Q.1. Why does the cord of an electric oven not glow while it’s heating element does?
Answer: The resistance of the heating element of an electric oven is very high. As the current flows through the heating element it becomes too hot and glows red. On the other hand the cord of an electric oven low resistance hence it does not become red during the flow of current.
Q.2. Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve these resources. Why?
Answer: We need to conserve coal and petroleum because they are formed in millions of years and are non-renewable also and their rate of consumption is very high. So these are limited and cannot last for longer time.
Section – B
Q.3. What is atmospheric refraction? List two phenomena which can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction.
Answer: In atmosphere, there are layers of different densities and refractive indices, when the light ray is passed through these layers refraction of light takes place which is called atmospheric refraction.
Two phenomenon that can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction are:
Twinkling of stars.
Early sunset and delayed sunrise.
Q.4. Name a metal of medium reactivity and write three main steps in the extraction of this metal from its sulphide ore.
Answer: Zinc
The steps involved in the extraction of zinc from zinc sulphide are:
1. Roasting of sulphide ore in the presence of air to convert it into metal oxide.
2. Reduction of metal oxide with carbon to get free metal.
3. Refining of impure metal to get pure metal.
Q.5. List two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid may be differentiated and explain how.
OR
Q.5. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain multiple bonds between two carbon atoms and these compounds show addition reactions. Out of saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds, which compounds are more reactive? Write a test to distinguish ethane from ethene.
Answer: 1. Ethanol does not react with sodium bicarbonate but ethanoic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate releasing CO2 gas.
2. Ethanol does not change the colour of blue litmus paper but ethanoic acid changes the colour of blue litmus to red due to presence of carboxylic acid group.
OR
Answer: Unsaturated carbon compounds are more reactive than saturated carbon compounds. Bromine water is decolourized by ethene but there is no change of colour of bromine water with ethane.
Section – C
Q.6. What happens to a beam of white light when it gets refracted through a glass prism? Which colour deviates the most and the least after refraction through a prism? What is likely to happen if a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. Justify your answer.
OR
Q.6. A student needs spectacles of power -0.5 D for the correction of his vision.
(i) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
(ii) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
(iii) List two causes of this defect.
Answer: When white light is refracted through a glass prism, it gets split into its constituting colours at different angles. This phenomenon is called Dispersion of Light.
Forming a rainbow,
Least deviated colour is red whereas most deviated colour is violet.
When second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to first prism, recombination of the spectrum will take place and white light will be obtained.
OR
Answer: (i) Myopia.
(ii) Concave lens with the focal length of 200 cm
Given, P = -0.5 D
We have,
P = 1/f
f=1/P
f= 1/(-0.5)
f= -2m = -200cm
(iii) Two causes of Myopia are:
Elongation of eye ball.
High converging power of eyeless.
Q.7. Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies? What is this phenomenon called?
Answer: It is the sequence of arrangement of a living organism in a community in which one organism consumes another organism to transfer food energy.
Grass → Insect → Frog → Bird
The organism at a higher tropic level will have a maximum concentration of pollutants. This phenomenon is called biological magnification.
Q.8. What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Write balanced chemical equations to justify your answer.
Answer: Those oxides which behave both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides. Example: Al2O3 (Alumina)
Q.9. During the reaction of some metals with dilute hydrochloric acid, the following observations were made by a student:
(a) Silver does not show any change.
(b) Some bubbles of gas are seen when a lead is reacted with the acid.
(c) The reaction of sodium is found to be highly explosive.
(d) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium is added to the acid.
Explain these observations giving an appropriate reason.
Answer:
(a) Silver is covered with a thin layer of silver chloride, so it does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
(b) Bubbles of hydrogen gas are evolved when lead is reacted with the acid.
(c) The reaction of sodium is found to be highly explosive because sodium is very reactive in nature.
(d) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium is added to the acid because the reaction is highly exothermic in nature.
Q.10. Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the chemical equation of the reactions involved in each case.
(i) Roasting of copper (I) sulphide.
(ii) Reduction of copper (I) oxide from copper (I) sulphide
(iii) Electrolytic refining.
Answer:
Q.11. What is transpiration? List its two functions.
OR
Q.11. (a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants?
(b) Where do the substances in plants reach as a result of translocation?
Answer: The evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant is called transpiration. Functions of transpiration
1. It helps in the upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the leaves through the stem.
2. Helps in cooling the plant surface.
OR
Answer: (a) The transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called translocation. Translocation is essential for plants because without it food prepared by the leaves cannot reach other parts of the plant for their growth and development.
(b) The substances in plants reach other tissues in plants from the leaves as a result of translocation.
Q.12 What is carpel? Write the function of its various parts.
Answer: The flask-shaped organ in the centre of a flower is called carpel. It is also called a female reproductive organ of the plant. It is made up of three parts:
1. Stigma
2. Style
3. Ovary
1. Stigma is the top part of carpel and is sticky. So, it receives the pollen from the anther of stamen.
2. Style connects stigma to ovary.
3. Ovary contains female gametes of the plant and helps in reproduction.
Q.13 A student holding a mirror in his hand directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the Sun. He then directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to bum the paper?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of the focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give reason and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case.
OR
Q.13. A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
Answer: (a) He should place the sheet of paper at the focus of the mirror to burn the paper.
(b) He has a concave mirror.
(c) Yes, the sheet of paper will start burning at the focus of the mirror which will give an approximate value of focal length, i.e., the distance between the mirror and the point where the sheet of paper starts burning.
OR
Answer: A concave mirror forms a real image of the sun,
Given: Height of object, h1 = +10 cm. Focal length, f = +12 cm.
Object distance, u = -18 cm. From the lens formula,
The position of image formed is at distance of 36 cm from convex lens. Since the value of the magnification is more than 1 (it is 2), the image formed is larger than object. The minus sign of magnification shows that image is formed below the principal axis. Hence, the image formed is real and inverted,
Q.14 What are solar cells? Explain the structure of solar panel. List two principal advantages associated with solar cells.
Answer: Solar cells are the devices which convert solar energy into electricity. A simple solar cell is made up of a sandwich of a silicon-boron layer and a silicon-arsenic layer. Boron and arsenic are present in a very small amount. A piece of wire is soldered into the top of the upper layer of cell and another piece of wire is soldered at the bottom of the lower layer to pass on the current. The solar cell is covered with a glass cover for protection. Advantages:
• Solar cells have no moving parts.
• It requires no maintenance.
Q.15. (a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration, all are considered as an asexual mode of reproduction. Why?
(b) With the help of neat diagrams, explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
Answer: (a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are considered as an asexual mode of reproduction because only one parent is involved no sex cells are involved.
(b) Regeneration in planaria.
The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. Planaria reproduces by this method in which if the body of Planaria somehow gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete Planaria by growing all the missing parts.
Section – D
Q.16. A 6 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. The distance of the object from the mirror is 45 cm. Use mirror formula to determine the position, nature and size of the image formed. Also, draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
OR
Q.16. An object 6 cm in size is placed at 50 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. At what distance from the lens should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image of the object? Find the nature and size of the image. Also, draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer: Given, Height of the object = 6 cm
Focal length, f = -30 cm
Object distance, u = -45 cm
Image distance, v = ?
Height of image, hi = ?
We have,
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
Hence, the image formed is virtual, erect and magnified.
Q.17. (a) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.
OR
Q.17. What is hydrotropism? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon.
Answer: (a) lodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of thyroxine hormone by the thyroid gland Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency. Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of thyroid gland.
(b) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a small gap between a pair of neuron. This gap is called synapse. The nerve impulse are carried out to this gap by the help of neurotransmitter (chemical substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor an electrical impulse is produced with the help of chemical reaction. This electrical impulse passes through the synapse and then to the other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
OR
Answer: The movement of root of plants towards water is called hydrotropism. Take two glass troughs A and B fill each one of them two-thirds with soil. In trough A plant a tiny seedling figure
(a). In trough B plant a similar seedling and also place a small clay pot inside the soil figure
(b). Water the soil in trough A daily and uniformly. Do not water the soil in trough B but put some water in the clay pot buried in the soil. Leave both the troughs for a few days.
Now, dig up the seedlings carefully from both the trough without damaging their roots. We will find that the root of seedling in through A is straight. On the other hand, the root of seedling in trough B is found to be bent to the right side (towards the clay pot containing water) figure (b). This can be explained as follows.
In through A, the root of seedling gets water from both sides (because the soil is watered uniformly) in trough B, the roots gets water oozing out from the clay pot which is kept on the right side. So, the root of seedling in trough B grows and bends towards the source of water to the right side. The experiment shows that the root of a plant grows towards water. In other words, the root of a plant is positively hydrotropic.
Q.18. (a) What are homologous structures ? Give an example.
(b) “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing sex-determination in human beings.
Answer: (a) The structures which have the same basic design but different functions are called homologous structures or homologous organs. Example: Forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog they have same basic design of bones but perform different functions. (b) The sex of a newborn depends on what happens at the time of fertilization.
1. If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the girl child will be born and the child will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.
2. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the child born will be.
The above presentation clearly shows that it is matter of chance whether the newborn will be boy or girl and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.
Q.19. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ?
List two causes of -hypermetropia.
Explain using ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected.
Answer: Myopia is the defect in vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly whereas in hypermetropia is the defect in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly. Hypermetropia is caused due to:
1. Decrease in converging power of eye-lens.
2. Too short eye ball.
In a hypermetropic eye, the image of near by object lying at normal near point N (at 25 cm) is formed behind the retina.
Hypermetropic eye can be corrected using convex lenses. When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of hypermetropic eye, then the diverging rays of light from the object are converged first by the convex lens used. This form a virtual image of the object at another near point N’. Now, the rays can be easily focused by the eye lens to form an image on retina.
Q.20. What is sexual reproduction?
Explain how this mode of reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction.
How does this affect evolution?
Answer: The production of new organisms from two parents by making use of their sex cells is called sexual reproduction.
In sexual reproduction, more viable variations are observed than asexual reproduction as two parents is involved. In the case of asexual reproduction single parent organism gives rise to offsprings which are genetically identical to their parents. This limits the scope of variation in characters of offsprings. Due to sexual reproduction, the extent of variation is much large and therefore choices of evolution is also high.
The variations in the characters of the obtained offsprings from sexual reproduction enable them to adapt according to the environment and struggle for their existence. Over a period of time, the characters accumulate within the species and the formed species give rise to new species and this process goes on.
Q.21. Draw the paitern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor passing perpendicularly through horizontal cardboard. State and apply the right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of the field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved away from the straight conductor ?
Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer: Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb rule states that if the current-carrying wire is imagined to be held in the right hand so that thumb points in the direction of current, then the direction in which fingers encircle the wire will give the direction of magnetic field lines around the wire. If we hold the current-carrying straight wire so that thumbs Magnetic field pattern due to a straight current-carrying wire in upward direction points the direction of current, the direction of magnetic field lines will be anticlockwise. The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance of the point of observation from the wire So, as we move away from the wire the strength of magnetic decreases Current (upwards).
Section – E
Q.22. A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH papers. One of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively. Which one of these values is not correct? Write its correct value stating the reason.
OR
Q.22. What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium, copper, iron and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers?
Answer: The value of pH for water is not correct. The correct value of pH of water is 7 because it has almost equal concentration of H+and OH–, due to which it is neutral.
OR
Answer: Aluminium displaces the iron from iron sulphate and the colour of two solution changes from green to brown. No change takes place when copper strip is dipped in iron sulphate solution. No cfiange will be observed when iron strips are dipped in iron sulphate solution. The colour of the solution changes from green to colourless when zinc is added to iron sulphate solution.
Q.23 What is observed when a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to 2 mL of acetic acid taken in a test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved in this case.
Answer: CO2 gas is evolved with brisk effervescence when sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid.
Q.24. List in proper sequence four steps of obtaining germinating dicot seeds.
OR
Q.24. After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student concludes that the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism. Write two observations on the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn.
Answer: 1. The root is formed when radicle of seed grows.
2. The root grows downward into the soil and absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
3. The shoot is formed from the upward growth of plumule.
4. The green leaves are developed when the shoot comes above the ground.
OR
Answer: 1. A single parent divides to form two daughter cells.
2. The nucleus of mature cell seems elongated and a grove is formed in cell which divides the nucleus.
Q.25. List four precautions which a student should observe while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata in his school laboratory.
Answer: 1. Freshly plucked leaf should be taken for an epidermal peel.
2. Hold the slide by its edges.
3. Peel should be cut to a proper size.
4. The peel should be allowed to dry.
Q.26. Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label
(i) angle of refraction
(ii) angle of emergence and
(ii) lateral displacement.
OR
Q.26. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it zi, ze, zr, and ZD.
Answer:
Q.27. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively:
Q.1. Write two advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level.
Answer:
The exploitation of water resources will be reduced.
It helps to recharge natural wells.
Q.2. Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high? Give reason.?
Answer:The resistance of a voltmeter should be high because voltmeter is connected parallel to the component of a circuit and it also takes negligible current from the circuit in order to measure the potential difference accurately.
Section – B
Q.3. Draw electron dot structure of carbon dioxide and write the nature of bonding between carbon and oxygen in its molecule.
OR
Q.3. List two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us, giving the reason for each.
Answer:
Covalent bond (double bond) is present in between C and O.
OR
Answer: Two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds are :
Catenation: It is the ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
Tetravalency: With the valency of four, carbon is capable of bonding with 4 other atoms. This forms huge number of compounds.
Q.4. Given reasons:
(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still, it is widely used in making cooking utensils. [2]
Answer:(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction because obtaining a metal from its metal oxide is much easier than from metal carbonates and sulphides.
(b) Aluminium is highly reactive metal still it is widely used in making cooking utensils because it reacts with 02 present in air to from aluminium oxide that forms a protective layer and protects the metal from corrosion.
Q.5. The power of a lens in +5 diopters. What is the nature and focal length of this lens ? At what distance from this lens should an object be placed so as to get its inverted image of the same size?
Given, P = + 5D
We have
Power, P = 1/ f(in meter)
+5= 1/f
f= ⅕ m {1 meter = 100cm}
f= 100/5 = 20cm
Focal length, f = 20 cm (or +20 cm).
Since the focal length of the lens is positive. Therefore, the nature of the lens is convex.
Same size and inverted image is formed when
Magnification, m = -1
Also, m = v/u
v = -u
From the lens formula,
Section – C
Q.6. List two types of transport system in human beings and write the functions of any one of these.
Answer:
Lymphatic system and blood circulatory system are two types of transport system in human beings.
Functions of blood circulatory system:
It carries nutrients and oxygen to all cells in the body.
Removes CO2 from the body cells.
It carries digested food from the small intestine to other parts of the body.
It carries hormones from endocrine glands to different organs fo the body.
Q.7. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and the product of fertilisation in a flower. ?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination whereas fertilisation is the process when the male gamete present in pollen grain joins the female gamete present in ovule.
Pollination is an external mechanism whereas fertilisation is an internal mechanism which takes place inside the flower.
Site of fertilisation in flower is ovary. Product of fertilisation in flower is zygote.
Q.8. What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Write balanced chemical equations to justify your answer.
Answer: Those oxides which behave both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides. Example: Al2O3 (Alumina)
Q.9. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds ? Give an example and list its three characteristics.
Answer: A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH2 group. Example: Alkanes with general formula CnH2n+2 Characteristics:
• All the members of a homologous series can be represented by the same general formula.
• Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1 carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formulae.
• The difference in the molecular masses of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u.
Q.10. List three environmental consequences of using fossil fuels. Suggest three steps to minimise the pollution caused, by various energy sources.
Answer: The combustion of fossil fuels releases different harmful products. Three environmental consequences of using fossil fuels are:
It releases CO2 which is a greenhouse gas which traps the solar energy falling on earth and it leads to global warming.
Carbon monoxide is poisonous gas which when enters in the bloodstream stops the functioning of red blood cells to carrying oxygen from lungs to other parts of the body. It also causes death.
Sulphur dioxide released during the burning of fossil fuels is harmful for lungs and causes bronchitis and other diseases.
Steps to minimise the pollution caused by various energy sources are:
Solar cookers should be used to cook food wherever possible.
Use of Biogas as domestic fuel should be encouraged in rural areas.
Three R’s strategy-Reduce, Reuse and Recycle should be practised
Q.11. What is transpiration? List its two functions.
OR
Q.11. (a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants?
(b) Where do the substances in plants reach as a result of translocation?
Answer: The evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant is called transpiration. Functions of transpiration
1. It helps in the upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the leaves through the stem.
2. Helps in cooling the plant surface.
OR
Answer: (a) The transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called translocation. Translocation is essential for plants because without it food prepared by the leaves cannot reach other parts of the plant for their growth and development.
(b) The substances in plants reach other tissues in plants from the leaves as a result of translocation.
Q.12. What is carpel? Write the function of its various parts.
Answer: The flask-shaped organ in the centre of a flower is called carpel. It is also called a female reproductive organ of the plant. It is made up of three parts:
1. Stigma
2. Style
3. Ovary
1. Stigma is the top part of carpel and is sticky. So, it receives the pollen from the anther of stamen.
2. Style connects stigma to ovary.
3. Ovary contains female gametes of the plant and helps in reproduction.
Q.13. A student holding a mirror in his hand directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the Sun. He then directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to bum the paper?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of the focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give reason and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case.
OR
Q.13. A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
Answer: (a) He should place the sheet of paper at the focus of the mirror to burn the paper.
(b) He has a concave mirror.
(c) Yes, the sheet of paper will start burning at the focus of the mirror which will give an approximate value of focal length, i.e., the distance between the mirror and the point where the sheet of paper starts burning.
OR
Answer: A concave mirror forms a real image of the sun,
Given: Height of object, h1 = +10 cm. Focal length, f = +12 cm.
Object distance, u = -18 cm. From the lens formula,
The position of image formed is at distance of 36 cm from convex lens. Since the value of the magnification is more than 1 (it is 2), the image formed is larger than object. The minus sign of magnification shows that image is formed below the principal axis. Hence, the image formed is real and inverted,
Q.14. Which compounds are called
(i) alkanes,
(ii) alkenes and
(iii) alkynes?
C4H10 belongs to which of these? Draw two structural isomers of this compound.
Answer: (i) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by only single covalent bonds are called alkanes.
(ii) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by the double bond are called alkene.
(iii) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by the triple bond are called alkynes.
C4H10 belongs to alkane
Q.15. Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the Earth’s atmosphere? How is it produced ? Name the synthetic chemicals mainly responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere. How can the use of these chemicals be reduced?
Answer: Ozone layer absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun to the earth. It is formed high up in the atmosphere by the action of ultraviolet radiation on oxygen gas. Chlorofluorocarbons are the synthetic chemicals responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
The use of these chemicals can be reduced by:
• Replacement of chlorofluorocarbons with hydrochlorofluorocarbons because it breaks down more quickly.
• Safe disposal of old appliances such as refrigerators and freezers.
Section – D
Q.16. (a) What are the dominant and recessive traits?
(b) “Is it possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed in the next generation ?” Give a suitable example to justify this statement.
Answer: (a) The trait which can express its effect over contrasting trait is called dominant trait whereas the trait which cannot express its effect over contrasting trait or which gets suppressed by the contrasting trait is called recessive trait. The inherited trait which is not expressed will be a recessive trait.
(b) In Mendel’s experiment, when pure tall pea plants were crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea plants were obtained in F1 generation. On selfing, the pea plants of F1 generation both tall and dwarf pea plants were obtained in F2 generation. The reappearance of the dwarf pea plants in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation. The recessive trait does not express itself in the presence of the dominant trait. So, it is possible that one trait may be inherited but may not be expressed in an organism.
Q.17. (a) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.
OR
Q.17. What is hydrotropism? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon.
Answer: (a) lodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of thyroxine hormone by the thyroid gland Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency. Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of thyroid gland.
(b) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a small gap between a pair of neuron. This gap is called synapse. The nerve impulse are carried out to this gap by the help of neurotransmitter (chemical substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor an electrical impulse is produced with the help of chemical reaction. This electrical impulse passes through the synapse and then to the other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
OR
Answer: The movement of root of plants towards water is called hydrotropism. Take two glass troughs A and B fill each one of them two-thirds with soil. In trough A plant a tiny seedling figure
(a). In trough B plant a similar seedling and also place a small clay pot inside the soil figure
(b). Water the soil in trough A daily and uniformly. Do not water the soil in trough B but put some water in the clay pot buried in the soil. Leave both the troughs for a few days.
Now, dig up the seedlings carefully from both the trough without damaging their roots. We will find that the root of seedling in through A is straight. On the other hand, the root of seedling in trough B is found to be bent to the right side (towards the clay pot containing water) figure (b). This can be explained as follows.
In through A, the root of seedling gets water from both sides (because the soil is watered uniformly) in trough B, the roots gets water oozing out from the clay pot which is kept on the right side. So, the root of seedling in trough B grows and bends towards the source of water to the right side. The experiment shows that the root of a plant grows towards water. In other words, the root of a plant is positively hydrotropic.
Q.18. (a) What are homologous structures ? Give an example. (b) “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing sex-determination in human beings.
Answer: (a) The structures which have the same basic design but different functions are called homologous structures or homologous organs. Example: Forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog they have same basic design of bones but perform different functions. (b) The sex of a newborn depends on what happens at the time of fertilization.
1. If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the girl child will be born and the child will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.
2. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the child born will be.
The above presentation clearly shows that it is matter of chance whether the newborn will be boy or girl and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.
Q.19. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ?
List two causes of -hypermetropia.
Explain using ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected.
Answer: Myopia is the defect in vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly whereas in hypermetropia is the defect in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly. Hypermetropia is caused due to:
1. Decrease in converging power of eye-lens.
2. Too short eye ball.
In a hypermetropic eye, the image of near by object lying at normal near point N (at 25 cm) is formed behind the retina.
Hypermetropic eye can be corrected using convex lenses. When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of hypermetropic eye, then the diverging rays of light from the object are converged first by the convex lens used. This form a virtual image of the object at another near point N’. Now, the rays can be easily focused by the eye lens to form an image on retina.
Q.20 (a) What is the scattering of light? Explain how the colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
(b) Explain the reddish appearance of the Sun at sunrise or sunset. Why does it not appear red at noon?
Answer: (a) Scattering of light is the phenomenon in which a part of the incident light is dispersed in different directions.
Dependence of colour and scattered light on the size of particles:
When the particles like dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere are large in size, the scattered light appears white.
When the particles are extremely minute in size, they will scatter blue light present in the white sunlight.
(b) The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise ‘ and sunset is due to the scattering of blue colour present in the sunlight away from our line of sight and leaves behind the mainly red colour of the direct sunlight which reaches the human eye.
The reason for Sun not appearing red at the noon is that the light has to travel a relatively shorter distance through the atmosphere to reach us and therefore, only a litte of blue colour of the white light is scattered.
Q.21. Draw the paitern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor passing perpendicularly through horizontal cardboard. State and apply the right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of the field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved away from the straight conductor ? Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer: Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb rule states that if the current-carrying wire is imagined to be held in the right hand so that thumb points in the direction of current, then the direction in which fingers encircle the wire will give the direction of magnetic field lines around the wire. If we hold the current-carrying straight wire so that thumbs Magnetic field pattern due to a straight current-carrying wire in upward direction points the direction of current, the direction of magnetic field lines will be anticlockwise. The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance of the point of observation from the wire So, as we move away from the wire the strength of magnetic decreases Current (upwards).
Section – E
Q.22. A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH papers. One of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively. Which one of these values is not correct? Write its correct value stating the reason.
OR
Q.22. What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium, copper, iron and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers?
Answer: The value of pH for water is not correct. The correct value of pH of water is 7 because it has almost equal concentration of H+and OH–, due to which it is neutral.
OR
Answer: Aluminium displaces the iron from iron sulphate and the colour of two solution changes from green to brown. No change takes place when copper strip is dipped in iron sulphate solution. No cfiange will be observed when iron strips are dipped in iron sulphate solution. The colour of the solution changes from green to colourless when zinc is added to iron sulphate solution.
Q.23. What is observed when a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to 2 mL of acetic acid taken in a test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved in this case.
Answer: CO2 gas is evolved with brisk effervescence when sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid.
Q.24. List in proper sequence four steps of obtaining germinating dicot seeds. OR After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student concludes that the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism. Write two observations on the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn.
Answer: 1. The root is formed when radicle of seed grows.
2. The root grows downward into the soil and absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
3. The shoot is formed from the upward growth of plumule.
4. The green leaves are developed when the shoot comes above the ground.
OR
Q.24. 1. A single parent divides to form two daughter cells.
2. The nucleus of mature cell seems elongated and a grove is formed in cell which divides the nucleus.
Q.25. List four precautions which a student should observe while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata in his school laboratory.
Answer: 1. Freshly plucked leaf should be taken for an epidermal peel.
2. Hold the slide by its edges.
3. Peel should be cut to a proper size.
4. The peel should be allowed to dry.
Q.26. Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label ( angle of refraction (ii) angle of emergence and (ii) lateral displacement.
OR
Q.26. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it zi, ze, zr, and ZD.
Answer:
Q.27. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively:
Answer: Timber industries and paper manufacturing industries are based on forest produce.
Q.2. Why are the heating elements of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Answer: The resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidise (bum) readily at higher temperatures. Therefore, conductors of electric heating devices, such as toasters and electric irons, are made up of an alloy rather than pure metal.
Section – B
Q.3. Write the molecular formula of ethene and draw its electron dot structure. Answer: The molecular formula of ethene is C2H4
Electron dot structure of ethene.
Q.4. Given reasons:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil.
OR
Q.4. Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessels lose their shiny brown surfaces and gain a green coat when kept in open. Name the substances present in air with which these metals react and write the name of the products formed.
Answer: (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because of its bright and shiny surface. This property is called metallic lustre.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil because they are very reactive in nature, they react with oxygen present in air. Thus to prevent their oxidation they are kept in the oil.
OR
Answer: Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessel lose their shiny brown surfaces and gain a green coat when kept in open because silver articles reacts with sulphur compounds such as hydrogen sulphide present in the air to form silver sulphide (Ag2S) whereas copper reacts slowly with CO2 and water present in the air to form green coating of mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide.
Q.5. The absolute refractive index of Ruby is 1.7. Find the speed of light in Ruby. The speed of light in a vacuum is 3 x 108 m/s.
Answer: We know that,
Refractive index of ruby
Section – C
Q.6. On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, black copper oxide, O2 and a brown gas X is formed.
(a) Identify the type of reaction and gas X
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
(C) Write the pH range of aqueous solution of the gas X.
Answer:
(a) Decomposition reaction
The gas X is Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
(c) Oxides of non-metals are acidic. Therefore the aqueous solution of this gas would be acidic.
The pH would be less than 7.
Q.7. (a) While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper why?
OR
Q.7. How is sodium hydroxide manufactured in industries? Name the process. In this process, a gas X is formed as a byproduct. This gas reacts with lime water to give a compound Y, which is used as a bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y and write the chemical equation of the reaction involved.
Answer: (a) The process of mixing concentrated acid with water is highly exothermic. So, when a concentrated acid is added to water then heat is easily absorbed by a large amount of water. Thus it is recommended to add acid to water and not water to the acid.
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride does not contain any hydrogen ions in it, so it does not show acidic behaviour and thus does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
OR
Answer: Sodium hydroxide is manufactured by the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride
The process of manufacture of sodium hydroxide by electrolysis process is called the chloralkali process. Gas X is chlorine gas and compound Y is calcium oxychloride (Bleaching powder)
Q.8. What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example.
Write balanced chemical equations to justify your answer.
Answer: Those oxides which behave both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides. Example: Al2O3 (Alumina)
Q.9. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds ? Give an example and list its three characteristics.
Answer: A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH2 group. Example: Alkanes with general formula CnH2n+2 Characteristics:
• All the members of a homologous series can be represented by the same general formula.
• Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1 carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formulae.
• The difference in the molecular masses of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u.
Q.10. List in tabular form three distinguishing features between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:
S.No.
Autotrophic Nutrition
Heterophic Nutrition
1.
In this mode of nutition, organisms make their own food.
In this mode of nutition, the organisms do not make their own food.
2.
CO2 and H2O are required for the preparation of food as row materials.
They depend on autotrophs for their food either directly or indirectly.
3.
Chlorophyll and sunlight are essentially needed.
Chlorophyll and sunlight are not needed.
Q.11. What is transpiration? List its two functions.
OR
Q.11. (a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants?
(b) Where do the substances in plants reach as a result of translocation?
Answer: The evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant is called transpiration. Functions of transpiration
1. It helps in the upward movement of water and minerals from the root to the leaves through the stem.
2. Helps in cooling the plant surface.
OR
Answer: (a) The transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called translocation. Translocation is essential for plants because without it food prepared by the leaves cannot reach other parts of the plant for their growth and development.
(b) The substances in plants reach other tissues in plants from the leaves as a result of translocation.
Q.12. What is carpel? Write the function of its various parts.
Answer: The flask-shaped organ in the centre of a flower is called carpel. It is also called a female reproductive organ of the plant. It is made up of three parts:
1. Stigma
2. Style
3. Ovary
1. Stigma is the top part of carpel and is sticky. So, it receives the pollen from the anther of stamen.
2. Style connects stigma to ovary.
3. Ovary contains female gametes of the plant and helps in reproduction.
Q.13. A student holding a mirror in his hand directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the Sun. He then directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to bum the paper?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of the focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give reason and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case.
OR
Q.13. A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
Answer: (a) He should place the sheet of paper at the focus of the mirror to burn the paper.
(b) He has a concave mirror.
(c) Yes, the sheet of paper will start burning at the focus of the mirror which will give an approximate value of focal length, i.e., the distance between the mirror and the point where the sheet of paper starts burning.
OR
Answer: A concave mirror forms a real image of the sun,
Given: Height of object, h1 = +10 cm. Focal length, f = +12 cm.
Object distance, u = -18 cm. From the lens formula,
The position of image formed is at distance of 36 cm from convex lens. Since the value of the magnification is more than 1 (it is 2), the image formed is larger than object. The minus sign of magnification shows that image is formed below the principal axis. Hence, the image formed is real and inverted,
Q.14. What are solar cells? Explain the structure of solar panel. List two principal advantages associated with solar cells.
Answer: Solar cells are the devices which convert solar energy into electricity. A simple solar cell is made up of a sandwich of a silicon-boron layer and a silicon-arsenic layer. Boron and arsenic are present in a very small amount. A piece of wire is soldered into the top of the upper layer of cell and another piece of wire is soldered at the bottom of the lower layer to pass on the current. The solar cell is covered with a glass cover for protection. Advantages:
• Solar cells have no moving parts.
• It requires no maintenance.
Q.15. Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the Earth’s atmosphere? How is it produced ? Name the synthetic chemicals mainly responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere. How can the use of these chemicals be reduced?
Answer: Ozone layer absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun to the earth. It is formed high up in the atmosphere by the action of ultraviolet radiation on oxygen gas. Chlorofluorocarbons are the synthetic chemicals responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
The use of these chemicals can be reduced by:
• Replacement of chlorofluorocarbons with hydrochlorofluorocarbons because it breaks down more quickly.
• Safe disposal of old appliances such as refrigerators and freezers.
Section – D
Q.16. (a) List any three observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic law.
(b) How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving (i)from left to right in a period, (ii) from top to bottom in a group of the Modem Periodic Table? Give a reason for your answer.
OR
Q.16. The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in three shells having 1,3,5 and 7, electrons respectively in their outermost shells. Write the group numbers in which these elements are placed in the Modem Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms of B and D, and the molecular formula of the compound formed when B and D combine.
Answer: (a) Three observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic law are:
• The position of isotopes could not be explained.
• Wrong order of atomic masses of some elements could not be explained.
• A correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in the periodic table.
(b) (i) On moving from left to right in a , period, the metallic character of elements decreases because electropositive character decreases.
(ii) Ongoing down in a group of the periodic table, the metallic character of elements increases because of electropostive character of elements increases.
OR
Answer: A – 1st group
B – 13th group
C- 15th group
D – 17th group
Electronic configuration B – Atomic number = 13. KLM 283 D – Atomic number = 17
KLM 287 The molecular formula of the compound when B and D combine is BD
Q.17. (a) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.
OR
Q.17. What is hydrotropism? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon.
Answer: (a) lodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of thyroxine hormone by the thyroid gland Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency. Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of thyroid gland.
(b) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a small gap between a pair of neuron. This gap is called synapse. The nerve impulse are carried out to this gap by the help of neurotransmitter (chemical substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor an electrical impulse is produced with the help of chemical reaction. This electrical impulse passes through the synapse and then to the other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
OR
Answer: The movement of root of plants towards water is called hydrotropism. Take two glass troughs A and B fill each one of them two-thirds with soil. In trough A plant a tiny seedling figure
(a). In trough B plant a similar seedling and also place a small clay pot inside the soil figure
(b). Water the soil in trough A daily and uniformly. Do not water the soil in trough B but put some water in the clay pot buried in the soil. Leave both the troughs for a few days.
Now, dig up the seedlings carefully from both the trough without damaging their roots. We will find that the root of seedling in through A is straight. On the other hand, the root of seedling in trough B is found to be bent to the right side (towards the clay pot containing water) figure (b). This can be explained as follows.
In through A, the root of seedling gets water from both sides (because the soil is watered uniformly) in trough B, the roots gets water oozing out from the clay pot which is kept on the right side. So, the root of seedling in trough B grows and bends towards the source of water to the right side. The experiment shows that the root of a plant grows towards water. In other words, the root of a plant is positively hydrotropic.
Q.18. (a) What are homologous structures ? Give an example. (b) “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing sex-determination in human beings.
Answer: (a) The structures which have the same basic design but different functions are called homologous structures or homologous organs. Example: Forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog they have same basic design of bones but perform different functions. (b) The sex of a newborn depends on what happens at the time of fertilization.
1. If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the girl child will be born and the child will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.
2. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the child born will be.
The above presentation clearly shows that it is matter of chance whether the newborn will be boy or girl and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.
Q.19. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ? List two causes of -hypermetropia. Explain using ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected.
Answer: Myopia is the defect in vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly whereas in hypermetropia is the defect in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly. Hypermetropia is caused due to:
1. Decrease in converging power of eye-lens.
2. Too short eye ball.
In a hypermetropic eye, the image of near by object lying at normal near point N (at 25 cm) is formed behind the retina.
Hypermetropic eye can be corrected using convex lenses. When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of hypermetropic eye, then the diverging rays of light from the object are converged first by the convex lens used. This form a virtual image of the object at another near point N’. Now, the rays can be easily focused by the eye lens to form an image on retina.
Q.20. (a) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of a circuit containing three resistors in series connected to a battery?
(b) Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential difference across the 150 resistor when the circuit is closed.
OR
Q.20. (a) Three resistors R1, R2 and Rg are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery, ammeter, voltmeter and key.
Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination of the resistors.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network.
Answer: (a) Let three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series which are also connected with a battery, an ammeter and a key as shown in figure
When key is closed, the current starts flowing through the circuit. Take the reading of ammeter. Now change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors and take its reading. We will observe that in both the cases reading of ammeter will be same showing same current flows through every part of the circuit above.
(b) Given R1 = 50, R2 = 100, R3 = 150, V = 30 V
Total resistance, R = R1 + R2 + R3 [∵ 5, 10 and 15 are connected in series]
= 5 + 10 + 15
= 30
Potential difference, V = 30 V
Current in the circuit, I = ?
From Ohm’s law.
IR = 30 = 1 A
Current flowing in the circut = 1A
Potential difference across 15 resistors = 1R3 = 1 x 15 = 15 V .
OR
Answer: (a) Let R1, R2 and R3 are three resistance connected in parallel to one another and R is the equivalent resistance of the circuit. A battery of V volts has been applied across the ends of this combination. When the switch of the key is closed, current I flows in the circuit such that
10Ω and 10Ω are connected in series. Equivalent resistance of the circuit = 10Ω + 10Ω = 20Ω
Q.21. Draw the paitern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor passing perpendicularly through horizontal cardboard. State and apply the right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of the field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved away from the straight conductor ? Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer: Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb rule states that if the current-carrying wire is imagined to be held in the right hand so that thumb points in the direction of current, then the direction in which fingers encircle the wire will give the direction of magnetic field lines around the wire. If we hold the current-carrying straight wire so that thumbs Magnetic field pattern due to a straight current-carrying wire in upward direction points the direction of current, the direction of magnetic field lines will be anticlockwise. The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance of the point of observation from the wire So, as we move away from the wire the strength of magnetic decreases Current (upwards).
Section – E
Q.22. A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH papers. One of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively. Which one of these values is not correct? Write its correct value stating the reason.
OR
Q.22. What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium, copper, iron and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers?
Answer: The value of pH for water is not correct. The correct value of pH of water is 7 because it has almost equal concentration of Hand OH, due to which it is neutral.
OR
Answer: Aluminium displaces the iron from iron sulphate and the colour of two solution changes from green to brown. No change takes place when copper strip is dipped in iron sulphate solution. No cfiange will be observed when iron strips are dipped in iron sulphate solution. The colour of the solution changes from green to colourless when zinc is added to iron sulphate solution.
Q.23. What is observed when a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to 2 mL of acetic acid taken in a test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved in this case.
Answer: CO2 gas is evolved with brisk effervescence when sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid.
Q.24. List in proper sequence four steps of obtaining germinating dicot seeds. OR After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student concludes that the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism. Write two observations on the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn.
Answer: 1. The root is formed when radicle of seed grows.
2. The root grows downward into the soil and absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
3. The shoot is formed from the upward growth of plumule.
4. The green leaves are developed when the shoot comes above the ground.
OR
Answer: 1. A single parent divides to form two daughter cells.
2. The nucleus of mature cell seems elongated and a grove is formed in cell which divides the nucleus.
Q.25. List four precautions which a student should observe while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata in his school laboratory.
Answer: 1. Freshly plucked leaf should be taken for an epidermal peel.
2. Hold the slide by its edges.
3. Peel should be cut to a proper size.
4. The peel should be allowed to dry.
Q.26. Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label
(i) angle of refraction
(ii) angle of emergence and
(ii) lateral displacement.
OR
Q.26. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it zi, ze, zr, and ZD.
Answer:
Q.27. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively:
उत्तर:(क) अस्मिन् चित्रे वने वृक्षाः कपोता: च सन्ति।
(ख) व्याधः वने तण्डुलान् प्रासारयत् ।
(ग) कपोता: मिलित्वा जालम् आदाय नभसि उड्डयन ।
(घ) व्याधः जालं दृष्ट्वा धावति।
(ङ) कपोता: मिलित्वा जालम् उड्डीय नभसि अगच्छन्।
अथवा
मञ्जूषाप्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत। मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। [2 × 5 = 10]
प्रश्न 7.अधोलिखितं संवादं मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः पदै वाच्यपरिवर्तन कृत्वा पूरयित्वा च पुनः लिखत।। अधोलिखित संवाद को मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से वाच्य परिवर्तन करते हुए सम्पूर्ण संवाद पुनः लिखिए। [1 × 3 = 3]
रमेशः – किम् अशोकः पाठं पठति ?
सुधा – आम्, अशोकेन (i) ___ पठ्यते।
सुधाकरः – किं दिनेशः अध्यापकं नमस्करोति ? ।
अशोकः – आम्, (ii) ___ अध्यापक : नमस्क्रियते ।
शिक्षकः – किं तव माता आपणात् फलानि आनयति ?
छात्रः – आम्, मम मात्रा आपणात् फलानि (iii) ___।
संवाद :
रमेशः – किम् अशोकः पाठं पठति ?
सुधा – आम्, अशोकेन पाठः पठ्यते ।
सुधाकरः – किं दिनेशः अध्यापकं नमस्करोति ?
अशोकः – आम्ए दिनेशेन अध्यापकः नमस्क्रियते।
शिक्षकः – किं तव माता आपणात् फलानि आनयति ?
छात्रः – आम्, मम मात्रा आप्रणात् फलानि आनीयन्ते।
प्रश्न 8.अधोलिखितदिनचर्यायां रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोधकशब्दैः पूर्यन्ताम्।
अधोलिखित दिनचर्या में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कालबोधक शब्दों से कीजिए। [1/2 × 4 = 2]
(iii) तव माता मध्या द्विवादने विद्यालयात् आगच्छति।
(iv) मम जनक: सायं सार्धसप्तवादने गृहं प्राप्नोति।
प्रश्न 9.अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषाप्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः पूरयित्वा लिखत। निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति मजूषा में दिए गए अव्यय पदों के द्वारा कीजिए। [1 × 4 = 4]
प्रश्न 10.अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्किपदम् अशुद्धम् अस्ति। अशुद्धं पदं संशोध्य पुनः लिखत।
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पद अशुद्ध हैं। अशुद्ध पद को संशोधित कर पुनः लिखिए। [1 × 4 = 4]
(i) द्वे बालिके विद्यालयं गच्छति ।
(ii) किम् अहं सर्वे पुस्तकानि आदाय गच्छानि?
(iii) विजयः भ्रमणार्थं श्वः न गच्छति।
(iv) किं शकुन्तला अध्ययने रतः अस्ति?
उत्तर:(i) द्वे बालिके विद्यालयं गच्छतः।
(ii) किं अहम् सर्वाणि पुस्तकानि आदाय गच्छानि?
(iii) विजयः भ्रमणार्थ श्वः न गमिष्यति।
(iv) किं शकुन्तला अध्ययने रता अस्ति ?
खण्डः घ
पठित – अवबोधनम् (पठित-अवबोधन)
प्रश्न 11.अधोलिखित गद्यांश, पद्यं, नाटयांशं च पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत। निम्नलिखित गद्यांश, पद्य और नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।
(द) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्त शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। [2]
इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।
उत्तर: शीर्षकम्-शिक्षायाः महत्त्वम्।
खण्डः ख
रचनात्मककार्यम् (रचनात्मक कार्य)
प्रश्न 2. मित्रं प्रति अधोलिखितं पत्रं मजूषाप्रदत्तशब्दैः पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत। मित्र को लिखे गए निम्नलिखित पत्र को मजूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पूर्ण कर पुनः लिखिए। [1/2 × 10 = 5)
(ग) “अनेकानि’ इति पदं (ii) स्थलानि पदस्य विशेषणम् ?
(घ) “पश्चात्’ इत्यर्थे कि समानार्थकं पदम्। (iii) अनन्तरम् ?
(ङ) “समीपे’ इति पदस्य विलोमपदं (i) दूरे ?
प्रश्न 12.अधोलिखितं पद्यं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत । [6] निम्नलिखित पद्य को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए ।
पापिनाञ्च सदा दु:खं, सुखं वै पुण्यकर्मणाम् ।
एवं स्थिरतरं ज्ञात्वा साधुवृत्तिं समाचरेत् ।।
(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरते । (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) [1 × 2 = 2] एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए । (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) पापिनाञ्च सदां किं भवति ?
(ख) केषां सुखं भवति ?
(ग) जीवने कां समाचरेत् ?
उत्तर : (क) दुःखम् ।
(ख) पुण्यकर्मणाम्।
(ग) साधुवृत्तिम्।
(ब) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत । (केवलं प्रश्नमेकम्) पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए । (केवल एक प्रश्न) [2 × 1 = 2]
प्रकृति : -(सस्ने हम्) अलम् अलं मिथः कलहेन। अहं प्रकृतिः एवं युष्माकं जननी। यूयं सर्वे एवं मम प्रियः। सर्वेषामेव महत्त्वं विद्यते यथासमयम्। सर्वैः एव मे शोभा। न तावत् कलहेन समयं वृथा यापयेत। मिलित्व एव मोदध्वं जीवनं च रसमयं कुरुध्वम् ।
(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) [1 × 2 = 2] एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए। (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) पिकस्य संततिं कः पालयति ?
(ख) कः आत्मानं ‘नीरक्षीरविवेकी’ इति कथयति?
(ग) आत्मानं ‘करुणापरः पक्षिसम्राट’ इति कः कथयति?
उत्तर: (क) काकः।
(ख) राजहंसः।
(ग) काकः।
(ब) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नमेकम्) [2 × 1 = 2] पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए। (केवल एक प्रश्न)
(क) सर्वैः एव कस्याः शोभा वर्तते?
(ख) समयं वृथा कथं न पापयेत् ?
उत्तर: (क) सर्वैः एव प्रकृत्या: शोभा वर्तते ।
(ख) समयं वृथा कलहेन यापयेत् ।
(स) प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः उचितम् उत्तरं चित्वा लिखत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) [1/2 × 4 = 2] दिए गए विकल्पों में से उचित उत्तर चुनकर लिखित। (केवल चार प्रश्न)
Q. 1. Explain the main objective of the ‘Marshall Plan’.
Answer: The term ‘hegemony’ stands for an international system which is politically, economically or culturally dominated by a sole superpower or hyper-power. The collapse of the Soviet Union left the world with only one single power, the United States of America.
OR
Answer: Truman felt that communism did well when people were poor and suffering. It could best be resisted by providing economic aid to build up prosperity. In 1947, Marshall, the US secretary of state, put forward a plan to give billions of dollars of aid to European countries, post World War-II, so that they could recover from the shattering effects of war. Its main aim was also to assist these countries in the rebuilding of infrastructure.
Q. 2. Which one of the following statements is ‘not correct’ about the ‘Non-aligned Movement’ ?
(i) It suggested to the newly independent countries ways to stay out of the alliances.
(ii) India’s policy of non-alignment was neither negative nor passive.
(iii) The non-aligned posture of India served its interests.
(iv) India was praised for singing the treaty of friendship with the USSR to strengthen NAM.
Answer: (iv) India was praised for signing the treaty of friendship with the USSR to strengthen NAM.
Q. 3. Name any one international organisation that campaigns for the protection of human rights.
OR
Q. 3. Highlight any one security challenge faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa.
Answer: Amnesty International is an international organisation that campaigns for the protection of human rights.
OR
Answer: External wars with neighbours and internal civil wars posed a serious security challenge to newly independent countries of Asia and Africa.
Q. 4. Evaluate the role played by Sardar Patel towards the integration of the Princely States with India.
Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of the princely states firmly but diplomatically and brought most of them into the Indian Union. He addressed the concerns of the princely states and assured them that they would retain their property and states and would be allowed to run and manage public offices. Through his constant efforts, he succeeded in integrating about 562 princely states after independence. This got him the title of ‘Iron Man’.
Q. 5. Explain the concept of “Non-Party Movements”.
Answer: Non-party movements are movements started by voluntary organisations or a group of people who lose their faith in the existing democratic institutions and electoral politics or do not get the support of political parties.
Section – B
Q. 6. Mention one characteristic each of the ideologies of the USSR and the USA. [1 x 2 = 2]
OR
Q. 6. Mention any two reforms of the global trading system proposed by UNCTAD.
Answer: USA represented the capitalist ideology and USSR represented the socialist ideology.
OR
Answer: Two reforms of the global trading system of UNCTAD in 1972 :
To give the LDCs control over their natural resources exploited by the developed western countries.
To obtain access to western markets so that the LDCs could sell their products and therefore, make trade more beneficial for the poorer countries.
Q. 7. What would have happened to the world politics if India had not propagated the policy of non-alignment? [2]
OR
Q. 7. Why did India refuses to sign the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 ?
Answer: The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of countries which decided not to join any major power bloc during the cold war. India and NAM played an important role in securing international peace and security in the world. It prevented the USA and USSR from dominating over the newly independent countries and allowed the newly independent countries to remain secure and economically sound without taking favours from any bloc.
OR
Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s Prime Minister, always believed in modern science and technology. A part of such progress was a nuclear programme started by Homi J. Bhabha. India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes. The NPT treaty bans nuclear states from encouraging or giving material to non-nuclear states to acquire nuclear weapons. India did not sign this treaty as it regarded this treaty to be discriminatory.
Q. 8. “Anti-arrack movement is also considered as a women’s movement”. Support the statement with two arguments. [1 × 2 = 2]
Answer: The anti-arrack movement is considered as a women’s movement because :
It was related to domestic violence, dowry, sexual abuse at work and public places and provided a platform to tackle these issues.
It helped to increase awareness about womens’ issues and led to demand for equal representation to women in politics and granted 33% reservation to women.
Q. 9. Highlight any two reasons that you think are responsible for the split in the Congress Party in 1969. [2]
OR
Q. 9. Highlight any two lessons learnt by the people of India from the Emergency imposed in 1975.
Answer:
Nomination of N. Sanjeev Reddy an official candidate for the post of President of India in 1969, which was against the wishes of Indira Gandhi, increased the already existing gap between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate.
Revolutionary steps taken by Indira Gandhi were not welcomed by the old Congress leaders.
Indira Gandhi supported V. V. Giri as an independent candidate for the post of President of India, while the Syndicate wanted N. Sanjeev Reddy to be the President. This along with the defeat of N. Sanjeev Reddy led to the split of the Congress Party circumstances that led to the mid-term election in 1980.
OR
Answer: Two lessons learnt from emergency of 1975 are :
(i) It brought out the weakness and strength of India’s democracy. Though India ceased to be a democracy during emergency, the normal democratic functioning resumed very soon. Thus, even though . because of the emergency, the normal functioning of democracy might have ceased, still the easy and quick reinforcement provided that no emergency could kill the democratic spirit of India.
(ii) It made everyone aware of the importance of civil liberties. Courts also played an active role in restoring and protecting civil liberties of people. Many, civil liberties organisations came up after the emergency.
Q. 10. Match the facts given in column ‘A’ with those in column ‘B’ in a meaningful manner. [½ x 4 = 2]
Column ‘A’
Column ‘B’
(i) Chipko movement
Right to information
(ii) Dalit panthers
Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Anti – Arrack Movement
Fight against discrimination on the basis of caste.
(iv) Movement of Mazdoor Kisan shakti sangathan
Right of local Communities on natural resources.
Answer :
Column ‘A’
Column ‘B’
(i) Chipko movement
Right of local Communities on natural resources.
(ii) Dalit panthers
Fight against discrimination on the basis of caste.
(iii) Anti – Arrack Movement
Andhra Pradesh
(iv) Movement of Mazdoor Kisan shakti sangathan
Right to information
Section – C
Q. 11. Explain any four strengths of the European Union that make it an influential regional organisation.
OR
Q. 11. Explain the circumstances responsible for the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971.
Answer: The European Union has gradually evolved from an economic unison into a political and military unison. The EU laid foundation and put in consistent efforts for cooperation on Justice and domestic affairs, evolution of a common foreign and defence policy and establishment of a single currency. EU has a considerable political, military, economic and diplomatic influence. Its currency ‘Euro’ can pose a serious threat to the hegemony of the US Dollar. EU’s share of world trade is three times bigger than that of the USA and gives it an opportunity to be more assertive in its trade disputes with China and the USA.
The economic power of the EU also gives it power to influence the biggest economic organisations of the world like the World Trade Organisation (WTO). The EU plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military force. Its combined armed forces are almost the second largest in the world. It also holds a very important position in the UN Security Council thus giving it a lot of hold on various sectors including peacekeeping, defence and security.
OR
Answer: The East wing of Bengal had joined Pakistan as East Pakistan during partition. Between the two parts of Pakistan was about 1200 miles of Indian territory. After Partition, Pakistan’s bureau-military government did not pay much attention to East Pakistan. However, the immediate source of conflict was denial of office of Premier to Sheikh Mujibur Rehman of East Bengal whose party had won 160 out of 300 seats in the 1970 elections. The new President of Pakistan, Yahya Khan denied rights to East Bengal. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman was put behind bars.
Indian troops were charged of fighting on behalf of Mukti Bahini. India made consistent efforts to persuade Pakistan to stop harassing people in East Bengal. US threatened military action but the Indo-Soviet treaty refrained any attack. The Pakistan troops surrendered on 16 December 1971 and agreed to cease-fire. East Pakistan thus became independent in 1972 and was renamed Bangladesh.
Q. 12. Assess the role of the United Nations as the most important international organisation.
Answer: the UN is an important international organisation because it deals with war and peace and encourages countries to maintain peaceful and friendly relations with each other. Countries all over the world have conflicts and differences with each other. But the UN insists that this does not mean that they should resort to war to deal with their antagonisms. They should instead opt for peaceful methods of conflict resolution. Infact, most of the international disputes should be settled through negotiations and international organisations. The UN also helps to facilitate proper health facilities, sanitation, potable water and healthy food, to eradicate disease and also cooperates in vaccinating populations. Global environmental issues are deliberated and provides solutions are provided and major powers cooperate to mitigate the effect of climatic or security related issues. The UN thus helps to foster idea on such issues mutually.
Q. 13. Explain any four environmental concerns that have become issues of Global Politics. [1 x 4 = 4]
Answer: Environment concern in global politics is a> serious issue and is based on the following facts :
Cultivable area throughout the world is decreasing and a substantial part of existing agricultural land is losing fertility.
Fisheries have been overharvested and grasslands have been adversely affected by overgrazing.
Water bodies are suffering depletion due to pollution, leading to reduction of foodgrain’s production.
A rapid decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere or ozone layer endangers our ecosystems and human health.
Q. 14. Describe any four features of the ideology of “Swatantra Party” was founded in 1959.
OR
Q. 14. Describe the changes that took place in the ideology of the Communist Party of India from 1920 to the first general elections in India in 1952.
Answer: The Swatantra party was established to fight the licence permit Raj of the Congress party and since its inception, attracted the support of a good number of the people. After its establishment, the leaders of the party decided to work out the details of its ideology, program and organisation. The Swatantra party stood for liberal democratic ideology and it denounced populism of the Congress party.
Individual Freedom: The party emphasized its opposition to the concept of socialism, in particular, the kind of socialism practised in India. It supported unrestricted individual freedom, in which the state encouraged and assisted individuals in all 21 fields without seeking to replace them. The party believed that the key to prosperity was through increased production and any measure that restricted it was anti-social.
Industry and Trade: As the Swatantra party opposed the Congress economic policy and planning, it laid stress on decentralized distribution of industry r throughout the country side. It was not opposed to urbanization and heavy industry, but nevertheless, it accorded equal importance to small scale industries in the rural India.
Property: The party, in its ideology stressed the importance of property based on the principle of maximum freedom and minimum interference, and if the Gandhian concept of trusteeship, it stood for the fundamental right to property as envisaged in the constitution.
Education: The party believed in the synthesis of ancient and modern education, introducing the spiritual element in education to provide adequate background of human values. In fact, the party felt that the educational activities of the government, ( direct or indirect, be such to emphasize the moral obligations of those who possess wealth, to hold in trust for society 34 and a doctrine of life based on those moral obligations.
OR
Answer: In the early 1920s, communist groups emerged in different parts of India taking inspiration from the Bolshevik revolution in Russia and advocating socialism as the solution to problems affecting the country. From 1935, the Communists worked mainly from within the fold of the Indian National Congress. A parting of ways took place in December 1941, when the Communists decided to support the British in their war against Nazi Germany. Independence raised , different voices in the party. Soon after independence, the party thought that the transfer of power in 1947 was not true independence and encouraged violent ‘ uprisings in Telangana.
The communists failed to generate popular support for their position and were crushed by the armed forces. This forced them to rethink their position. In 1951, the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in the approaching general elections. In the first general election, CPI won 16 seats and emerged as the largest opposition party. The party’s support was more concentrated in Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Kerala.
Q. 15. Analyse the circumstances that you think were responsible for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.
Answer: Since 1967, significant changes took place in Indian politics. Indira Gandhi emerged as a towering leader with a charismatic personality. Party competition during this period became bitter and polarised. This period even saw tensions between executive and judicial wings of the government.
Supreme Court found many initiations of government as an infringement of the constitution. The Congress called the stand of court, an opposition to principles of democracy and parliamentary democracy. The opposition parties felt that the politics had been personalised and government machinery was being used to implement Indira Gandhi’s personal authority. There were other such activities and revolts against the government that were taking place during the period which included students, peasants, labour organisations, employees, unions and opposition parties. Indira Gandhi was found guilty by the Allahabad High Court on several accounts and was charged for malpractice during the previous campaigns during her Lok Sabha seat election. Even within the parliament ,the government was undergoing much criticism from the opposition parties. The government led by Indira Gandhi claimed that the recent war between India and Pakistan along with the Oil crisis in 1973 has drastically affected the economy of the country that has resulted in price rise of consumer goods.
Unemployment and increasing labouring population generated fume and outrage all over the nation. The government claimed that the regular strikes and protests by the citizens had paralyzed the government and its economy and there was an anomaly on the streets as well as political opposition prevailing in many parts of the country. In 1975, Indira Gandhi imposed national emergency on the ground of maintaining national integrity.
Q. 16. Describe the role of the first Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, in formulating and implementing the foriegn policy in India. [1 × 4 = 4]
OR
Q. 16. Describe any four factors that influenced the foreign policy of India after independence.
Answer: The principles of Nehru that guided the external affairs of India are :
India was to adopt a free and independent foreign policy as an autonomous nation and not merely as a satellite of another nation.
Nehru favoured to keep away from bloc politics and any alliances. He regarded cold war to be deadlier than poverty. He advocated the policy of NAM.
Nehru declared peace and freedom to be vital premises of India’s national interest.
Nehru supported the United Nations in its objective to stand for the independence of all colonial and dependent people and their full right to self-determination.
OR
Answer: The four factors that determine India’s foreign policy are :
(i) Historical Background: Since ancient times, India has been believing in the ideal of brotherhood of man in its national life. On account of such historical inheritance, India’s foreign policy consists in resolving international issues, peacefully opposing imperialism or neo-colonialism or racial discrimination and in attaching more importance to the policy of disarmament.
(ii) Geographical Setting: In South and South-east Asia, the geographical setting has k strategic importance. On account of its geographical proximity, India is determined to keep the Indian ocean an area of peace and not of belligerence.
(iii) Political Ideals and Values: India’s political ideals of world peace and disarmament and values like peace, ahimsa, truth, etc.have urged her to develop amicable relationships with other countries and to follow the foreign policy of non-alignment.
(iv) Leadership: Keeping all the factors as given above into account, political leadership plays a crucial role in advancing the national interests. Jawaharlal Nehru propounded the new policy of non-alignment. Constitutional commitment to maintain and promote international peace, India’s support to the initiatives of the UN also influenced India’s foreign policy.
Section – D
Q. 17. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following Q.s :
The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty. The middle classes were pushed to the periphery of society ……… Besides, privatization led to more disparities.
(i) What is meant by government subsidy ?
(ii) How did the withdrawal of government subsidy lead people into poverty ?
(iii) Do you support or oppose the policy of privatisation ?
Support your answer any two suitable arguments. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
OR
Q. 17. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following Q.s : The non-aligned countries were more than merely mediators during the Cold War. The challenge for most of the non-aligned countries—a majority of them were categorised as the Least Developed Countries (LDCs)—was to be more developed economically and to lift their people out of poverty. Economic development was also vital for the independence of the new countries. Without sustained development, a country could not be truly free.
(i) Name any two founder countries of Non- Aligned Movement (NAM) during the Cold War period.
(ii) Suggest any two methods to lift the people of the Least Developed Countries out of poverty.
(iii) Explain the concept of ‘sustainable development’.
Answer: (i) A subsidy or a government incentive is a form of financial aid or support extended to an economic sector generally with the aim of promoting economic and social policy.
(ii) Withdrawal of subsidy or government incentive pushed people towards poverty since they no longer received the financial aid or support they needed to maintain and earn their livelihood.
(iii) Privatisation as a policy led to a lot of disparities. States were divided into rich and poor regions, the economic gap between the classes widened, there was greater economic inequality among people. Thus, the policy did nothing but increased problems and economic gap between classes.
OR
Answer: (i) Egypt and India were the two founder nations of Non-Alignment Policy.
(ii) The two methods to lift people of LDCs out of poverty are :
To give the LDCs whole control over their natural resources.
By obtaining the access to Western markets so that the LDCs could sell their products and therefore, make trade more beneficial for the poorer countries.
(iii) Sustained development is also known as sustainable development. Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The concept of needs goes beyond simple material needs and includes values, relationships, freedom to think, act and participate, all amounting to sustainable living, morally and spiritually
Q. 18. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following Questions :
Most of the time, when we read and hear about security we are talking about traditional, national security conceptions of security related to dangers from military threats. The source of this type of danger to security is another country which, by threatening military action endangers the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity.
(i) What is meant by a national security?
(ii) Explain the traditional notion of security.
(iii) Suggest any two methods to respond to the threat of war from another country.
OR
Q. 18. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following Q.s: One of India’s major concerns has been the composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static while the UN General Assembly membership was expanded considerably. India considers that this has harmed the representative character of the Security Council. It also argues that an expanded Council, with more representation, will enjoy greater support in the world community.
(i) Why has the composition of the Security Council been said to have remained ‘static’?
(ii) How has the static composition of the Security Council harmed its representative character?
(iii) Explain India’s view about the role of the developing countries in the Security Council. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer: (i) National security refers to policy enacted by governments to ensure the survival and safety of the nation-state, including but not limited to the exercise of diplomatic, economic and military power in both peace and war.
(ii) Traditional security concerns itself with internal security. In traditional security, there is recognition that cooperation in limiting violence is possible. These limits relate both to the ends and the means of war.
(iii) In responding to the threat of war, a government has three basic choices: to surrender; to prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an unacceptable level; and to defend itself when the war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or defeat the attacking forces altogether.
OR
Answer: (i) Ever since the composition of the Security Council has been decided, its permanent member only constitutes of five most powerful nations of the world, which contribute greatly to the world in peace and security missions, while its non permanent members keep changing. This is why, it is called static.
(ii) The composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static is considered as a harm to the representative character of the Security Council. It does not represent other continents properly as it argues the fact that an expanded council, with more representation, will enjoy greater support in the world community.
(iii) The membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15 in 1965 and there was no change in number of members after that. The overwhelming fact is that the majority of UN General assembly members are developed countries, due to which, India argues that developing countries should also have a role in shaping the decisions in the Security Council, which affect them.
Q. 19. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following Q.s :
Thus began an era of multi-party system …. Our Parliament always had representatives from several political parties. But after 1989, no single party secured a clear majority of seats in the Lok Sabha till 2014. This development initiated an era of coalition governments at the Centre.
(i) Which political party won a clear majority in the Lok Sabha elections in 2014 ?
(ii) In your opinion, what are the two main problems of coalition governments ? (iii) Analyse any two merits of the multi-party system in India. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer: (i) BJP.
(ii) They form weak governments, because often there is less understanding between the partners. These governments bring unpopular represen-tatives to power which might have not been in power otherwise.
(iii) It provides a number of alternatives for people to choose their representatives from. Equal and better representation is’ facilitated to people in various regions and belonging to different communities.
Q. 20. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the following Q.s :
(i) Write the full name of the organisation represented by the tiger in this cartoon.
(ii) Explain the dilemma of Sri Lankan leadership in trying to resolve this ethnic conflict.
(iii) How did this ethnic problem affect the economic growth of Sri Lanka ? [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer: (i) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam.
(ii) The Sinhala nationalists thought that Sri Lanka should not give ‘concessions’ to the Tamils because Sri Lanka belongs to the Sinhala people only. The neglect of Tamil concerns led to militant Tamil nationalism. From 1983 onwards, tfie militant organisation, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) has been fighting an armed struggle with the army of Sri Lanka and demanding ‘Tamil Eelam’ or a separate country for the Tamils of Sri Lanka. Thus this ethnic conflict continues to plague Sri lanka.
(iii) In spite of the conflict, Sri Lanka has registered considerable economic growth and record high levels of human development. Sri Lanka was one of the first developing countries to successfully control the rate of growth of population, the first country in the region to liberalise the economy, and it has had the highest per capita gross domestic product (GDP) for many years right through the civil war.
Q. 21. In the given political outline map of India, five states have been shown as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the following format :
(i) The State that resisted its merger with the Union of India.
(ii) The State which was carved out of Assam in 1972.12345
(iii) The State where the Communist Party of India formed its Government in 1957. (iv) The State formed in 1966.
(v) The State related to Dairy Cooperative Movement under the name ‘Amul’. [1 x 5 = 5]
Q. 22. Describe any four consequences of Shock Therapy. [4 + 2 = 6]
OR
Q. 22. Describe any two features of India’s policy of non-alignment. How did this policy help India to serve its own interests?
Answer: The shock therapy administered in the 1990s did not lead the people into the promised Utopia of mass consumption. It brought ruin to the economies and disaster upon the people of the entire region. In Russia, the large state-controlled industrial complex almost collapsed, as about 90 percent of its industries were put up for sale to private individuals and companies.
The restructuring was carried out through market forces and not by government-directed industrial policies, it led to the virtual disappearance of entire industries. This was called ‘the largest garage sale in history’, as valuable industries were undervalued and sold at throwaway prices. Though all citizens were given vouchers to participate in the sales, most citizens sold their vouchers in the black market because they needed the money.
The value of the ruble, the Russian currency, declined dramatically. The rate of inflation was so high that people lost all their savings. The collective farm system disintegrated leaving people without food security, and Russia started to import food. The real GDP of Russia in 1999 was below what it was in 1989.
The old trading structure broke down with no alternative in its place. The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty. The middle classes were pushed to the periphery of society, and the academic and intellectual manpower disintegrated or migrated.
OR
Answer: India’s policy was neither negative nor passive. As Nehru reminded the world, non-alignment was not a policy of ‘fleeing away’. On the contrary, India was in favour of actively intervening in world affairs to soften Cold War rivalries.
The five principles which NAM is based upon are :
Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Mutual non-aggression.
Mutual non-interference in domestic affairs.
Equality and mutual benefit.
Peaceful co-existence.
A non-aligned posture also served India’s interests directly, in at least two ways :
First, non-alignment allowed India to take international decisions and stances that served its interests rather than the interests of the superpowers and their allies.
Second, India was often able to balance one superpower against the other. If India felt ignored or unduly pressurized by one superpower, it could tilt towards the other. Neither alliance system could take India for granted or bully it.
Q. 23. Explain any four features of the U.S. hegemony as hard power. [6]
OR
Q. 23. Explain the process of establishing democracy ‘ in Nepal.
Answer: Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower. United states have the hard power, hegemony through its military capability.
Today, U.S. has military capabilities that can reach any point on the planet accurately and in real time.
U.S. spends more on its military capabilities than the other 12 powers combined. Furthermore, a large chunk of the Pentagon’s budget goes into military research and development, in other words, technology.
Thus, the military dominance of the US is not just based on higher military spending but on a qualitative gap, a technological chasm that no power can, at present, conceivably span.
The U.S. invasion of Iraq shows that the American capacity to conquer is formidable. Similarly, the U.S. capabilities to deter and to punish is self-evident. More than 40 countries joined the US led “coalition of the willing” after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion. Thus, no country can deny the U.S. superiority in the world politics.
OR
Answer: Nepal while moving from a monarchy to a democratic government faced many challenges. These challenges were mainly the result of the triangular conflict between the monarchist forces, the democrats and the Maoists. Throughout this period, political parties and the common people of Nepal wanted a more open and responsive system of government.
In 1990, the king accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement. However, democratic governments had a short and troubled career. During the nineties, the Maoists of Nepal were successful in spreading their influence in many parts of Nepal. They believed in armed insurrection against the monarch and the ruling elite. This led to a violent conflict between the Maoist guerrillas and the armed forces of the king known as the triangular conflict. In 2002, the king abolished the parliament and dismissed the government, thus ending even the limited democracy that existed in Nepal. In 2006, there were massive, country wide, pro democracy protests, led by the Seven Party Alliance (SPA), the Maoists and social activists. Due to which the king was forced to restore the House of Representatives that had been dissolved in April 2002.
Q. 24. Analyse the concept of ‘Common but differentiated responsibilities of States towards the protection of environment. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Q. 24. Assess the political, economic and cultural effects of globalisation on India.
Answer: Common but differentiated responsibilities of states towards the protection of environment are:
(i) The developing countries felt that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries. If they have caused more degradation, they must also take more responsibility for undoing the damage now.
(ii) Moreover, developing countries are in the process of industrialisation and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions. They must be taken into account in the development application and interpretation of rules of international environmental law. This argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the Earth Summit in 1992 and is called ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’.
(iii) The 1992 United National Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) also provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system “on the basis of equality and in accordance with their common but differentiated responsibilities”.
(iv) The KYOTO Protocol is an international agreement setting targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions.
OR
Answer: Political Effect of Globalisation on India are :
(i) One of the major impacts of political globalisation is that it reduces the importance of nation-states. Many states have organized themselves into trade blocs. Emergence of supranational institutions such as the European Union, the WTO, the G-8, and the International Criminal Court etc. replaced or extended the national functions to facilitate international agreement.
(ii) Another major impact of globalization is the increased influence of Non-Government Organizations in public policy like humanitarian aid, developmental efforts etc. Many organizations have come forward with the mission of uplifting the remotest parts of India where there is massive funding of millions of dollars.
(iii) The rise of global civil society is one of the major contributions of globalisation. Multivariate groups make up civil society which often protests against capitalism.
Economic consequences of globalisation are as follows :
Globalisation usually involves greater economic flows among different countries. Some of these are voluntary and some are forced by the international institutes.
This has helped in attracting more Foreign Investment to India.
GDP, growth rate of the country has increased due to globalisation.
Cultural consequences of globalisation :
It leads to the rise of a uniform culture or what is called cultural homogenization. Imposition of values and beliefs of western culture has resulted in loss of individuality and uniqueness of Indian culture.
Western culture affects the rest of the world. The popularity of a burger or blue jeans in India has a lot to do with the powerful influence of the American way of life. Westernization has thus made India compromise with its traditional culture.
Q. 25. Describe any three features of the Congress Party that kept it as a social and ideological coalition during the freedom struggle. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Q. 25. Describe any two positive and two negative consequences of the Green Revolution. [1 1/2 × 4 = 6]
Answer: The Congress Party evolved from its origins in 1885 as a pressure group for the newly educated, professional and commercial classes to a mass movement in the twentieth century. This laid the basis for its eventual transformation into a mass political party and its subsequent domination of the political system. Thus the Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper middle-class and urban elite. But with every Civil Disobedience Movement it launched, its social base widened. Peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and villagers, workers and owners, middle, lower and upper classes and castes, all found space in the Congress. Gradually, its leadership also expanded beyond the upper caste and upper class professionals to agriculture based leaders with a rural orientation.
By the- time of Independence, the Congress was transformed into a rainbow-like social coalition broadly representing India’s diversity in terms of classes and castes, religions and languages and various interests. In this sense the Congress was an ideological coalition as well. It accommodated the revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre. The Congress was a ‘platform’ for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
OR
Answer: In 1960’s, India was facing a food crisis due to many reasons. India was dependent on U.S.A for food and U.S. put many limitations on Indian’s policies. Indian Government decided to make India self-sufficient in food. Hence the government adopted a new strategy for agricultural practices that were gradually replaced by modern technology. Use of high-yielding variety seeds and the increased use of fertilizers and irrigation are simply called Green Revolution (or) modern agricultural technology. As a result of Green revolution areas under improved seeds has gone up from about 15 million hectares during 1970-71 to nearly 75 million hectares in 1995-96.
The new varieties were of a! short-term duration and consequently, instead of growing one crop, two crops and sometimes even three crops were grown. The major benefits of the Green Revolution were experienced mainly in northern and north-western India. Unprecedented enthusiasm has prevailed among farmers in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan and Western U.P. For new wheat variety seeds, a situation developed in which the demand for seeds by farmers exceeded the supply.
Positive consequences of the Green Revolution are :
The major achievement of the Green Revolution was that it boosted the production of major cereals viz. wheat and rice.
As a result of the Green Revolution, the crop pattern in India has undergone significant changes.
Two negative consequences of the Green Revolution are :
Green Revolution has led to the concentration of wealth in the hands of the top 10 percent of the rural population.
Green Revolution had widened the gap between poor and small farmers and rich landlords. Regional imbalance also came into the forefront.
Q. 26. Analyse any four factors that led the Congress Party to a spectacular win in 1971 elections. [1 1/2 × 4 = 6]
OR
Q. 26. Analyse the justification given by the Government of India for declaring National Emergency on the night of 25th June, 1975. How far do you agree with this justification. [4 + 2 = 6]
Answer: The new Congress had something that its big opponents lacked—it had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan. The Grand Alliance did not have a coherent political programme. Indira Gandhi said that the opposition alliance had only one common programme : Indira Hatao (Remove Indira).
In contrast to this, she put forward a positive programme captured in the famous slogan : Garibi Hatao (Remove Poverty). She focused on the growth of the public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property, removal of disparities in income and opportunity, and abolition of princely privileges.
Through garibi hatao, Indira Gandhi tried to generate a support base among the disadvantaged, especially among the landless labourers—Dalits and Adivasis, minorities, women and the unemployed youth. The slogan of garibi hatao and the programmes that followed it were part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base.
OR
Answer: Emergency is one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics. One reason is that there are differing viewpoints about the need to declare an emergency. Another reason is that using the powers given by the Constitution, the government practically suspended the democratic functioning.
The Constitution simply mentioned ‘internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring Emergency. Before 1975, emergency was never proclaimed on this ground. The government argued that in a democracy, the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies. It felt that frequent recourse to agitations, protests and collective actions were no good for democracy. Supporters of Indira Gandhi also held that in a democracy, one cannot continuously have extra- parliamentary politics targeting the government. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development. All energies are diverted to maintenance of law and order.
Indira Gandhi wrote in a letter to the Shah Commission that subversive forces were trying to obstruct the progressive programmes of the government and were attempting to dislodge her from power through extra-constitutional means. Some other parties, like the CPI that continued to back the Congress during the Emergency, also believed that there was an international conspiracy against the unity of India. It is believed that in such circumstances some restrictions on agitations were justified.
On the other hand, the critics of the Emergency argued that ever since the freedom movement, Indian politics had a history of popular struggles. JP and many other opposition leaders felt that in a democracy, people have the right to publicly protest against the government. The Bihar and Gujarat agitations were mostly peaceful and non-violent. Those who were arrested were never tried for any anti-national activity. No cases were registered against most of the detainees. The Home Ministry, which is entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the internal situation of the country, also did not express any concern about the law and order situation in the country. There was no need to suspend democratic functioning and use draconian measures like the Emergency for that. The threat was not to the unity and integrity of the country but to the ruling party and the Prime Minister herself. It was, thus, inferred that Indira Gandhi misused a constitutional provision meant for saving the country to save her personal power.
Q. 27. Suggest any three methods of agitation, to highlight your problems and demands, which do not disturb the routine life of the people. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Q. 27. Suggest any three methods to accommodate the regional aspirations and maintain national integration.12345
Answer: Protests are all about expressing one’s dissent. It comes under freedom of expression but one thing must be remembered while exercising this right is that it should not offend anyone and should fall within the law of the land. The ways of protesting depends upon to what one wants to protest. It can be a Dress code or blocking the roads or say demonstrating via making dummies. All it needs is to reach to the concerned people and create mass opinion. Following are the three ways :
(i) Public Speeches: One can easily influence people using strong words and expressions without affecting the everyday routine of people. Words have the power of motivating and demotivating people easily. They can change the course of any movement without requiring much effort.
(ii) Signed public declaration: A sworn declaration (also called a sworn statement or a statement under penalty of perjury) is a document that recites facts pertinent to a legal proceeding. It is very similar to an affidavit, but unlike an affidavit, it is not witnessed and sealed by an official such as a notary public. Instead, the person making the declaration signed a separate endorsement paragraph at the end of the document, stating that the declaration is made under penalty of perjury. It is a very powerful method of protest.
(iii) The peaceful demonstration, candle marches and boycott of substances: During the transition between the wet to dry season of 1930 Mahatma (Mohandas) Gandhi led a peaceful protest against Britain’s imposed law dictating no Indian could collect or sell salt in the country. Followed by dozens, Gandhi walked over 240 miles leading protesters to the Arabian Sea to pick up a small handful of salt out of the muddy waters of the sea. Seventeen years later, after this peaceful yet defiant act, India gained independence from Britain.
OR
Answer: The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression. Militancy had erupted in Punjab; problems were persisting in the north-east; students in Assam were agitating; while Kashmir valley was on the boil. Instead of treating these as simple law and order problems, the Government of India reached negotiated settlement with regional movements. This produced a reconciliation which reduced the tensions existing in many regions. Political settlement could resolve the issue of separatism if handled with care. It is not sufficient to have a formal democratic structure. Besides that, groups and parties from the region need to be given a share in power at the State level. The regions must have a share in deciding the destiny of the nation. If regions are not given a share in the national level decision making, the feeling of injustice and alienation can spread.
Regional imlabalance in economic development contributes to the feeling of regional discrimination. Regional imbalance is a fact of India’s development experience. Naturally, the backward states or backward regions in some states feel that their backwardness should be addressed on a priority basis and that the policies of the Indian government have caused this imbalance. If some states remain poor and others develop rapidly, it leads to regional imbalances and inter-regional migrations.
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