Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

Q.1. When the total fixed cost of producing 100 units is ₹ 30 and the average variable cost ₹ 3, total cost is : (Choose the correct alternative)

(a) ₹ 3

(b) ₹ 30

(c) ₹ 270

(d) ₹ 330

Answer: (d) ₹ 330.

 

Q.2. When the Average Product (AP) is maximum, the Marginal Product (MP) is : (Choose the correct alternative)

(a) Equal to AP

(b) Less than AP

(c) More than AP

(d) Can be any one of the above

Answer: (a) Equal to AP

 

Q.3. State one example of positive economics.

Answer: Increasing the interest rate to encourage people to save is an example of positive economics.

 

Q.4. Define fixed cost. 

Answer: Fixed costs are those costs which do not vary with the level of output. For e.g. Rent of factory.

 

Q.5. Explain the central problem of “choice of technique”.

OR

Q.5. Explain the central problem of “for whom to produce”. 

Answer: The problem of “choice of technique” is the second major central problem faced by the economy ever. Basically, there are two choices of techniques i.e.,

  • Capital-intensive technique: This is the technique, in which capital is required more than the labour.
  • Labour-intensive technique: This is a technique in which labour is required more than the capital.

OR

Answer: An economy faces a major central problem

i. e., for whom the production is to be done? Production/Income is distributed either on the basis of the purchasing powers of the consumers or on the basis of requirements of the individuals.

Two types of distribution are:

  • Functional Distribution
  • Personal Distribution.

 

Q.6. What is meant by inelastic demand ? Compare it with perfectly inelastic demand.

Answer: Elasticity is a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in its price. Inelastic demand means that the demand for a product does not increase or decrease corresponding to the fall or rise in its price. In this case elasticity is less than 1, as the percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price.

For Ex.—Percentage change in quantity demanded is 10%

whereas percentage change in price = 20%

So, Elasticity (Ed < 1) = 0.5

On the other hand, when an increase or decrease in price does not affect the quantity demanded, it is known as perfectly inelastic demand.

For Ex.—Price is changed by 10% but quantity demanded remains the same i.e.,

Percentage change in quantity demand = 0

Percentage change in price = 20%

So, elasticity is 0.

 

Q.7. When the price of a commodity changes from ? 4 per unit to ? 5 per unit, its market supply rises from 100 units to 120 units. Calculate the price elasticity of supply. Give reason.

Answer:

It is inelastic, as elasticity is less than one.

 

Q.8. What is meant by price ceiling? Explain its implications.

Answer: Price ceiling is a situation when the price charged is more than or less than the equilibrium price determined by market forces of demand and supply. It has been found that higher price ceilings are ineffective. Price ceiling has been found to be of great importance in the house rent market.

Implications of Trice Ceiling’

  • Price ceiling enables the availability of basic goods at reasonable price to the poor. This enables to increase the welfare of the people.
  • When there is a fall in the price level, the demand for a good increases more than the supply of the good. Hence, it creates an excess demand for the good.

 

Q.9. Given the price of a good, how will a consumer decide as to how much quantity to buy of that good ? Explain.

OR

Q.9. What is Indifference Curve? State three properties of indifference curves. 

Answer: Consumer equilibrium refers to the situation when consumer gets maximum satisfaction/utility from the goods it consumes. It is the situation through which a consumer decides how many units of the goods to consume.

Price remains constant when MU of goods is more than its price, and in that case, consumer will decide not to purchase that good.

Also, when MU is less than its price, then also consumer will give up its consumption. As a consumer will consume only when, MU is equal to price.

MUx = Px

In the figure,

X-axis = Consumption

Y-axis = Price

E = Consumer Equilibrium

OR

Answer: A curve on a graph (the axis of which represent quantities of two commodities) linking those combinations of quantities which the consumer regards as of equal value.

IC—Indifference Curve

X-axis = Goodx

Y-axis’= Goody

Properties:

  • Higher IC gives higher level of satisfaction.
  • Two Indifference curves never intersect each other.
  • Indifference curve is convex to the origin.

 

Q.10. State three characteristics of monopolistic competition. Which of the characteristics that separates it from perfect competition and why ?

OR

Q.10. Explain the implications of the following :

(a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition.

(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly.

Answer: The main features of monopolistic competition are as under:

(1) Large Number of Buyers and Sellers : There are large numbers of firms but not as large as under perfect competition. That means each firm can control its price- output policy to some extent. It is assumed that any price-output policy of a firm will not get reaction from other firms so each firm follows the independent price policy.

(2) Less Mobility : Under monopolistic competition, both the factors of production as well as goods and services are not perfectly mobile.

(3) More Elastic Demand: Under monopolistic competition, demand curve is more elastic. In order to sell more, the firms must reduce its price.

The characteristics which separates monopolistic competition from perfect competition are :

(1) Nature of Firms: Under perfect competition, an industry consists of a large number of firms. Each firm in the industry has a very little share in the total output. The firms have to accept the price determined by the industry. On the other hand, under monopolistic competition the number of firms is limited. The firms can influence the market price by their individual actions.

(2) Nature of Price and Output: Under perfect competition, price is equal to marginal cost as well as marginal revenue whereas under imperfect competition it is not so. Although, under monopolistic competition marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal yet not equalising the price.

(3) Nature of Product: Under perfect competition, firms produce homogeneous products. The cross elasticity of demand among the goods is infinite. Under imperfect competition, all firms produce differentiated products and the cross elasticity of demand among them is very small.

OR

Answer: (a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition : There is freedom of entry and exit of firms in perfect competition. This implies that under perfect competition, in the long-run, firms earn only normal profits, so new firms does not enter or exit the market in the long-run. The firms in this competition do not earn supernormal profits or losses in the long-run. It is only in the short-run that the firms enter or exit the market.

(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly: In an oligopoly market, firms do not compete with each other for changes in the price. If the firm increases the price, rival firms may not increase it, so it will lead to a loss of the market. Consumers will shift to rival firms. On the other hand, if the firm decreases the price, the rival firms may decrease it, so it will lead to a loss of total revenue. There will not be an increase in the demand for the product. They take into consideration the decisions of rival firms, and hence, the price does not move freely and it leads to non-price competition. High selling cost prevails in the market, resources are not fully used and welfare is not maximised.

 

Q.11. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium using Indifference Curve Analysis.

Answer: According to indifference curve analysis, a consumer attains equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to an indifference curve. Consumer equilibrium is achieved where slope of indifference curve (MRS) = slope of the budget line (Px/Py).

MRS = Px ÷ Py (Ratio of prices of two goods) Given the indifference map (preference schedule) of the consumer and budget or price line, we can find out the combination which gives the consumer maximum satisfaction. The aim of the consumer is to obtain highest combination on his indifference map and for this, he tries to go to the highest indifference curve with his given budget line. He would be in equilibrium only at such point which is common between a budget line and the highest attainable indifference curve. A consumer is in equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. At this point, slope of indifference curve (called MRS) is equal to the slope of the budget line.

In the above fig, P is the equilibrium point at which budget line M just touches the highest attainable indifference curve IC2 within consumer budget. Combinations on IC3 are not affordable because his income does not permit whereas combinations on IC1 gives lower satisfaction than IC2. Hence, the best combination is at point P where budget line is tangent to the indifference curve IC2. It is at this point that consumer attains the maximum satisfaction at the state of equilibrium.

For consumer’s equilibrium, two conditions are necessary:

(a) Budget line should be tangent to indifference curve (MRS = Px/Py).

(b) Indifference curve should be convex to the point of origin (i.e., MRS should be diminishing at a point of equilibrium.)

 

Q.12. Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal revenue and marginal cost. 

Answer: Producer’s equilibrium refers to the state in which a producer earns his maximum profit or minimizes its losses. According to MR- MC approach, the producer is at equilibrium, when the Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to the Marginal Cost (MC) and Marginal Cost curve cuts the Marginal Revenue curve from below.<br> Two conditions under this approach are :

(i) MR = MC

(ii) MC curve should cut the MR curve from below, or MC should be rising.

MR is the addition to TR from the sale of one more unit of output and MC is the addition to TC for increasing the production by one unit. In order to maximise profits, firms compare its MR with its MC.

As long as the addition to revenue is greater than the addition to cost, it is profitable for a firm to continue producing more units of output. In the diagram, output is shown on the X-axis, revenue and cost on the Y-axis. The Marginal Cost (MC) curve is U-shaped and P = MR = AR, is a horizontal line parallel to X-axis.

MC = MR at two points R and K in the diagram, but profits are maximised at point K, corresponding to OQ level of output. Between OQ and Q1 levels of output, MR exceeds MC. Therefore, firm will not stop at point R but will continue to produce to take advantage of additional profit. Thus, equilibrium will be at point K, where both the conditions are satisfied.

Situation beyond OQ1 level:

MR &lt; MC when output level is more than OQ1MR &lt; MC, which implies that firm is making a loss on its last unit of output. Hence, in order to maximise profit a rational producer decreases output as long as MC &gt; MR. Thus, the firm moves towards producing OQ units of output.

 

Section – B

Q.13. Define money supply.

Answer: Money supply is the total amount of money in circulation or in existence in a country at a specific time.

 

Q.14. Which of the following affects national income? (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) Goods and Services tax

(b) Corporation tax

(c) Subsidies

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Subsides

 

Q.15. Why does the consumption curve not start from the origin? 

Answer: As consumption includes autonomous consumption and autonomous consumption can never be zero.

 

Q.16. The central bank can increase the availability of credit by: (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Raising the repo rate

(b) Raising reverse repo rate

(c) Buying government securities

(d) Selling government securities

Answer: (c) Buying government securities.

 

Q.17. Given nominal income, how can we find real income? Explain.

OR

Q.17. Which among the following are final goods and which are intermediate goods ? Give reasons. 

(a) Milk purchased by a tea stall

(b) Bus purchased by a school

(c) Juice purchased by a student from the school canteen

Answer: Real income can be calculated by applying the following formula: 

Real Income = Normal IncomePrice Index of current Year× Price Index of base year

Consider price index of base year as 100 When nominal income is given, we can convert it into real income with the help of GDP deflator.

∴ Real Income = Nominal IncomeGDP deflator100

OR

Answer: (a) It is an intermediate good because it is used by producer during production process of making tea and not for final consumption.

(b) It is a final good as, it is purchased by school for final consumption.

(c) It is a final good as, it is purchased by a student for final consumption.

 

Q.18. Define multiplier. What is the relation between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier ? Calculate the marginal propensity to consume if the value of the multiplier is 4. 

Answer: In economics, a multiplier is the factor by which gains in total output is greater than the change in spending that caused it. It is usually used in reference to the relationship between investment and total national income.

Relationship between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier

There is a direct relationship between MPC and Multiplier as, the higher the MPC, the higher the multiplier and vice versa.

 

Q.19. What is meant by inflationary gap? State three measures to reduce this gap.

OR

Q.19. What is meant by aggregate demand ? State its components.

Answer: An inflationary gap is the amount by which the actual gross domestic product exceeds the potential full-employment GDP. Three measures to reduce this gap are:

1. Fiscal Policy: Fiscal policy is the expenditure and revenue (taxation) policy of the government to accomplish the desired objectives.

In case of excess demand (when current demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment), the objective of fiscal policy is to reduce aggregate demand.

2. Monetary Policy: Monetary policy of the central bank of a country is to control the money supply and credit in the economy. Therefore, it is also called Central Bank’s Credit Control Policy. Money broadly refers to currency notes and coins whereas credit generally means loans, i.e., finance provided to others at a certain rate of interest. Monetary measures (instruments) affect the cost of credit (i.e., rate of interest) and availability of credit. Thus, it helps in checking excess demand when credit availability is restricted and credit is made costlier.

3. Miscellaneous: Other anti-inflationary measures are import promotion, wage freeze, control and blocking of liquid assets, compulsory savings scheme for households, increase in production by utilising idle capacities, etc.

OR

Answer: Aggregate demand (AD) or Domestic Final demand (DFD) is the total demand for final goods and services in an economy at a given time. It specifies the amount of goods and services that will be purchased at all possible price levels.

Components of aggregate demand are:

AD = C + I + G + (x + m)

Where

C = Consumption

I = Investment

G = Government Spending

X – M = Net Exports

1. Consumption: This is made by households, and sometimes consumption accounts for the larger portion of aggregate demand. An increase in consumption shifts the AD curve to the right.

2. Investment: Investment, second of the four components of aggregate demand, refers to the spending by firms not households. However, investment is also the most volatile component of AD. An increase in investment shifts AD to the right in the short rim and helps to improve the quality and quantity of factors of production in the long run.

3. Government: Government spending forms a large total of aggregate demand, and an increase in government spending shifts aggregate demand to the right. This spending is categorized into transfer payments and capital spending. Transfer payments include pensions and unemployment benefits and capital spending is on things like roads, schools and hospitals. Government spends to increase the consumption of health services, education and to redistribute income. They may also spend to increase aggregate demand.

4. Net Exports: Imports are foreign goods bought by consumers domestically, and exports are domestic goods bought abroad. Net exports is the difference between exports and imports, and this component can be net imports too if imports are greater than exports. An increase in net exports shifts aggregate demand to the right. The exchange rate and trade policy affects net exports.

 

Q.20. The value of marginal propensity to consume is 0.6 and initial income in the economy is ₹ 100 crores. Prepare a schedule showing Income, Consumption and Saving. Also show the equilibrium level of income by assuming autonomous investment of ₹ 80 crores.

Answer: Given that, Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) = 0.6

Initial income = ₹ 100 crores

Autonomous investment = ₹ 80 crores

C = C + c(Y)

C = 0 + 0.6(Y)

Income (₹) Consumption  Savin (₹) (1-MPC = MPS) MPS = 0.40 Investment 
100 60 40 80
200 120 80 80
300 180 120 80
400 240 160 80
500 300 200 80

 

Aggregate Demand (AD) = Aggregate Supply (AS)

AD = C + I and AS = C + S

Therefore, the equilibrium level of income is ₹ 200 crores.

 

Q.21. Explain the role of the Reserve Bank of India as the “lender of last resort”. 

Answer: A person or organisation which is ready to help the individual or organisation who is in need of immediate financial help to come out of the financial struggles is the lender of last resort. It means that if a commercial bank fails to get financial accommodation from anywhere, it approaches the Reserve Bank as a last resort. Reserve Bank advances loan to such banks against approved securities. By offering loan to the commercial bank in situations of emergency, the Reserve Bank ensures that:

  • The banking system of the country does not suffer from any setback.
  • Money market remains stable.

It preserves the stability of the banking and financial system by protecting individual’s deposited funds and preventing panic-ridden withdrawals from banks with temporary limited liquidity. For more than a century and a half, central banks have been trying to avoid great depression by acting as a lender of last resort in times of financial crisis.

 

Q.22. (a) Explain the impact of rise in exchange rate on national income.

(b) Explain the concept of ‘deficit’ in balance of payments. 

Answer: (a) If the exchange rate of a country falls with respect to the other country then its exports become cheap while imports become expensive. For example : If earlier, the exchange rate was US$1 = INR 60, and if the exchange rate decreased to US$1 = INR 70, then businesses that are selling their products in the US will receive more money. So, if my product was priced at US$5, earlier I was receiving 5*60 = INR 3Q0, now the exchange rate depreciated to INR 70, so for the same priced product in the US that is priced at US$5, I will be receiving 5*70 = INR 350. Similarly, for imports, as the ‘ exchange rate depreciated to INR 70 and if I want to purchase a Smartphone worth US$200; earlier I had to pay 200*60 = INR 12,000. Now I will pay, 200*70 = INR 14,000.

Exactly the opposite will happen when exchange rate will appreciate. For example : when US$1 = INR 60 will become US$1 = INR 50.

(b) The deficit in the Balance of Payment (BOP) is governed by the balance of autonomous transactions in the BOP. The BOP would show a deficit if the autonomous receipts are lesser than the autonomous payments. As autonomous receipt implies a receipt of foreign exchange and autonomous payment implies a payment of foreign exchange, so, it can be said that BOP would show a deficit when the foreign exchange receipts are less than foreign exchange payment which also means that the BOP deficit would reflect depletion of foreign exchange reserves of the country.

 

Q.23. Calculate (a) Net National Product at market price, and

(b) Gross Domestic Product at factor cost: 

Answer:> NDPFC = Wages and salaries + SSC by employers + Rent and interest + Dividend + Corporation tax + Undistributed profit + Mixed income

NDPFC = 1800 + 200 + 6000 + 80 +120 + 400 + 1000

NDPFC = ₹ 9600 Crores

(a) NNPMP = NDPFC + NFIA + NIT

NNPMP = ₹ 9600 + (- 70) + 100

NNPMP = ₹ 9630 Crores

 

Q.24. Explain the meaning of the following : 

(a) Revenue deficit

(b) Fiscal deficit

(c) Primary deficit

OR

Q.24. Explain the following objectives of government budget:

(a) Allocation of resources

(b) Reducing income inequalities.

Answer: (a) Revenue Deficit: A revenue deficit occurs when the net income generated (revenues less expenditures), falls short of the projected net income. This happens when the actual amount of revenue received and/ or the actual amount of expenditures do not correspond with budgeted revenue and expenditure figure.

(b) Fiscal Deficit: A fiscal deficit occurs when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. Deficit differs from debt, which is an accumulation of yearly deficits.

(c) Primary Deficit: The deficit can be measured with or without including the interest paid on the debt as expenditures. The primary deficit is defined as the difference between the current government’s spending on goods and services and total current revenue from all types of taxes.

OR

(a) Allocation of Resources: It is one of the important objectives of government budget. In a mixed economy, the private producers aim towards profit maximisation, while the government aims towards welfare maximisation. The private sector always tend to divert resources towards areas of high profit, while ignoring areas of social welfare. In such a situation, the government through the budgetary policy aims to reallocate resources in accordance with the economic and social priorities of the country.

(b) Reducing Income inequalities: Government through budget makes every possible effort to reduce income inequalities. Income inequalities are so much prevalent in an economy like India. To achieve this objective, the government uses fiscal instruments of taxation and subsidies. By imposing taxes on rich and giving subsidies to the poor, the government redistributes income in favour of poorer sections of the society. Distribution of food grain through ‘fair = price shops’ to BPL (below the poverty line) population is an important step in this direction. Equitable distribution of income and wealth is a sign of social justice.

Thus, government budget reduces income inequalities.

Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-III (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

MICRO-ECONOMIC

Q.1. The Total Revenue earned by selling 20 units is ₹ 700. Marginal Revenue earned by selling 21st unit is ₹ 70. The value of Total Revenue earned by selling total 21 units will be (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) ₹ 721

(b) ₹ 630

(c) ₹ 770

(d) ₹ 720

Answer:(c) ₹ 770

 

Q.2. In the given figure X1Y1 and X2Y2 are Production Possibility Curves in two different periods T1 and T2 respectively for Good X and Good Y. A1 and A2 represent actual outputs and P1 and P2 represent potential outputs respectively in the two time periods. 

The change in actual output of Goods X and Y over the two periods would be represented by movement from (Fill up the blank)

(a) A2 to P2

(b) A1to P2

(c) P1 to A2

(d) A1 to A2

OR

Q.2. The Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) is constant. The Production Possibility Curve, so formed would be ………… to the origin.

(Fill up the blank)

Answer: (d) A1 to A2

OR

Answer: Straight line

 

Q.3. Under imperfect competition, Average Revenue (AR) remains ………… Marginal Revenue (MR). (Fill up the blank) 

OR

Q.3. For a firm to be in equilibrium, Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC) must be …………… and beyond that level of output Marginal Cost must be …………. ” (Fill up the blank)

Answer: Greater than

OR

Answer: Equal, rising

 

Q.4. If the supply curve is a straight line parallel to the vertical axis (Y-axis), supply of the good is called as ……………. (Fill up the blank) 

(a) Unitary Elastic Supply

(b) Perfectly Elastic Supply

(c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

(d) Perfectly Elastic Demand

Answer: (c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

 

Q.5. Discuss briefly the concept of normative economics, with suitable example.

Answer: Normative economics focuses on the ideological, opinion-oriented, prescriptive value of judgements and “what should be” statement aimed towards economic development, investment project, and scenarios. Its goal is to summarize people’s desirability (or the lack thereof) to various economic developments, situations, and programs by asking or quoting what should happen or what ought to be. ‘ Normative economics is subjective and value -based, originating from personal perspectives, feelings, or opinions involved in the decision making process. Normative economics statements are rigid and prescriptive in nature. They often sound political or authoritarian, which is why this economic branch is also called “what should be” or “what ought to be” economics.

An example of a normative economic statement is : “The government should provide basic healthcare to all citizens.” As you can deduce from this statement, it is value-based, rooted in personal perspective, and satisfies the requirement of what “should” be.

 

Q.6. Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility, with the help of a hypothetical schedule. 

OR

Q.6. Elaborate the law of demand, with the help of a hypothetical schedule.

Answer: According to the law of diminishing utility, as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the extra utility that we derive from it goes on declining. Total utility will continue to rise till the point of consumption when the marginal utility becomes zero. After this point, MU becomes negative which means now the good begins to harm consumers.

Assumption of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

  • Utility can be measured in numeric terms.
  • The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).
  • All the consumers are assumed to be rational.
  • Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

The schedule indicates that as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the marginal utility derived from the consumption of each additional unit of the commodity tends to fall. With the consumption of successive units the marginal utility becomes zero and consequently become negative. The MU become zero at the consumption of 4th unit and become negative at the consumption of 5th unit.

OR

Answer: The law of demand explains the inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity. According to this law, ‘other things remaining constant’ (ceteris paribus), price and quantity demanded of a commodity move in the opposite direction. When the price of the commodity increases, the quantity demanded falls and when the price decreases, the quantity demanded increases, provided factors other than price remain constant. More units of a commodity are purchased at a lower price because of a substitution effect and income effect.

Following are the assumptions of law of demand :

(a) No change in consumer’s income.

(b) No change in the price of related goods.

(c) No change in the consumer’s taste, preferences and fashion.

(d) No expectation of change in the future prices of the goods.

(e) No change in the population.

Demand schedule

Price of Sugar (₹ per kg) 20 40 50 70
Quantity 100 75 60 40


The demand schedule shows that the consumer will demand more sugar at a lower price, other things being constant. When the price of sugar is ₹ 20 per kg the quantity demanded will be 100 kg but when price increase to ₹ 40 the demand decreases to 75 kg and 50 Kg so on. This shows that the price and demand are inversely related

 

Q.7. The market for a good is in equilibrium. How would an increase in an input price affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant ? Explain using a diagram.

Answer: Input price refers to the money paid to the factors of production in return for their productive services. As the input price rises, the cost of production also rises and produc-tion levels falls. This leads to a leftward shift in the supply curve.

This leads to excess demand in the market. It leads to competition among buyers. Due to this, the price starts rising. As the price rises, demand contracts and supply expands. This will continue until there is no more excess demand.

Finally equilibrium prices rises from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity falls from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.8. (a) The coefficient of price elasticity of demand for Good X is (-) 0-2 . If there is a 5% increase in the price of the good, by what percentage will the quantity demanded for the good fall?

(b) Arrange the following coefficient of price elasticity of demand in ascending order : (-) 3.1, (-) 0.2, (-) 1.1 

OR

Q.8. How would the demand for a commodity be affected by a change in “tastes and preferences” of the consumers in favour of the commodity? Explain using a diagram. Answer:  (a) 

Percentage change in Quantity demanded = -1% Elasticity of demand is unitary elastic and the percentage fall in quantity demanded is 1%.

(b) Ascending order (-) 0.2, (-)1.1, (-)3.1.

OR

Answer:  Taste and preference is one of the factors affecting individual demand. If the consumers in the market have started liking a particular commodity, the demand for that commodity will increase. On the other hand, if there is a disliking for a particular commodity or preference for a commodity is falling, demand will decrease.

So change in taste and preference of the commodity in favour of the other commodity, will shift the demand curve towards right from DD to D1 D1.

 

Q.9. The market for a good is in equilibrium. Explain, using a diagram, how an improvement in technology for producing the goods would affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant. 

Answer: Updated technology helps to increase production in less time and cost. Due to this, the expected profit margin of a producer increases and he produces more output. 

Hence, the supply of the commodity rises and the supply curve shifts towards the right.

This leads to an excess supply in the market. It increases the competition among the sellers. Due to this, the prices starts falling. As the price falls, demand expands and supply contracts. This continues till there is more excess supply in the market.<br> Finally, equilibrium prices falls from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity rises from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.10. Explain the meaning of the following features of the Oligopoly Market : 

(a) Non-Price Competition

(b) Few Sellers

Answer: (a) Non-price Competition: Oligopoly firm not only competes through price but also on the basis of non-price competition. Product variation and advertisement are the two main forms of non price competition as they fear price war. Normally, the oligopoly firms do not respond to a rise in price by the rivals. However/they have to respond if a rival firm reduces the price of the product.

Implication : This results in price rigidity in the market.

(b) Few Sellers: Under Oligopoly, there are only a few firms, producing a commodity. The product can be homogeneous or differentiated. These firms can influence the price and output by their actions.

Each firm produces significant portion of total output. There exists competition among different firms and each firm try to manipulate both price and volume of production. The number of buyers are large.

Implications: The number of firms is so small that an action by any firm is likely to affect the other firm. So every firm keeps a close watch on the actions of each other.

 

Q.11. (a) “A firm under perfect competition is a price taker, whereas a firm under monopoly is a price maker”. Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.

(b) What is meant by “product differentiation”? Explain with example.

Answer: (a)Thegivenstatmentis true.Equilibrium price in a perfect market is determined by the industry not by an individual firm. The price is determined by the intersection of demand and supply of an industry which is accepted by all the firms, thus, an individual firm is a price taker while industry is a price maker in this case. Price-Determination under Perfect Competition.

On the other hand, in monopoly market, the firm is a price maker as it has full control over the supply of its commodity because :

  • There is no competition in the market
  • There are barriers in the entry of new firms in a monopoly market.

Therefore, monopolist can influence the market price by varying its supply. It can increase the price by supplying less and reduce the price by supplying more.

(b) Product Differentiation: Under this market products of different firms are not homogeneous but are close substitutes of each other. Products are differentiated from one another in terms of brand name, colour, shape, quality, type, etc. Due to product differentiation, firms here enjoy control over prices and have its own price policy.

For example, there are a number of toothpastes available in the market like Colgate, Closeup, Pepsodent etc.

Implications: Buyers of the products differentiate between the same kind of products produced by different firms. Therefore, they are also ready to pay different prices for the same product produced by different firms. This gives power to the firm to influence the price of the product.

 

Q.12. Explain the following conditions : 

(a) Movement along the same indifference curve.

(b) Shift from a lower to a higher indifference curve.

OR

Q.12. Explain the law of Equi-Marginal Utility.

Answer: (a) Movement along the same indifference curve : All the points along with the same indifference curve represents all those combinations of two commodities which provides the same level of satisfaction to the consumer. Level of satisfaction remains constant whether we move upward or downward along the same indifference curve. In order to increase the consumption of one commodity the consumer has to sacrifice the consumption of the other “and he moves up and down on the same indifference curve.

In the present diagram, combination A (OX + OY) provides the satisfaction equal to combination B (OX1 + OY1).

(b) Shift from lower to a higher indifference curve : Curves nearer to origin represent lower level of satisfaction and curves which are away from origin represent higher level of satisfaction. It means as we move away from origin, level of satisfaction continuously increases.

In the present diagram IC2 represent higher level of satisfaction in comparison to IC1 and in the same way IC3 represent satisfaction more than IC1 and IC2 .

So if there are three indifferent curves in a single diagram then they will represent three different levels of satisfaction.

OR

Answer: Law of Equi-marginal utility states that a consumer allocates his expenditure on various commodities in such a manner that the utility derived from each additional unit of the rupee spent on each of the commodities is equal.

The ratio of the MU to price of X must be equal to the ratio of MU and price of Y.

MUx/Px = MUy/Py…………… = MUn/Pn

This is known as a law of equi-marginal utility. It means the equality of the MU of the last rupee spent on each good. If Mux /Px is greater than My/Py, it means that MU from the last rupee spent on good X is greater than MU of the last rupee spent on good Y. This induces the consumer to transfer the expenditure from Y to X. The consumption of X rises and MUx falls, and MU of Y rises. This act continues till MUx/Px and MUy/Py are equal.

Assumptions of Law of Equi Marginal Utility

1. Utility can be measured in numeric terms.

2. The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).

3. All the consumers are assumed to be rational.

4. Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

For e.g.: A consumer consumers 2 commodities X and Y for ₹ 3/unit and ₹ 2/unit respectively. It is assumed that MUR = ₹ 2

Section-B

MACRO-ECONOMICS

Q.13. Primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when ………….. (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Revenue deficit is zero

(b) Net interest payments are zero

(c) Fiscal deficit is zero

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

Answer:

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

 

Q.14. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may …………… (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio

(c) Sell Government securities in open market

(d) Increase Bank Rate

Answer: (a) Reduce Cash Reserve ratio.

 

Q.15. What do you mean by a direct tax?

OR

Q.15. What do you mean by an indirect tax?

Answer: Direct tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on the same person. It is progressive in nature. Example-Income tax and Property tax.

OR

Answer: Indirect tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on different persons. It is regressive in nature. Example- VAT, custom duty.

 

Q.16. Define ‘money multiplier’. 

Answer: When the primary cash deposits in the banking system leads to multiple expansion in the total deposits, it is called as money multiplier. It is inversely related to legal reserve ratio.

 

Q.17. Calculate change in final income, if the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0 8 and change in initial investment is ₹ 1,000 crores.

Answer: MPC = 0.8 and change in initial investment = ₹ 1000 crores

Change in income = ₹ 5000 crores.

 

Q.18. Estimate the change in final income if Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0-75 and change in initial investment is ₹ 2,000 crores. 

Answer: MPC = 0.75

Change in investment = ₹ 2000

Change in income = ₹ 8000 crore.

 

Q.19. Classify the following statement as revenue receipts or capital receipts. Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 

(a) Financial help from a multinational corporation for victims in a food affected area.

(b) Sale of shares of a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) to a private company, Y Ltd.

(c) Dividends paid to the Government by the State Bank of India.

(d) Borrowings from International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Answer: (a) Financial help from a multinational company is an aid to the government so it is a revenue receipt as it does not create any liability and reduction in assets.

 (b) It is a capital receipt. As sale of shares will reduce the assets of the PSU.

(c) Dividends paid to the government is a revenue receipt as it neither creates any liability nor reduces the assets.

(d) It is a capital receipt. It increases the liability of the government.

 

Q.20. Discuss briefly the “credit controller” function of Central Bank.

Answer: Central Bank as a credit controller:

It is the most important function of Central Bank. By controlling the credit effectively, Central Bank establishes stability not only in the internal price level but also in the foreign exchange rate and full employment.

This function helps to meet some definite objectives such as price stability, economic growth, exchange rate stability etc. These objectives are achieved by regulating money supply. It includes two types of measures :

(a) Quantitative measures: It includes Bank rate, Repo rate, Open Market Operations (OMO), CRR, SLR etc.

(b) Qualitative measures: It includes moral suasion, margin requirements, direct actions etc.

 

Q.21. Distinguish between ‘Qualitative and Quantitative tools’ of credit control as may be used by a Central Bank. 

Answer:

 

Q.22. (a) Define “Trade Surplus” and “Trade Deficit”.

(b) Discuss briefly the concept of managed floating system of foreign exchange rate determination. 

Answer: (a) Trade surplus refers to the excess of exports of goods over the imports of goods. Trade deficit refers to the excess of import of goods over the export of goods.

(b) Managed floating exchange rate system- It is a system in which the foreign exchange rate is determined by the market forces and central bank influences the exchange rate through intervention in the foreign exchange market. Central bank interferes to restrict the fluctuations in the exchange rate within limits. For this central bank maintains the reserve of foreign exchange to ensure that the exchange rate stays within the targeted value. It is also known as “Dirty floating”.

 

Q.23. Discuss the adjustment mechanism in the following situations :

(a) Aggregate demand is lesser than Aggregate Supply.

(b) Ex-Ante Investments are greater than Ex- Ante Savings.

Answer: (a) At the income level above the equilibrium, the planned aggregate demand (AD) is less than the aggregate supply (AS). This implies that there is an excess availability of goods and services in an economy. This surplus in goods is added to the inventory stock of goods. The rise in the inventories above a desired level reduces the production which leads to the decrease in income and employment in the economy. This process continues till AD gets equal to AS.

(b) Adjustment Mechanism when planned in-vestment is greater than planned savings :

(i) When planned (ex-ante) saving is greater than planned investment. Suppose firms plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 25,000 crores, it shows consumption expenditure has decreased. Consequently, AD falls short of AS. Due to excess supply there will be stockpiling of unsold goods, i.e., unintended unplanned inventories will accumulate. At this, the producers will cut down employment and produce less. National income will fall and as a result planned saving will start falling until it becomes equal to planned investment. It is at this point equilibrium level of income is determined.

(ii) When planned (ex-ante) saving is less than planned investment. Suppose producers plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 15,000 crores, then AD (or consumption expenditure) is more than AS. Production will have to be increased to meet the excess demand. Consequently national income will increase leading to rise in saving until saving becomes equal to investment. It is here that equilibrium level of income is established because what the savers intend to save becomes equal to what the investors intend to invest. If planned saving and planned investment are equal, then output, income, employment and the price level will be constant.

 

Q.24. (a) Distinguish between ‘Trade Deficit” and ‘Current Account Deficit’. 

(b) Discuss briefly the concept of flexible exchange rate system of foreign exchange rate determination.

Answer: (a)

Trade Deficit Current Account Deficit
1. Trade deficit refers to the excess of import of goods over the export of goods. Current account deficit refers to the excess of current account,
Payments over current account receipts.
2. It is a narrower term. It is broader them.
3. It does not include services and unilateral transfers. It includes services and unilateral transfers.

 

(b) Flexible exchange rate is a system where the value of one currency in terms of another is free to fluctuate and establish the equilibrium level through the forces of demand and supply. It can be better understood with the following merits and demerits of the flexible exchange rate :

(i) Merits :

  • No need to maintain reserves of foreign currency.
  • Automatic adjustment in balance of payments (BOP) is possible.
  • No dependence on external sources.

(ii) Demerits :

  • It creates unstable conditions and uncertainty.
  • Increased speculation with a destabilizing effect.
  • Gives rise to inflation in the economy.

Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-II (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

MICRO-ECONOMIC

Q.1. The Total Revenue earned by selling 20 units is ₹ 700. Marginal Revenue earned by selling 21st unit is ₹ 70. The value of Total Revenue earned by selling total 21 units will be (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) ₹ 721

(b) ₹ 630

(c) ₹ 770

(d) ₹ 720

Answer:(c) ₹ 770

 

Q.2. In the given figure X1Y1 and X2Y2 are Production Possibility Curves in two different periods T1 and T2 respectively for Good X and Good Y. A1 and A2 represent actual outputs and P1 and P2 represent potential outputs respectively in the two time periods. 

The change in actual output of Goods X and Y over the two periods would be represented by movement from (Fill up the blank)

(a) A2 to P2

(b) A1to P2

(c) P1 to A2

(d) A1 to A2

OR

Q.2. The Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) is constant. The Production Possibility Curve, so formed would be ………… to the origin.

(Fill up the blank)

Answer: (d) A1 to A2

OR

Answer: Straight line

 

Q.3. Under imperfect competition, Average Revenue (AR) remains ………… Marginal Revenue (MR). (Fill up the blank) 

OR

Q.3. For a firm to be in equilibrium, Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC) must be …………… and beyond that level of output Marginal Cost must be …………. ” (Fill up the blank)

Answer: Greater than

OR

Answer: Equal, rising

 

Q.4. If the supply curve is a straight line parallel to the vertical axis (Y-axis), supply of the good is called as ……………. (Fill up the blank) 

(a) Unitary Elastic Supply

(b) Perfectly Elastic Supply

(c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

(d) Perfectly Elastic Demand

Answer: (c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

 

Q.5. Distinguish between positive economics and normative economics, with suitable examples.

Answer: 

 

Q.6. Differentiate between Microeconomics and Macroeconomics, with suitable examples. 

Answer: 

 

Q.7. The market for a good is in equilibrium. How would an increase in an input price affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant ? Explain using a diagram.

Answer: Input price refers to the money paid to the factors of production in return for their productive services. As the input price rises, the cost of production also rises and produc-tion levels falls. This leads to a leftward shift in the supply curve.

This leads to excess demand in the market. It leads to competition among buyers. Due to this, the price starts rising. As the price rises, demand contracts and supply expands. This will continue until there is no more excess demand.

Finally equilibrium prices rises from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity falls from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.8. The market for a good is in equilibrium. Explain, using a diagram, how a decrease in input prices would affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant.

Answer: Input prices refer to the money paid for factors of production in return for their productive services. As the input price falls, the cost of production also falls and production level rises due to high profit margins. This leads to a rightward shift in the supply curve in figure given below.

This condition leads to an excess supply in the market. It also leads to the competition among the sellers due to which the price of the product starts falling. As the price of the product falls, demand expands and supply contracts. This continues until there is no more excess supply. Finally, equilibrium prices fall from P<sub>1</sub> to P<sub>2</sub> and equilibrium quantity rises from Q1 to Q2.

 

 

Q.9. Which of the following statements are true or false ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. ‘ 

(a) Average cost curve cuts Average variable cost curve at its minimum level.

(b) Average product curve and Marginal product curve are ‘U-shaped’ curves.

(c) Under all market conditions, Average revenue and Marginal revenue are equal to each other.

(d) Total cost and Total variable cost curve are parallel curve to each other.

OR

Q.9. Explain a firm’s equilibrium under perfect competition, using a hypothetical schedule.

Answer: (a) False-Average cost and Average variable cost curves are U shaped curve. The vertical gap between Average cost Average variable cost curves represent Average fixed cost. As we know with the increase in the output the vertical gap between Average cost Average variable cost curves continuously decrease but never intersect.

(b) False, Average product curve and marginal product curve both rises and then tend to fall. Thus, the two curves are inverted ‘U’ shaped curve.

(c) False, only under perfect competition, AR and MR are equal to each other. Under Monopoly and monopolistic market, AR is greater than MR.

(d) True, TC and TVC curves are parallel to each other because the vertical distance between the two curves is TFC which is constant at all levels of output.

OR

Answer: In a perfectly competitive market, a very large number of firms produce a homogeneous (or identical) product and sell it to a very large number of buyers at a fixed price. Not a single buyer or seller can influence the market price. They are price taker. There is free entry or exit of firms in this form of market. Of course, en-try can take place only in the long-run. Here we assume that all firms in the industry are working under identical cost conditions. Iden-tical cost conditions for the firms mean that Average Cost (AC) and Marginal Cost (MC) curves are identical for all firms in the in-dustry. In economics, short-run refers to that time period in which a firm can’t alter its fixed factors and the size of the plant. The firm can change its output by changing variable factors of production. Both in the short-run and long- run, firm’s objective is to maximize profit. The profit is given by the difference between Total Revenue (TR) and Total Cost (TC) i.e. profit = TR – TC. Now, profit maximising output quan-tity is reached when two conditions are satis-fied.

(a) MR = MC

(b) Rate of change in MR &lt; Rate of change in MC

In a perfectly competitive market P = AR = MR = constant. So, the profit maximising condition in a perfectly competitive market boil down to

(a) P = MC (or SMC)

(b) MC (or SMC) curve must be positively sloped

This can be clear with the help of a table given below :

Five Situations of Short-Run Equilibrium under

 

Q.10. (a) Explain the meaning of the Trice Discrim-ination” feature under the monopoly form of market. 

(b) Compare the nature of demand curves under monopoly and monopolistic competition.

Answer: (a) The art of selling the same product at different prices to different buyers is known as price discrimination. When the monopolists adopt the policy of price discrimination, it is known as discriminating monopoly. Price discrimination may take place under the following situations :

  • When elasticity of demand for a product is different in different markets, the monopolists will charge higher when demand is inelastic and lower when demand is elastic.
  • When the buyers of one part of the market do not know the prices are lower in other parts of the market.
  • When Government permits price discrimination.

(b) Demand curve under monopolistic competition and monopoly

Both the markets face downward sloping demand curves. However, demand curve under monopolistic competition is more elastic as compared to the demand curve under monopoly. This happens because differentiated products under monopolistic competition are close substitutes of one another whereas there are no close substitutes in case of monopoly.

 

Q.11. (a) What is meant by increasing returns to a variable factor?

(b) Discuss briefly, any two reasons for the decreasing returns to a variable factor.

Answer: 

(a) In short period, when other factors of production remains constant, if the proportionate change in Total Product is greater than the proportionate change in units of variable factor. If marginal product increases with the increase in units of a variable factors, then it is known as the law of increasing returns to a variable factor.

(b) Causes of Decreasing Returns to Variable Factor :

(i) Decrease in the level of efficiency : If we increase the units of variable factors too much with fixed factors of production (after optimum combination), then the factor proportion becomes more and more worse. Due to that, the efficiency of both the factors decreases (because we are moving away from ideal combination). That’s why AP and MP both decrease. Due to that AC and MC both increases.

(ii) Imperfect substitute : At the point of optimum combination of means of production average and marginal productivity can be increased by substituting fixed factor (because at this point fixed factor is completely utilized). But the factors of production are not perfect substitutes, therefore it is not possible to replace fixed factor with other factors and that’s why, if we have to increase the output at optimum combination then we have to increase the units of variable factor with the same units of fixed factors. As a result there will be over utilization of fixed factor, so AP and MP both decreases and AC and MC both increases. So ultimately decreasing return will apply.

 

Q.12. Explain the following conditions : 

(a) Movement along the same indifference curve.

(b) Shift from a lower to a higher indifference curve.

OR

Q.12. Explain the law of Equi-Marginal Utility.

Answer: (a) Movement along the same indifference curve : All the points along with the same indifference curve represents all those combinations of two commodities which provides the same level of satisfaction to the consumer. Level of satisfaction remains constant whether we move upward or downward along the same indifference curve. In order to increase the consumption of one commodity the consumer has to sacrifice the consumption of the other “and he moves up and down on the same indifference curve.

In the present diagram, combination A (OX + OY) provides the satisfaction equal to combination B (OX1 + OY1).

(b) Shift from lower to a higher indifference curve : Curves nearer to origin represent lower level of satisfaction and curves which are away from origin represent higher level of satisfaction. It means as we move away from origin, level of satisfaction continuously increases.

In the present diagram IC2 represent higher level of satisfaction in comparison to IC1 and in the same way IC3 represent satisfaction more than IC1 and IC2 .

So if there are three indifferent curves in a single diagram then they will represent three different levels of satisfaction.

OR

Answer: Law of Equi-marginal utility states that a consumer allocates his expenditure on various commodities in such a manner that the utility derived from each additional unit of the rupee spent on each of the commodities is equal.

The ratio of the MU to price of X must be equal to the ratio of MU and price of Y.

MUx/Px = MUy/Py…………… = MUn/Pn

This is known as a law of equi-marginal utility. It means the equality of the MU of the last rupee spent on each good. If Mux /Px is greater than My/Py, it means that MU from the last rupee spent on good X is greater than MU of the last rupee spent on good Y. This induces the consumer to transfer the expenditure from Y to X. The consumption of X rises and MUx falls, and MU of Y rises. This act continues till MUx/Px and MUy/Py are equal.

Assumptions of Law of Equi Marginal Utility

1. Utility can be measured in numeric terms.

2. The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).

3. All the consumers are assumed to be rational.

4. Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

For e.g.: A consumer consumers 2 commodities X and Y for ₹ 3/unit and ₹ 2/unit respectively. It is assumed that MUR = ₹ 2

 

Section -B

MACRO-ECONOMICS

Q.13. Primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when ………….. (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Revenue deficit is zero

(b) Net interest payments are zero

(c) Fiscal deficit is zero

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

Answer:

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

 

Q.14. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may …………… (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio

(c) Sell Government securities in open market

(d) Increase Bank Rate

Answer: (a) Reduce Cash Reserve ratio.

 

Q.15. What do you mean by a direct tax?

OR

Q.15. What do you mean by an indirect tax?

Answer: Direct tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on the same person. It is progressive in nature. Example-Income tax and Property tax.

OR

Answer: Indirect tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on different persons. It is regressive in nature. Example- VAT, custom duty.

 

Q.16. Define ‘money multiplier’. 

Answer: When the primary cash deposits in the banking system leads to multiple expansion in the total deposits, it is called as money multiplier. It is inversely related to legal reserve ratio.

 

Q.17. Estimate the change in initial investment if the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 010 and change in final income is ₹ 15,000 crores.

Answer: MPS = 0.10

Change in Income = ₹ 15,000 crore

Multiplier (K) = 1/MPS = 1/0.10 = 10

K = Change in income AY/ change in investment AI.

10 = 15,000 change in investment

Change in investment = ₹ 1500 crores.

 

Q.18. State the impact of “Excess Demand” under the Keynesian theory on employment, in an economy. 

OR

Q.18. State the meaning of the following :

(a) Ex-Ante Savings

(b) Full Employment

(c) Autonomous Consumption

Answer: Excess demand is not a desired situation because it does not lead to any increase in the level of aggregate supply as the economy is already working at full employment level. Excess demand has the following effect on output, employment and general price level.

(i) Effect on Output: Excess demand does not affect the level of output because the economy is already working at full employment level and there is no ideal capacity in the economy.

(ii) Effect on Employment : There will be no change in the level of employment as the economy is already operating at full employment equilibrium and there is no involuntary unemployment.

(iii) Effect on General Price Level : Excess demand leads to a rise in the general price level (known as inflation) as aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply.

OR

Answer: (a) Ex-ante saving : The saving which the firms or entrepreneur desire to make at different levels of income in an economy during a period is called ex-ante (planned savings).

(b) Full employment : Full employment refers to the situation when all the workers who are willing and able to work at prevailing wage rate are actually employed and there is no involuntary unemployment

(c) Autonomous consumption : When income is zero consumption is not zero because consumption can never be zero even at zero level of income, there are some basic needs which need to be fulfilled even at zero level of income and to fulfill those basic needs we use past savings. This consumption at zero level of income is termed as ‘Autonomous consumption’ and is denoted as C .

 

Q.19. Discuss briefly the following functions of a Central Bank :

(i) Banker’s bank

(ii) Lender of last resort

Answer: (i) Banker’s Bank: As a banker to the banks, the Central Bank holds surplus cash reserves of commercial banks. It also lends to commercial banks when they are in need of funds – Central Bank also provides a large number of routine banking functions to the commercial banks. It also acts as a supervisor and regulator the banking system.

(ii) Lender of last resort: In case the commercial bank, fails to meet its financial requirements from other sources, it can approach to the Central Bank as a last resort for loans and advances. Central Bank helps these banks by discounting approved securities and bills of exchange or providing loans against their securities. By providing temporary financial help, Central Bank saves the financial structure of the country from collapsing. The direct lending to the commercial banks by the Central Bank is referred to as Tender of the last resort, function of the Central Bank’.

 

Q.20. “Higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer. 

OR

Q.20. Explain the meaning of Real Gross Domestic Product and Nominal Gross Domestic Product, using a numerical example.

Answer: I do not agree with the statement that “Higher gross domestic product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy” as higher GDP does not mean high per head availability of goods and services.

(i) It depends upon the population of the country. If GDP is higher but population is • equally high then per head availability of goods and services will be low.

(ii) It also depends on the fact that whether the income is equally distributed or unequally distributed. If income is equally distributed then share of goods and services for each individual will be equal but if it is unequally distributed, the rich will take more share in comparison to a poor.

OR

Answer: Real GDP refers to the money value of all final goods and services calculated at a base year price produced within the domestic territory in a given time period.

Nominal GDP refers to the money value of all final goods and services calculated at a current year prices produced within the domestic territory in a given time period.

Commodities Quantity in 2018 Prices in 2011 Prices in 2018 Real GDP Nominal GDP
A TO 5 10 50 100
B 15 7 10 105 150
C 20 10 15 200 300
D 5 12 15 60 75
Total ——— ——— ——– 415 725

 

In the above table real GDP is ₹ 415 for the year 2018 while nominal GDP is ₹ 725 for the same year. Such a difference in GDP is due to increase in prices from base year to current year.

Therefore, Real GDP is always considered as true indicator of economic growth.

 

Q.21. Distinguish between ‘Qualitative and Quantitative tools’ of credit control as may be used by a Central Bank. 

Answer:

 

Q.22. (a) Distinguish between appreciation of home currency and depreciation of the home currency.

(b) What is meant by “current account surplus”?

(c) State any one source of supply of foreign currency for a country.

Answer: (a)

(b) Current Account in BOP is in surplus when the total receipts on account of total export of goods and services are greater than payments on account of import of goods and services

(c) Export of goods and services is one of the sources of supply of foreign currency.

 

Q.23. Discuss the adjustment mechanism in the following situations :

(a) Aggregate demand is lesser than Aggregate Supply.

(b) Ex-Ante Investments are greater than Ex- Ante Savings.

Answer: (a) At the income level above the equilibrium, the planned aggregate demand (AD) is less than the aggregate supply (AS). This implies that there is an excess availability of goods and services in an economy. This surplus in goods is added to the inventory stock of goods. The rise in the inventories above a desired level reduces the production which leads to the decrease in income and employment in the economy. This process continues till AD gets equal to AS.

(b) Adjustment Mechanism when planned in-vestment is greater than planned savings :

(i) When planned (ex-ante) saving is greater than planned investment. Suppose firms plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 25,000 crores, it shows consumption expenditure has decreased. Consequently, AD falls short of AS. Due to excess supply there will be stockpiling of unsold goods, i.e., unintended unplanned inventories will accumulate. At this, the producers will cut down employment and produce less. National income will fall and as a result planned saving will start falling until it becomes equal to planned investment. It is at this point equilibrium level of income is determined.

(ii) When planned (ex-ante) saving is less than planned investment. Suppose producers plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 15,000 crores, then AD (or consumption expenditure) is more than AS. Production will have to be increased to meet the excess demand. Consequently national income will increase leading to rise in saving until saving becomes equal to investment. It is here that equilibrium level of income is established because what the savers intend to save becomes equal to what the investors intend to invest. If planned saving and planned investment are equal, then output, income, employment and the price level will be constant.

 

Q.24. Define the following :

(a) Value Addition

(b) Gross Domestic Product

(c) Flow Variables

(d) Income property and entrepreneurship

OR

Q.24. Given the Following data, find the value of “Gross Domestic Capital Formation” and “Operating Surplus”.

Answer: (a) Value addition refers to the produced within the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year.

(b) Gross domestic product refers to the money value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of the country during an accounting year.

(c) Flow variables are measurable variables that are measured over a period of time, e.g., National income.

(d) Income from property and entrepreneurship is also called the operating surplus which is the sum up of rent, royalties, interest and profits.

OR

Answer: Gross Domestic Capital Formation = (i) – {(iii) + vii + x} + vi – xii + iv

GDCF = 22,100 – {7,200 + 6,100 + 3,400} + 500 (-150) + 700

GDCF = ₹ 6750 crores

Operating Surplus = National income – wages and Salaries – mixed income of self employed – net factor income from abroad

= 22,100 – 12,000 – 4,800 – (-150)

= ₹ 5,450 crores

Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-I (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

MICRO-ECONOMIC

Q.1. The Total Revenue earned by selling 20 units is ₹ 700. Marginal Revenue earned by selling 21st unit is ₹ 70. The value of Total Revenue earned by selling total 21 units will be (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) ₹ 721

(b) ₹ 630

(c) ₹ 770

(d) ₹ 720

Answer:(c) ₹ 770

 

Q.2. In the given figure X1Y1 and X2Y2 are Production Possibility Curves in two different periods T1 and T2 respectively for Good X and Good Y. A1 and A2 represent actual outputs and P1 and P2 represent potential outputs respectively in the two time periods. 

The change in actual output of Goods X and Y over the two periods would be represented by movement from (Fill up the blank)

(a) A2 to P2

(b) A1to P2

(c) P1 to A2

(d) A1 to A2

OR

Q.2. The Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) is constant. The Production Possibility Curve, so formed would be ………… to the origin.

(Fill up the blank)

Answer: (d) A1 to A2

OR

Answer: Straight line

 

Q.3. Under imperfect competition, Average Revenue (AR) remains ………… Marginal Revenue (MR). (Fill up the blank) 

OR

Q.3. For a firm to be in equilibrium, Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC) must be …………… and beyond that level of output Marginal Cost must be …………. ” (Fill up the blank)

Answer: Greater than

OR

Answer: Equal, rising

 

Q.4. If the supply curve is a straight line parallel to the vertical axis (Y-axis), supply of the good is called as ……………. (Fill up the blank) 

(a) Unitary Elastic Supply

(b) Perfectly Elastic Supply

(c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

(d) Perfectly Elastic Demand

Answer: (c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

 

Q.5. Distinguish between positive economics and normative economics, with suitable examples.

Answer: 

 

Q.6. Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility, with the help of a hypothetical schedule. 

OR

Q.6. Elaborate the law of demand, with the help of a hypothetical schedule.

Answer: According to the law of diminishing utility, as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the extra utility that we derive from it goes on declining. Total utility will continue to rise till the point of consumption when the marginal utility becomes zero. After this point, MU becomes negative which means now the good begins to harm consumers.

Assumption of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

  • Utility can be measured in numeric terms.
  • The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).
  • All the consumers are assumed to be rational.
  • Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

The schedule indicates that as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the marginal utility derived from the consumption of each additional unit of the commodity tends to fall. With the consumption of successive units the marginal utility becomes zero and consequently become negative. The MU become zero at the consumption of 4th unit and become negative at the consumption of 5th unit.

OR

Answer: The law of demand explains the inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity. According to this law, ‘other things remaining constant’ (ceteris paribus), price and quantity demanded of a commodity move in the opposite direction. When the price of the commodity increases, the quantity demanded falls and when the price decreases, the quantity demanded increases, provided factors other than price remain constant. More units of a commodity are purchased at a lower price because of a substitution effect and income effect.

Following are the assumptions of law of demand :

(a) No change in consumer’s income.

(b) No change in the price of related goods.

(c) No change in the consumer’s taste, preferences and fashion.

(d) No expectation of change in the future prices of the goods.

(e) No change in the population.

Demand schedule

Price of Sugar (₹ per kg) 20 40 50 70
Quantity 100 75 60 40

 

The demand schedule shows that the consumer will demand more sugar at a lower price, other things being constant. When the price of sugar is ₹ 20 per kg the quantity demanded will be 100 kg but when price increase to ₹ 40 the demand decreases to 75 kg and 50 Kg so on. This shows that the price and demand are inversely related

 

Q.7. The market for a good is in equilibrium. How would an increase in an input price affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant ? Explain using a diagram.

Answer: Input price refers to the money paid to the factors of production in return for their productive services. As the input price rises, the cost of production also rises and produc-tion levels falls. This leads to a leftward shift in the supply curve.

This leads to excess demand in the market. It leads to competition among buyers. Due to this, the price starts rising. As the price rises, demand contracts and supply expands. This will continue until there is no more excess demand.

Finally equilibrium prices rises from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity falls from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.8. (a) The coefficient of price elasticity of demand for Good X is (-) 0-2 . If there is a 5% increase in the price of the good, by what percentage will the quantity demanded for the good fall?

(b) Arrange the following coefficient of price elasticity of demand in ascending order : (-) 3.1, (-) 0.2, (-) 1.1 

OR

Q.8. How would the demand for a commodity be affected by a change in “tastes and preferences” of the consumers in favour of the commodity? Explain using a diagram. Answer:  (a) 

Percentage change in Quantity demanded = -1% Elasticity of demand is unitary elastic and the percentage fall in quantity demanded is 1%.

(b) Ascending order (-) 0.2, (-)1.1, (-)3.1.

OR

Answer:  Taste and preference is one of the factors affecting individual demand. If the consumers in the market have started liking a particular commodity, the demand for that commodity will increase. On the other hand, if there is a disliking for a particular commodity or preference for a commodity is falling, demand will decrease.

So change in taste and preference of the commodity in favour of the other commodity, will shift the demand curve towards right from DD to D1 D1.

 

Q.9. Which of the following statements are true or false ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. ‘ 

(a) Average cost curve cuts Average variable cost curve at its minimum level.

(b) Average product curve and Marginal product curve are ‘U-shaped’ curves.

(c) Under all market conditions, Average revenue and Marginal revenue are equal to each other.

(d) Total cost and Total variable cost curve are parallel curve to each other.

OR

Q.9. Explain a firm’s equilibrium under perfect competition, using a hypothetical schedule.

Answer: (a) False-Average cost and Average variable cost curves are U shaped curve. The vertical gap between Average cost Average variable cost curves represent Average fixed cost. As we know with the increase in the output the vertical gap between Average cost Average variable cost curves continuously decrease but never intersect.

(b) False, Average product curve and marginal product curve both rises and then tend to fall. Thus, the two curves are inverted ‘U’ shaped curve.

(c) False, only under perfect competition, AR and MR are equal to each other. Under Monopoly and monopolistic market, AR is greater than MR.

(d) True, TC and TVC curves are parallel to each other because the vertical distance between the two curves is TFC which is constant at all levels of output.

OR

Answer: In a perfectly competitive market, a very large number of firms produce a homogeneous (or identical) product and sell it to a very large number of buyers at a fixed price. Not a single buyer or seller can influence the market price. They are price taker. There is free entry or exit of firms in this form of market. Of course, en-try can take place only in the long-run. Here we assume that all firms in the industry are working under identical cost conditions. Iden-tical cost conditions for the firms mean that Average Cost (AC) and Marginal Cost (MC) curves are identical for all firms in the in-dustry. In economics, short-run refers to that time period in which a firm can’t alter its fixed factors and the size of the plant. The firm can change its output by changing variable factors of production. Both in the short-run and long- run, firm’s objective is to maximize profit. The profit is given by the difference between Total Revenue (TR) and Total Cost (TC) i.e. profit = TR – TC. Now, profit maximising output quan-tity is reached when two conditions are satis-fied.

(a) MR = MC

(b) Rate of change in MR &lt; Rate of change in MC

In a perfectly competitive market P = AR = MR = constant. So, the profit maximising condition in a perfectly competitive market boil down to

(a) P = MC (or SMC)

(b) MC (or SMC) curve must be positively sloped

This can be clear with the help of a table given below :

Five Situations of Short-Run Equilibrium under

 

Q.10. Explain the meaning of the following features of the Oligopoly Market : 

(a) Non-Price Competition

(b) Few Sellers

Answer: (a) Non-price Competition: Oligopoly firm not only competes through price but also on the basis of non-price competition. Product variation and advertisement are the two main forms of non price competition as they fear price war. Normally, the oligopoly firms do not respond to a rise in price by the rivals. However/they have to respond if a rival firm reduces the price of the product.

Implication : This results in price rigidity in the market.

(b) Few Sellers: Under Oligopoly, there are only a few firms, producing a commodity. The product can be homogeneous or differentiated. These firms can influence the price and output by their actions.

Each firm produces significant portion of total output. There exists competition among different firms and each firm try to manipulate both price and volume of production. The number of buyers are large.

Implications: The number of firms is so small that an action by any firm is likely to affect the other firm. So every firm keeps a close watch on the actions of each other.

 

Q.11. (a) What is meant by increasing returns to a variable factor?

(b) Discuss briefly, any two reasons for the decreasing returns to a variable factor.

Answer: 

(a) In short period, when other factors of production remains constant, if the proportionate change in Total Product is greater than the proportionate change in units of variable factor. If marginal product increases with the increase in units of a variable factors, then it is known as the law of increasing returns to a variable factor.

(b) Causes of Decreasing Returns to Variable Factor :

(i) Decrease in the level of efficiency : If we increase the units of variable factors too much with fixed factors of production (after optimum combination), then the factor proportion becomes more and more worse. Due to that, the efficiency of both the factors decreases (because we are moving away from ideal combination). That’s why AP and MP both decrease. Due to that AC and MC both increases.

(ii) Imperfect substitute : At the point of optimum combination of means of production average and marginal productivity can be increased by substituting fixed factor (because at this point fixed factor is completely utilized). But the factors of production are not perfect substitutes, therefore it is not possible to replace fixed factor with other factors and that’s why, if we have to increase the output at optimum combination then we have to increase the units of variable factor with the same units of fixed factors. As a result there will be over utilization of fixed factor, so AP and MP both decreases and AC and MC both increases. So ultimately decreasing return will apply.

 

Q.12. Explain the following conditions : 

(a) Movement along the same indifference curve.

(b) Shift from a lower to a higher indifference curve.

OR

Q.12. Explain the law of Equi-Marginal Utility.

Answer: (a) Movement along the same indifference curve : All the points along with the same indifference curve represents all those combinations of two commodities which provides the same level of satisfaction to the consumer. Level of satisfaction remains constant whether we move upward or downward along the same indifference curve. In order to increase the consumption of one commodity the consumer has to sacrifice the consumption of the other “and he moves up and down on the same indifference curve.

In the present diagram, combination A (OX + OY) provides the satisfaction equal to combination B (OX1 + OY1).

(b) Shift from lower to a higher indifference curve : Curves nearer to origin represent lower level of satisfaction and curves which are away from origin represent higher level of satisfaction. It means as we move away from origin, level of satisfaction continuously increases.

In the present diagram IC2 represent higher level of satisfaction in comparison to IC1 and in the same way IC3 represent satisfaction more than IC1 and IC2 .

So if there are three indifferent curves in a single diagram then they will represent three different levels of satisfaction.

OR

Answer: Law of Equi-marginal utility states that a consumer allocates his expenditure on various commodities in such a manner that the utility derived from each additional unit of the rupee spent on each of the commodities is equal.

The ratio of the MU to price of X must be equal to the ratio of MU and price of Y.

MUx/Px = MUy/Py…………… = MUn/Pn

This is known as a law of equi-marginal utility. It means the equality of the MU of the last rupee spent on each good. If Mux /Px is greater than My/Py, it means that MU from the last rupee spent on good X is greater than MU of the last rupee spent on good Y. This induces the consumer to transfer the expenditure from Y to X. The consumption of X rises and MUx falls, and MU of Y rises. This act continues till MUx/Px and MUy/Py are equal.

Assumptions of Law of Equi Marginal Utility

1. Utility can be measured in numeric terms.

2. The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).

3. All the consumers are assumed to be rational.

4. Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

For e.g.: A consumer consumers 2 commodities X and Y for ₹ 3/unit and ₹ 2/unit respectively. It is assumed that MUR = ₹ 2

 

Section -B

MACRO-ECONOMICS

Q.13. Primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when ………….. (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Revenue deficit is zero

(b) Net interest payments are zero

(c) Fiscal deficit is zero

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

Answer:

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

 

Q.14. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may …………… (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio

(c) Sell Government securities in open market

(d) Increase Bank Rate

Answer: (a) Reduce Cash Reserve ratio.

 

Q.15. What do you mean by a direct tax?

OR

Q.15. What do you mean by an indirect tax?

Answer: Direct tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on the same person. It is progressive in nature. Example-Income tax and Property tax.

OR

Answer: Indirect tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on different persons. It is regressive in nature. Example- VAT, custom duty.

 

Q.16. Define ‘money multiplier’. 

Answer: When the primary cash deposits in the banking system leads to multiple expansion in the total deposits, it is called as money multiplier. It is inversely related to legal reserve ratio.

 

Q.17. Calculate change in final income, if the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0 8 and change in initial investment is ₹ 1,000 crores.

Answer: MPC = 0.8 and change in initial investment = ₹ 1000 crores

Change in income = ₹ 5000 crores.

 

Q.18. State the impact of “Excess Demand” under the Keynesian theory on employment, in an economy. 

OR

Q.18. State the meaning of the following :

(a) Ex-Ante Savings

(b) Full Employment

(c) Autonomous Consumption

Answer: Excess demand is not a desired situation because it does not lead to any increase in the level of aggregate supply as the economy is already working at full employment level. Excess demand has the following effect on output, employment and general price level.

(i) Effect on Output: Excess demand does not affect the level of output because the economy is already working at full employment level and there is no ideal capacity in the economy.

(ii) Effect on Employment : There will be no change in the level of employment as the economy is already operating at full employment equilibrium and there is no involuntary unemployment.

(iii) Effect on General Price Level : Excess demand leads to a rise in the general price level (known as inflation) as aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply.

OR

Answer: (a) Ex-ante saving : The saving which the firms or entrepreneur desire to make at different levels of income in an economy during a period is called ex-ante (planned savings).

(b) Full employment : Full employment refers to the situation when all the workers who are willing and able to work at prevailing wage rate are actually employed and there is no involuntary unemployment

(c) Autonomous consumption : When income is zero consumption is not zero because consumption can never be zero even at zero level of income, there are some basic needs which need to be fulfilled even at zero level of income and to fulfill those basic needs we use past savings. This consumption at zero level of income is termed as ‘Autonomous consumption’ and is denoted as C .

 

Q.19. Classify the following statement as revenue receipts or capital receipts. Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 

(a) Financial help from a multinational corporation for victims in a food affected area.

(b) Sale of shares of a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) to a private company, Y Ltd.

(c) Dividends paid to the Government by the State Bank of India.

(d) Borrowings from International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Answer: (a) Financial help from a multinational company is an aid to the government so it is a revenue receipt as it does not create any liability and reduction in assets.

 (b) It is a capital receipt. As sale of shares will reduce the assets of the PSU.

(c) Dividends paid to the government is a revenue receipt as it neither creates any liability nor reduces the assets.

(d) It is a capital receipt. It increases the liability of the government.

 

Q.20. “Higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer. 

OR

Q.20. Explain the meaning of Real Gross Domestic Product and Nominal Gross Domestic Product, using a numerical example.

Answer: I do not agree with the statement that “Higher gross domestic product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy” as higher GDP does not mean high per head availability of goods and services.

(i) It depends upon the population of the country. If GDP is higher but population is • equally high then per head availability of goods and services will be low.

(ii) It also depends on the fact that whether the income is equally distributed or unequally distributed. If income is equally distributed then share of goods and services for each individual will be equal but if it is unequally distributed, the rich will take more share in comparison to a poor.

OR

Answer: Real GDP refers to the money value of all final goods and services calculated at a base year price produced within the domestic territory in a given time period.

Nominal GDP refers to the money value of all final goods and services calculated at a current year prices produced within the domestic territory in a given time period.

Commodities Quantity in 2018 Prices in 2011 Prices in 2018 Real GDP Nominal GDP
A TO 5 10 50 100
B 15 7 10 105 150
C 20 10 15 200 300
D 5 12 15 60 75
Total ——— ——— ——– 415 725

 

In the above table real GDP is ₹ 415 for the year 2018 while nominal GDP is ₹ 725 for the same year. Such a difference in GDP is due to increase in prices from base year to current year.

Therefore, Real GDP is always considered as true indicator of economic growth.

 

Q.21. Distinguish between ‘Qualitative and Quantitative tools’ of credit control as may be used by a Central Bank. 

Answer:

 

Q.22. (a) Define “Trade Surplus” and “Trade Deficit”.

(b) Discuss briefly the concept of managed floating system of foreign exchange rate determination. 

Answer: (a) Trade surplus refers to the excess of exports of goods over the imports of goods. Trade deficit refers to the excess of import of goods over the export of goods.

(b) Managed floating exchange rate system- It is a system in which the foreign exchange rate is determined by the market forces and central bank influences the exchange rate through intervention in the foreign exchange market. Central bank interferes to restrict the fluctuations in the exchange rate within limits. For this central bank maintains the reserve of foreign exchange to ensure that the exchange rate stays within the targeted value. It is also known as “Dirty floating”.

 

Q.23. Discuss the adjustment mechanism in the following situations :

(a) Aggregate demand is lesser than Aggregate Supply.

(b) Ex-Ante Investments are greater than Ex- Ante Savings.

Answer: (a) At the income level above the equilibrium, the planned aggregate demand (AD) is less than the aggregate supply (AS). This implies that there is an excess availability of goods and services in an economy. This surplus in goods is added to the inventory stock of goods. The rise in the inventories above a desired level reduces the production which leads to the decrease in income and employment in the economy. This process continues till AD gets equal to AS.

(b) Adjustment Mechanism when planned in-vestment is greater than planned savings :

(i) When planned (ex-ante) saving is greater than planned investment. Suppose firms plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 25,000 crores, it shows consumption expenditure has decreased. Consequently, AD falls short of AS. Due to excess supply there will be stockpiling of unsold goods, i.e., unintended unplanned inventories will accumulate. At this, the producers will cut down employment and produce less. National income will fall and as a result planned saving will start falling until it becomes equal to planned investment. It is at this point equilibrium level of income is determined.

(ii) When planned (ex-ante) saving is less than planned investment. Suppose producers plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 15,000 crores, then AD (or consumption expenditure) is more than AS. Production will have to be increased to meet the excess demand. Consequently national income will increase leading to rise in saving until saving becomes equal to investment. It is here that equilibrium level of income is established because what the savers intend to save becomes equal to what the investors intend to invest. If planned saving and planned investment are equal, then output, income, employment and the price level will be constant.

 

Q.24. Define the following :

(a) Value Addition

(b) Gross Domestic Product

(c) Flow Variables

(d) Income property and entrepreneurship

OR

Q.24. Given the Following data, find the value of “Gross Domestic Capital Formation” and “Operating Surplus”.

Answer: (a) Value addition refers to the produced within the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year.

(b) Gross domestic product refers to the money value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of the country during an accounting year.

(c) Flow variables are measurable variables that are measured over a period of time, e.g., National income.

(d) Income from property and entrepreneurship is also called the operating surplus which is the sum up of rent, royalties, interest and profits.

OR

Answer: Gross Domestic Capital Formation = (i) – {(iii) + vii + x} + vi – xii + iv

GDCF = 22,100 – {7,200 + 6,100 + 3,400} + 500 (-150) + 700

GDCF = ₹ 6750 crores

Operating Surplus = National income – wages and Salaries – mixed income of self employed – net factor income from abroad

= 22,100 – 12,000 – 4,800 – (-150)

= ₹ 5,450 crores 

History 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-III (CBSE)

History

Part – A

Q.1. “John Marshall’s stint as Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India marked a major change in Indian Archaeology.” Explain the statement.

Answer: John Marshall, the Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India, from 1902 – 1928 has marked a major change in Indian Archaeology as he was the first professional archaeologist to work in India, and brought his experience of working in Greece and Crete to the field. He was very much interested in spectacular finds and equally keen to look for patterns of everyday life. He even announced in 1924 the discovery of a new civilization in the Indus Valley, to the world.

 

Q.2. State the role of Jati Panchayats in the Mughal agrarian society. 

Answer: Panchayats had a very important role during the Mughal agrarian society. In addition to the village panchayat, each caste or jati in the village had its own Jati Panchayat. These panchayats wielded I’ considerable power in rural society. They mediated in contested claims on lands, decided whether marriages were performed according to the norms laid down by a particular caste group, determined who had rituals precedence in village functions, and so on.

The state respected the decisions of Jati Panchayats in most of the cases.

 

Q.3. Why did Jaipal Singh plead for the protection of tribes in the Constituent Assembly ? Explain any two reasons. 

OR 

Q.3. Explain the ideals expressed in ‘Objectives Resolution’ introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Answer: Jaipal Singh plead for the protection of tribes in the Constitutional Assembly because:

(i) Tribes had been dispossessed of the land they had settled, deprived of their forests and pastures, and forced to move in search of new homes.

(ii) Perceiving them as primitive and backward, the rest of society had spurned them.

Through these points Jaipal Singh wanted the society to mix with the tribes and was not asking for separate electorates, but he felt that reservation of seats in the legislature was essential to allow tribals to represent themselves.

OR

Answer: On 13th December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly. It proclaimed India to be an ‘Independent Sovereign Republic’, and guaranteed its citizens justice, equality and freedom, and assured that adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and Depressed and Other Backward Classes.

 

Part – B

Q.4. “One of the most distinctive features of Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system.” Substantiate the statement. 

Answer: One of the most distinctive features of Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system. At the Lower Town, the roads and streets were laid out along an approximate grid pattern, intersecting at right angles. It seems that streets with drains were laid out first and then houses were built along them. If domestic wastewater had to flow into the street drains, every house needed to have at least one wall along the street. It is certainly the most complete ancient system as yet discovered.

 

Q.5. Examine any two evidences found by the archaeologist B.B. Lai after excavation at a village named Hastinapur in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

Answer: In 1951-52, the archaeologist B.B. Lai excavated at a village named Hastinapur in Meerut (Uttar Pradesh). While the similarity in names could be coincidental, the location of the sites in the Upper Ganga Doab, where the Kuru kingdom was situated, suggests that it may have been the capital of the Kurus. Lai found evidence of five occupational levels, of which the second and third are of interest to us.

Lal noted about the houses in the second phase that within the limited area excavated, no definite plans of houses were obtained, but walls of mud and mud-bricks were duly encountered. The discovery of mud-plaster with prominent reed-marks suggested that some of the houses had reed walls plastered over the mud. For the third phase, Lai noted that houses of this period were built of mud-bricks as well as burnt bricks. Soaked jars and brick drains were used for draining out refuse water, while terracotta ring-wells may have been used both as wells and drainage pits.

 

Q.6. Describe the distinctive aspects of Sufi-Silsila. 

Answer: By the eleventh century Sufism evolved into a well-developed movement with a body of literature on Quranic studies and Sufi practices. Sufi Silsilas began to crystallise in different parts of the Islamic world around the twelfth century. The word silsila literally means a chain, signifying a continuous link between master and discipline, stretching as unbroken spiritual genealogy to” the Prophet Muhammad. It was important as it was through this channel that spiritual power and blessing were transmitted to devotees. Special ritual of invitation were developed in which initiates took an oath of allegiance, wore a patched garment, and shaved their hair. Dargah (tomb-shrine) became a centre of devotion for shaikhs followers. The most famous Sufi Silsila was “Chisti Silsila”.

 

Q.7. “It was the Rowlatt Satyagraha that made Gandhi a truly national leader.” Substantiate the statement. 

Answer: In 1919, Gandhiji gave a call Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act, passed by the British. The Act restricted the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers. It was the Rowlatt Satyagraha that made Gandhi a true national leader. Encouraged by its success, Gandhiji called for a campaign of Non-Cooperation with British rule. Indians who wished colonialism to end were asked to stop attending schools, colleges and law courts, and not pay taxes. In sum, they were asked to adhere to a ‘renunciation of (all) voluntary association with the (British) Government’. Gandhiji said that if non-cooperation was effectively carried out, India would win swaraj within a year. To further broaden the struggle, he had joined hands with Khilafat Movement.

 

Q.8. Why was the Colonial Government keen on carrying out regular surveys and mapping various parts of the country ? Explain.

OR

Q.8. Why did Taluqdars and Sepoys of Awadh join )the Revolt of 1857 ? Explain.

Answer: Colonial rule was based on the production of enormous amounts of data. The British kept detailed records of their trading activities in order to regulate their commercial affairs. To keep track of life in the growing cities, they carried out regular surveys, gathered statistical data, and published various official reports. From the early years, the colonial government was keen on mapping.

Good maps were necessary to understand the landscape and know the topography. This knowledge would allow better control over the region. When towns began to grow, maps were prepared not only to plan the development of these towns but also to develop commerce and consolidate power. The town maps give information regarding the location of hills, rivers and vegetation, all important for planning structures for defence purposes. They also show the location of the ghats, density and quality of houses and alignment of roads, used to gauge commercial possibilities and plan strategies of taxation.

OR

Answer: The annexation by the British not only displaced the Nawab but also dispossessed the taluqdars of Awadh. The countryside of Awadh was dotted with the estates and forts of taluqdars who for many generations had controlled land and power in the countryside. Before the coming of the British, taluqdars maintained armed retainers, built forts, and enjoyed a degree of autonomy, as long as they accepted the suzerainty of the Nawab and paid the revenue of their taluq. Some of the bigger taluqdars had as many as 12,000 foot-soldiers and even the smaller ones had about 200. The British were unwilling to tolerate the power of the taluqdars.Immediately after the annexation, the taluqdars were  disarmed and their forts were destroyed.

The sepoys had complained for decades over low levels of pay and the difficulty of getting a leave. In the 1840s, when the sepoys who had a friendly relationships with the British officers then began to change. The officers developed a sense of superiority and started treating the sepoys as their racial inferiors, riding roughshod over their sensibilities. Abuse and physical violence became common and thus the distance between sepoys and officers grew. Trust was replaced by suspicion. The episode of the greased cartridges was a classic example of this.

 

Q.9. “The India in which Gandhiji came back in 1915 was rather different than the one he had left in 1893.” Substantiate the statement. 

Answer: In January 1915, Gandhiji returned to his homeland after two decades of residence abroad. Those years were spent for the most part in South Africa, where he went as a lawyer, and in time became a leader of the Indian community in that territory. The India that Mahatma Gandhi came back to in 1915 was rather different from the one that he had left in 1893. Although still a colony of the British, it was far more active in a political sense. The Indian National Congress then had branches in most major cities and towns.

Through the Swadeshi movement of 1905-07, it had broadened its appeal among the middle classes. That movement had thrown up some towering leaders — Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra, Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal, and Lala Rajpat Rai of Punjab. The trio was famous as Lai, Bal and Pal. Where these leaders advocated militant opposition to colonial rule, there was a group of ‘Moderates’ who preferred a more gradual and persuasive approach. Among these moderates was Gandhiji’s acknowledged political mentor, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, as well as Mohammad Ali Jinnah, who like Gandhiji, was a lawyer of the Gujarati extraction trained in London.

 

Part – C

Q.10. “Buddhism grew rapidly both during the lifetime of the Buddha and after his death.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. 

OR

Q.10. “Among the best preserved monuments of the 600 BCE to 600 CE is the Stupa at Sanchi.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments in the context of its sculptural features and conservation policy taken up in the nineteenth century.

Answer: Gautam Buddha founded Buddhism in the 6th century BCE. The religion became popular during the lifetime of Buddha and continue to spread beyond India after his death. The reason for the popularity and propagation of Buddhism was its message and its simplicity.

People did not find its teachings difficult to understand. Local language was used by the Sangh to spread it. In fact, Gautam Buddha used to speak in the Prakrit language rather than in Sanskrit. Buddha was against any rituals so he did away with them. People found it easy to follow this philosophy. Asoka and later on other kings accepted Buddhism as their religion, because it was a powerful creed at that time.

Buddha did not believe in caste system and treated everyone equally which meant the people of the lower caste were happy. Buddhism attached importance to conduct and values rather than claims of superiority based on birth. They emphasised on ‘meta’ (fellow feeling) and ‘karuna’ (compassion) ‘ especially for those who were younger and weaker than oneself. These ideas drew men and women to the fold of Buddhism. A body of followers of Buddha was founded in an organization known as ‘Sangha.’ Followers came from many social groups which included kings, wealthy men gajapatis and humbler folk.

The teachings of Buddha were written in Tripitakas, or the Three basket. Buddhist Sangha was quick to spread the message of Buddha to different parts of India and abroad. Buddhism was opposed to customs and rituals as was done in Brahmanism.

OR

Answer: Stupas were sacred places where the relics of the Buddha such as his bodily remains or objects used by him were buried.

According to a Buddhist text known as the Ashokavadana. Ashoka distributed portions of the Buddha’s relics to every important town and ordered the construction of stupas over them. By the second century BCE a number of Stupas, like Sanchi and others had been built.

Art historians have carefully studied the sculpture at Sanchi and identified it as a scene from the Vessantara Jataka.

The empty seat was meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha, and the stupa was meant to represent the Mahaparinirvana. Another frequently used symbol was the wheel. This stood for the first sermon of the Buddha, delivered at Sarnath. The tree symbolises an event in the life of the Buddha. According to popular belief, Shalabhanjika was a woman whose touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit. It is likely that this was regarded as an auspicious symbol and integrated into the decoration of the stupa. Animals were after used as symbols of human attributes. Elephants (signify strength and wisdom), horses, monkeys and battle scenes are also, engraved at the stupa.

While some historians identify the figure as Maya, the mother of the Buddha, others identify her with a popular goddess, Gajalakshmi—literally, the goddess of good fortune—who is associated with elephants. Serpent found on several pillars seems to be derived from other popular traditions.

Conservation policy taken up in the nineteenth century:

The rulers of Bhopal in the 19th century, Shahjehan Begum and her successor Sultan Jehan Begum, provided money for the preservation of the ancient site. John Marshall dedicated his important volumes on Sanchi to Sultan Jehan. She funded the museum and publication of the volumes on Sanchi written by John Marshall.

French sought ruler Shahjehan Begum’s permission to take away the eastern gateway of Sanchi Stupa but both French and the English were satisfied with carefully prepared plaster cast copies and the original remained at the site.

 

Q.11. Describe Ibn Battuta’s account of Indian cities. 

OR

Q.11. Describe the detailed observations and critical insights given in the Bernier’s “Travels in the Mughal Empire”.

Answer: As a traveller, Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities. He arrived in Delhi in the fourteenth century when it was a part of global network. They were densely populated and prosperous, except for the occasional disruptions caused by wars and invasions. From Ibn Battuta’s account it appears that most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods. He describes Delhi as a vast city, with a great population, the largest in India. Daulatabad was equal in size of Delhi. The bazaars were not only places of economic transactions, but the hub of social and cultural activities. Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple and spaces were marked for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers. He found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of soil.

OR

Answer: Bernier’s ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire’ is marked by detailed observations, critical insights and reflection.

(i) According to Bernier, there was no private property during Mughal India. He was a firm believer in the virtues of private property, and saw crown ownership of land as being harmful for both the state and its people. He thought that the emperor owned all the land and distributed it among his nobles, and this had disastrous consequences for the economy and society.

(ii) Owing to crown ownership of land, landholders could not pass on their land to their children. So they were obverse to any long-term investment in the sustenance and expansion of production. It had led to the uniform ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of the peasantry and a continuous decline in the living standards of all sections of society, except the ruling aristocracy.

(iii) Bernier’s descriptions influenced Western theorists from the eighteenth century onwards. The French philosopher Montesquieu, for instance, used this account to develop the idea of oriental despotism, according to which rulers in Asia (the Orient or East) enjoyed absolute authority over their subjects, who were kept in conditions of subjugation and poverty, arguing that all land belonged to the king and that private property was non-existent.

(iv) According to this view, everybody, except the emperor and his nobles, barely managed to survive. This idea was further developed as the concept of the Asiatic mode of production by Karl Marx in the nineteenth century. He argued that in India (and other Asian countries), before colonialism, surplus was appropriated by the state. This led to the emergence of a society that was composed of a large number of autonomous and (internally) egalitarian village communities.

(v) The imperial court presided over these village communities, respecting their autonomy as long as the flow of surplus was unimpeded. This was regarded as a stagnant system.

(vi) Contemporary European travellers and writers ‘ often highlighted the treatment of women as a crucial marker of difference between Western and Eastern societies. Not surprisingly, Bernier chose the practice of Sari for detailed description. He noted that while women seemed to embrace death cheerfully, others were forced to die.

 

Q.12. Explain the events that led to the communal politics and Partition of India. 

OR

Q.12. Explain the strengths and limitations of oral testimonies in the understanding of Partition of India.

Answer: The differences between the communal political parties were creating a divide that later on became difficult to bridge. Not only this, the British government began playing one party against the other to weaken the national movement and prolong their stay in India.

(i) Right from the beginning, the British followed the policy of divide and rule. Before the coming of the British, the Hindus and the Muslims lived happily in India. There was unity, mutual cooperation and brotherhood among them.

(ii) To weaken the National Movement, the government actively encouraged the Muslim League to follow their communal demands. In fact, they got some Muslim leaders to form the League in 1905, after the Partition of Bengal. Also the League’s proposal for a coalition government in the united provinces was rejected by the Congress after the provincial election of 1937.

(iii) The role of the political leaders was also responsible for the partition of India. Prominent among them was Jinnah, who lead the Muslim League and passed the Lahore Resolution Remanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas that gave birth to a new nation called Pakistan.

(iv) During the 1920s and early 1930s tension grew around a number of issues. Muslims were angered by ‘music-before-mosque’, by the cow protection movement formation of the Hindu Mahasabha in 1915 and by the efforts of the Arya Samaj to bring back to the Hindu fold (shuddhi) those who had recently converted to Islam.

(v) Hindus were angered by the rapid spread of tabligh (propaganda) and tanzim (organisation) after 1923.

(vi) Post War Developments : During 1945 the British agreed to create an entirely Indian Central Executive Council except for the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces, as a preliminary step towards full independence. Discussions about the transfer of power broke down due to Jinnah’s unrelenting demand that the League had an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members of the Executive Council and that there should be a kind of communal veto in the Council.

(vii) Failure of the Cabinet : Mission (March 1946) was short lived as the Muslim League wanted the grouping to be compulsory, with sections B and C developing into strong entities with the right to secede from the Union in the future.

(viii) Direct Action Day : After withdrawing its support to the Cabinet Mission plan, the Muslim League decided on ‘Direct Action’ for winning its demand for Pakistan. It announced on 16 August 1946 as Direct Action Day. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947 violence spread to many parts of Northern India.

(ix) Withdrawal of law and order from 1946 to 1947: There was a complete breakdown of authority in the city of Amritsar. British officials did not know how to handle this situation: 

They were unwilling to take decisions, and hesitant to intervene. When panic-stricken people appealed for help, British Officials asked them to contact Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabh Bhai Patel or M. A. Jinnah. Nobody knew who could exercise authority and power. The top leadership of the Indian parties, barring Mahatma Gandhi, were involved in negotiations regarding independence while many Indian civil servants in the affected provinces feared for the own lives and property. The British were busy preparing to quit India.

(x) Compounded Problems : Problems compounded because Indian soldiers and policemen came to act as Hindus, Muslims or Sikhs. As communal tension mounted, the professional commitment of those in uniform could not be relied upon. In many places not only did policemen help their co-religionists but they also attacked members of other communities.

OR

Answer: The strengths of oral testimonies in the understanding of Partition of India :

  1. Oral history helps us grasp experiences and memories in detail.
  2. It enables historians to write richly textured, vivid accounts of what happened to people during events such as Partition which would be impossible to extract this kind of information from government documents.
  3. It also allows historians to broaden the boundaries of their discipline about the lived experiences of the poor and the powerless. For example, about Latif’s father, the women of Thoa Khala.
  4. Moving beyond the actions of the well-off and the well-known, the oral history of Partition has succeeded in exploring the experiences of those men and women that were ignored, taken for granted, or mentioned only in passing in mainstream history.
  5. Oral narratives memoirs, diaries, family histories first hand written accounts help to understand the trials and tribulations of ordinary people during the partition of the country. Memories and experiences shape the reality of an event.

Oral testimonies tell us about the day to day experiences of those affected by the government decision to divide the country

The limitations of oral testimonies is the understanding of Partition of India :

  1. Many historians believed that oral data seem to lack concreteness and the chronology they yield may have been imprecise. Historians argue that the uniqueness of personal experience makes generalisation difficult: a large picture cannot be built from such micro-evidence, and one witness is no witness.
  2. They also think that oral accounts are concerned with tangential issues, and that the small individual experiences which remain in memory are irrelevant to the unfolding of larger processes of history.
  3. If history has to accord presence to the ordinary and powerless, then the oral history of Partition is not concerned with tangential matters.
  4. The experiences it relates are central to the story, so much so that oral sources should be used to check other sources and vice versa.

 

Part – D

Q.13. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : Prabhavati Gupta and the village of Danguna

This is what Prabhavati Gupta states in her inscription:

Prabhavati Gupta … commands the gramakutumbinas (householders/peasants living in the village),

Brahmanas and others living in the village of Danguna…

“Be it known to you that on the twelfth (lunar day) of the bright (fortnight) of Karttika, we have, in order to increase our religious merit donated this village with the pouring out of water, to the Acharya

(teacher) Chanalasvamin…. You should obey all (his) commands ….

We confer on (him) the following exemptions typical r of an agrahara…. (this village is) not to be entered

by soldiers and policeman; (it is) exempt from (the obligation to provide) grass, (animal) hides as seats, and charcoal (to touring royal officers); exempt from (the royal prerogative of) purchasing fermenting liquor and digging (salt); exempt from (the right to) mines and khadira trees; exempt from (the obligation to supply) flowers and milk; (it is donated) together with (the right to) hidden treasures and deposits (and) together with major and minor taxes ”

This charger has been written in the thirteenth (regnal) year. (It has been) engraved by Chakradasa.

(a) How did Prabhavati Gupta show her authority through the inscription ?

(b) How did the inscription gives us an idea about the rural population ?

(c) Examine the importance of the charter issued by Prabhavati Gupta.

Answer: (a) Her authority is reflected in the language used in the inscription.

(b) The inscription gives us information about the rural.population as the inscription addresses the ‘householders/peasants living in the village, the Brahmanas and others living in the village of Danguna.

(c) Charter was a command or order for all living in the village and they had to obey the commands. It provides insight into the relationship between cultivators and the state. It also gives an idea about rural population who were expected to provide a range of produce to the king and his representatives.

 

Q.14. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Nobles at Court

The Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate, resident at the court of Akbar, noticed :

In order to prevent the great nobles becoming insolent through the unchallenged enjoyment of power, the King summons them to court and gives them imperious commands, as though they were his slaves. The obedience to these commands ill suits their exalted rank and dignity.

(a) Examine the relationship between Akbar and his nobles. 

(b) How do you think that the nobility was an important pillar of the Mughal State ?

(c) Explain the observation of the Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate regarding this relationship.

Answer:

(a) The king would summon the nobles to the court and give them imperial commands as though they were his slaves. This was to prevent the great nobles from becoming insolent through unchallenged enjoyment of power. The king granted titles to men of merit; awards were also given.

(b) The nobility was an important pillar of the Mughal state as they were recruited from diverse ethnic and religious groups to aid in effective administration. The nobles participated in military campaigns with their armies and also served as officers of the empire in the provinces.

(c) The Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate observe that the members of the Jesuit mission interpreted the emperor’s open interest in the doctrines of Christianity as a sign of his acceptance of their faith. This could be understood in relation to the intolerant religious atmosphere that existed in Europe at the time. High respect shown by Akbar towards the members of the Jesuit mission impressed them deeply.

 

Q.15. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Buchanan on the Santhals Buchanan wrote :

They are very clever in clearing new lands, but live meanly. Their huts have no fence, and the walls are made of small sticks placed upright, close together and plastered within with clay. They are small and slovenly, and too flat-roofed, with very little arch.

(a) Examine the role of Buchanan as an agent of the East India Company ? 

(b) Analyse the economic activities of Santhals. 

(c) How did Buchanan describe the living conditions of Santhals ? 

OR

Q.15. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

How debts mounted

In a petition to the Deccan Riots Commission a ryot explained how the system of loans worked :

A sowkar lends his debtor ₹ 100 on bond at ₹ 3-2 annas per cent per mensem. The latter agrees to pay the amount within eight days from the passing of the bond. Three years after the stipulated time for repaying the amount, the sowkar takes from his debtor another bond for the principal and interest together at the same rate of interest, and allows him 125 days’ time to liquidate the debt. After the lapse of 3 years and 15 days a third bond is passed by the debtor …. (this process is repeated) at the end of 12 years … his interest on ₹ 1,000 amounts to ₹ 2,028-10 annas-3 paise.

(a) For what purpose did ryots get loans from money lenders ?

(b) How did the ryot explain the system of loans ?

(c) How do you think that the way of borrowing money by the ryots brought misery to them ? 

Answer: Buchanan on that Santhals :

(a) Buchanan was employed by the East India Company. He marched everywhere with a large army of people—draughtsmen, surveyors, palanquin bearers, coolies, etc. As an agent of the East India Company, Buchanan had to report on the activity of the Santhals.

(b) (i) The Santhals cultivated a range of commercial crops for the market.

(ii) The dealt with traders and moneylenders as well.

(c) According to Buchanan, the Santhals had very little needs. They lived in simple huts made-up of small sticks and plastered with mud. The design of the huts was simple with flat roofs and no arches. The huts were built small and dishevelled. They had no fence.

OR

Answer: How debts mounted

(a) They needed loans even to buy their everyday needs and meet their production expenditure. Cultivators required loans for extending their average, moving into new areas, and transforming pasture land into cultivated fields. But to expand cultivation peasants needed more ploughs and cattle. They needed money to buy seeds and land. For this they had to turn to the moneylenders for loans.

(b) The sowkar (sahukar) lends his debtor Rs. 100 on bond at Rs. 3-2 annas per cent per mensem. The latter agrees to pay the amount within eight days from the passing of the bond. Three years after the stipulated time for repaying the amount, the sowkar takes from his debtor another bond for the principal and interest together at the same rate of interest, and allows him a period of 125 days to liquidate the debt. After the lapse of 3 years and 15 days, a third bond is passed by the debtor. This process is repeated at the end of 12 years and his interest in Rs. 1000 amounts to Rs. 2028—10 annas-3 paise.

(c) Over time, the ryots and peasants came to associate the misery of their lives with the new regime of bonds and deeds. They were made to sign and put thumb impressions on documents, but they did not know what they were actually signing. They had no idea of the clauses that moneylenders inserted in the bonds. They feared the written word. But they had no choice because to survive they needed loans, and moneylenders were unwilling to give loans without legal bonds.

 

Part – E

Q.16. (a) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following appropriately :

(a) Dandi—a centre of national movement.

                                 OR

(a)Masulipatnam-a city under British control in 1857.

(b) Panipat-a territory under Mughals.

                               OR

(b) On the same political outline map of India, three places have been marked as A, B and C which are related to matured Harappan. 

Answer:

History 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-II (CBSE)

History

Part – A

Q.1. “Over the decades, new issues have assumed importance in the archaeology of Harappa.” Give two evidences to justify the statement.

Answer: Over the decades, new issues have assumed importance in the archaeology of Hajrappa. Where some archaeologists are often,keen to obtain a cultural sequence, others try to understand the logic underlying the location of specific sites. They also grapple with the wealth of artefacts, trying to figure out the functions these may have served. Specialists are using modern scientific techniques including surface exploration to recover traces of the civilization as well to minutely analyse every scrap of available evidence.

 

Q.2. State any two features of Akbar Nama.

Answer: (i) The author of Akbar Nama(the chronicle of a King), Abu’l Fazl who was a court historian in the reign of Akbar. The Mughal chronicle is based on a range of sources including actual records of events, official documents and oral testimonies of knowledgeable person.

(ii) The AkbarNama is divided into three books of which the first two are chronicles and the third book is the Ain-i-Akbari. The Akbar Nama provides a detailed description of Akbar’s reign in the traditional diachronic sense of recording politically significant events as well as synchronic picture of all aspects of Akbar’s empire-geographic social administrative and cultural without reference to chronology.

 

Q.3. Why did Jaipal Singh plead for the protection of tribes in the Constituent Assembly ? Explain any two reasons. 

OR 

Q.3. Explain the ideals expressed in ‘Objectives Resolution’ introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Answer: Jaipal Singh plead for the protection of tribes in the Constitutional Assembly because:

(i) Tribes had been dispossessed of the land they had settled, deprived of their forests and pastures, and forced to move in search of new homes.

(ii) Perceiving them as primitive and backward, the rest of society had spurned them.

Through these points Jaipal Singh wanted the society to mix with the tribes and was not asking for separate electorates, but he felt that reservation of seats in the legislature was essential to allow tribals to represent themselves.

OR

Answer: On 13th December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly. It proclaimed India to be an ‘Independent Sovereign Republic’, and guaranteed its citizens justice, equality and freedom, and assured that adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and Depressed and Other Backward Classes.

 

Part – B

Q.4. “Many reconstructions of Harappan religion are made on assumptions and archaeological interpretation.” Substantiate the statement.

Answer: (i) Early archaeologists thought that certain objects which seemed unusual or unfamiliar may have had a religious significance. These included terracotta figurines of women, heavily jewelled some with elaborate head-dresses, regarded as mother goddesses.

(ii) Rare stone statutory of men in an almost standardised posture, seated with one hand on the knee such as ‘priest king’ was also similarly classified.

(iii) Same structures have been assigned of ritual significance which include great bath and fire altars found at Kalibangan and Lothal.

(iv) Attempts have also been made to reconstruct religious beliefs and practices by examining seals, some of which seem to depict ritual scenes. Others, with plant motifs, are thought to indicate nature worship. Some animals — such as the one-horned animal, often called the ‘unicorn — depicted on seals seem to be mythical, composite creatures. In some seals, a figure shown seated cross-legged in a yogic posture, sometimes surrounded by animals, has been regarded as a depiction of ‘proto-Shiva’, that is, an early form of one of the major deities of HinduisnvBesides, conical stone objects have been ‘ classified as lingas.

 

Q.5. Examine any two evidences found by the archaeologist B.B. Lai after excavation at a village named Hastinapur in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

Answer: In 1951-52, the archaeologist B.B. Lai excavated at a village named Hastinapur in Meerut (Uttar Pradesh). While the similarity in names could be coincidental, the location of the sites in the Upper Ganga Doab, where the Kuru kingdom was situated, suggests that it may have been the capital of the Kurus. Lai found evidence of five occupational levels, of which the second and third are of interest to us.

Lal noted about the houses in the second phase that within the limited area excavated, no definite plans of houses were obtained, but walls of mud and mud-bricks were duly encountered. The discovery of mud-plaster with prominent reed-marks suggested that some of the houses had reed walls plastered over the mud. For the third phase, Lai noted that houses of this period were built of mud-bricks as well as burnt bricks. Soaked jars and brick drains were used for draining out refuse water, while terracotta ring-wells may have been used both as wells and drainage pits. 

 

Q.6. Describe the beliefs of Virashaiva tradition in Karnataka.

Answer: The Virashaivas or Lingayats worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga, and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on a loop strung over the left shoulder. Those who are revered include the jangama or wandering monks. Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world.

Therefore, they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead. They challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by the Brahamanas. They questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them followers amongst those who were marginalised by the Brahmanical social order. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices that were disapproved in the Dharmashastras, such as post-puberty marriage and remarriage of widows. The understanding of Virashaiva tradition is derived from Vachanas (oral sayings) composed in Kannada by women and men who joined the movement.

 

Q.7. Analyse the rituals associated with Mahanavami Dibba at the Royal Centre in Vijayanagar. 

OR

Q.7. Analyse the main features of Amara-Nayaka System which was introduced in Vijayanagara Empire.

Answer: Rituals associated with the structure probably coincided with Mahanavami of the ten-day Hindu festival during the autumn season. The Vijayanagara kings displayed their prestige, power and suzerainty on this occasion. The ceremonies performed on the occasion included image worship, worship of the state horse, and the sacrifice of buffaloes and other animals. 

Dances, wrestling matches, and processions of caparisoned horses, elephants and chariots and soldiers, as well as ritual presentations before the king and his guests by the chief nayakas and subordinate kings marked the occasion. These ceremonies were imbued with deep symbolic meanings. On the last day of the festival the king inspected his army and the armies of the nayakas in a grand ceremony in an open field. On this occasion the kings accepted rich gifts from the nayakas.

OR

Answer: The Amara-Nayaka System was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by Raya.

They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area. They retained a part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works. They sent tribute to the king annually and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty.

 

Q.8. Why was the Colonial Government keen on carrying out regular surveys and mapping various parts of the country ? Explain.

OR

Q.8. Why did Taluqdars and Sepoys of Awadh join )the Revolt of 1857 ? Explain.

Answer: Colonial rule was based on the production of enormous amounts of data. The British kept detailed records of their trading activities in order to regulate their commercial affairs. To keep track of life in the growing cities, they carried out regular surveys, gathered statistical data, and published various official reports. From the early years, the colonial government was keen on mapping.

Good maps were necessary to understand the landscape and know the topography. This knowledge would allow better control over the region. When towns began to grow, maps were prepared not only to plan the development of these towns but also to develop commerce and consolidate power. The town maps give information regarding the location of hills, rivers and vegetation, all important for planning structures for defence purposes. They also show the location of the ghats, density and quality of houses and alignment of roads, used to gauge commercial possibilities and plan strategies of taxation.

OR

Answer: The annexation by the British not only displaced the Nawab but also dispossessed the taluqdars of Awadh. The countryside of Awadh was dotted with the estates and forts of taluqdars who for many generations had controlled land and power in the countryside. Before the coming of the British, taluqdars maintained armed retainers, built forts, and enjoyed a degree of autonomy, as long as they accepted the suzerainty of the Nawab and paid the revenue of their taluq. Some of the bigger taluqdars had as many as 12,000 foot-soldiers and even the smaller ones had about 200. The British were unwilling to tolerate the power of the taluqdars.Immediately after the annexation, the taluqdars were  disarmed and their forts were destroyed.

The sepoys had complained for decades over low levels of pay and the difficulty of getting a leave. In the 1840s, when the sepoys who had a friendly relationships with the British officers then began to change. The officers developed a sense of superiority and started treating the sepoys as their racial inferiors, riding roughshod over their sensibilities. Abuse and physical violence became common and thus the distance between sepoys and officers grew. Trust was replaced by suspicion. The episode of the greased cartridges was a classic example of this.

 

Q.9. “The initiatives in Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda marked Gandhiji out as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for the poor.” Substantiate the statement.

Answer: Gandhiji in the last month of the year 1916 was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At the annual Congress held in Lucknow, Gandhiji was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar, who told about the harsh treatment by the British indigo planters.

After this information, Mahatma Gandhi had to spend much of 1917 in Champaran, seeking to obtain freedom for the peasants, security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. The following year, 1918, Gandhiji was involved in two campaigns in his home state of Gujarat. First, he intervened better working conditions for the textile mill workers in Ahmedabad. Then he joined the peasants in Kheda, in asking the state for the remission of taxes following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives in Champarari, Ahmedabad and Kheda marked Gandhiji out as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for the poor.

 

Part – C

Q.10. “Buddhism grew rapidly both during the lifetime of the Buddha and after his death.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. 

OR

Q.10. “Among the best preserved monuments of the 600 BCE to 600 CE is the Stupa at Sanchi.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments in the context of its sculptural features and conservation policy taken up in the nineteenth century.

Answer: Gautam Buddha founded Buddhism in the 6th century BCE. The religion became popular during the lifetime of Buddha and continue to spread beyond India after his death. The reason for the popularity and propagation of Buddhism was its message and its simplicity.

People did not find its teachings difficult to understand. Local language was used by the Sangh to spread it. In fact, Gautam Buddha used to speak in the Prakrit language rather than in Sanskrit. Buddha was against any rituals so he did away with them. People found it easy to follow this philosophy. Asoka and later on other kings accepted Buddhism as their religion, because it was a powerful creed at that time.

Buddha did not believe in caste system and treated everyone equally which meant the people of the lower caste were happy. Buddhism attached importance to conduct and values rather than claims of superiority based on birth. They emphasised on ‘meta’ (fellow feeling) and ‘karuna’ (compassion) ‘ especially for those who were younger and weaker than oneself. These ideas drew men and women to the fold of Buddhism. A body of followers of Buddha was founded in an organization known as ‘Sangha.’ Followers came from many social groups which included kings, wealthy men gajapatis and humbler folk.

The teachings of Buddha were written in Tripitakas, or the Three basket. Buddhist Sangha was quick to spread the message of Buddha to different parts of India and abroad. Buddhism was opposed to customs and rituals as was done in Brahmanism.

OR

Answer: Stupas were sacred places where the relics of the Buddha such as his bodily remains or objects used by him were buried.

According to a Buddhist text known as the Ashokavadana. Ashoka distributed portions of the Buddha’s relics to every important town and ordered the construction of stupas over them. By the second century BCE a number of Stupas, like Sanchi and others had been built.

Art historians have carefully studied the sculpture at Sanchi and identified it as a scene from the Vessantara Jataka.

The empty seat was meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha, and the stupa was meant to represent the Mahaparinirvana. Another frequently used symbol was the wheel. This stood for the first sermon of the Buddha, delivered at Sarnath. The tree symbolises an event in the life of the Buddha. According to popular belief, Shalabhanjika was a woman whose touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit. It is likely that this was regarded as an auspicious symbol and integrated into the decoration of the stupa. Animals were after used as symbols of human attributes. Elephants (signify strength and wisdom), horses, monkeys and battle scenes are also, engraved at the stupa.

While some historians identify the figure as Maya, the mother of the Buddha, others identify her with a popular goddess, Gajalakshmi—literally, the goddess of good fortune—who is associated with elephants. Serpent found on several pillars seems to be derived from other popular traditions.

Conservation policy taken up in the nineteenth century:

The rulers of Bhopal in the 19th century, Shahjehan Begum and her successor Sultan Jehan Begum, provided money for the preservation of the ancient site. John Marshall dedicated his important volumes on Sanchi to Sultan Jehan. She funded the museum and publication of the volumes on Sanchi written by John Marshall.

French sought ruler Shahjehan Begum’s permission to take away the eastern gateway of Sanchi Stupa but both French and the English were satisfied with carefully prepared plaster cast copies and the original remained at the site.

 

Q.11. Describe the perspective of Ibn Battuta and Francois Bernier on the condition of women in the Indian subcontinent. 

OR

Q.11. Describe Bernier’s views on the land-ownership of Mughals.

Answer: Ibn Battuta’s account, Rihla, states that female slaves were in the service of the Sultan who were experts in music and dance.

Ibn Battuta himself enjoyed their performances at the wedding of the Sultan’s sister. Female slaves were also employed by the Sultan to keep a watch on his nobles.

They entered the house unannounced. They communicate all the information to the Sultan. They were captured in raids and expedition. They were openly sold in markets, like any other commodity and were also given as gifts. Beriner highlighted the ill treatment of women in India. He described the practice of Sati. He chose his practice as a crucial marker of difference between Western and Eastern societies.

OR

Answer: Bernier’s description of land ownership of Mughals:

  1. Berniers said that there was no private property during Mughal India.
  2. He believed in the virtues of private property.
  3. He saw crown ownership as harmful for both state and the people.
  4. He thought Mughal emperors owned the entire land.
  5. This “had disastrous consequences for the state, and society.
  6. Owing to crown ownership the land holders could not pass the property to their children.
  7. They were averse to long term investment in the sustenance and expansion of production. 
  8. This had led to uniform ruination of agriculture.
  9. The French philosopher Montesquieu used this account to develop the idea of oriental despotism according to which rulers in Asia (the Orient or East) enjoyed absolute authority over their subjects who were kept in conditions of subjugation and poverty arguing that all land belonged to the king and the private property was nonexistent.

 

Q.12. Explain the events that led to the communal politics and Partition of India. 

OR

Q.12. Explain the strengths and limitations of oral testimonies in the understanding of Partition of India.

Answer: The differences between the communal political parties were creating a divide that later on became difficult to bridge. Not only this, the British government began playing one party against the other to weaken the national movement and prolong their stay in India.

(i) Right from the beginning, the British followed the policy of divide and rule. Before the coming of the British, the Hindus and the Muslims lived happily in India. There was unity, mutual cooperation and brotherhood among them.

(ii) To weaken the National Movement, the government actively encouraged the Muslim League to follow their communal demands. In fact, they got some Muslim leaders to form the League in 1905, after the Partition of Bengal. Also the League’s proposal for a coalition government in the united provinces was rejected by the Congress after the provincial election of 1937.

(iii) The role of the political leaders was also responsible for the partition of India. Prominent among them was Jinnah, who lead the Muslim League and passed the Lahore Resolution Remanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas that gave birth to a new nation called Pakistan.

(iv) During the 1920s and early 1930s tension grew around a number of issues. Muslims were angered by ‘music-before-mosque’, by the cow protection movement formation of the Hindu Mahasabha in 1915 and by the efforts of the Arya Samaj to bring back to the Hindu fold (shuddhi) those who had recently converted to Islam.

(v) Hindus were angered by the rapid spread of tabligh (propaganda) and tanzim (organisation) after 1923.

(vi) Post War Developments : During 1945 the British agreed to create an entirely Indian Central Executive Council except for the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces, as a preliminary step towards full independence. Discussions about the transfer of power broke down due to Jinnah’s unrelenting demand that the League had an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members of the Executive Council and that there should be a kind of communal veto in the Council.

(vii) Failure of the Cabinet : Mission (March 1946) was short lived as the Muslim League wanted the grouping to be compulsory, with sections B and C developing into strong entities with the right to secede from the Union in the future.

(viii) Direct Action Day : After withdrawing its support to the Cabinet Mission plan, the Muslim League decided on ‘Direct Action’ for winning its demand for Pakistan. It announced on 16 August 1946 as Direct Action Day. On this day, riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousand people dead. By March 1947 violence spread to many parts of Northern India.

(ix) Withdrawal of law and order from 1946 to 1947: There was a complete breakdown of authority in the city of Amritsar. British officials did not know how to handle this situation: 

They were unwilling to take decisions, and hesitant to intervene. When panic-stricken people appealed for help, British Officials asked them to contact Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabh Bhai Patel or M. A. Jinnah. Nobody knew who could exercise authority and power. The top leadership of the Indian parties, barring Mahatma Gandhi, were involved in negotiations regarding independence while many Indian civil servants in the affected provinces feared for the own lives and property. The British were busy preparing to quit India.

(x) Compounded Problems : Problems compounded because Indian soldiers and policemen came to act as Hindus, Muslims or Sikhs. As communal tension mounted, the professional commitment of those in uniform could not be relied upon. In many places not only did policemen help their co-religionists but they also attacked members of other communities.

OR

Answer: The strengths of oral testimonies in the understanding of Partition of India :

  1. Oral history helps us grasp experiences and memories in detail.
  2. It enables historians to write richly textured, vivid accounts of what happened to people during events such as Partition which would be impossible to extract this kind of information from government documents.
  3. It also allows historians to broaden the boundaries of their discipline about the lived experiences of the poor and the powerless. For example, about Latif’s father, the women of Thoa Khala.
  4. Moving beyond the actions of the well-off and the well-known, the oral history of Partition has succeeded in exploring the experiences of those men and women that were ignored, taken for granted, or mentioned only in passing in mainstream history.
  5. Oral narratives memoirs, diaries, family histories first hand written accounts help to understand the trials and tribulations of ordinary people during the partition of the country. Memories and experiences shape the reality of an event.

Oral testimonies tell us about the day to day experiences of those affected by the government decision to divide the country

The limitations of oral testimonies is the understanding of Partition of India :

  1. Many historians believed that oral data seem to lack concreteness and the chronology they yield may have been imprecise. Historians argue that the uniqueness of personal experience makes generalisation difficult: a large picture cannot be built from such micro-evidence, and one witness is no witness.
  2. They also think that oral accounts are concerned with tangential issues, and that the small individual experiences which remain in memory are irrelevant to the unfolding of larger processes of history.
  3. If history has to accord presence to the ordinary and powerless, then the oral history of Partition is not concerned with tangential matters.
  4. The experiences it relates are central to the story, so much so that oral sources should be used to check other sources and vice versa.

 

Part – D

Q.13. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : Prabhavati Gupta and the village of Danguna

This is what Prabhavati Gupta states in her inscription:

Prabhavati Gupta … commands the gramakutumbinas (householders/peasants living in the village),

Brahmanas and others living in the village of Danguna…

“Be it known to you that on the twelfth (lunar day) of the bright (fortnight) of Karttika, we have, in order to increase our religious merit donated this village with the pouring out of water, to the Acharya

(teacher) Chanalasvamin…. You should obey all (his) commands ….

We confer on (him) the following exemptions typical r of an agrahara…. (this village is) not to be entered

by soldiers and policeman; (it is) exempt from (the obligation to provide) grass, (animal) hides as seats, and charcoal (to touring royal officers); exempt from (the royal prerogative of) purchasing fermenting liquor and digging (salt); exempt from (the right to) mines and khadira trees; exempt from (the obligation to supply) flowers and milk; (it is donated) together with (the right to) hidden treasures and deposits (and) together with major and minor taxes ”

This charger has been written in the thirteenth (regnal) year. (It has been) engraved by Chakradasa.

(a) How did Prabhavati Gupta show her authority through the inscription ?

(b) How did the inscription gives us an idea about the rural population ?

(c) Examine the importance of the charter issued by Prabhavati Gupta.

Answer: (a) Her authority is reflected in the language used in the inscription.

(b) The inscription gives us information about the rural.population as the inscription addresses the ‘householders/peasants living in the village, the Brahmanas and others living in the village of Danguna.

(c) Charter was a command or order for all living in the village and they had to obey the commands. It provides insight into the relationship between cultivators and the state. It also gives an idea about rural population who were expected to provide a range of produce to the king and his representatives.

 

Q.14. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Nobles at Court

The Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate, resident at the court of Akbar, noticed :

In order to prevent the great nobles becoming insolent through the unchallenged enjoyment of power, the King summons them to court and gives them imperious commands, as though they were his slaves. The obedience to these commands ill suits their exalted rank and dignity.

(a) Examine the relationship between Akbar and his nobles. 

(b) How do you think that the nobility was an important pillar of the Mughal State ?

(c) Explain the observation of the Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate regarding this relationship.

Answer:

(a) The king would summon the nobles to the court and give them imperial commands as though they were his slaves. This was to prevent the great nobles from becoming insolent through unchallenged enjoyment of power. The king granted titles to men of merit; awards were also given.

(b) The nobility was an important pillar of the Mughal state as they were recruited from diverse ethnic and religious groups to aid in effective administration. The nobles participated in military campaigns with their armies and also served as officers of the empire in the provinces.

(c) The Jesuit Priest Father Antonio Monserrate observe that the members of the Jesuit mission interpreted the emperor’s open interest in the doctrines of Christianity as a sign of his acceptance of their faith. This could be understood in relation to the intolerant religious atmosphere that existed in Europe at the time. High respect shown by Akbar towards the members of the Jesuit mission impressed them deeply.

 

Q.15. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Buchanan on the Santhals Buchanan wrote :

They are very clever in clearing new lands, but live meanly. Their huts have no fence, and the walls are made of small sticks placed upright, close together and plastered within with clay. They are small and slovenly, and too flat-roofed, with very little arch.

(a) Examine the role of Buchanan as an agent of the East India Company ? 

(b) Analyse the economic activities of Santhals. 

(c) How did Buchanan describe the living conditions of Santhals ? 

OR

Q.15. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

How debts mounted

In a petition to the Deccan Riots Commission a ryot explained how the system of loans worked :

A sowkar lends his debtor ₹ 100 on bond at ₹ 3-2 annas per cent per mensem. The latter agrees to pay the amount within eight days from the passing of the bond. Three years after the stipulated time for repaying the amount, the sowkar takes from his debtor another bond for the principal and interest together at the same rate of interest, and allows him 125 days’ time to liquidate the debt. After the lapse of 3 years and 15 days a third bond is passed by the debtor …. (this process is repeated) at the end of 12 years … his interest on ₹ 1,000 amounts to ₹ 2,028-10 annas-3 paise.

(a) For what purpose did ryots get loans from money lenders ?

(b) How did the ryot explain the system of loans ?

(c) How do you think that the way of borrowing money by the ryots brought misery to them ? 

Answer: Buchanan on that Santhals :

(a) Buchanan was employed by the East India Company. He marched everywhere with a large army of people—draughtsmen, surveyors, palanquin bearers, coolies, etc. As an agent of the East India Company, Buchanan had to report on the activity of the Santhals.

(b) (i) The Santhals cultivated a range of commercial crops for the market.

(ii) The dealt with traders and moneylenders as well.

(c) According to Buchanan, the Santhals had very little needs. They lived in simple huts made-up of small sticks and plastered with mud. The design of the huts was simple with flat roofs and no arches. The huts were built small and dishevelled. They had no fence.

OR

Answer: How debts mounted

(a) They needed loans even to buy their everyday needs and meet their production expenditure. Cultivators required loans for extending their average, moving into new areas, and transforming pasture land into cultivated fields. But to expand cultivation peasants needed more ploughs and cattle. They needed money to buy seeds and land. For this they had to turn to the moneylenders for loans.

(b) The sowkar (sahukar) lends his debtor Rs. 100 on bond at Rs. 3-2 annas per cent per mensem. The latter agrees to pay the amount within eight days from the passing of the bond. Three years after the stipulated time for repaying the amount, the sowkar takes from his debtor another bond for the principal and interest together at the same rate of interest, and allows him a period of 125 days to liquidate the debt. After the lapse of 3 years and 15 days, a third bond is passed by the debtor. This process is repeated at the end of 12 years and his interest in Rs. 1000 amounts to Rs. 2028—10 annas-3 paise.

(c) Over time, the ryots and peasants came to associate the misery of their lives with the new regime of bonds and deeds. They were made to sign and put thumb impressions on documents, but they did not know what they were actually signing. They had no idea of the clauses that moneylenders inserted in the bonds. They feared the written word. But they had no choice because to survive they needed loans, and moneylenders were unwilling to give loans without legal bonds.

 

Part – E

Q.16. (a) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following appropriately :

(a) Dandi—a centre of national movement.

                                OR

(a)Masulipatnam-a city under British control in 1857.

(b) Panipat-a territory under Mughals.

                              OR

(b) On the same political outline map of India, three places have been marked as A, B and C which are related to matured Harappan. 

Answer:

 

 

 

 

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