made some errors in writing such as reverse image as b – d, m – w. The child is showing the signs of _____.
(1) learning preference
(2) learning style
(3) learning disability
(4) learning differences
Q 145. A teacher is telling a story with actions and gestures to class III students. After this she asked them to draw pictures on the story in groups. Why do you think she asked them to draw pictures on the story ?
(1) She wanted to assess their colouring and drawing skills.
(2) She had completed her lesson as per her lesson plan so, she engaged them in drawing.
(3) She wanted to assess their comprehension of the story.
(4) She wanted to see the participation of children while drawing.
Q 146. Active vocabulary consists of words which are _____.
(1) used occasionally
(2) difficult to pronounce
(3) used frequently
(4) phonological and lexical
Q 147. The major aim of teaching poetry is _____.
(1) vocabulary development.
(2) enjoyment and appreciation.
(3) development of grammar.
(4) making learners to became poets.
Q 148. Morpheme is the
(1) smallest unit of a word.
(2) smallest unit of meaning that cannot be broken up.
(3) unit of a word that can be broken up into new meaning.
(4) smallest unit of a phrase.
Q 149. A teacher of class II uses learner’s knowledge and language to build a bridge between his mother tongue and English language teaching. Here learner’s language is used in teaching English as a _____.
(1) hindrance
(2) translation
(3) resource
(4) pattern
Q 150. BICS stands for
(1) Bilingual Integrated Content and Syllabus
(2) Bilingual Interdependent Course and Syllabus
(3) Basic Interrelated Communication Strategies
(4) Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills
