CLAT 2014 Previous Year Paper

CLAT 2014

Q. 1  Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

A vote of …………………… proposed at the end of the meeting.

A. thanks were

B. thank was

C. thanks had been

D. thanks was

 

Q. 2 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

During the recession many companies will …………………… lay off workers.

A. be forced to

B. have the force to

C. forcefully

D. be forced into

 

Q. 3 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

She has good ……………….. over the famous foreign languages.

A. expertise

B. command

C. control

D. authority

 

Q. 4 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The Chairman pointed out in favour of the manager that the profitability of the industrial

plant had ………………………… since he took over the administration.

A. arisen

B. declined

C. added

D. increased

 

Q. 5 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

When the examinations were over, ………………………. went to Paris.

A. me and Rohan

B. I and Rohan

C. Rohan and me

D. Rohan and I

 

Q. 6 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Let’s go for a walk, …………………………. ?

A. can we

B. shall we

C. can’t we

D. shouldn’t we

 

Q. 7 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Had Anil been on time, he ………………………….. missed the train.

A. would not have been

B. had not

C. will not have

D. would not have

 

Q. 8 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The most alarming fact is that infection is spreading …………………… the state and reaching villages and small towns.

A. over

B. across

C. far

D. from

 

Q. 9 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

In big cities people are cut …………………… from nature.

A. off

B. down

C. away

D. out

 

Q. 10 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The dissidents ……………………. a great problem in every political party.

A. give

B. cause

C. pose

D. hold

 

Q. 11 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(a) Payment for imports and exports is made through a system called foreign exchange. The value of the money of one country in relation to the money of other countries is agreed upon.

(b) The rates of exchange vary from time to time.

(c) For example, an American dollar or a British pound sterling is worth certain amounts in the money of other countries.

(d) Sometimes a US dollar is worth 60 rupees in India.

A. abcd

B. bacd

C. acbd

D. cabd

 

Q. 12 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(a) When a dictionary is being edited, a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citation slips for a particular word.

(b) The moment a new word is coined, it usually enters the spoken language.

(c) The dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip.

(d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing.

 

A. abcd

B. acbd

C. bacd

D. bcad

 

Q. 13 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(a) The impression that corruption is a universal phenomenon persists and the people do not co-operate in checking this evil.

(b) So there is hardly anything that the government can do about it now.

(c) It is regrettable that there is a widespread corruption in the country at all levels.

(d) Recently several offenders were brought to book, but there were not given deterrent punishment.

A. cdab

B. adbc

C. adcb

D. cbad

 

Q. 14 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(a) In all social affairs convention prescribes more or less generally accepted rules of behaviour.

(b) Of course, there is nothing absolute about conventions.

(c) They vary from country to country, from age to age.

(d) Convention has a necessary part to play in the life of everyone.

A. abcd

B. adbc

C. dacb

D. dabc

 

Q. 15 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(a) In fact, only recently there have been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have nightmares.

(b) Now that is changing.

(c) The study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.

(d) While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has occasional nightmares.

A. cadb

B. abdc

C. adcb

D. cbad

 

Q. 16 Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.

Ex officio

A. By virtue of previously held position

B. Former official

C. By virtue of office

D. Outside the office

 

Q. 17 Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.

Ultra Vires

A. Within powers

B. Full powers

C. Near powers

D. Beyond powers

 

Q. 18 Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.

Quid pro quo

A. Something for nothing

B. Something for something

C. Everything for something

D. Something for everything

 

Q. 19 Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.

Inter vivos

A. between the living

B. among the living and the dead

C. between the dead

D. among the dead and the living

 

Q. 20 Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.

Corpus juris

A. body of judges

B. group of jurists

C. body of law

D. knowledge of law

 

Q. 21 Which of the following spellings is correct?

A. Concensus

B. Consencus

C. Consenssus

D. Consensus

 

Q. 22 Which of the following spellings is correct?

A. Procede

B. Proceed

C. Proceede

D. Proced

 

Q. 23 Which of the following spellings is correct?

A. Accommodate

B. Acommodate

C. Accomodate

D. Acomodate

 

Q. 24 Which of the following spellings is correct ‘for a page at the booking of a book’?

A. Foreward

B. Forword

C. Forworde

D. Foreword

 

Q. 25 Which of the following spellings is correct?

A. Arguement

B. Argument

C. Arguemant

D. Arguemint

 

Q. 26 Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.

To make clean breast of:

A. To tell the truth about something.

B. To gain prominence.

C. To destroy before it blooms.

D. To praise oneself.

 

Q. 27 Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.

A man of straw:

A. A creditable man.

B. A very active man.

C. A man of no or little substance.

D. An unreasonable man.

 

Q. 28 Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.

A wild-goose chase:

A. A wise search.

B. A fruitful search.

C. A worthwhile hunt.

D. A futile pursuit.

 

Q. 29 Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.

Put on the market:

A. To offer for sale.

B. Alongside the market.

C. Already purchased.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 30 Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.

To meet someone halfway:

A. To show that you are prepared to strain your relationship with someone.

B. To compromise with someone.

C. Confrontation.

D. Incongruity

 

Questions: 31 – 40

Passage-1:

The spread of education in society is at the foundation of success in countries that are latecomers to development. In the quest for development, primary education is absolutely essential because it creates the base. But higher education is just as important, for it provides the cutting edge. And universities are the life-blood of higher education. Islands of excellence in professional education, such as Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), are valuable complements but cannot be substitutes for universities which provide educational opportunities for people at large. There can be no doubt that higher education made a significant contribution to economic development, social progress and political democracy in independent India. It is a source of dynamism for the economy. It has created social opportunities for people. It has fostered the vibrant democracy in our polity. It has provided a beginning for the creation of a knowledge society. But it would be a mistake to focus on its strengths alone. It has weaknesses that are a cause for serious concern. There is, in fact, a quite crisis in higher education in India that runs deep. It is not yet discernible simply because there are pockets of excellence, an enormous reservoir of talented young people and an intense competition in the admissions process. And, in some important spheres, we continue to reap the benefits of what was shown in higher education 50 years ago by the founding fathers of the Republic. The reality is that we have miles to go. The proportion of our population, in the age group 18-24, that enters the world of higher education is 7 per cent, which is only one-half the average of Asia. The opportunities for higher education, in terms of the number of places in universities, are simply not enough in relation to our needs. What is more, the quality of higher education in most of our universities require substantial improvement. It is clear that the system of higher education in India faces serious challenges. It needs a systematic overhaul, so that we can educate much larger numbers without diluting academic standards.This is imperative because the transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in significant part, on the spread and quality of education. It is only an inclusive society that can provide the foundations for a knowledge society. The challenges that confront higher education in India are clear. It needs a massive expansion of opportunities for higher education, to 1500 universities nationwide, that would India to attain a gross enrollment ratio of at least 15 per cent by 2015. It is just as important to raise the average quality of higher education in every sphere. At the same time, it is essential to create institutions that are exemplars of excellence at par with the best in the world. In the pursuit of these objectives, providing people with access to higher education inn a socially inclusive manner is imperative. The realisation of these objectives, combined with access, would not only develop the skills and capabilities we need for the economy but would also help transform India into a knowledge economy and society.

 

Q. 31 The principal focus of the passage is:

A. Primary education.

B. Intermediate education.

C. Higher education.

D. Entire education system.

 

Q. 32 The style of the passage can be best described as:

A. Academic

B. Critical and analytical

C. Comparative

D. None of the above

 

Q. 33 What kind of society can provide the foundation for a knowledge society?

A. Elite society

B. Contracted society

C. Exclusive society

D. Inclusive society

 

Q. 34 According to the passage, which one of the following is INCORRECT?

A. There are no quality institutes providing excellent professional education in India

B. Not many people go for higher education in India

C. Education is the basis of success

D. All the above options are correct

 

Q. 35 According to the passage, the current state of affairs of higher education in India is:

A. Satisfactory

B. Excellent, and there is no need of any expansion of opportunities for higher education

C. Not good enough, and there is a need of expansion of opportunities for higher education, besides creating institutions and universities that are models of excellence

D. Not explained in the passage

 

Q. 36 According to the passage, which of the following is not a challenge that confronts higher education in India?

A. Expanding opportunities for higher education

B. Creating institutions and universities that are exemplars of excellence.

C. Substantial improvement in the quality of higher education in most of our universities.

D. Getting into World University Rankings

 

Q. 37  According to the passage, which of the following is CORRECT?

A. Primary education is very important.

B. Universities are the life-blood of higher education.

C. Transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in significant part, on the spread and the quality of education among our people, particularly in the sphere of higher education.

D. All the above propositions are correct

 

Q. 38 Should the entire university system in India be modeled on premier institutes, such as IITs and IIMs, providing professional education?

A. Yes

B. For sure

C. No

D. The passage is silent on the question

 

Q. 39 What is the antonym of the expression ‘cutting edge’ ?

A. Conventional

B. Avant-garde

C. Advanced

D. Contemporary

 

Q. 40 What is the meaning of the word ‘discernible’?

A. Unobtrusive

B. Noticeable

C. Unremarkable

D. Inconspicious

 

Q. 41 The next number in the sequence is: 19, 29, 37, 43, ………………….

A. 45

B. 47

C. 50

D. 53

 

Q. 42 An unknown man is found murdered. The corpse has one gold plated tooth, right ear is pierced and a healed fracture of left hand thumb. A man with these characteristics is reported missing. What are the chances (probability) of the corpse being the missing man? (Given the occurrence of the gold-plated teeth in the area, 1 in 5000, left hand thumb fractures 1 in 20000 and of right ear pierces 1 in 100).

A. 1 in 1,000

B. 1 in 1,000,000

C. 1 in 1,000,000,000

D. 1 in 10,000,000,000

 

Q. 43 Value of “A” in the expression, 5 = 12 x 10 ÷ 120/240 = A x 10, is:

A. 11

B. 24.5

C. 34

D. 6.5

 

Q. 44 The Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.) of 0.12, 9.60 and 0.60 is:

A. 9.60

B. 0.12

C. 0.6

D. None of these

 

Q. 45 There are 30 boys and 40 girls in a class. If the average age of boys is 10 yr. and average age of girls is 8 yr., then the average age of the whole class is:

A. 8 yr.

B. 8.86 yr.

C. 8.2 yr.

D. 9 yr.

 

Q. 46 A person spends 1/3 part of his income on food, 1/4 part on house rent and remaining Rs. 630 on other items. The house rent is:

A. Rs. 504

B. Rs. 1512

C. Rs. 378

D. None of these

 

Q. 47 A person covers a certain distance by car at a speed of 30 km/h and comes back at a speed of 40 km/h. The average speed during the travel is:

A. 34.3 km/h

B. 35 km/h

C. 37.5 km/h

D. 32.8 km/h

 

Q. 48 An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases wages in the ratio 7 : 9. Therefore, the overall wages bill is:

A. Increased in the ratio 45 : 56

B. Decreased in the ratio 56 : 45

C. Increased in the ratio 13 : 17

D. Decreased in the ratio 72 : 35

 

Q. 49 Father is 3 yr. older than the mother and the mother’s age is now twice the daughter’s age. If the daughter is 20 yr. old now, then the father’s age when the daughter was born in: 

A. 20 yr.

B. 40 yr.

C. 43 yr.

D. 23 yr.

 

Q. 50 If 80% of A = 20% of B and B = 5x% of A, then the value of x is:

A. 75

B. 80

C. 90

D. 85

 

Q. 51 A mixture of 40 L of alcohol and water contains 10% water. How much water should be added to this mixture, so that the new mixture contains 20% water?

A. 9L

B. 5L

C. 7L

D. 6L

 

Q. 52 ‘A’ can do a piece of work in 20 days and ‘B’ can do the same work in 15 days. How long will they take to finish the work, if both work together?

A. 13 1/2 days

B. 10 days

C. 8 4/7 days

D. 17 1/2 days

 

Q. 53 A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 1 km/h, it takes 3 h more in upstream than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is:

A. 36 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

 

Q. 54 A starts a business with Rs. 5000 and B joins the business 5 months later with an

investment of Rs. 6000. After a year, they earn a profit of Rs. 34000. Find the shares of A and B in the profit amount depending on their individual investment.

A. Rs. 20000, Rs. 14000

B. Rs. 16000, Rs. 16000

C. Rs. 14000, Rs. 20000

D. None of these

 

Q. 55 A farmer has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 80 and the total number of animal feet is 200, what is the total number of goats?

A. 40

B. 60

C. 20

D. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 56 A square field has its area equal to 324 m^2. The perimeter of the field is:

A. 36m

B. 72m

C. 18m

D. 6561m

 

Q. 57 A closed metal box measure 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Thickness of the metal is 1 cm. The volume of the metal required to make the box is:

A. 1041 cm^3

B. 6000 cm^3

C. 4536 cm^3

D. 1968 cm^3

 

Q. 58 The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest (compounded annually) on Rs. 2000 for 2 yrs. at 8% per annum will be:

A. Rs. 10

B. Rs. 20

C. Rs. 13

D. Rs. 25

 

Q. 59 A dealer marked his goods 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of 10%. Then the gain percent is:

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 6%

D. 8%

 

Q. 60 A man went to the Reserve Bank of India with Rs. 2000. He asked the cashier to give him Rs. 10 and Rs. 20 notes only in return. The man got 150 notes in all. How many notes of Rs. 10 did he receive?

A. 100

B. 150

C. 50

D. 70

 

Q. 61 Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court of India is famously known as the ‘Green Judge’?

A. Justice VR Krishna Iyyar

B. Justice PN Bhagwati

C. Justice Kuldeep Singh

D. Justice BN Kirpal

 

Q. 62 Law Day is observed on:

A. 26th January

B. 26th May

C. 15th August

D. 26th November

 

Q. 63 In which year, Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) was formed by the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDE) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO):

A. 1955

B. 1958

C. 1959

D. 1963

 

Q. 64 The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year:

A. 1858

B. 1935

C. 1947

D. 1950

 

Q. 65 Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture, called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It signifies:

A. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation.

B. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.

C. The gesture of debate or discussion/argument.

D. Both (A) and (B) are correct.

 

Q. 66 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Fundamental Duties under the Constitution of India? It shall be the duty of every citizen of India –

A. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

B. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievements.

C. Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

D. To vote in public elections.

 

Q. 67 Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was mostly written from right to left?

A. Nandnagari

B. Brahmi

C. Kharoshti

D. Sharada

 

Q. 68 During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the East India Company establish its first factory in India?

A. Akbar

B. Jahangir

C. Shahjahan

D. Aurangzeb

 

Q. 69 Who, among the following, first translated the Bhagawat Gita into English?

A. Charles Wilkins

B. Alexander Cunningham

C. William Jones

D. James Prinsep

 

Q. 70 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

A. a-4; b-3; c-1

B. a-1; b-4; c-3

C. a-2; b-1; c-3

D. a-1; b-4; c-2

 

Q. 71 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4

B. a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1

C. a-1; b-2; c-4; d-3

D. a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1

 

Q. 72 Who was not a Chief Justice of India?

A. Justice M Patanjali Sastri

B. Justice KN Wanchoo

C. Justice HR Khanna

D. Justice MN Venkatachaliah

 

Q. 73 Who was the first Attorney-General for India?

A. CK Daphtary

B. MC Setalvad

C. Niren De

D. LN Sinha

 

Q. 74 Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, the Civil Disobedience Movement, launched in 1930, started from? 

A. Sabarmati

B. Dandi

C. Sevagram

D. Champaran

 

Q. 75 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 

A. a-1; b-2; c-3; d-4

B. a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1

C. a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1

D. a-1; b-4; c-3; d-2

 

Q. 76 Which of the following planets has the maximum number of natural satellites?

A. Earth

B. Mars

C. Jupiter

D. Saturn

 

Q. 77 In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalised commercial banks is fixed by?

A. Union Ministry of Finance

B. Union Finance Commission

C. Indian Banks’ Association

D. None of the above

 

Q. 78 Solvents are the substances used to dissolve other substances. Consider the following substances : (1) Water (2) Ether (3) Toluene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol

Which of the above can be used as solvents?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3, 4 and 5

D. All of these

 

Q. 79 Viruses are parasitic, having DNA/RNA ; but, they can be crystallised and lack respiration. Therefore, they are treated as:

A. Living beings

B. Non-living beings

C. Both living and non-living beings

D. None of the above

 

Q. 80 Who is the winner of the coveted Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2013?

A. Javed Akhtar

B. Gulzar

C. AR Rahman

D. Indeevar

 

Q. 81 Who among the following has been recently appointed as brand ambassador for Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF):

A. Aamir Khan

B. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

C. MC Mary Kom

D. Sania Mirza

 

Q. 82 Till date (2014), how many people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?

A. 40

B. 41

C. 42

D. 43

 

Q. 83 Which country Malala Yousafzai belongs to?

A. Pakistan

B. Afghanistan

C. The USA

D. England

 

Q. 84 Who recently became the first woman chief of the State Bank of India?

A. Arundhati Bhattacharya

B. Shubhalakshmi Panse

C. Vijaylakshmi Iyer

D. Chanda Kochhar

 

Q. 85 Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission?

A. Dr. M Govinda Rao

B. Dr. Vijay Kelkar

C. Dr. Y V Reddy

D. Dr. Raghuram Rajan

 

Q. 86 The Chairperson of the Seventh Pay Commission is:

A. Justice BN Srikrishna

B. Justice DK Jain

C. Justice AP Shah

D. Justice AK Mathur

 

Q. 87 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

United Nations Specialised Agency and their headquarters:

A. International Civil Aviation Organisation – Montreal

B. World Trade Organisation – Geneva

C. United Nations Industrial Development Organisation – Brussels

D. International Fund for Agricultural Development – Rome

 

Q. 88 The First Five Year Plan of India was based on:

A. John W Miller Model

B. PC Mahalanobis Model

C. Gadgil Yojana

D. Herrod-Domar Model

 

Q. 89 Which one of the following measures is NOT likely to aid in improving India’s balance of payment position?

A. Promotion of import substitution policy

B. Devaluation of rupee

C. Imposition of higher tariff on imports

D. Levying the higher duty on exports

 

Q. 90 Find out the correct chronological sequence of the following persons’ visit to India at one time or another:

(1) Fa-Hien (2) I-Tsing (Yijing) (3) Megasthanese (4) Hiuen-Tsang

A. 1, 3, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 4, 2

C. 3, 1, 4, 2

D. 3, 1, 2, 4

 

Q. 91 Which was the first newspaper to be published in India?

A. Bombay Samachar

B. The Hindu

C. Bengal Chronicle

D. Bengal Gazette

 

Q. 92 The change in the colour of stars is linked to:

A. Variation in their surface temperature

B. Variation in their distance from the earth

C. Fluctuations in their composition and size

D. Irregular absorption or scattering in earth’s atmosphere

 

Q. 93 Which one of the following does NOT remain to be a planet now?

A. Neptune

B. Uranus

C. Pluto

D. Venus

 

Q. 94 Who was appointed as the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

A. KC Chakrabarty

B. Urijit Patel

C. Raghuram Rajan

D. D Subbarao

 

Q. 95 Which one of following offices is held during the pleasure of the President of India?

A. Vice-President

B. Governor of a State

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

 

Q. 96 Who was the first winner of the prestigious Jnanpith Award?

A. Tarasankar Bandyopadhyay

B. Kuppali Venkatappagowda Puttappa

C. G Sankara Kurup

D. Umashankar Joshi

 

Q. 97 Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:

List I

(a) Visakhadatta (b) Varahamihira (c) Sushruta (d) Brahmagupta

List II

(1) Surgery (2) Drama (3) Astronomy (4) Mathematics

A. a-1; b-3; c-4; d-2

B. a-2; b-1; c-3; d-4

C. a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4

D. a-3; b-4; c-1; d-2

 

Q. 98 Who was among the following honoured with Arjun Award in Chess for the year 2013? 

A. Kavita Chahal

B. Parimarjan Negi

C. Ronjan Sodhi

D. Abhijeet Gupta

 

Q. 99 Economic growth rate projected by the IMF for India in the fiscal year 2014-15 is:

A. 5.4 per cent

B. 5.5 per cent

C. 5.6 per cent

D. 5.7 per cent

 

Q. 100 Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy on 22nd February 2014?

A. Oleksandr Turchynov

B. Matteo Renzi

C. Enrico Letta

D. Giorgio Napolitano

 

Q. 101 Which one of the following is the highest peacetime gallantry award of India?

A. Param Vir Chakra

B. Ashok Chakra

C. Maha Vir Chakra

D. Kirti Chakra

 

Q. 102 Which one of the following gases is lighter than air?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Chlorine

C. Oxygen

D. Hydrogen

 

Q. 103  Name the scientist who is known as the father of modern genetics:

A. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

B. Hugo de Vries

C. Gregor Johann Mendel

D. Charles Darwin

 

Q. 104 Which year was designated by the United Nations as International Women’s Year?

A. 1974

B. 1975

C. 1976

D. 1977

 

Q. 105 Mention the correct abbreviation for ATM:

A. Automated Teller Machine

B. Any Time Money

C. All Time Money

D. Auto-limited Teller Machine

 

Q. 106 General Election is being held in India from 7 April to 12 May 2014 to constitute:

A. 14th Lok Sabha

B. 15th Lok Sabha

C. 16th Lok Sabha

D. 17th Lok Sabha

 

Q. 107 Mention the name of the current Chief Justice of India:

A. Justice Altamas Kabir

B. Justice P Sathasivam

C. Justice RM Lodha

D. Justice HL Dattu

 

Q. 108 The 9th Ministerial Conference of the WTO, held during 3 December – 6 December 2013, was concluded at:

A. Geneva, SwitzerlandK

B. Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

C. Warsaw, Poland

D. Bali, Indonesia

 

Q. 109 Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2013 was awarded to:

A. Mo Yan

B. James E Rothman

C. Lars Peter Hansen

D. Alice Munro

 

Q. 110 Which one of the following satellites was successfully launched by the ISRO’s Polar Satellite launch Vehicle (PSLV-C24) on 4th April 2014?

A. IRNSS-1B

B. GSAT-14

C. INSAT-3D

D. SARAL

 

Questions: 111 – 113

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: 

Five friends Satish, Rajesh, Rehman, Rakesh, and Vineet – each presents one paper to their class on Physics, Zoology, Botany, English, or Geology – one day a week; Monday through Friday. 

(i) Vineet does not present English and does not give his presentation on Tuesday.

(ii) Rajesh makes the Geology presentation, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.

(iii) The Physics presentation is made on Thursday.

(iv) Rehman makes his presentation, which is not on English, on Wednesday.

(v) The Botany presentation is on Friday, and not by Rakesh.

(vi) Satish makes his presentation on Monday.

 

Q. 111 What day is the English presentation made?

A. Friday

B. Monday

C. Tuesday

D. Wednesday

 

Q. 112 What presentation does Vineet do?

A. English

B. Geology

C. Physics

D. Botany

 

Q. 113 What day does Rakesh make his presentation on?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday

 

Q. 114 Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is

my father’s son”. Whose photograph was that?

A. His father’s

B. His own

C. His son’s

D. His nephew’s

 

Q. 115 Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.

Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Abhay related to Ranjan?

A. Son

B. Brother

C. Cousin

D. Uncle

 

Q. 116 Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.

Pointing to a lady on the stage, Bhumika said, “She is the sister of the son of the wife of my husband. How is the lady related to Bhumika?

A. Cousin

B. Sister-in-law

C. Sister

D. Daughter

 

Q. 117 Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.

Pinky, who is Victor’s daughter, says to Lucy, “Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child to Joseph”. How is Joseph related to Lucy?

A. Father-in-law

B. Father

C. Maternal Uncle

D. Grandfather

 

Q. 118 Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.

Pramod told Vinod, ‘Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”. Whom did Pramod defeat?

A. Father

B. Son

C. Father-in-law

D. Cousin

 

Questions: 119 – 123

Read the information given below to answer the questions.

(i) In a family of six persons, there are people from three generations. Each person has separate profession and also each one likes different colours. There are two couples in the family.

(ii) Charan is a CA and his wife neither is a doctor nor likes green colour.

(iii) Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a teacher.

(iv) Vanita is mother-in-law of Namita and she likes orange colour.

(v) Mohan is grandfather of Raman and Raman, who is a principal, likes black colour.

(vi) Sarita is granddaughter of Vanita and she likes blue colour, Sarita’s mother likes white colour.

 

Q. 119 Who is an Engineer?

A. Sarita

B. Vanita

C. Namita

D. Mohan

 

Q. 120 What is the profession of Namita?

A. Doctor

B. Engineer

C. Teacher

D. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 121 Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?

A. Mohan – Vanita and Charan – Sarita

B. Vanita – Mohan and Charan – Namita

C. Charan – Namita and Raman – Sarita

D. Cannot be determined.

 

Q. 122 How many ladies are there in the family?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. None of these

 

Q. 123 Which colour is liked by CA?

A. White

B. Blue

C. Black

D. None of these

 

Q. 124 Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road, 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25 kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other bus has run only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point?

A. 65 kms

B. 75 kms

C. 80 kms

D. 85 kms

 

Q. 125 ‘G’, ‘H’, ‘I’, ‘J’, ‘K’, ‘L’, ‘M’, ‘N’ are sitting around a round table in the same order for group discussion at equal distances. Their positions are clock wise. If ‘M’ sits in the north, then what will be the position of ‘J’?

A. East

B. South-East

C. South

D. South-West

 

Q. 126 Roshan, Vaibhav, Vinay and Sumit are playing cards. Roshan and Vaibhav are partners. Sumit faces towards North. If Roshan faces towards West, then who faces towards South? 

A. Vinay

B. Vaibhav

C. Sumit

D. Data is inadequate

 

Q. 127 Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Pavan is to the left of Tvan, Vipin, Chavan. Tavan, Vipin, Chavan are to the left of Nakul. Chavan is between Tvan and Vipin. If Vipin is fourth from the left, then how far is Tavan from the right?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

 

Q. 128 One morning after sunrise, Suraj was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. Which direction was Suraj facing?

A. West

B. South

C. East

D. Data is inadequate

 

Questions: 129 – 130

Read the information given below to answer the questions. Diana is three times older than Jackson; Edward is half the age of Stephen. Jackson is older than Edward.

 

Q. 129 Which one of the following can be inferred?

A. Jackson is older than Stephen.

B. Diana is older than Stephen.

C. Diana may be younger than Stephen.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 130 Which one of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Diana’s age?

A. Edward is 10 year old.

B. Both Jackson and Stephen are older than Edward by the same number of years.

C. Both A and B above

D. None of the above

 

Q. 131 Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.

0, 3, 8, 15, ?

A. 24

B. 26

C. 35

D. None

 

Q. 132 Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.

8, 16, 28, 44, ?

A. 60

B. 64

C. 62

D. 66

 

Q. 133 Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence ‘A, C, E, G, ?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

A. 290

B. 240

C. 336

D. 504

 

Q. 134 POQ, SRT, VUW, ?

A. XYZ

B. XZY

C. YZY

D. YXZ

 

Q. 135 A1, C3, F6, J10, 015, ?

A. U21

B. V21

C. T20

D. U20

 

Q. 136 Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).

Bow : Arrow :: Pistol : ?

A. Gun

B. Shoot

C. Rifle

D. Bullet

 

Q. 137 Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).

Eye : Wink :: Heart : ?

A. Throb

B. Move

C. Pump

D. Respirate

 

Q. 138 Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).

Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?

A. Cooling

B. Cave

C. Ice

D. Mountain

 

Q. 139 Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).

Prima Facie : On the first view :: In pari delicto : ?

A. Both parties equally at fault

B. While litigation is pending

C. A remedy for all disease

D. Beyond powers

 

Q. 140 Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::).

Delusion : hallucination :: Chagrin : ?

A. Illusion

B. Ordered

C. Cogent

D. Annoyance

 

Q. 141 Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and II). You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

(I) All contracts are agreements.

(II) All agreements are accepted offers.

Which of the following derivations is correct?

A. All accepted offers are contracts

B. All agreements are contracts

C. All contracts are accepted offers

D. None of the above

 

Q. 142 Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and II). You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

(I) Some beautiful women are actresses.

(II) All actresses are good dancers.

Which of the following derivations is correct?

A. Some beautiful women are good dancers.

B. All good dancers are actresses

C. Both (1) and (2)

D. None of the baove

 

Q. 143 Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements:

Some books are magazine.

Some magazines are novels.

Conclusions:

(I) Some books are novels.

(II) Some novels are magazines.

Some

A. Only (I) follow

B. Only (II) follows

C. Both (I) and (II) follow

D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows

 

Q. 144 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed bu four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Statements:

All students like excursions.

Some students go for higher education.

Conclusions:

(I) Students who go for higher education also like excursions.

(II) Some students do not go for higher education, but like excursions.

A. Only (I) follows

B. Only (II) follows

C. Both (I) and (II) follows

D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows

 

Q. 145 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed bu four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Statements:

All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey team.

‘X’ is not a good hockey player.

Conclusions:

(I) ‘X’ is not in the Indian Hockey team.

(II) ‘X’ wants to be in the Indian Hockey team.

A. Only (I) follows

B. Only (II) follows

C. Both (I) and (II) follows

D. Neither (I) nor (II) follows

 

Q. 146 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed bu four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

India : Tricolour

A. China : Sickle and Hammer

B. UK : Red Cross

C. USA : Stars and Stripes

D. None of the above

 

Q. 147 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed bu four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Statute : Law

A. Proviso : Clause

B. Chapter : Exercise

C. University : School

D. Section : Illustration

 

Q. 148 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed bu four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Buddhists : Pagoda

A. Parsis : Temple

B. Christians : Cross

C. Jains : Sun Temple

D. Jews : Synagogue

 

Q. 149 Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.

a. Law graduates are in great demand.

b. Rajesh and Krishna are in great demand.

c. Rajesh is in great demand.

d. Krishna is in great demand.

e. Rajesh and Krishna are law graduates.

Choose the correct option:

A. abe

B. ecd

C. aeb

D. eba

 

Q. 150  Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two Statements. 

a. All captains are great players.

b. Some captains are successful sports administrators.

c. Ritwik is a great player.

d. Ritwik is a captain and successful sports administrator.

e. Some successful sports administrators are great players.

Choose the correct option:

A. acd

B. abe

C. dca

D. edc

 

Q. 151 Principle:

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. The expression of willingness/desire results in a valid proposal only when it is made/addressed to some person(s). 

Facts:

‘X’ makes the following statement in an uninhabited hall: ‘I wish to sell my mobile phone for Rs. 1,000.’

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘X ‘made a statement that resulted in a promise

B. ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in a proposal

C. ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any proposal

D. ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in an agreement

 

Q. 152 Principle: A proposal (offer) should be made with an intention that after its valid

acceptance, a legally binding promise or agreement will be created. The test for the determination of such intention is not subjective, rather it is objective. The intention of the parties is to be ascertained from the terms of the agreement and the surrounding circumstances under which such an agreement is entered into. As a general rule, in the case of arrangements regulating social relations, it follows as a matter of course that the parties do not intend legal consequences to follow. On the contrary, as a general rule, in the case of arrangements regulating business affairs, it follows as a matter of course that the parties intend legal consequences to follow. However, the above rules are just presumptive in nature, and hence, can be rebutted. 

Facts: One morning while having breakfast, ‘X’, the father, says to ‘Y’ (X’s son), in a casual manner, ‘I shall buy a motorbike for you if you get through the CLAT?

A. ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in an enforceable promise

B. ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in a valid proposal

C. ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in an enforceable agreement

D. ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any enforceable agreement

 

Q. 153 Principle: Acceptance (of offer) must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror so as to give rise to a binding obligation. The expression ‘by the offeree to the offeror’ includes communication between their authorised agents.

Facts: ‘X’ made an offer to buy Y’s property for a stipulated price. ‘Y’ accepted it and communicated his acceptance to ‘Z’, a stranger.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. Y’s acceptance resulted in an agreement

B. Y’s acceptance did not result in any agreement

C. Y’s acceptance resulted in a contract

D. Y’s acceptance resulted in a promise

 

Q. 154 Principle: Acceptance should be made while the offer is still subsisting. The offeror is free to retract his offer at any time before his offer gets accepted by the offeree. Once the offer is withdrawn or is lapsed, it is not open to be accepted so as to give rise to a contract.

Similarly, if a time is prescribed within which the offer is to be accepted, the, the offer must be accepted within the prescribed time. And, if no time is prescribed, then, the acceptance must be made within a reasonable time. ‘What is a reasonable time’, is a question of fact which is to be determined by taking into account all the relevant facts and surrounding circumstances.

Facts: ‘X’ makes an offer to ‘Y’ to sell his equipment for Rs. 1,000.00. No time is specified for the acceptance. ‘Y’ sends his reply two years after receiving the offer.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There arises a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to sell/buy the equipment in question for

Rs. 1,000.00

B. There does not arise any contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to sell/buy the equipment in question for Rs. 1,000.00

C. ‘X’ is bound by his offer, and hence, cannot reject the acceptance made by ‘Y’

D. There arises a promise by ‘Y’ to buy the equipment

 

Q. 155 Principle: Minor’s agreement is void from the very beginning. It can never be validated. It cannot be enforced in the court of law.

Facts: ‘A’, a boy of 16 years of age, agrees to buy a camera from ‘B’, who is a girl of 21 years of age. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There arises a contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question

B. There arises an enforceable agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question

C. There does not arise any contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question

D. There arises a voidable contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question

 

Q. 156 Principle:

A contract which is duly supported by real and unlawful consideration is valid notwithstanding the fact that the consideration is inadequate. The quantum of consideration is for the parties to decide at the time of making a contract, and not for the courts (to decide) when the contract is sought to be enforced. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given. Facts:

‘A’, agrees to sell his mobile phone worth Rs. 20,000/- for Rs 100/- only to ‘B’. A’s consent is freely given.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There is a contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’

B. There is no contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ because consideration is not adequate

C. There is no contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ because a mobile phone worth Rs. 20,000/- cannot be sold for just Rs. 100/-

D. None of the above

 

Q. 157 Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if it is forbidden by law. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void. 

Facts: ‘X’, promises to pay ‘Y’ Rs. 50,000, if he (‘Y’) commits a crime. ‘X’ further promises to indemnify him (‘Y’) against any liability arising thereof. ‘Y’ agrees to act as per X’s promise.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There is a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

B. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which can be enforced by the court of law

C. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which can not be enforced by the court of law

D. There is a voidable contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

 

Q. 158 Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if the Court regards it as opposed to public policy. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void. 

Facts: ‘X’ promises to obtain for ‘Y’ an employment in the public service; and ‘Y’ promises to pay Rs. 5,00,000/- to ‘X’.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There is a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

B. There is a voidable contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

C. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which can be enforced by the Court of law

D. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which cannot be enforced by the Court of law

 

Q. 159 Principle: Two or more persons are said to consent if they agree upon the same thing in the same sense. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, or undue influence, or fraud, or misrepresentation, or mistake. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable (rescindable or terminable) at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. However, when consent to an agreement is caused by mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.

Facts: ‘X’ threatens to gun down ‘Y’, if he (Y) does not sell his property worth Rs. 20,00,000/- for Rs. 1,00,000/- only. As a consequence, ‘Y’ agrees to sell it as demanded by ‘X’.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. There is a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

B. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which can be enforced by the court of law.

C. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which cannot be enforced by the court of law.

D. There is no contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which voidable at the option of ‘Y’

 

Q. 160 Principle: Agreements in restraint of marriage are void.

Facts: ‘X’ enters into an agreement with ‘Y’ whereunder he agrees not to marry anybody else other than a person whose name starts with the letter ‘A’, and promises to pay Rs. 1,00,000/- to ‘Y’ if he (‘X’) breaks this agreement 

A. There is a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

B. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which can be enforced by the Court of law

C. There is an agreement between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which cannot be enforced by the Court of law

D. There is a voidable contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’

 

Q. 161 Principle: Vicarious liability is the liability of the Master of Principal for the tort committed by his servant or agent, provided the tort is committed in the course of employment. The Master or Principal is not liable for private wrongs of the servant/agent.

Facts: ‘X’ hands over some cash money at his house to ‘Y’, who is his (X’s) neighbour and is also cashier in a bank, to be deposited in A’s account in the bank. Instead of depositing the money, ‘Y’ misappropriates it.

Which of the following statements depicts correct legal position in this given situation?

A. The bank would not be liable because ‘Y’ did not do any wrong in the course of his employment

B. The bank would be vicariously liable because ‘Y’ was the employee of the bank

C. The bank would not be liable because ‘Y’ did not do any wrong

D. The bank would be liable because ‘Y’ acted as bank’s agent

 

Q. 162 Principle: A person has no legal remedy for an injury caused by an act to which he has consented.

Facts:  ‘R’, a cricket enthusiast, purchased a ticket to watch at20 match organised by the Indian Premier League (IPL). During the match, a ball struck for six hits ‘R’ on his body and injures him. He sues IPL for compensation for the medical expenses.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘R’ should be compensated as he purchased the ticket to get entertainment and not to get injured

B. ‘R’ would fail in his action, as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk

C. IPL would be liable as it did not ensure that the spectators were protected from the risk of such injuries

D. None of the above

 

Q. 163 Principle: Ignorance of his excuses no one.

Facts: ‘X’ fails to file his income tax returns for a considerable number of years. The Income Tax department serves upon him a ‘show-cause notice’ as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with interest and penalty.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘X’ may defend himself by taking the plea that his legal advisor had not advised him to file the return

B. ‘X’ would have to pay the due, as ignorance of law and failure to comply with law is no legal ground of defence

C. ‘X’ may defend himself successfully by taking the plea that he was unaware of any such law being in force

D. None of the above

 

Q. 164 Principle: Damage without the violation of a legal right is not actionable in a court of law. If the interference with the rights of another person is not unlawful or unauthorised , but a necessary consequence of exercise of defendant’s own lawful rights, no action should lie.

Facts: There was as established school (ES) in a particular locality. Subsequently, a new school (NS) was set up in the same locality, which charged lower fees, on account of which people started patronising the new school. Because of the competition, ES had to reduce its fees. ES filled a case against NS saying that NS had caused it (ES) financial loss and, thus, claimed compensation.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. Since no legal right of ES had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted

B. Since damage is caused to ES, therefore, it should be awarded compensation

C. ES should be awarded compensation, as opening of school in competition is not good

D. No compensation could be granted, as reduction in fees is good for the public

 

Q. 165 Principle: Whenever there is an invasion of a legal right, the person in whom the right is vested, is entitled to bring an action though he has suffered no actual loss or harm, and may recover damages (compensation).

Facts: ‘A’ was a qualified voter for the Lok Sabha election. However, a returning officer wrongfully refused to take A’s vote. In spite of such a wrongful refusal, the candidate , for whom ‘A’ wanted to vote, won the election. But, ‘A’ brought an action for damages.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT? 

A. Since no legal right of ‘A’ had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted

B. Since legal right of ‘A’ had been violated, therefore, compensation should be granted

C. No compensation could be granted, as ‘A’ had suffered no loss as his candidate won the election

D. Such no fundamental right of ‘A’ had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted

 

Q. 166 Principle: In a civil action for defamation, truth of the defamatory matter is an absolute defence. However, the burden of proving truth is on the defendant; and he is liable if he does not successfully discharge this burden. 

Facts: ‘D’, who was the editor of a local weekly, published a series of articles mentioning that ‘P’, who was a government servant, issued false certificates, accepted bribe, adopted corrupt and illegal means to mint money and was a ‘mischief monger’. ‘P’ brought a civil action against ‘D’, who could not prove the facts published by him.

Under the circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘D’ would be liable, since he could not prove the facts published by him

B. ‘D’ would not be liable, as such an action could curtail the right of expression and speech of press

C. ‘D’ would not be able, as media could publish anything

D. None of the above

 

Q. 167 Principle: A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter.

Facts: ‘X’ has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent to the said house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift of both the properties (house and land) to ‘Y’.

A. Gift of both the properties is valid.

B. Gift of both the properties is void.

C. Gift of house is void, but the gift of the plot of land is valid.

D. Gift of house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void.

 

Q. 168 Principle: Caveat emptor, i.e., ‘let the buyer beware’ stands for the practical skill and judgement of the buyer in his choice of goods for purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he buys has its use and worth for him. Once nought, and if the buy is not up to his expectations, then he alone is to blame and no one else.

Facts: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees, ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from ‘B’, but did not disclose to the seller (B) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found unfit. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of other purposes (such as, making caps, boots and carriage lining, etc).

Applying the fore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards remedy available to ‘A’ in the given situation?

A. ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting some remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)

B. ‘A’ (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ (the seller)

C. ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting refund from ‘B’ (the seller)

D. ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting a different variety of cloth from ‘B’ (the seller), but not the refund

 

Q. 169 Principle: The transferor of goods cannot pass a better title than what he himself possesses.

Facts: ‘X’ sells a stolen bike to ‘Y’. ‘Y’ buys it in good faith.

As regards the title to bike, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. The real owner cannot get back the bike from ‘Y’

B. ‘Y’ will get no title, as transferor’s (X’s) title was defective.

C. ‘Y’ will get good title, as he is a bonafide buyer

D. ‘Y’ will get good title, as has not committed any wrong (stolen the bike)

 

Q. 170 Principle: Negligence is a breach of duty or a failure of one party to exercise the standard of cure required by law, resulting in damage to the party to whom the duty was owed. A plaintiff can take civil action against the respondent, if the respondent’s negligence causes the plaintiff injury or loss of property.

Facts: ‘D’ went to a cafe and ordered and paid for a tin/can of soft drink. The tin was opaque, and, therefore, the contents could not be seen from outside. She (D) consumed some of the contents and then lifted the tin to pour the remainder of the content into a tumbler. The remains of a snail in decomposed state dropped out of the tin into the tumbler. ‘D’ later complained of a stomach pain and her doctor diagnosed her as having gastroenteritis and being in a state of severe shock. She sued the manufacturer of the drink for negligence. Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards liability of the manufacturer in the given situation?

A. The manufacturer is liable for negligence, as it owed a duty (to consumers) to take reasonable care to ensure that its products are safe for consumptions

B. The manufacturer is not liable for negligence, as there is no direct contract between ‘D’ and the manufacturer. No duty is owed by the manufacturer towards a particular consumer (D)

C. The manufacturer is not liable for negligence because it would otherwise become very difficult for the manufacturer to do business

D. The manufacturer could be made liable under criminal law, but not for tort of negligence

 

Q. 171 Principle: Master is liable for the wrongful acts committed by his servant; provided the acts are committed during the course of employment. However, the master is not liable if the wrongful act committed by his servant has no connection, whatsoever, with the servant’s contract of employment.

Facts: ‘D’ is a driver employed by ‘M’, who is the owner of a company. During the lunch time, ‘D’ goes to a closeby tea shop to have a cup of tea. There he (D) picks up fight with the tea shop owner (T), which resulted in some damage to his shop. ‘T’ wants to sue ‘M’ for claiming comprehension for the damage caused by the fight. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘M’ will be liable because ‘D’ is his servant

B. Both ‘M’ and ‘D’ will be liable

C. ‘M’ will not be liable because the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of D’s employment

D. ‘M’ will be liable albeit the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of D’s employment

 

Q. 172 Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees the ‘right of life’, which means ‘right to live with human dignity’. The right to life under the Constitution, however, does not include the right to die. 

Facts: ‘M’, who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from physical and mental distress, as there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he approaches the court with a prayer that he should be granted the right to die with dignity because he does not want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he has a right to put an end to it. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. The prayer can be granted, as suicide is not an offence in India

B. The prayer can be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution includes the right to die.

C. The prayer can be granted, as a person cannot be forced to enjoy right to life to his detriment, disadvantage and disliking.

D. The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution does not include the right to die

 

Q. 173 Principle: Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful justification. Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another person or doing the same through some tangible object(s). 

Facts: ‘A’ throws some stones upon his neighbour’s (B’s) premises.

A. ‘A’ has committed trespass

B. ‘A’ has not committed trespass, as he has not entered B’s premises

C. ‘A’ has committed nuisance

D. None of the above

 

Q. 174 Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it. If the interference is ‘direct’, the wrong is trespass; whereas, if the interference is ‘consequential’, it amounts to nuisance

Facts: ‘A’ plants a tree on his land. However, he allows its branches to project over the land of ‘B’. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘A’ has committed trespass

B. ‘A’ has committed nuisance

C. ‘A’ has not committed trespass

D. None of the above

 

Q. 175 Principle: Interference with another’s goods in such a way as to deny the latter’s title to the goods amounts to conversion, and thus it is a civil wrong. It is an act intentionally done inconsistent with the owner’s right, though the doer may not know of, or intend to challenge, the property or possession of the true owner.

Facts: ‘R’ went to a cycle-stand to park his bicycle. Seeing the stand fully occupied, he removed a few bicycles in order to rearrange a portion of the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked his bicycle properly, and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to ‘S’. In fact, ‘R’ was in a hurry, and therefore, he could not put back S’s bicycle. Somebody came on the way and took away S’s bicycle. The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the bicycle was not parked inside the stand. ‘S’ filed a suit against ‘R’ for conversion.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

A. ‘R’ could not be held liable for the negligence of the watchman

B. ‘S’ would succeed because R’s act led to the stealing of his bicycle

C. ‘S’ would not succeed because ‘R’ did not take away the bicycle himself

D. ‘S’ would not succeed because R’s intention was not bad

 

Q. 176 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.

Facts: ‘A’, a police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder.

A. ‘A’ is guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement

B. ‘A’ is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement

C. ‘A’ is guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint

D. ‘A’ cannot apprehend ‘Z’ without a warrant issued by a court of law

 

Q. 177 Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.

Facts: Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in order to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of Darhsan’s family. It was found that the shots of Roshan did nit hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and Tarang succeeded in killing Darshan.

A. Roshan was not liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as Rohan’s shots did not hit Darshan

B. Only Tushar and Tarang were liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as their shots hit Darshan

C. Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan

D. Roshan was liable to a lesser extent comparing to his friends for the offence of murder of Darshan, as Roshan’s shots did not hit Darshan

 

Q. 178 Principle: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.

Facts: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.

A. ‘A’ has committed the offence of causing death of his patient.

B. ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient.

C. ‘A’ has partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 179 Principle: Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such, furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false information. 

Facts: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.

A. Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate

B. Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate

C. Sawant is not legally bound to furnish true information to the Magistrate

D. Sawant has the discretion to furnish true information to the Magistrate, as the murder was committed within the limits of his estate

 

Q. 180 Principle: Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or has reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be guilty of a negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life.

Facts: ‘K’, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing the railway officers of his condition.

A. ‘K’ has committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers

B. Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, as ‘K’ who is suffering from Cholera disease has travelled by the train

C. ‘K’ has not committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers

D. Both ‘K’ and Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers

 

Q. 181 Principle: Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or negligent as to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, has committed an offence, which shall be punished in accordance with the law.

Facts: ‘X’, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the footpath and hit ‘Y’, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.

A. ‘X’ is not guilty of rash an negligent driving

B. ‘X’ should have taken sufficient care on the footpath

C. ‘X’ is guilty of rash an negligent driving

D. ‘X’ is only in part guilty of rash an negligent driving

 

Q. 182 Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.

Facts: ‘A’ knows ‘Z’ to be behind a bush. ‘B’ does not know it. ‘A’, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces ‘B’ to fire at the bush. ‘B’ fires and kill ‘Z’.

A. ‘B’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide.

B. ‘A’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide.

C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide.

D. None of them has committed the offence of culpable homicide.

 

Q. 183 Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.

Facts: ‘Z’, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of ‘A’, the keeper of a warehouse, till ‘Z’ shall return. Then, ‘A’ carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.

A. ‘A’ has committed theft

B. ‘A’ has not committed theft

C. ‘A’ lawfully sold the plate to the goldsmith

D. None of the above is true

 

Q. 184 Principle: Whoever makes any false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.

Facts: ‘A’ without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate from ‘Z’ to ‘A’, with the intention of selling the estate to ‘B’ and thereby of obtaining from ‘B’ the purchase-money.

A. ‘B’ has committed forgery

B. ‘Z’ has committed forgery

C. ‘A’ has committed forgery

D. ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed forgery

 

Q. 185 Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other. 

Facts: ‘Z’ is riding a palanquin. ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’ , seized the pole and stops the palanquin. Her ‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’, and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power. 

A. ‘A’ has used criminal force to ‘Z’

B. ‘A’ has no intention to use criminal force to ‘Z’

C. ‘A’ has used force with the consent of ‘Z’

D. None of the above is correct

 

Q. 186 Principle: One of the essential conditions for a marriage between any two persons to be solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that at the time of the marriage the male has completed the age of twenty-one years and the female the age of eighteen years. If the said condition is not fulfilled such a marriage is null or void.

Facts: ‘A’, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry ‘B’, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi in the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

A. Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

B. Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

C. Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can remain valid for A under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

D. None of the above is correct

 

Q. 187 Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 either the husband or the wife can move a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion. The term ‘desertion’ means desertion of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the petition, without reasonable cause and without the consent or against the wish of such party and includes the willful neglect of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage, and its grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. It is also said that desertion is withdrawal not from a place but from a state of things.

Facts: Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 2011 for pursuing his higher studies for a period of three years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent oh his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents’ home , and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has quite often been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to take his wife. She refuses to go to US and, in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion by her husband.

A. Rohan’s three year stay in US in the above context can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce

B. Rohan’s three year stay in US in the above context cannot amount to a ground of desertion for divorce

C. Rohan’s continued stay after three years can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce

D. Basanti’s refusal can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce

 

Q. 188 Principle: Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, no person shall be capable of being taken in adoption unless he or she is a Hindu, he or she not already been adopted, he or she has not been married, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who are married being taken in adoption,, and he or she has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who have completed the gae of fifteen years being take in adoption. 

Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March 2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave Tarun in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.

A. Adoption of Tarun by Sanjay is valid

B. Adoption of Tarun by Vijay is valid

C. Adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid

D. None of the above adoptions is valid

 

Q. 189 Principle: Under copyright law copyright subsists in original literary works also. A literary work need not be of literary quality. Even so prosaic a work as an index of railway stations or a railway guide or a list of stock exchange quotations qualify as a literary work if sufficient work has been expended in compiling it to give it a new and original character.

Facts: Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who live at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour. 

A. Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is sufficient to justify in making claim to copyright in that work which is ultimately produced

B. Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is not enough to justify in making claim to copyright in that work which is ultimately produced 

C. A street directory cannot be enough to be published as a literary work

D. None of the above statements is correct

 

Q. 190 Principle: Every person shall be liable to punishment under the Indian Penal Code and not otherwise for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Code of which he shall be guilty within the territory of India. In other words, the exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the locality of the offence committed, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.

Facts: ‘X’, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to ‘Y’, the complainant, at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to part with money amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of ‘X’ at Bombay, so that rice could be shipped from Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.

A. The offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by ‘X’ within India, even though he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime

B. The offence of cheating as per section 420 of the Code was not committed by ‘X’ within India, as he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime

C. Only the agents of ‘X’ had committed the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as they were physically present at the time and place of the crime

D. ‘Y’ was also liable for the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as he was physically present in the time and place of the crime

 

Q. 191 Principle: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, (1) an illegal act, or (2) an act which is not illegal by illegal means, through such an agreement such persons are said to have been engaged in a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence. It is said that no consummation of the crime need to achieved or even attempted.

Facts: ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ plan to kill ‘D’. They agree that only one among them, that is ‘Z’, will execute the plan. In pursuance of it ‘Z’ buys a gun and loads it.

A. Only ‘Z’ can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill ‘D’

B. All of them, i.e., ‘X’, ‘Y’, and ‘Z’, can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill ‘D’

C. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ cannot be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill ‘D’

D. None of them can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill ‘D’

 

Q. 192 Principle: ‘Wrongful gain’ is gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled. ‘Wrongful loss’ is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled.

Facts: ‘X’ takes away Y’s watch out of Y’s possession, without Y’s consent and with the intention of keeping it.

A. ‘X’ causes ‘wrongful gain’ to ‘Y’

B. ‘Y’ causes ‘wrongful gain’ to ‘X’

C. ‘X’ causes ‘wrongful loss’ to ‘Y’

D. ‘Y’ causes ‘wrongful loss’ to ‘X’

 

Q. 193 Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or that it is known to be likely to cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm. 

Facts: ‘X’ takes a plain sheet of paper from Y’s drawer without Y’s consent to write a letter to his friend.

A. ‘X’ has committed an offence in the above context

B. ‘X’ has committed no offence in the above context

C. ‘Y’ can sue ‘X’ for an offence in the above context

D. None of the above is correct in the above context

 

Q. 194 Principle: When an act which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the soundness of mind or the intoxication of the person doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence.

Facts: ‘X’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘Y’.

A. ‘Y’ has the right of private defence against ‘X’

B. ‘Y’ does not have the right of private defence against ‘X’

C. ‘Y’ has the right of private defence against ‘X’, only if ‘X’ is not under the influence of madness

D. ‘X’ has the right of private defence against ‘Y’

 

Q. 195 Principle: When a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorized to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer such property for consideration, such transfer shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in such property at any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.

Facts: ‘A’, a Hindu who has separated from his father ‘B’, sells to ‘C’ three fields, X, Y and Z, representing that ‘A’ is authorised to transfer the same. Of these fields Z does not belong to ‘A’, it having been retained by ‘B’ on the partition; but on B’s dying ‘A’ as successor obtains Z, and at that time ‘C’ had not cancelled the contract of sale. 

A. ‘A’ can sell Z to a third party

B. ‘A’ is not required to deliver Z to ‘C’

C. ‘A’ is required to deliver Z to ‘C’

D. None of the above statements is correct

 

Q. 196 Principle: Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a property must be transferred by one living person to another living person. The Act deals only with transfer of property between living persons.

Facts: ‘X’ wants to transfer his property to the presiding deity in a temple situated within the estate of ‘A’.

A. Transfer of property by ‘X’ will be valid

B. Transfer of property by ‘X’ will be invalid

C. Transfer of property by ‘X’ to the presiding deity will become a valid transfer to ‘A’

D. None of the above is correct

 

Q. 197 Principle: When there is transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of some other thing it is called exchange; while transfer of ownership for consideration of money is called sale, whereas, without consideration it becomes gift.

Facts: ‘A’ transfers his house worth Rs. 50 Lakhs to ‘B’ for a shopping building worth the same amount, as consideration, from ‘B’.

A. The transaction is a gift

B. The transaction is a sale

C. The transaction is a exchange

D. The transaction is a mortgage

 

Q. 198 Principle: One of the principles of natural justice is Nemo judex in causa sua, which means that no one should be a judge in his own cause. In other words, no person can judge a case in which he has an interest.

Facts: ‘X’, a member of the selection board for a government service, was also a candidate for selection for the same service. ‘X’ did not take part in the deliberations of the board when his name was considered and approved.

A. Selection of ‘X’ is against the principle of natural justice.

B. Selection of ‘X’ is not against the principle of natural justice.

C. Non-selection of ‘X’ will be against the principle of natural justice.

D. Non-participation of ‘X’ in the board deliberations will render his selection valid.

 

Q. 199 Principle: Strike is a collective stoppage of work by workmen undertaken in order to bring pressure upon those who depend on the sale or use of the products or work; whereas, lock-out is a weapon in the hands of the employer, similar to that of strike in the armoury of workmen, used for compelling persons employed by him to accept his terms or conditions of or affecting employment. While in closure there is permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof, in lay-off an employer, who is willing to employ, fails or refuses or is unable to provide employment for reasons beyond his control. 

Facts: Workmen of a textile factory went on strike as per law, demanding the payment of bonus. Employer of the factory refused to pay any extra allowances, including bonus, and besides he closed down the factory till the strike was stopped.

A. Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to strike.

B. Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lay-off.

C. Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lock-out.

D. Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to closure.

 

Q. 200 Principle: Trade disputes means any dispute between employers and workmen or between workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers which is connected with the employment or non-employment, or the terms of employment or the conditions of labour, of any person. Disputes connected with the non-employment must be understood to include a dispute connected with a dismissal, discharge, removal or retrenchment of a workman.

Facts: ‘X’, an employee in a sugar factory, raised a dispute against ‘Y’, the employer, through trade union regarding certain matters connected with his suspension from the employment.

A. Matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute

B. Matters connected with suspension cannot amount to a trade dispute

C. Only after dismissal, matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute

D. None of the above is correct

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	B	D	B	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	A	D	D	C	D	B	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	A	D	B	A	C	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	A	C	D	D	C	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	D	B	A	B	C	A	B	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	C	B	D	C	D	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	B	B	D	D	C	B	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	A	C	C	D	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	A	C	D	C	D	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	C	C	D	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	D	C	B	A	C	C	D	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	D	D	A	D	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	A	D	B	B	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	D	A	C	A	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	B	C	A	C	A	D	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	B	B	C	A	C	D	D	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	B	A	B	A	D	B	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	D	A	B	B	B	C	B	B	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	B	B	C	A	B	B	C	A	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	C	B	A	C	B	C	A	C	A