CLAT 2017
Q. 1 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
We shall fail ________ we are industrious.
A. whether
B. unless
C. until
D. though
Q. 2 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
Sunita decided to set ______ some time every day for prayers.
A. up
B. aside
C. on
D. in
Q. 3 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
If they want to succeed, they ______ have to work very hard
A. ought
B. should
C. must
D. will
Q. 4 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
She stood ______ Amit, but could not utter a single word for quite some time.
A. for
B. to
C. before
D. about
Q. 5 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The passengers were very happy _______ the friendly and warm treatment.
A. from
B. to
C. about
D. by
Q. 6 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The doctor advised him to go ______ several medical tests.
A. through
B. about
C. under
D. into
Q. 7 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
Would anybody ______ a mother have risked her life for the baby?
A. however
B. rather
C. than
D. but
Q. 8 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option
The minister flew ______ the flooded areas in a helicopter
A. in
B. about
C. over
D. along
Q. 9 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
Kanak is endowed _______ many great qualities.
A. of
B. in
C. by
D. with
Q. 10 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option
You have played a great role, for _______ your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.
A. despite
B. although
C. after
D. without
Questions: 11 – 15
Direction for Questions 11 – 15: Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions given below.
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round negotiation. However, it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s, since negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’ of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s? One factor was the pattern of multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want a new organization, the disputed settlement part of the WTO package achieved its longstanding goal of a more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms add more as a regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted by the expansion of a rulebased system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization, both of which inherently support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning unilateral measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rule-based system with those gains. This reasoning – replicated in many countries – was contained in U. S. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO, and it announced to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment. A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists but the matter went deeper than Aglasem Admission that. The GATT, and the WTO, are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an organization creating a further rule will in turn be influenced by legal process. Robert Hudee has written of the ‘momentum of legal development’, but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values of consistency, clarity (or certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute settlement procedures and institutional provisions. Concern for these values is inherent in any rule-based system of co-operation, since without these value rules would be meaningless in the first place, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfilment. The moment of legal development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU). Over the past two decades the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition’ handed down in Cassis de Dijon case in 1979 was a key turning point. The court is now widely recognized as a major player in European integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of interpretation’, whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most elementary goals set forth in the Preamble to the (Rome) treaty. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with slated goals, and it is analogous to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with slated rules. In both cases legal concerns and procedures are an independent force for further co-operation. In the large part the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near-revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement: these are the concerns of conservatives and not revolutionaries, that is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.
Q. 11 In the statement ‘… it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated Aglasem Admission rule-based environment’, it refers to:
A. .The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.
B. The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round.
C. The provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.
D. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO.
Q. 12 What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?
A. The US government did not like it.
B. Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
C. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.
D. The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform
Q. 13 In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:
A. Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.
B. Enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized
C. Current policies need to be consistent with stated goals.
D. Contracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules.
Q. 14 According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly Through.
A. Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
B. Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.
C. Ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.
D. Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures
Q. 15 The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:
A. It has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.
B. Its rule-based system leads to export gains.
C. It settles disputes more legally and more effectively
D. They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
Q. 16 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence
A. will allow laws on be proposed, passed, as well as repealed by voters
B. allows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws
C. will allow voter to propose, pass, as well as to repeal laws
D. allows voters to propose to pass, and repeal laws
Q. 17 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence
A. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.
B. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of which are chiselled from solid rock centuries ago
C. chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, the mountainous regions are dotted with many hundreds of monasteries,
D. Hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, are dotting the mountainous regions.
Q. 18 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence
A. even though it sounds plausible, the weakness of the hypothesis
B. the weakness of the hypothesis which sounds plausible.
C. though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness
D. though plausible, the hypothesis’ weakness
Q. 19 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence
A. With everyone attending not knowledgeable.
B. For everyone in attendance did not know.
C. For not everyone attending knew.
D. With everyone in attendance not knowing.
Q. 20 Direction for questions 16 – 20:
In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence
A. he other one a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute
B. the other with a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute
C. the other with a deficit of six, occurs in Nature and contributes
D. one with six occurs in Nature and contributes
Q. 21 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Bleshphemy
B. Blasphamy
C. Blasphemy
D. Blashphemy
Q. 22 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Gallows
B. Ghellows
C. Gellows
D. Ghallows
Q. 23 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Remuneration
B. Remunaration
C. Renumeration
D. Renumaration
Q. 24 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Accommedation
B. Accomadation
C. Accommodation
D. Accomedation
Q. 25 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Annulment
B. Annulmant
C. Anulment
D. Annulement
Q. 26 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Gratuitous
B. Gratuitus
C. Gratitious
D. Gratetious
Q. 27 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Hypothecation
B. Hyphothecation
C. Hypathecation
D. Hypthacation
Q. 28 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Interrogation
B. Interagation
C. Interogetion
D. Interogation
Q. 29 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Maratorium
B. Moretorium
C. Moratarium
D. Moratorium
Q. 30 Choose the correct spellings in options given below
A. Abeyance
B. Abhayence
C. Abeyence
D. Abheyance
Q. 31 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C
Q. 32 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. C
Q. 33 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 34 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C
Q. 35 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
Q. 36 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
Q. 37 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. D
Q. 38 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. A
B. D
C. B
D. C
Q. 39 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. C
B. B
C. D
D. A
Q. 40 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. D
Q. 41 Choose the most appropriate option.
Donald Trump is _____________ President of the United States.
A. 46th
B. 43rd
C. 45th
D. 44th
Q. 42 Choose the most appropriate option
With the development of Terahertz (THz) transmitter, it is expected to be faster than 5G
mobile networks by:
A. Four Times
B. Five Times
C. Two TImes
D. Ten TImes
Q. 43 Choose the most appropriate option
Among the following professors of Indian origin who has received Knighthood for the work as a co-inventor of next generation DNA Sequencing called Solexa Sequencing is?
A. P. C. Mahalanobis
B. Mehnad Saha
C. Shankar Balasubramanian
D. Satyendra Nath Bose
Q. 44 Choose the most appropriate option
Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?
A. Pakistan
B. Iran
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Afghanistan
Q. 45 Choose the most appropriate option
The top destination for domestic tourists in India for the past three consecutive years has been:
A. Orissa
B. Rajasthan
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
Q. 46 Choose the most appropriate option
The Japanese Prime Minister who offered ‘sincere and everlasting condolences’ to the people of the United States for killing more than 2,400 soldiers in the attack on Pearl harbour was:
A. Hayato Ikeda
B. Kakuei Tanaka
C. Juniciro Koizumi
D. Shinzo Abe
Q. 47 Choose the most appropriate option
NASA rediscovered India’s lunar spacecraft that was lost in the space during the past eight years known as:
A. Mangalayaan – II
B. Mangalayaan – I
C. Chandrayan – II
D. Chandrayan – I
Q. 48 Choose the most appropriate option
India’s third largest trading partner during 2016 is
A. Kuwait
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Dubai
D. U.A.E.
Q. 49 Choose the most appropriate option
Who called the immigration the ‘Trojan horse of Terrorism’?
A. Theresa May, Prime Minister of U.K
B. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany
C. Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary
D. Donald Trump, President of the U.S
Q. 50 Choose the most appropriate option
The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is:
A. Belgium
B. Norway
C. Denmark
D. Finland
Q. 51 Choose the most appropriate option
The bowler who has claimed the fastest 250 wickets in Cricket test matches is:
A. Dennis Likee
B. Rangana Herath
C. Anil Kumble
D. Ravichandran Ashwin
Q. 52 Choose the most appropriate option
Volvo has launched the world’s largest bus that can carry up to:
A. 300 passengers
B. 150 passengers
C. 260 passengers
D. 320 passengers
Q. 53 Choose the most appropriate option
According to the Survey Report released by Transparency International during March 2017 on India, the most corrupt are
A. Police
B. Local Councilors
C. Business Executives
D. Government Officials
Q. 54 Choose the most appropriate option
Name the President elect of France who is likely to take the oath on 14 May 2017.
A. Emmanuel Macron
B. Marine Le Pen
C. Francois Holland
D. Francois Fillon
Q. 55 Choose the most appropriate option
The 2016 Nobel Peace Prize was won by the President of :
A. South Africa
B. United States of America
C. Sri Lanka
D. Columbia
Q. 56 Choose the most appropriate option
Japan is threatening to drag India to W.T.O on issues relating to the export of its:
A. Steel
B. Electronic Goods
C. Tea
D. Small Ships
Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate option
In terms of steel production in the world during 2015 – 2016, India stood at:
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
Q. 58 Choose the most appropriate option
India’s voting rights at the International Monetary Fund increased from 2.3 % to
A. 2.5%
B. 2.8%
C. 2.6%
D. 2.4%
Q. 59 Choose the most appropriate option
The first elected civilian President in Myanmar is:
A. Aung San Suu Kyi
B. Khin Ayi
C. Htin Kyaw
D. Aung San
Q. 60 Choose the most appropriate option
Prithvi Defence Vehicle is
A. The name of an amphibious Naval vessel
B. The name of a newly developed tank
C. The name of a single seated aircraft developed by HAL
D. The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile
Q. 61 Choose the most appropriate option
Which shoe company in the United States of America has won an IPR dispute against China recently for using their logo?
A. Reebok
B. Adidas
C. Nike
D. New Balance
Q. 62 Choose the most appropriate option
Who has been selected for 2016 BC Roy Award?
A. Dr. N. Bhaskaran
B. Dr. J. Rajendra
C. Dr. Jagat Ram
D. Dr. P. Raghu Ram
Q. 63 Choose the most appropriate option
The world’s first artificial intelligence lawyer, a robot, is named as:
A. IDM-LaBrain
B. Boss
C. Ross
D. Watson
Q. 64 Choose the most appropriate option
The Hubble telescope of NASA is located in
A. NASA Headquaters
B. Canada
C. Space
D. Iceland
Q. 65 Choose the most appropriate option
Which court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?
A. International Court of Justice
B. Supreme Court of Pakistan
C. Supreme Court of India
D. International Criminal Court
Q. 66 Choose the most appropriate option
Till the end of 2016, the total number of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India is:
A. 18
B. 21
C. 42
D. 35
Q. 67 Choose the most appropriate option
Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in
A. Rajasthan
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharastra
Q. 68 Choose the most appropriate option
Among the following, who has won the maximum number of titles?
A. Gopichand
B. P. V. Sindhu
C. Saina Nehwal
D. Srikant
Q. 69 Choose the most appropriate option
How many billionaires India has lost since demonetization on November 8, 2016?
A. Two
B. Eleven
C. Eighteen
D. Eight
Q. 70 Choose the most appropriate option
Juno is the name of a:
A. Hydrogen fuelled submarine
B. Hydrogen fuelled space craft
C. Solar powered space craft
D. Atomic powered submarine
Q. 71 Choose the most appropriate option
The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving:
A. Complaints from three services
B. Inter-state water disputes
C. Inter-state boundary disputes
D. Election disputes
Q. 72 Choose the most appropriate option
World’s longest rail tunnel is about:
A. 23 kms
B. 35 kms
C. 47 kms
D. 57 kms
Q. 73 Choose the most appropriate option
The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at
A. Visakapatinam, Andhra Pradesh
B. Mumbai, Maharastra
C. Raipur, Chattisgarh
D. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
Q. 74 Choose the most appropriate option
Solar Impulse–2 is:
A. Hybrid airplane
B. Solar powered ship
C. Impact of climate change for overall increase of 2º C a year
D. Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world
Q. 75 Choose the most appropriate option
During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?
A. Afghanistan
B. Bhutan
C. Nepal
D. Sri Lanka
Q. 76 Choose the most appropriate option
‘World’s longest-all women Non-stop flight’ from New Delhi to San Francisco covering
14,500 kms was operated by:
A. Jet Airways
B. Air India
C. United AIrlines
D. American Airlines
Q. 77 Choose the most appropriate option
‘Scorpion kick’ is a phrase used in
A. Kung Fu
B. Kabaddi
C. Kalari Fight
D. Kick Boxing
Q. 78 Choose the most appropriate option
Which country offered asylum seekers 1,200 Euros to leave by withdrawing their application for protection?
A. Denmark
B. France
C. Germany
D. Italy
Q. 79 Choose the most appropriate option
The Happiness Index Department or a Wing has been established in the states of:
A. Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh and Goa
C. Mashya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
D. Andhra Pradesh and Sikkim
Q. 80 Choose the most appropriate option
Which of the following individuals was called a ‘deceptive actor’ by China’s foreign ministry during March 2017?
A. Narendra Modi
B. Dalai Lama
C. Donald Trump
D. Sirisena
Q. 81 Choose the most appropriate option
The World Bank had cut India’s GDP growth for 2016 – 2017 to:
A. 8%
B. 7.6%
C. 8.6%
D. 7%
Q. 82 Choose the most appropriate option
Among the following who was crowned as ‘Miss Supernational’ during 2016?
A. Srinidhi Shetty
B. Shilpa Shetty
C. Alia Bhat
D. Aishwarya Rai
Q. 83 Choose the most appropriate option
COIN, a software programme developed by J. P. Morgan supports:
A. Interpreting Commercial Documents
B. Financial Accounting
C. Robotic Surgery
D. Bitcoin
Q. 84 Choose the most appropriate option
The first country in the world to have begun shutting down the entire Frequency Modulation (FM) radio network to be replaced by Digital Audio Broadcasting is:
A. China
B. United States of America
C. Norway
D. Switzerland
Q. 85 Choose the most appropriate option
Among the following M.L.As, who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?
A. Srinivas Prasad of Karnataka
B. Jayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu
C. Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar
D. P.C. George of Kerala
Q. 86 Choose the most appropriate option
India emerged as ___________ largest holder of the U.S Government Securities at the end of 2016:
A. Twelfth
B. Twenty Eight
C. Twenty Fourth
D. Fifteenth
Q. 87 Choose the most appropriate option
The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of:
A. Margaret Thatcher
B. Queen Elizabeth – II
C. Mother Theresa
D. Millicent Fawcett
Q. 88 Choose the most appropriate option
Which country 3D – Printed a home of 37 sq.mts?
A. Spain
B. Russia
C. South Korera
D. Taiwan
Q. 89 Choose the most appropriate option
As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in:
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Uttar Pradesh
Q. 90 Choose the most appropriate option
Immediately before Antonio Guterres was appointed the U.N Secretary General in October 2016, he was:
A. Commissioner General of UNRWA
B. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
C. The Prime Minister of Portugueses
D. United States High Commissioner for Human Rights
Q. 91 Age of father 10 years ago was three times the age of his son. After 10 years, father’s age is twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
A. 11:7
B. 7:4
C. 9:5
D. 7:3
Q. 92 A clock was set correct at 12 O’ clock. It loses 10 minutes per hour.What will be the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock after one hour?
A. 90º
B. 85º
C. 75º
D. 105º
Q. 93 The Banker’s discount on a sum of money for 18 months is Rs. 600 and the true discount on the same sum for 3 years is Rs. 750/-. The rate percentage is:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 15%
D. 12%
Q. 94 The average weight of three men ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 75 kgs. Another man ‘A’ joins the group and the average weight now becomes 80 kgs. If another person ‘B’ whose weight is 5 kgs more than ‘A’ replaces ‘X’, then the average weight of ‘Y’, ‘Z’, ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be 85 kgs. What is the weight of ‘X’?
A. 84 kgs.
B. 82 kgs.
C. 78 kgs.
D. 80 kgs.
Q. 95 In an office, 1/3 of the workers are Men, ½ of the men are married and 1/3 of the married men have children. If ¾ of the women are married and 2/3 of the 2/3 of the married women have children, then the part of workers without children are:
A. 11/18
B. 17/36
C. 5/18
D. 4/9
Q. 96 The difference between simple interest and compound interest at the same rate for rupees 5,000 for two years is rupees 98. The rate of interest is:
A. 14%
B. 10%
C. 10 ½ %
D. 12%
Q. 97 A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. How much of the mixture must be siphoned off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half milk and half water?
A. 1/7
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/3
Q. 98 Praveen has Rs. 4,662 in the form of 2, 5 and 10 rupee notes. If these notes are in the ratio of 3:5:8, the number of five rupees notes with him is:
A. 336
B. 250
C. 84
D. 210
Q. 99 ‘A’ and ‘B’ complete a work in 12 days, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in 8 days and ‘C’ and ‘A’ in 16 days. ‘A’ left after working for 3 days. In how many days more will ‘B’ and ‘C’ finish the remaining work?
A. 7 ¾
B. 6 ⅚
C. 4 ¾
D. 3 ¾
Q. 100 A train ‘X’ leaves station ‘A’ at 3 p.m and reaches station ‘B’ at 4.30 p.m., while another train ‘Y’ leaves station ‘B’ at 3.00 p.m and reaches station ‘A’ at 4.00 p.m. These two trains cross each other at:
A. 3.36 p.m.
B. 3.30 p.m
C. 3.20 p.m.
D. 3.40 p.m
Q. 101 A trader sells rice at a profit of 20% and uses weights which are 10% less than the correct weight. The total gain earned by him is:
A. 22 2/9%
B. 35%
C. 33 1/3%
D. 30%
Q. 102 Keerthi’s father gave him some money to buy books. He spent half of the money equally to buy books and entertaining his friends. Whatever amount left with him, he deposited half in his savings account and gave Rs. 5 to a poor person as charity. Finally, Keerthi was left with Rs. 20 which he returned to his father. What amount did his father give him initially?
A. Rs. 160
B. Rs. 120
C. Rs. 200
D. Rs. 100
Q. 103 Taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 37 ½ minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both taps are opened and after some time tap ‘B’ is turned off.The tank is filled completely in exactly 30 minutes, if tap ‘B’ is turned off after:
A. 15 minutes
B. 12 minutes
C. 9 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Q. 104 A man rows to a place 45 k.ms distant and back in 12 hours. He realises that he can row 5 k.ms downstream in the same time as 3 k.ms against the stream. The velocity of the stream is:
A. 4 k.ms/hr
B. 1 k.m/hr
C. 2 k.ms/hr
D. 1.5 k.ms/hr
Q. 105 There are two urns. One contains two white balls and four red balls, the other contains three white and nine red balls. All balls are of the same shape and size. From each urn, one ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting both the balls of the same colour?
A. 1/2
B. 1/12
C. 7/12
D. 1/24
Q. 106 A boat travels upstream from A to B and back from B to A in 5 hours.The speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/hour and the speed of the current is 4 km/hour. Then, the distance from A to B is:
A. 9 kms.
B. 10 kms.
C. 12 kms
D. 15 kms
Q. 107 Two men and seven boys can do a work in 14 days. Three men and eight boys can do the same work in 11 days. Further eight men and six boys can do three times the amount of this work in:
A. 18 days
B. 30 days
C. 24 days
D. 21 days
Q. 108 A piece of cloth costs rupees 75. If the piece is four meters longer and each meter costs rupees 5 less, the cost remains unchanged. What is the length of the piece?
A. 12 meters
B. 8 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 6 meters
Q. 109 A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days. A and B agreed to do the work together for Rs. 720. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. How much C is to be paid?
A. Rs. 72
B. Rs. 82
C. Rs. 70
D. Rs. 80
Q. 110 Gold and copper are as heavy as water by 19 and 9 times respectively. The ratio in which these two metals be mixed so that the mixture is 17 times as heavy as water is:
A. 2:3
B. 3:4
C. 3:2
D. 4:1
Q. 111 Questions numbers 111-145 consists of legal proposition(s)/ principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law.Therefore, to answer a question, principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the most appropriate option.
Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.
Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B’ for rupees 25,000/-. ‘B’ agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/-. ‘A’ sold his motorcycle to ‘C’ for 26,000/- the next day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for damages
A. ‘B’ can proceed against ‘C’
B. ‘B’ will get the difference of rupees 1,000/- only
C. ‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’
D. ‘B’ will get damages from ‘A’
Q. 112 Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.
Facts: ‘P’ submitted a written consent to a surgeon ‘S’ for undergoing a surgical operation
for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of ‘A’:
A. ‘P’ can claim damages from ‘S’
B. ‘P’ is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery
C. ‘P’ is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for Gall Bladder
D. ‘P’ cannot claim damages from ‘S’
Q. 113 Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.
Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court.
A. Court will punish the man for rape
B. Court will punish the police officer.
C. Court will not punish the man for rape.
D. Court will not punish the police officer.
Q. 114 Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise.
Facts: ‘A’ occasionally hands over his ATM card to ‘B’ to withdraw money for ‘A’. On one occasion ‘B’ without the knowledge of ‘A’, uses’A’s ATM card to find out the balance in ‘A’s account, but does not withdraw any money.
A. ‘B’ has committed misappropriation
B. ‘B’ has committed the act fraudulently
C. ‘B’ has committed breach of faith
D. ‘B’ has not committed the act fraudulently
Q. 115 Principle: An offer made by one party when accepted by another makes it a contract.
Transactions:
1 P offered to sell his house for Rs. 20 lakhs to R; R told P that he was interested to buy a house for 15 lakhs only.
2 C was looking for a house for not more than 25 lakhs; P informed Cthat his house was
available for 20 lakhs.
3 K wanted to buy some old furniture; L told K that he would sell his furniture for Rs. 10,000.
4 R advertised to sell his old car for a price of Rs. Three lakhs; S found the advertisement and offered to buy it for Rs. 2 lakhs 50 thousand;R agrees to sell it to S.
Which among the above is actually a contract?
A. Situation 4 only is a contract
B. Situation 3 only is a contract
C. Situations 1 and 2 are contracts
D. Situations 2 and 4 are contracts
Q. 116 Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.
Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was
coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner,started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm.They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide
A. Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.
B. As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, sh ooting it was a precautionary measure and hence within the right available to X under law.
C. There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking a nd was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.
D. The right of private defence is available to persons against assail ants or wrong-doers only and a dog does not fall in this category.
Q. 117 Principle: In criminal law, misappropriation is the intentional, illegal use of the property or funds of another person for one’s own use or other unauthorized purpose, particularly by a public official, a trustee of a trust, an executor or administrator of a dead person’s estate or by any person with a responsibility to care for and protect another’s assets. Embezzlement is misappropriation when the funds involved have been lawfully entrusted to the embezzler. On the contrary, theft is the illegal taking of another person’s property or services without that person’s permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it.
Facts: A went for swimming at the Municipal Swimming Pool. A handed over all his valuables, including some cash to X, the guard on duty for safe custody, as notified by the Municipality. After swimming for an hour, A came out and searched for X. He found another guard on duty and that guard informed A that X had gone home after completing his shift and did not hand over anything to be given to A. A register ed a complaint with the police. X was traced but he told the police that he sold all the valuables and the entire cash was used for drinking liquor. What offence, if any, was/were committed by X?
A. If at all X is liable, it is for criminal misappropriation only.
B. X is liable for theft as he took A’s property without X’s permission.
C. X is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement.
D. X is not guilty of criminal misappropriation as he did not make an y personal gain out of those items with him.
Q. 118 Principle: According to the law of trade unions in India, no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintainable in any civil court against any registered trade union or any officer or member thereof in respect of any act done in contemplation or in furtherance of a trade dispute.
Facts: Soloman, the Secretary of a registered Trade Union took a loan from a Bank for the higher education of his daughter. Soon after completing the course she was married to an NRI Engineer. Solomon did not repay the loan. The Bank demanded the payments from Soloman and warned him that the Bank will take suitable legal action against him. Identify the legal position in this regard.
A. As Soloman did not use the loan amount for his use and hence, n o action can be initiated against him.
B. The Bank cannot initiate any action against Soloman as he is the Secretary of a Registered Trade Union.
C. The Bank can recover the loan amount from the Trade Union as Soloman is the Secretary of the Union.
D. The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against S oloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no im munity will work.
Q. 119 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.
Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?
A. David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the gr eat artists.
B. David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.
C. There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signa ture has not done any alteration to the art work.
D. Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been car eful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it.
Q. 120 Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.
Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago
A. The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.
B. The act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy.
C. The act of Zameer did not amount to any misrepresentation.
D. The act of Zameer amounted to innocent misrepresentation.
Q. 121 Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party.
Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever.
The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.
A. he contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating positi on.
B. The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.
C. The contract is enforceable against the doctor.
D. The contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.
Q. 122 Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.
Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’. After this, ‘B’ requested ‘A’ to keep the car in his care on behalf ‘B’ for one month. ‘A’ agreed.
A. Sale of car is complete.
B. Sale of car is complete.Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one Month
C. Sale of car is not complete
D. Sale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car.
Q. 123 Principle: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his right in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, is void to that extent. The law also provides that nobody can confer jurisdiction to a civil court by an agreement between parties.
Facts: A and B entered into a valid contract for rendering certain service. A clause in the contract was that in case of any dispute arose out of the contract; it shall be referred to for Arbitration only. Is the contract valid?
A. The parties were trying to confer jurisdiction to some authority to decide a dispute and hence the clause would be invalid.
B. Arbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognize d by law and hence the entire contract is valid.
C. The contract is valid but the clause regarding Arbitration is void.
D. Arbitrator cannot be termed as an ordinary Tribunal. Hence, the a greement is void and would be unenforceable.
Q. 124 Principle: According to Sec. 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between work men and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour of any person’.
Facts: The employees of DK Enterprises met the management and requested half a day leave to allow them to celebrate a lunar eclipse, which was going to happen two days later. The management refused the request. Does this situation amount to an ‘industrial dispute’?
A. As the difference of opinion between the employees and employe r is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employ ment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.
B. No as Lunar eclipse is unconnected with employment.
C. Yes, because there is some difference of opinion it would be an i ndustrial dispute.
D. No as declaring holidays is a prerogative of the employer. So no i ndustrial dispute.
Q. 125 Principle: According to law, a person who find goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee. Bailee is a person or party to whom goods are delivered for a purpose, such as custody or repair, without transfer of ownership. The finder of the goods legally can sell the goods found by him under certain circumstances including the situation that the owner refuses to pay the lawful charges of the finder.
Facts: P, a college student, while coming out of a Cricket stadium found a necklace, studded with apparently precious diamonds. P kept itfor two days thinking that the owner would notify it in a local newspaper. Since he did not notice any such notification, P published a small classified advertisement in a local newspaper. In two days’ time, P was contacted by a film actor claiming that it was her Necklace and requested P to return it to her. P told her that she should compensatehim for the advertisement charges then only he would return it otherwise he will sell it and make good his expenses. The film star told P that she had advertised in a national newspaper about her lost Necklace which was lost somewhere in the Cricket Stadium. The advertisement was published for three consecutive days incurring a large expenditure for her. Mentioning all this she refuses to pay P and claims the Necklace back. Which among the following is the most appropriate answer to this?
A. The film star was right in refusing P, as she did not offer any reward for anyone who would return the Necklace.
B. As it was wrong on the part of P to bargain over a property belon ging to a celebrity and he should have accepted some gift which might hav e been given by the film star and returned the Necklace instead of threatening her that he would sell it.
C. As the film star had notified in the newspaper, P ought to have re ad it and contacted her instead of publishing another notification. So he cannot claim any compensation.
D. P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.
Q. 126 Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.
Fact: ‘X’, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by ‘Y’, a female employee of the company that ‘X’ was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen.Is the dismissal of ‘X’ valid?
A. No, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common.
B. Yes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is no violation of any principles of law
C. Yes, moral law is antique and therefore, not applicable in modern times, therefore the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred
D. No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.
Q. 127 Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the right to join an association or not to join such an association.
Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU, oneof the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union, approaches the High Court of the state for a relief. Identify the most reasonable legal proposition.
A. The Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court.
B. Circular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence the High Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin
C. The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court
D. The circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High Court can issue an appropriate right.
Q. 128 Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.
Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:
A. Rightly showed his anger
B. committed an assault on Sheetal
C. insulted Sheetal
D. not committed an assault on Sheetal
Q. 129 Principle: Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is opposed to public policy, is void. An agreement which has the tendency to injure public interest or public welfare is one against public policy. What constitutes an injury to public interest or public welfare would depend upon the times and the circumstances.
Facts: ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in the public service, and ‘B’ promises to pay rupees 5,00,000/- to ‘A’.
A. The agreement is void because rupees 5,00,000/- is excessive.
B. The agreement is valid, as it is with consideration for public service.
C. The agreement is valid, as it is a contract between two parties with their free consent.
D. The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy.
Q. 130 Principle: According to law, a person is deemed to have attained the age of majority when he completes the age of 18 years, except in the case of a person where a guardian of a minor’s person or property has been appointed under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 or where the superintendence of a minor’s property is assumed by a Court of Wards. Indian law expressly forbids a minor from entering into a contract. Hence, any contract entered into by a minor is void-ab-initio regardless of whether the other party was aware of his minority or not. Further, though a minor is not competent to contract, nothing in the Contract Act prevents him from making the other party bound to the minor.
Facts: Lal executed a promissory note in favour of Gurudutt, aged 16years stating that he would pay Gurudutt a sum of Rs. 2 Lakhs when he attains the age of majority. On attaining the age of 18, Gurudutt demanded the amount from Lal, who refused to pay. Gurudutt wants to take legal action against Lal. Identify the most appropriate legal position from the following:
A. Lal was not aware of the fact that Gurudutt was a minor.
B. Gurudutt should not have entered into a contract with Lal when he was a minor
C. A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract,may yet accept a benefit
D. Lal argues that as per the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, Gurudutt can claim the money only after he attains the age of 21.
Q. 131 Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.
Facts: ‘T’ just walked over the land of ‘P’ to reach his house as it was a short cut. ‘P’ had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. ‘P’ did not cause any damage to the land.
A. T’ has committed trespass to land.
B. ‘T’ has created nuisance for ‘P’.
C. ‘T’ has not committed any trespass on the land of ‘P’.
D. ‘T’ has violated privacy of ‘P’.
Q. 132 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.
Facts: John was a publisher of ancient books and papers. In one of his books on the World Wars, he gave photograph of some letters written by famous historic personalities. A researcher in history noted that in the pictures of some of the letters printed in the book, John had added some words or sentences in his own handwriting to give completeness to the sentences, so that the readers will get a clear picture of the writer’s intention. The researcher challenges the originality of those pictures and claims that the book containing the forged letters should be banned. Examine the validity of the researcher’s demand.
A. The additions in the letters were made by the publisher in his own handwriting would have made material alteration to the original meaning and hence amounted to forgery.
B. As forgery amounts to adding or deleting anything from an original document, the demand of the researcher is valid.
C. Allowing forged publications to be circulated among the public is as good as committing fraud on the public, so the publication should be banned.
D. The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.
Q. 133 Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.
Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery. Is A liable?
A. A is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery.
B. Liability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely
C. A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.
D. As only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence.
Q. 134 Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person’s reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.
Facts: ‘A’ writes a letter to ‘B’ in which he uses abusive language against ‘B’ and also states that ‘B’ is a dishonest person. ‘A’ put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to ‘B’.
A. A’ has committed a moral wrong
B. ‘A’ has not committed defamation
C. A’ has not committed moral wrong
D. ‘A’ has committed defamation
Q. 135 Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.
Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.
A. The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.
B. The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.
C. The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company.
D. The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.
Q. 136 Principle: Contract is a written or spoken agreement, with specific terms between two or more persons or entities in which there is a promise to do something in return for a valuable benefit known as consideration. Such an agreement is intended to be enforceable by law. A unilateral contract is one in which there is a promise to pay or give other consideration in return for actual performance.
Facts: A Toilet Soap Manufacturing Company in India in order to promote the sale of their product, published an advertisement in all the Newspapers on January 1, 2017 that the Company has kept a model ignition key of an Audi A3 Car. The advertisement also stated that whoever gets the said key before December 31, 2017 from a soap bar will be gifted with the Audi A3 Car. Mr. Martin, a foreigner who came to India as a Tourist who was staying in a Hotel found a Key similar to same Car Ignition Key. Mr. Martin brought this matter to the notice of the Hotel Manager. The Manager informed Mr. Martin about the Company’s advertisement on January 1, 2017. Mr. Martin wants to claim the Car. Will he succeed?
A. The Hotel Manager who could legally claim the Car as he was the one actually purchased the soap for the use in the Hotel.
B. No. The Soap Company has not entered into a contract with Mr.Martin as he was not in India on January 1, 2017 when the advertisement was published.
C. No. Actual intention of the Company was to promote the sale of the Soap.
D. Mr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.
Q. 137 Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.
Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S’ submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his class mates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later, ‘S’ got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. ‘S’ rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S’. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.
A. The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.
B. The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.
C. The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.
D. The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.
Q. 138 Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.
Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years at the rate of rupees 12, 00, 000/- per annum provided the house was put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according to contemporary style.
A. There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.
B. There is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola.
C. It is voidable contract at the option of Bhola.
D. There is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is fixed by both of them and the term ‘present style’ only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.
Q. 139 Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female,out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.
Facts: ‘A’, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.
A. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl as well as her parents
B. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl.
C. ‘A’ committed no offence against the parents of the girl
D. ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents
Q. 140 Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that ‘When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.’
Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich man’s house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went upto the room from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the servant. They all left the house and the servantreported the matter to the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently,all three were arrested in connection with the offences of house breaking, burglary and rape. Identify the legal liability of the three.
A. All three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes.
B. Sanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.
C. Only Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were accomplice to the offence.
D. Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.
Q. 141 Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise,compensation in the form of money.
Facts: ‘X’ made a promise to ‘Y’ to repair his car engine. ‘Y’ made the payment for repair. After the repair, ‘Y’ went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, ‘Y’ met with an accident due to bursting of atyre.
A. ‘X’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘Y’ in the form of money.
B. ‘X’ will not be entitled to receive compensation.
C. ‘Y’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’ in the form of money.
D. ‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.
Q. 142 Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.
Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A’s action valid?
A. It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.
B. A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.
C. As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.
D. As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.
Q. 143 Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.
Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R,a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused. Is P justified in her action?
A. As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.
B. R can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed.
C. P is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.
D. P is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.
Q. 144 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Facts: ‘A’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ to save his life kills ‘A’.
A. ‘A’ has not committed an offence because he was mad.
B. ‘B’ has committed an offence.
C. ‘B’ has not committed any offence.
D. ‘A’ has committed the offence of attempt to murder.
Q. 145 Principle: A violation of a legal right of someone, whether results in a legal injury or not, gives rise to an action in tort for compensation. At the same time, an action by someone, which results in some loss or damage to somebody else is not actionable, if there is no violation of a right of that somebody.
Facts: AB Coaching Centre was a popular CLAT coaching academy with several good trainers. A lot of aspirants used to attend its coaching classes from all over and was making good profit. This was going on for the past several years. During a session, T, one of the very good and popular trainers of ABCC, had some difference of opinion with the owner of ABCC and left the coaching centre. In August 2016, T started another Entrance Coaching Centre closer to ABCC which resulted in a substantial drop in its students and huge financial loss. The owner of ABCC wants to file a case against T for the loss sustained by ABCC. What do you think is the right legal position?
A. T will be liable to compensate the loss to ABCC.
B. T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC.
C. ‘T’ should have consulted ABCC before starting his coaching centre.
D. T started the new coaching centre near ABCC intentionally, and s hall be liable to compensate the loss of ABCC.
Q. 146 Bona vacantia
A. Order of the court for eviction
B. Vacant land
C. Goods that have no owner
D. Vacant building
Q. 147 In pari delicto
A. Where the lawyer is at fault
B. Where the judge is at fault
C. Where the petitioner is at fault
D. Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault
Q. 148 Sine die’ means:
A. Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting
B. Adjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again.
C. Adjourned for the day and meet after one week
D. Adjourned for the day and meet after one month.
Q. 149 Malus animus
A. Good intention
B. Bad intention
C. Physical force
D. Animal farm
Q. 150 Lis pendens
A. Pending suit
B. Decided case
C. No legal issues involved
D. Facts of case proved
Q. 151 Per incuriam
A. Mistaken decision
B. Supremacy of law
C. Mistaken identity
D. Supremacy of the Constitution
Q. 152 Autrefois convict means
A. Formerly convicted
B. To be convicted
C. Failed prosecution
D. Doubtful conviction
Q. 153 Lex loci means
A. Law of a place
B. Latin regualtions
C. Domestic laws
D. Italian laws
Q. 154 Animus posssidendi’ means:
A. Intent to contract
B. Intention to harm
C. Intention to return
D. Intention to possess
Q. 155 Caveat venditor means
A. Seller beware
B. Manufacturer beware
C. Transporter beware
D. Buyer beware
Q. 156 Pari passu means
A. On an unequal status
B. On equal footing
C. Diverse nature
D. Supremacy of law
Q. 157 Faux pas means
A. Cheating
B. Tactless mistake
C. Pausing for a while
D. Passage of time
Q. 158 ‘Punctum Temporis’ means
A. Functional authority
B. Temporary position
C. Timely assistance
D. Point of time
Q. 159 ‘Jus Gentium’ means:
A. Global administrative law
B. Law of Societies
C. Law among Nations
D. Global justice
Q. 160 Turpis arbiter’ means:
A. Inefficient lawyer
B. Inefficient judge
C. Corrupt prosecutor
D. Corrupt judge
Questions: 161 – 163
Direction for Question Numbers 161 – 163 Read the following information carefully and choose the appropriate option in the questions given below.
i. There is a group of five persons – A, B, C, D and E.
ii. One of them is a Singer, one is a Dancer, one is a Painter, one is a Teacher and one is a Doctor.
iii. Three of them – A, C and Doctor prefer rice to chapatti and two of them – B and the Painter prefer chapatti to rice.
iv. The Teacher, D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer chapatti to rice.
v. The Singer is C’s brother.
Q. 161 Who is a Singer?
A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B
Q. 162 Who is a Teacher?
A. D
B. C
C. E
D. B
Q. 163 Who is a Dancer?
A. E
B. C
C. A
D. D
Questions: 164 – 166
Direction for Question Numbers 164 – 166: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option in the questions given below
i. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
ii. Q gets a North-facing flat and is not next to S.
iii. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
iv. R, next to U gets a South-facing flat and T gets a North-facing flat.
Q. 164 Which of the following combination gets South-facing flats?
A. U, P ,T
B. Q, T, S
C. data inadequate
D. U, R, P
Q. 165 Whose flat is between Q and S?
A. U
B. R
C. P
D. T
Q. 166 If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U?
A. T
B. P
C. R
D. Q
Questions: 167 – 168
Which alternative applies to the following Statement or Assumptions? Choose the
most appropriate option.
Q. 167 ‘There is no man that is not naturally good’ is equivalent to the proposition:
A. No men are good.
B. Some men are naturally good.
C. Some men are not naturally good.
D. All men are naturally good.
Q. 168 ‘Only ignorant people believe in witchcraft’ is equivalent to:
A. Some ignorant persons are not those who believe in witchcraft.
B. No ignorant persons are those who do not believe in witchcraft.
C. All persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant.
D. There is no link between ignorance and witchcraft.
Q. 169 Find the odd one out from the following:
A. Clearly visible
B. Exact estimate
C. Open secret
D. Only choice
Q. 170 Find the odd one out from the following:
A. Expedition
B. Crusade
C. Campaign
D. Cruise
Q. 171 Crumb : Bread is as
A. Splinter : Wood
B. Inch : Unit
C. Powder : Face
D. Water : Vessel
Q. 172 wave: crest as _________ : peak.
A. Water
B. land
C. River
D. Mountain
Q. 173 If in a certain code, the word MILITARY is written as 12324567, then in the same code, the word TAIL will be written as:
A. 2345
B. 3254
C. 4523
D. 5432
Q. 174 If 27th March, 2011 was Sunday, what was the day on 27th June, 2011?
A. Tuesday
B. Saturday
C. Monday
D. Sunday
Q. 175 ————– is a hater of knowledge and learning.
A. Misologist
B. Moroccan
C. Misogynist
D. Mystique
Q. 176 ‘Some of the valuable books are seldom read’, means:
A. All the valuable books are not read.
B. All the valuable books are read.
C. Some of the valuable books are read.
D. Some of the valuable books are not read.
Q. 177 A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl`s:
A. Son
B. Uncle
C. Son-in-law
D. Brother
Q. 178 When Ravi saw Ramesh, he recalled, ‘He is the son of the father of my daughter’. Who is Ramesh?
A. Cousin
B. Brother-in-law
C. Uncle
D. Brother
Q. 179 Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ram said, ‘Her mother`s brother is the only son of my mother’s father’. How is the girl`s mother related to Ram?
A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Sister
D. Aunt
Q. 180 Sunil’s school bus is facing North when it reaches his school. After starting from Sunil’s house, it turned right twice and then left before reaching the school. What direction the bus was facing when it left the bus stop in front of Sunil’s house?
A. North
B. South
C. West
D. East
Q. 181 What is meant by ‘Alliteration’?
A. Act of literary modification.
B. The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.
C. Acts of an environmentally conscious person.
D. Words which sound alike but have different meanings.
Q. 182 There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?
A. 158
B. 89
C. 152
D. 79
Q. 183 Identify the statement which cannot be accepted
A. Almost one third of the human body is made up of water
B. Odyssey is an ancient epic
C. Human race will become extinct sooner or later
D. The earth revolves around the sun in 366 days
Q. 184 Ravi was showing a photograph to his friend, Gopi. Pointing at a boy in the photograph, Ravi said: ‘The boy sitting at the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother’.What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Ravi?
A. First Cousins
B. Brothers
C. Nephew and uncle
D. Ravi’s brother-in-law
Q. 185 How many times from 4 pm to 10 pm, the hands of a clock are at right angles?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 9
D. 6
Q. 186 John wants to go the university. He starts from his house which is in the East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?
A. East
B. South
C. North
D. West
Q. 187 Coding and decoding 9: 72 : : 8 : ?
A. 34
B. 18
C. 64
D. 43
Q. 188 Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East,South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South.Which direction are the ladies facing to?
A. North and West
B. South and East
C. East and West
D. None of these.
Q. 189 A person who renounces religious or political belief or principle is called:
A. Apostle
B. Antiquarian
C. Ascetic
D. apostate
Q. 190 If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as ‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?
A. SOFIA
B. SOLID
C. NASIA
D. SOMAD
Q. 191 In a company, 60 % workers are males. If the number of female workers in the company is 800, what is the number of male workers in the company?
A. 1200
B. 1600
C. 1400
D. 1900
Q. 192 The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October 1999. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her birthday, if it was not a leap year?
A. Tuesday
B. Monday
C. Wednesday
D. Sunday
Q. 193 In a military secret service map, South-East is shown as North, North-East as West and so on. What will West become?
A. North-East
B. South-West
C. North-West
D. South-East
Q. 194 Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject?
A. History
B. Social science
C. Maths
D. Economics
Q. 195 A man walks 1 km. towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 kms. Again he turns to East and walks 2 kms. After this he turns to North and walks 9 kms. Now, how far is he from his starting point?
A. 9 kms
B. 4 kms.
C. 10 kms
D. 5 kms
Q. 196 Mare is to Horse as –
A. Deer is to Buck
B. Sow is to Boar
C. Geese is to Duck
D. Pony is to Donkey
Q. 197 Pointing to a photograph, Prakash said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son’ How is Prakash related to the girl in the photograph?
A. Uncle
B. Cousin
C. Father
D. Brother
Q. 198 In the series of alphabets given below, which is the missing alphabet series?
AX, DU, GR, ____, ML
A. HQ
B. IK
C. JO
D. JN
Q. 199 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become?
A. North-West
B. North
C. South-East
D. East
Q. 200 No parrots are black.
All crows are black.
From the above premises which one of the following conclusions is true?
A. No crows are parrots.
B. Some parrots are not crows
C. No conclusion can be drawn.
D. Some crows are not parrots.
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | B | D | C | C | A | D | C | D | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | B | A | A | D | B | A | C | C | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | A | A | C | A | A | A | A | D | A |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | C | D | D | D | C | C | D | D | D |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | D | C | A | D | D | D | D | C | A |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | D | A | A | A | D | A | B | C | C | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | D | D | C | C | A | D | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | D | C | D | D | B | B | C | A | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | A | A | C | C | A | D | B | D | B |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | D | B | B | D | A | A | C | D | C | A |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | C | D | C | C | C | D | D | D | A | D |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | C | A | C | D | A | C | C | D | A | A |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | A | B | A | D | D | C | D | D | C |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | A | D | C | B | A | D | D | A | D | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | B | A | C | B | C | D | A | B | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | A | A | A | D | A | B | B | D | C | D |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | B | D | D | D | C | D | C | A | D |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | A | D | C | C | A | D | D | B | D | C |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | B | D | A | B | B | C | C | A | D | B |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | A | A | D | A | D | B | D | C | C | A |